As Introduced

125th General Assembly
Regular Session
2003-2004
H. B. No. 95


Representative Calvert 



A BILL
To amend sections 9.01, 9.83, 101.82, 102.02, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 117.45, 119.035, 121.04, 121.084, 122.011, 122.04, 122.08, 122.17, 122.25, 122.651, 122.658, 122.87, 122.88, 123.01, 124.03, 125.05, 125.15, 125.91, 125.92, 125.93, 125.95, 125.96, 125.98, 126.11, 127.16, 131.23, 131.35, 147.01, 147.37, 149.011, 149.33, 149.331, 149.332, 149.333, 149.34, 149.35, 153.65, 163.06, 164.27, 165.09, 173.14, 173.20, 173.21, 173.26, 173.55, 173.57, 175.03, 175.21, 175.22, 183.02, 183.28, 307.202, 307.86, 307.98, 307.981, 307.987, 311.17, 317.32, 319.302, 321.24, 323.01, 323.13, 323.152, 329.03, 329.04, 329.05, 329.051, 329.06, 340.03, 505.69, 715.013, 717.01, 718.01, 718.02, 718.03, 718.05, 901.17, 901.21, 902.11, 921.151, 927.69, 1309.109, 1321.21, 1333.99, 1501.04, 1502.02, 1503.011, 1503.05, 1503.99, 1509.06, 1509.08, 1513.02, 1513.07, 1513.13, 1513.131, 1513.14, 1513.16, 1514.021, 1514.071, 1514.09, 1514.10, 1519.05, 1521.06, 1521.063, 1531.26, 1533.08, 1533.10, 1533.101, 1533.11, 1533.111, 1533.112, 1533.12, 1533.13, 1533.151, 1533.19, 1533.23, 1533.301, 1533.32, 1533.35, 1533.40, 1533.54, 1533.631, 1533.632, 1533.71, 1533.82, 1561.31, 1561.35, 1561.351, 1561.51, 1563.13, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2101.16, 2117.06, 2117.25, 2151.3529, 2151.3530, 2151.83, 2151.84, 2305.234, 2329.66, 2505.13, 2715.041, 2715.045, 2716.13, 2743.02, 2915.01, 2921.13, 2925.44, 2933.43, 2935.01, 2949.091, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.01, 3123.952, 3125.12, 3125.25, 3301.33, 3301.52, 3301.53, 3301.54, 3301.55, 3301.57, 3301.58, 3301.80, 3301.801, 3313.979, 3314.074, 3316.08, 3317.012, 3317.013, 3317.022, 3317.023, 3317.024, 3317.029, 3317.0213, 3317.0217, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.064, 3317.07, 3317.10, 3317.11, 3317.16, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3323.16, 3332.04, 3333.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.18, 3501.30, 3505.08, 3517.092, 3701.021, 3701.022, 3701.141, 3701.145, 3702.31, 3702.68, 3702.74, 3705.23, 3705.24, 3709.09, 3710.05, 3711.021, 3721.02, 3721.19, 3721.56, 3722.15, 3722.16, 3727.17, 3733.43, 3733.45, 3734.02, 3734.05, 3734.12, 3734.123, 3734.124, 3734.18, 3734.28, 3734.42, 3734.44, 3734.46, 3734.57, 3735.67, 3735.671, 3737.81, 3745.04, 3745.11, 3745.14, 3745.40, 3746.13, 3747.16, 3748.07, 3748.13, 3770.07, 3770.10, 3770.99, 3773.33, 3773.43, 3781.19, 4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.04, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.15, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.20, 4104.41, 4104.44, 4104.45, 4104.46, 4105.17, 4112.15, 4115.03, 4117.02, 4117.10, 4117.14, 4123.27, 4123.41, 4141.04, 4141.09, 4141.23, 4301.12, 4301.30, 4301.42, 4301.43, 4303.02, 4303.021, 4303.03, 4303.04, 4303.05, 4303.06, 4303.07, 4303.08, 4303.09, 4303.10, 4303.11, 4303.12, 4303.121, 4303.13, 4303.14, 4303.141, 4303.15, 4303.151, 4303.16, 4303.17, 4303.171, 4303.18, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.183, 4303.184, 4303.19, 4303.20, 4303.201, 4303.202, 4303.203, 4303.204, 4303.21, 4303.22, 4303.23, 4303.231, 4305.01, 4503.06, 4505.06, 4509.60, 4511.75, 4707.071, 4707.072, 4707.10, 4709.12, 4717.07, 4717.09, 4719.01, 4723.06, 4723.08, 4723.082, 4725.44, 4725.45, 4725.48, 4725.50, 4725.51, 4725.52, 4725.57, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4734.15, 4736.12, 4741.17, 4743.05, 4747.05, 4747.06, 4747.07, 4747.10, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4759.08, 4771.22, 4779.08, 4779.17, 4779.18, 4903.24, 4905.79, 4905.91, 4919.79, 4931.45, 4931.47, 4931.48, 4973.17, 4981.01, 4981.03, 4981.031, 4981.032, 4981.033, 4981.04, 4981.06, 4981.07, 4981.08, 4981.09, 4981.091, 4981.10, 4981.11, 4981.12, 4981.13, 4981.131, 4981.14, 4981.15, 4981.16, 4981.17, 4981.18, 4981.19, 4981.20, 4981.21, 4981.22, 4981.23, 4981.25, 4981.26, 4981.28, 4981.29, 4981.30, 4981.31, 4981.32, 4981.33, 4981.34, 4981.35, 4981.361, 5101.11, 5101.14, 5101.141, 5101.142, 5101.144, 5101.145, 5101.146, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.21, 5101.211, 5101.212, 5101.22, 5101.24, 5101.36, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.611, 5101.62, 5101.63, 5101.65, 5101.67, 5101.68, 5101.69, 5101.70, 5101.75, 5101.80, 5101.83, 5101.97, 5101.99, 5103.031, 5103.033, 5103.034, 5103.036, 5103.037, 5103.038, 5103.0312, 5103.0313, 5103.0314, 5103.0315, 5103.0316, 5103.154, 5104.01, 5104.011, 5104.02, 5104.30, 5104.32, 5104.42, 5107.02, 5107.30, 5107.37, 5107.40, 5107.60, 5108.01, 5108.03, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5108.09, 5108.10, 5111.019, 5111.0112, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.03, 5111.06, 5111.111, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.20, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.22, 5111.231, 5111.25, 5111.252, 5111.26, 5111.263, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.34, 5111.85, 5111.87, 5111.872, 5111.94, 5111.99, 5112.03, 5112.08, 5112.17, 5112.31, 5112.99, 5115.01, 5115.02, 5115.03, 5115.04, 5115.05, 5115.07, 5115.10, 5115.11, 5115.13, 5115.15, 5115.20, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5123.01, 5123.051, 5123.19, 5123.61, 5123.801, 5126.042, 5126.12, 5126.31, 5139.36, 5139.87, 5153.16, 5153.163, 5153.60, 5153.69, 5153.72, 5153.78, 5310.15, 5501.03, 5502.13, 5519.01, 5703.054, 5703.19, 5705.19, 5707.03, 5709.01, 5709.20, 5709.21, 5709.22, 5709.25, 5709.26, 5709.27, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.64, 5709.67, 5709.84, 5711.02, 5711.13, 5711.22, 5711.27, 5711.33, 5713.07, 5713.08, 5713.081, 5713.082, 5715.27, 5715.39, 5717.02, 5717.03, 5719.07, 5725.01, 5725.14, 5725.25, 5725.26, 5727.01, 5727.06, 5727.111, 5727.15, 5727.24, 5727.25, 5727.26, 5727.27, 5727.28, 5727.30, 5727.32, 5727.33, 5727.38, 5727.56, 5728.04, 5728.99, 5733.01, 5733.04, 5733.042, 5733.05, 5733.051, 5733.056, 5733.057, 5733.059, 5733.06, 5733.065, 5733.066, 5733.069, 5733.09, 5733.18, 5733.22, 5733.33, 5733.39, 5733.40, 5733.45, 5733.98, 5735.05, 5735.14, 5735.15, 5735.19, 5735.23, 5735.26, 5735.291, 5735.30, 5735.99, 5739.01, 5739.011, 5739.02, 5739.03, 5739.071, 5739.12, 5739.17, 5739.33, 5741.01, 5741.02, 5743.02, 5743.32, 5745.01, 5745.02, 5745.04, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 5747.05, 5747.057, 5747.08, 5747.09, 5747.30, 5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 6101.09, 6109.21, 6111.044, 6111.06, 6115.09, 6301.05, and 6301.07; to amend, for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses, sections 3301.33 (3301.40), 3701.145 (3701.0210), 4104.46 (4104.48), 4981.01 (5507.01), 4981.03 (5507.03), 4981.031 (5507.031), 4981.032 (5507.032), 4981.033 (5507.033), 4981.04 (5507.04), 4981.05 (5507.05), 4981.06 (5507.06), 4981.07 (5507.07), 4981.08 (5507.08), 4981.09 (5507.09), 4981.091 (5507.091), 4981.10 (5507.10), 4981.11 (5507.11), 4981.12 (5507.12), 4981.13 (5507.13), 4981.131 (5507.131), 4981.14 (5507.14), 4981.15 (5507.15), 4981.16 (5507.16), 4981.17 (5507.17), 4981.18 (5507.18), 4981.19 (5507.19), 4981.20 (5507.20), 4981.21 (5507.21), 4981.22 (5507.22), 4981.23 (5507.23), 4981.25 (5507.25), 4981.26 (5507.26), 4981.28 (5507.28), 4981.29 (5507.29), 4981.30 (5507.30), 4981.31 (5507.31), 4981.32 (5507.32), 4981.33 (5507.33), 4981.34 (5507.34), 4981.35 (5507.35), 4981.36 (5507.36), 4981.361 (5507.361), 5101.211 (5101.212), 5101.212 (5101.213), 5108.06 (5108.04), 5108.07 (5108.05), 5111.08 (5111.071), 5111.16 (5111.08), 5111.25 (5111.27), 5111.252 (5123.199), 5111.26 (5111.23), 5111.263 (5111.30), 5111.29 (5111.31), 5111.30 (5111.224), 5111.31 (5111.222), 5111.32 (5111.223), 5111.33 (5111.29), 5115.02 (5115.04), 5115.04 (5115.02), 5115.07 (5115.06), 5115.13 (5115.07), and 5115.15 (5115.23); to enact new sections 718.11, 718.12, 3301.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.46, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5111.16, 5111.173, 5111.221, 5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.252, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.32, and 5733.052, and sections 122.90, 123.152, 123.153, 173.08, 305.28, 317.36, 319.63, 718.021, 718.031, 718.051, 718.111, 718.112, 927.701, 1503.50, 1503.51, 1503.52, 1503.53, 1503.54, 1503.55, 1503.56, 1503.57, 1503.58, 2113.041, 2117.061, 3123.97, 3301.31, 3301.34, 3301.35, 3301.36, 3301.37, 3314.083, 3701.029, 3702.63, 3721.561, 4104.47, 4115.17, 4115.18, 4115.19, 4115.20, 4707.24, 5101.1410, 5101.211, 5101.214, 5101.241, 5101.242, 5101.243, 5101.601, 5103.155, 5108.11, 5108.12, 5111.0113, 5111.025, 5111.172, 5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.176, 5111.177, 5111.206, 5111.211, 5111.253, 5111.254, 5111.256, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.267, 5111.268, 5111.269, 5111.2610, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.913, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5115.12, 5115.13, 5115.14, 5115.22, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.851, 5703.491, 5703.56, 5703.58, 5703.80, 5709.201, 5709.211, 5709.212, 5709.23, 5709.24, 5717.011, 5733.044, 5733.55, 5733.56, 5733.57, 5735.053, 5741.25, 5745.042, and 5745.044; and to repeal sections 122.12, 125.931, 125.932, 125.933, 125.934, 125.935, 131.38, 179.01, 179.02, 179.03, 179.04, 319.311, 718.11, 718.12, 1333.96, 1513.05, 1513.10, 1533.06, 1533.39, 1553.01, 1553.02, 1553.03, 1553.04, 1553.05, 1553.06, 1553.07, 1553.08, 1553.09, 1553.10, 1553.99, 3301.31, 3301.581, 3302.041, 3701.142, 3701.144, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4141.044, 4141.045, 5101.213, 5101.251, 5101.71, 5101.72, 5108.05, 5111.017, 5111.173, 5111.221, 5111.23, 5111.231, 5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.251, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.264, 5111.27, 5111.291, 5111.34, 5115.011, 5115.012, 5115.06, 5115.061, 5502.49, 5709.231, 5709.30, 5709.31, 5709.32, 5709.33, 5709.34, 5709.35, 5709.36, 5709.37, 5709.45, 5709.46, 5709.47, 5709.48, 5709.49, 5709.50, 5709.51, 5709.52, 5709.64, 5709.65, 5709.66, 5727.39, 5727.44, 5733.052, 5733.055, 5733.061, 5733.064, 5733.068, 5733.111, 5733.32, 5733.36, 5733.38, 5733.43, 5733.44, 5735.33, 5739.012, 5739.35, 5741.011, 5741.24, 5743.45, 5743.46, 5747.051, 5747.131, 5747.28, 5747.34, 5747.36, 5747.38, 5747.60, 6111.31, 6111.311, 6111.32, 6111.34, 6111.35, 6111.36, 6111.37, 6111.38, and 6111.39 of the Revised Code; to amend Section 14 of Am. Sub. S.B. 242 of the 124th General Assembly; to amend Section 3 of Am. Sub. H.B. 215 of the 122nd General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 3 of Am. Sub. H.B. 621 of the 122nd General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 27 of Sub H.B. 670 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to repeal section 63.37 of Am. Sub. H.B. 94 of the 124th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to repeal Section 129 of Am. Sub. H.B. 283 of the 123rd General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to repeal Section 3 of S.B. 238 of the 123rd General Assembly; and to repeal Section 11 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to levy taxes and provide for implementation of those levies, to make operating appropriations for the biennium beginning July 1, 2003, and ending June 30, 2005, and to provide authorization and conditions for the operation of state programs; to amend the version of section 921.22 of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect July 1, 2004, to continue the provisions of this act on and after that effective date; to amend the version of section 3332.04 of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect July 1, 2003; to amend the version of section 4511.75 of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2004; to amend the versions of sections 5739.03, 5739.12, and 5741.02 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect July 1, 2003, to continue certain provisions of this act on and after that date.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:
Section 1. That sections 9.01, 9.83, 101.82, 102.02, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 117.45, 119.035, 121.04, 121.084, 122.011, 122.04, 122.08, 122.17, 122.25, 122.651, 122.658, 122.87, 122.88, 123.01, 124.03, 125.05, 125.15, 125.91, 125.92, 125.93, 125.95, 125.96, 125.98, 126.11, 127.16, 131.23, 131.35, 147.01, 147.37, 149.011, 149.33, 149.331, 149.332, 149.333, 149.34, 149.35, 153.65, 163.06, 164.27, 165.09, 173.14, 173.20, 173.21, 173.26, 173.55, 173.57, 175.03, 175.21, 175.22, 183.02, 183.28, 307.202, 307.86, 307.98, 307.981, 307.987, 311.17, 317.32, 319.302, 321.24, 323.01, 323.13, 323.152, 329.03, 329.04, 329.05, 329.051, 329.06, 340.03, 505.69, 715.013, 717.01, 718.01, 718.02, 718.03, 718.05, 901.17, 901.21, 902.11, 921.151, 927.69, 1309.109, 1321.21, 1333.99, 1501.04, 1502.02, 1503.011, 1503.05, 1503.99, 1509.06, 1509.08, 1513.02, 1513.07, 1513.13, 1513.131, 1513.14, 1513.16, 1514.021, 1514.071, 1514.09, 1514.10, 1519.05, 1521.06, 1521.063, 1531.26, 1533.08, 1533.10, 1533.101, 1533.11, 1533.111, 1533.112, 1533.12, 1533.13, 1533.151, 1533.19, 1533.23, 1533.301, 1533.32, 1533.35, 1533.40, 1533.54, 1533.631, 1533.632, 1533.71, 1533.82, 1561.31, 1561.35, 1561.351, 1561.51, 1563.13, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2101.16, 2117.06, 2117.25, 2151.3529, 2151.3530, 2151.83, 2151.84, 2305.234, 2329.66, 2505.13, 2715.041, 2715.045, 2716.13, 2743.02, 2915.01, 2921.13, 2925.44, 2933.43, 2935.01, 2949.091, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.01, 3123.952, 3125.12, 3125.25, 3301.33, 3301.52, 3301.53, 3301.54, 3301.55, 3301.57, 3301.58, 3301.80, 3301.801, 3313.979, 3314.074, 3316.08, 3317.012, 3317.013, 3317.022, 3317.023, 3317.024, 3317.029, 3317.0213, 3317.0217, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.064, 3317.07, 3317.10, 3317.11, 3317.16, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3323.16, 3332.04, 3333.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.18, 3501.30, 3505.08, 3517.092, 3701.021, 3701.022, 3701.141, 3701.145, 3702.31, 3702.68, 3702.74, 3705.23, 3705.24, 3709.09, 3710.05, 3711.021, 3721.02, 3721.19, 3721.56, 3722.15, 3722.16, 3727.17, 3733.43, 3733.45, 3734.02, 3734.05, 3734.12, 3734.123, 3734.124, 3734.18, 3734.28, 3734.42, 3734.44, 3734.46, 3734.57, 3735.67, 3735.671, 3737.81, 3745.04, 3745.11, 3745.14, 3745.40, 3746.13, 3747.16, 3748.07, 3748.13, 3770.07, 3770.10, 3770.99, 3773.33, 3773.43, 3781.19, 4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.04, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.15, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.20, 4104.41, 4104.44, 4104.45, 4104.46, 4105.17, 4112.15, 4115.03, 4117.02, 4117.10, 4117.14, 4123.27, 4123.41, 4141.04, 4141.09, 4141.23, 4301.12, 4301.30, 4301.42, 4301.43, 4303.02, 4303.021, 4303.03, 4303.04, 4303.05, 4303.06, 4303.07, 4303.08, 4303.09, 4303.10, 4303.11, 4303.12, 4303.121, 4303.13, 4303.14, 4303.141, 4303.15, 4303.151, 4303.16, 4303.17, 4303.171, 4303.18, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.183, 4303.184, 4303.19, 4303.20, 4303.201, 4303.202, 4303.203, 4303.204, 4303.21, 4303.22, 4303.23, 4303.231, 4305.01, 4503.06, 4505.06, 4509.60, 4511.75, 4707.071, 4707.072, 4707.10, 4709.12, 4717.07, 4717.09, 4719.01, 4723.06, 4723.08, 4723.082, 4725.44, 4725.45, 4725.48, 4725.50, 4725.51, 4725.52, 4725.57, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4734.15, 4736.12, 4741.17, 4743.05, 4747.05, 4747.06, 4747.07, 4747.10, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4759.08, 4771.22, 4779.08, 4779.17, 4779.18, 4903.24, 4905.79, 4905.91, 4919.79, 4931.45, 4931.47, 4931.48, 4973.17, 4981.01, 4981.03, 4981.031, 4981.032, 4981.033, 4981.04, 4981.06, 4981.07, 4981.08, 4981.09, 4981.091, 4981.10, 4981.11, 4981.12, 4981.13, 4981.131, 4981.14, 4981.15, 4981.16, 4981.17, 4981.18, 4981.19, 4981.20, 4981.21, 4981.22, 4981.23, 4981.25, 4981.26, 4981.28, 4981.29, 4981.30, 4981.31, 4981.32, 4981.33, 4981.34, 4981.35, 4981.361, 5101.11, 5101.14, 5101.141, 5101.142, 5101.144, 5101.145, 5101.146, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.21, 5101.211, 5101.212, 5101.22, 5101.24, 5101.36, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.611, 5101.62, 5101.63, 5101.65, 5101.67, 5101.68, 5101.69, 5101.70, 5101.75, 5101.80, 5101.83, 5101.97, 5101.99, 5103.031, 5103.033, 5103.034, 5103.036, 5103.037, 5103.038, 5103.0312, 5103.0313, 5103.0314, 5103.0315, 5103.0316, 5103.154, 5104.01, 5104.011, 5104.02, 5104.30, 5104.32, 5104.42, 5107.02, 5107.30, 5107.37, 5107.40, 5107.60, 5108.01, 5108.03, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5108.09, 5108.10, 5111.019, 5111.0112, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.03, 5111.06, 5111.111, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.20, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.22, 5111.231, 5111.25, 5111.252, 5111.26, 5111.263, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.34, 5111.85, 5111.87, 5111.872, 5111.94, 5111.99, 5112.03, 5112.08, 5112.17, 5112.31, 5112.99, 5115.01, 5115.02, 5115.03, 5115.04, 5115.05, 5115.07, 5115.10, 5115.11, 5115.13, 5115.15, 5115.20, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5123.01, 5123.051, 5123.19, 5123.61, 5123.801, 5126.042, 5126.12, 5126.31, 5139.36, 5139.87, 5153.16, 5153.163, 5153.60, 5153.69, 5153.72, 5153.78, 5310.15, 5501.03, 5502.13, 5519.01, 5703.054, 5703.19, 5705.19, 5707.03, 5709.01, 5709.20, 5709.21, 5709.22, 5709.25, 5709.26, 5709.27, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.64, 5709.67, 5709.84, 5711.02, 5711.13, 5711.22, 5711.27, 5711.33, 5713.07, 5713.08, 5713.081, 5713.082, 5715.27, 5715.39, 5717.02, 5717.03, 5719.07, 5725.01, 5725.14, 5725.25, 5725.26, 5727.01, 5727.06, 5727.111, 5727.15, 5727.24, 5727.25, 5727.26, 5727.27, 5727.28, 5727.30, 5727.32, 5727.33, 5727.38, 5727.56, 5728.04, 5728.99, 5733.01, 5733.04, 5733.042, 5733.05, 5733.051, 5733.056, 5733.057, 5733.059, 5733.06, 5733.065, 5733.066, 5733.069, 5733.09, 5733.18, 5733.22, 5733.33, 5733.39, 5733.40, 5733.45, 5733.98, 5735.05, 5735.14, 5735.15, 5735.19, 5735.23, 5735.26, 5735.291, 5735.30, 5735.99, 5739.01, 5739.011, 5739.02, 5739.03, 5739.071, 5739.12, 5739.17, 5739.33, 5741.01, 5741.02, 5743.02, 5743.32, 5745.01, 5745.02, 5745.04, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 5747.05, 5747.057, 5747.08, 5747.09, 5747.30, 5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 6101.09, 6109.21, 6111.044, 6111.06, 6115.09, 6301.05, and 6301.07 be amended; that sections 3301.33 (3301.40), 3701.145 (3701.0210), 4104.46 (4104.48), 4981.01 (5507.01), 4981.03 (5507.03), 4981.031 (5507.031), 4981.032 (5507.032), 4981.033 (5507.033), 4981.04 (5507.04), 4981.05 (5507.05), 4981.06 (5507.06), 4981.07 (5507.07), 4981.08 (5507.08), 4981.09 (5507.09), 4981.091 (5507.091), 4981.10 (5507.10), 4981.11 (5507.11), 4981.12 (5507.12), 4981.13 (5507.13), 4981.131 (5507.131), 4981.14 (5507.14), 4981.15 (5507.15), 4981.16 (5507.16), 4981.17 (5507.17), 4981.18 (5507.18), 4981.19 (5507.19), 4981.20 (5507.20), 4981.21 (5507.21), 4981.22 (5507.22), 4981.23 (5507.23), 4981.25 (5507.25), 4981.26 (5507.26), 4981.28 (5507.28), 4981.29 (5507.29), 4981.30 (5507.30), 4981.31 (5507.31), 4981.32 (5507.32), 4981.33 (5507.33), 4981.34 (5507.34), 4981.35 (5507.35), 4981.36 (5507.36), 4981.361 (5507.361), 5101.211 (5101.212), 5101.212 (5101.213), 5108.06 (5108.04), 5108.07 (5108.05), 5111.08 (5111.071), 5111.16 (5111.08), 5111.25 (5111.27), 5111.252 (5123.199), 5111.26 (5111.23), 5111.263 (5111.30), 5111.29 (5111.31), 5111.30 (5111.224), 5111.31 (5111.222), 5111.32 (5111.223), 5111.33 (5111.29), 5115.02 (5115.04), 5115.04 (5115.02), 5115.07 (5115.06), 5115.13 (5115.07), and 5115.15 (5115.23) be amended for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses; that new sections 718.11, 718.12, 3301.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.46, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5111.16, 5111.173, 5111.221, 5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.252, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.32, and 5733.052, and sections 122.90, 123.152, 123.153, 173.08, 305.28, 317.36, 319.63, 718.021, 718.031, 718.051, 718.111, 718.112, 927.701, 1503.50, 1503.51, 1503.52, 1503.53, 1503.54, 1503.55, 1503.56, 1503.57, 1503.58, 2113.041, 2117.061, 3123.97, 3301.31, 3301.34, 3301.35, 3301.36, 3301.37, 3314.083, 3701.029, 3702.63, 3721.561, 4104.47, 4115.17, 4115.18, 4115.19, 4115.20, 4707.24, 5101.1410, 5101.211, 5101.214, 5101.241, 5101.242, 5101.243, 5101.601, 5103.155, 5108.11, 5108.12, 5111.0113, 5111.025, 5111.172, 5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.176, 5111.177, 5111.206, 5111.211, 5111.253, 5111.254, 5111.256, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.267, 5111.268, 5111.269, 5111.2610, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.913, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5115.12, 5115.13, 5115.14, 5115.22, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.851, 5703.491, 5703.56, 5703.58, 5703.80, 5709.201, 5709.211, 5709.212, 5709.23, 5709.24, 5717.011, 5733.044, 5733.55, 5733.56, 5733.57, 5735.053, 5741.25, 5745.042, and 5745.044 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:
Sec. 9.01.  When any officer, office, court, commission, board, institution, department, agent, or employee of the state, or of a county, or of any other political subdivision, who is charged with the duty or authorized or required by law to record, preserve, keep, maintain, or file any record, document, plat, court file, paper, or instrument in writing, or to make or furnish copies of any thereof of them, deems it necessary or advisable, when recording any such document, plat, court file, paper, or instrument in writing, or when making a copy or reproduction of any thereof of them or of any such record, for the purpose of recording or copying, preserving, and protecting the same them, reducing space required for storage, or any similar purpose, to do so by means of any photostatic, photographic, miniature photographic, film, microfilm, or microphotographic process, or perforated tape, magnetic tape, other magnetic means, electronic data processing, machine readable means, or graphic or video display, or any combination thereof of those processes, means, or displays, which correctly and accurately copies, records, or reproduces, or provides a medium of copying, recording, or reproducing, the original record, document, plat, court file, paper, or instrument in writing, such use of any such photographic or electromagnetic of those processes, means, or displays for any such purpose, is hereby authorized. Any such records, copies, or reproductions may be made in duplicate, and such the duplicates shall be stored in different buildings. The film or paper used for this a process shall comply with the minimum standards of quality approved for permanent photographic records by the national bureau of standards. All such records, copies, or reproductions shall carry a certificate of authenticity and completeness, on a form specified by the director of administrative services through the state records administrator program.
Any such officer, office, court, commission, board, institution, department, agent, or employee of the state, of a county, or of any other political subdivision may purchase or rent required equipment for any such photographic process and may enter into contracts with private concerns or other governmental agencies for the development of film and the making of reproductions thereof of film as a part of any such photographic process. When so recorded, or copied or reproduced to reduce space required for storage or filing of such records, said such photographs, microphotographs, microfilms, perforated tape, magnetic tape, other magnetic means, electronic data processing, machine readable means, graphic or video display, or any combination thereof of these processes, means, or displays, or films, or prints made therefrom, when properly identified by the officer by whom or under whose supervision the same they were made, or who has the their custody thereof, have the same effect at law as the original record or of a record made by any other legally authorized means, and may be offered in like manner and shall be received in evidence in any court where such the original record, or record made by other legally authorized means, could have been so introduced and received. Certified or authenticated copies or prints of such photographs, microphotographs, films, microfilms, perforated tape, magnetic tape, other magnetic means, electronic data processing, machine readable means, graphic or video display, or any combination thereof of these processes, means, or displays, shall be admitted in evidence equally with the original photographs, microphotographs, films, or microfilms.
Such photographs, microphotographs, microfilms, or films shall be placed and kept in conveniently accessible, fireproof, and insulated files, cabinets, or containers, and provisions shall be made for preserving, safekeeping, using, examining, exhibiting, projecting, and enlarging the same them whenever requested, during office hours.
All persons utilizing the methods described in this section for keeping records and information shall keep and make readily available to the public the machines and equipment necessary to reproduce the records and information in a readable form.
Sec. 9.83.  (A) The state and any political subdivision may procure a policy or policies of insurance insuring its officers and employees against liability for injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises out of the operation of an automobile, truck, motor vehicle with auxiliary equipment, self-propelling equipment or trailer, aircraft, or watercraft by the officers or employees while engaged in the course of their employment or official responsibilities for the state or the political subdivision. The state is authorized to expend funds to pay judgments that are rendered in any court against its officers or employees and that result from such operation, and is authorized to expend funds to compromise claims for liability against its officers or employees that result from such operation. No insurer shall deny coverage under such a policy, and the state shall not refuse to pay judgments or compromise claims, on the ground that an automobile, truck, motor vehicle with auxiliary equipment, self-propelling equipment or trailer, aircraft, or watercraft was not being used in the course of an officer's or employee's employment or official responsibilities for the state or a political subdivision unless the officer or employee who was operating an automobile, truck, motor vehicle with auxiliary equipment, or self-propelling equipment or trailer is convicted of a violation of section 124.71 of the Revised Code as a result of the same events.
(B) Such funds Funds shall be reserved as are necessary, in the exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The superintendent of insurance may recommend or, if the state requests of the superintendent, shall recommend, a specific amount for any period of time that, in the superintendent's opinion, represents such a judgment.
(C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require the department of administrative services to purchase liability insurance for all state vehicles in a single policy of insurance or to cover all state vehicles under a single plan of self-insurance.
(D) Insurance procured by the state pursuant to this section shall be procured as provided in section 125.03 of the Revised Code.
(E) For purposes of liability insurance procured under this section to cover the operation of a motor vehicle by a prisoner for whom the insurance is procured, "employee" includes a prisoner in the custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction who is enrolled in a work program that is established by the department pursuant to section 5145.16 of the Revised Code and in which the prisoner is required to operate a motor vehicle, as defined in section 4509.01 of the Revised Code, and who is engaged in the operation of a motor vehicle in the course of the work program.
(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the vehicle liability fund. All contributions collected by the director of administrative services under division (I) of this section shall be deposited into the fund. The fund shall be used to provide insurance and self-insurance for the state under this section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to it.
(G) The director of administrative services, through the office of risk management, shall operate the vehicle liability fund on an actuarially sound basis.
(H) Reserves shall be maintained in the vehicle liability fund in any amount that is necessary and adequate, in the exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover potential liability claims, expenses, fees, or damages. Money in the fund may be applied to the payment of liability claims that are filed against the state in the court of claims and determined in the manner provided in Chapter 2743. of the Revised Code. The director of administrative services may procure the services of a qualified actuarial firm for the purpose of recommending the specific amount of money that is required to maintain adequate reserves for a specified period of time.
(I) The director of administrative services shall collect from each state agency or any participating state body its contribution to the vehicle liability fund for the purpose of purchasing insurance or administering self-insurance programs for coverage authorized under this section. The amount of the contribution shall be determined by the director, with the approval of the director of budget and management. It shall be based upon actuarial assumptions and the relative risk and loss experience of each state agency or participating state body. The amount of the contribution also shall include a reasonable sum to cover administrative costs of the department of administrative services.
Sec. 101.82.  As used in sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Agency" means any board, commission, committee, or council, or any other similar state public body required to be established pursuant to state statutes for the exercise of any function of state government and to which members are appointed or elected. "Agency" does not include the following:
(1) The general assembly, or any commission, committee, or other body composed entirely of members thereof of the general assembly;
(2) Any court;
(3) Any public body created by or directly pursuant to the constitution of this state;
(4) The board of trustees of any institution of higher education financially supported in whole or in part by the state;
(5) Any public body that has the authority to issue bonds or notes or that has issued bonds or notes that have not been fully repaid;
(6) The public utilities commission of Ohio;
(7) The consumers' council governing board;
(8) The Ohio board of regents;
(9) Any state board or commission that has the authority to issue any final adjudicatory order that may be appealed to the court of common pleas under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;
(10) Any board of elections;
(11) The board of directors of the Ohio insurance guaranty association and the board of governors of the Ohio fair plan underwriting association;
(12) The Ohio public employees deferred compensation board;
(13) The Ohio retirement study council;
(14) The board of trustees of the Ohio police and fire pension fund, public employees retirement board, school employees retirement board, state highway patrol retirement board, and state teachers retirement board;
(15) The industrial commission.
(B) "Abolish" means to repeal the statutes creating and empowering an agency, remove its personnel, and transfer its records to the department of administrative services pursuant to division (H)(E) of section 149.331 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Terminate" means to amend or repeal the statutes creating and empowering an agency, remove its personnel, and reassign its functions and records to another agency or officer designated by the general assembly.
(D) "Transfer" means to amend the statutes creating and empowering an agency so that its functions, records, and personnel are conveyed to another agency or officer.
(E) "Renew" means to continue an agency, and may include amendment of the statutes creating and empowering the agency, or recommendations for changes in agency operation or personnel.
Sec. 102.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division (H) of this section, every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a state, county, or city office, or the office of member of the United States congress, and every person who is appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an elective office; all members of the state board of education; the director, assistant directors, deputy directors, division chiefs, or persons of equivalent rank of any administrative department of the state; the president or other chief administrative officer of every state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code; the chief executive officer of each state retirement system; all members of the board of commissioners on grievances and discipline of the supreme court and the ethics commission created under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or an educational service center; every person who is elected to or is a candidate for the office of member of a board of education of a city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or of a governing board of an educational service center that has a total student count of twelve thousand or more as most recently determined by the department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code; every person who is appointed to the board of education of a municipal school district pursuant to division (B) or (F) of section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all members of the board of directors of a sanitary district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code and organized wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use that includes two municipal corporations in two counties; every public official or employee who is paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of the board of trustees and the executive director of the tobacco use prevention and control foundation; members of the board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio agricultural and community development foundation; and every other public official or employee who is designated by the appropriate ethics commission pursuant to division (B) of this section shall file with the appropriate ethics commission on a form prescribed by the commission, a statement disclosing all of the following:
(1) The name of the person filing the statement and each member of the person's immediate family and all names under which the person or members of the person's immediate family do business;
(2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this section and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, identification of every source of income, other than income from a legislative agent identified in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, received during the preceding calendar year, in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief description of the nature of the services for which the income was received. If the person filing the statement is a member of the general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of every source of income received in accordance with the following ranges of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand dollars; one thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand dollars; ten thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five thousand dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less than fifty thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but less than one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand dollars or more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be construed to require a person filing the statement who derives income from a business or profession to disclose the individual items of income that constitute the gross income of that business or profession, except for those individual items of income that are attributable to the person's or, if the income is shared with the person, the partner's, solicitation of services or goods or performance, arrangement, or facilitation of services or provision of goods on behalf of the business or profession of clients, including corporate clients, who are legislative agents as defined in section 101.70 of the Revised Code. A person who files the statement under this section shall disclose the identity of and the amount of income received from a person who the public official or employee knows or has reason to know is doing or seeking to do business of any kind with the public official's or employee's agency.
(b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of income and the amount of that income that was received from a legislative agent, as defined in section 101.70 of the Revised Code, during the preceding calendar year, in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief description of the nature of the services for which the income was received. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires the disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, if those clients or patients are legislative agents. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires a person filing the statement who derives income from a business or profession to disclose those individual items of income that constitute the gross income of that business or profession that are received from legislative agents.
(c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are required not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients, patients, or other recipients of professional services except under specified circumstances or generally are required to maintain those types of confidences as privileged communications except under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the name, other identity, or address of a client, patient, or other recipient of professional services if the disclosure would threaten the client, patient, or other recipient of professional services, would reveal details of the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional advice or other services were sought, or would reveal an otherwise privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of professional services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose in the brief description of the nature of services required by division (A)(2)(a) of this section any information pertaining to specific professional services rendered for a client, patient, or other recipient of professional services that would reveal details of the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional advice was sought or would reveal an otherwise privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of professional services.
(3) The name of every corporation on file with the secretary of state that is incorporated in this state or holds a certificate of compliance authorizing it to do business in this state, trust, business trust, partnership, or association that transacts business in this state in which the person filing the statement or any other person for the person's use and benefit had during the preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand dollars at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding calendar year, or the date of disposition, whichever is earlier, or in which the person holds any office or has a fiduciary relationship, and a description of the nature of the investment, office, or relationship. Division (A)(3) of this section does not require disclosure of the name of any bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan association with which the person filing the statement has a deposit or a withdrawable share account.
(4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial interest in real property located within the state, excluding the person's residence and property used primarily for personal recreation;
(5) The names of all persons residing or transacting business in the state to whom the person filing the statement owes, in the person's own name or in the name of any other person, more than one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5) of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure of debts owed by the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession or debts on the person's residence or real property used primarily for personal recreation, except that the superintendent of financial institutions shall disclose the names of all state-chartered savings and loan associations and of all service corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2) of section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent in the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other person owes any money, and that the superintendent and any deputy superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all state-chartered banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject to regulation under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.
(6) The names of all persons residing or transacting business in the state, other than a depository excluded under division (A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one thousand dollars to the person filing the statement, either in the person's own name or to any person for the person's use or benefit. Division (A)(6) of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor the disclosure of debts owed to the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession.
(7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by a member of the general assembly from a legislative agent, received by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar year, except gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of the Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents, children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles, aunts, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person to whom the person filing the statement stands in loco parentis, or received by way of distribution from any inter vivos or testamentary trust established by a spouse or by an ancestor;
(8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or outside this state that is received by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit and that is incurred in connection with the person's official duties, except for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions of a national or state organization to which any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision pays membership dues;
(9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the person participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or at a meeting or convention of a national or state organization to which any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision pays membership dues, that are incurred in connection with the person's official duties and that exceed one hundred dollars aggregated per calendar year;
(10) If the financial disclosure statement is filed by a public official or employee described in division (B)(2) of section 101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised Code who receives a statement from a legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that contains the information described in division (F)(2) of section 101.73 of the Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised Code, all of the nondisputed information contained in the statement delivered to that public official or employee by the legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer under division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised Code. As used in division (A)(10) of this section, "legislative agent," "executive agency lobbyist," and "employer" have the same meanings as in sections 101.70 and 121.60 of the Revised Code.
A person may file a statement required by this section in person or by mail. A person who is a candidate for elective office shall file the statement no later than the thirtieth day before the primary, special, or general election at which the candidacy is to be voted on, whichever election occurs soonest, except that a person who is a write-in candidate shall file the statement no later than the twentieth day before the earliest election at which the person's candidacy is to be voted on. A person who holds elective office shall file the statement on or before the fifteenth day of April of each year unless the person is a candidate for office. A person who is appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in an elective office shall file the statement within fifteen days after the person qualifies for office. Other persons shall file an annual statement on or before the fifteenth day of April or, if appointed or employed after that date, within ninety days after appointment or employment. No person shall be required to file with the appropriate ethics commission more than one statement or pay more than one filing fee for any one calendar year.
The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may extend for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a statement under this section.
A statement filed under this section is subject to public inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics commission except as otherwise provided in this section.
(B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative ethics committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances and discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making procedures of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any class of public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and not specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve a substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion in the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds, enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city, or the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual statement on or before the fifteenth day of April under division (A) of this section. The appropriate ethics commission shall send the public officials or employees written notice of the requirement by the fifteenth day of February of each year the filing is required unless the public official or employee is appointed after that date, in which case the notice shall be sent within thirty days after appointment, and the filing shall be made not later than ninety days after appointment.
Except for disclosure statements filed by members of the board of trustees and the executive director of the tobacco use prevention and control foundation and members of the board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure statements filed under this division with the Ohio ethics commission by members of boards, commissions, or bureaus of the state for which no compensation is received other than reasonable and necessary expenses shall be kept confidential. Disclosure statements filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division (A) of this section by business managers, treasurers, and superintendents of city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school districts or educational service centers shall be kept confidential, except that any person conducting an audit of any such school district or educational service center pursuant to section 115.56 or Chapter 117. of the Revised Code may examine the disclosure statement of any business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of that school district or educational service center. The Ohio ethics commission shall examine each disclosure statement required to be kept confidential to determine whether a potential conflict of interest exists for the person who filed the disclosure statement. A potential conflict of interest exists if the private interests of the person, as indicated by the person's disclosure statement, might interfere with the public interests the person is required to serve in the exercise of the person's authority and duties in the person's office or position of employment. If the commission determines that a potential conflict of interest exists, it shall notify the person who filed the disclosure statement and shall make the portions of the disclosure statement that indicate a potential conflict of interest subject to public inspection in the same manner as is provided for other disclosure statements. Any portion of the disclosure statement that the commission determines does not indicate a potential conflict of interest shall be kept confidential by the commission and shall not be made subject to public inspection, except as is necessary for the enforcement of Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code and except as otherwise provided in this division.
(C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before the applicable filing deadline established under this section, a statement that is required by this section.
(D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that is required to be filed under this section.
(E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section, the statement required by division (A) or (B) of this section shall be accompanied by a filing fee of twenty-five forty dollars.
(2) The statement required by division (A) of this section shall be accompanied by a the following filing fee to be paid by the person who is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any of the following offices:
For state office, except member of the
state board of education $50 65
For office of member of United States
congress or member of general assembly $25
For county office $25 40
For city office $10 25
For office of member of the state board
of education $20 25
For office of member of a city, local,
exempted village, or cooperative
education board of
education or educational service
center governing board $ 5 20
For position of business manager,
treasurer, or superintendent of a
city, local, exempted village, joint
vocational, or cooperative education
school district or
educational service center $ 5 20

(3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge of a court of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a court of record, shall be required to pay the fee required under division (E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.
(4) For any public official who is appointed to a nonelective office of the state and for any employee who holds a nonelective position in a public agency of the state, the state agency that is the primary employer of the state official or employee shall pay the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F) of this section.
(F) If a statement required to be filed under this section is not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to file the statement a late filing fee equal to one-half of the applicable filing fee ten dollars for each day the statement is not filed, except that the total amount of the late filing fee shall not exceed one two hundred fifty dollars.
(G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this section into the general revenue fund of the state.
(2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts, including, but not limited to, fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this section and all moneys it receives from settlements under division (G) of section 102.06 of the Revised Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys credited to the fund shall be used solely for expenses related to the operation and statutory functions of the commission.
(H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or district committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised Code; a presidential elector; a delegate to a national convention; village or township officials and employees; any physician or psychiatrist who is paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code and whose primary duties do not require the exercise of administrative discretion; or any member of a board, commission, or bureau of any county or city who receives less than one thousand dollars per year for serving in that position.
Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall procure from wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated delinquent children for committing within this state an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution and the person in charge of any state institution having custody of a person suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the Revised Code.
(2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of this section and shall include the following information:
(a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of this section;
(b) The style and number of the case;
(c) The date of arrest;
(d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution of the case;
(e) A statement of the original charge with the section of the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated;
(f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the delinquent child.
If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is placed in the bureau's records.
(3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution for the violation of state laws and of all children under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution or in any facility for delinquent children for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, and any other information that the superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the state and its political subdivisions.
(4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense and with respect to all other duties imposed on the bureau under that chapter.
(B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section standard forms for reporting the information required under division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible formats and electronic formats.
(C) The superintendent may operate a center for electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications network to gather and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of law enforcement agencies. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and that are gathered pursuant to those sections.
(D) The information and materials furnished to the superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section and information and materials furnished to any board or person under division (F) or (G) of this section are not public records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(E) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, setting forth the procedure by which a person may receive or release information gathered by the superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary employment service submits a request for a determination of whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed in division (A)(1), (3), (4), or (5), or (6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a single request and only one fee shall be charged.
(F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, as amended.
(2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, the board of education of any school district; the director of mental retardation and developmental disabilities; any county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities; any entity under contract with a county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities; the chief administrator of any chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care home certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start agency; or the executive director of a public children services agency may request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the request, the superintendent shall determine whether that information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that individual. Within thirty days of the date that the superintendent receives a request, the superintendent shall send to the board, entity, or person a report of any information that the superintendent determines exists, including information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall send the board, entity, or person a report of any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.
(b) When a board of education is required to receive information under this section as a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are presented by an individual applying for employment with the district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's employment application documents and shall return the certified copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district only shall accept a certified copy of records of that nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the bureau.
(3) The state board of education may request, with respect to any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 1989, in any position with the state board or the department of education, any information that a school district board of education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request has been received from a school district board of education under division (F)(2) of this section.
(4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request for information that is authorized under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received from a school district board of education under division (F)(2) of this section.
(5) When a recipient of an OhioReads classroom or community reading grant paid under section 3301.86 or 3301.87 of the Revised Code or an entity approved by the OhioReads council requests, with respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing any program or service through an entity approved by the OhioReads council or funded in whole or in part by the grant, the information that a school district board of education is authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request has been received from a school district board of education under division (F)(2)(a) of this section.
(G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is required to be made under section 173.41, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, or 3722.151 of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, the chief administrator of a PASSPORT agency that provides services through the PASSPORT program created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code, home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, adult day-care program operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, or adult care facility may request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that does not involve providing direct care to an older adult, whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the request, the superintendent shall determine whether that information exists and, on request of the administrator requesting information, shall also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that individual. Within thirty days of the date a request is received, the superintendent shall send to the administrator a report of any information determined to exist, including information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall send the administrator a report of any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.
(H) Information obtained by a board, administrator, or other person under this section is confidential and shall not be released or disseminated.
(I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or (G) of this section.
Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 5104.012, 5104.013, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.
(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5123.081 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, pursuant to section 5126.28 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with a county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, or pursuant to section 5126.281 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in a direct services position with an entity contracting with a county board for employment, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.41, 3712.09, 3721.121, or 3722.151 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(3)(a) of this section.
(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency as a person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.
(5) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5111.95 or 5111.96 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with agencies participating in department of job and family services administered waivers or independent providers in department administered home and community-based service programs in a position that involves providing home and community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.12, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.
(6) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(5)(6)(a) of this section.
(6)(7) When conducting a criminal records check upon a request pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, in addition to the determination made under division (A)(1) of this section, the superintendent shall determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.
(7)(8) When conducting a criminal records check on a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of the Revised Code for a person who is a prospective foster caregiver or who is eighteen years old or older and resides in the home of a prospective foster caregiver, the superintendent, in addition to the determination made under division (A)(1) of this section, shall determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of:
(a) Section 2909.02 or 2909.03 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to section 2909.02 or 2909.03 of the Revised Code.
(8)(9) Not later than thirty days after the date the superintendent receives the request, completed form, and fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request any information, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exists with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7), or (8) of this section, as appropriate. The superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request a copy of the list of offenses specified in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7), or (8) of this section, as appropriate. If the request was made under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with regard to an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult, the superintendent shall provide a list of the offenses specified in divisions (A)(4) and (5)(6) of this section.
(B) The superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check requested under section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code as follows:
(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the request, including any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;
(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the request and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau.
(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is required by section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.
(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is required by section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. Any person for whom a records check is required by any of those sections shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.
(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check requested under section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The person making a criminal records request under section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. A person making a request under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code for a criminal records check for an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult shall pay one fee for the request.
(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic method.
(D) A determination whether any information exists that indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1)(a) or (b), (A)(2)(a) or (b), (A)(3)(a) or (b), (A)(4)(a) or (b), (A)(5)(a) or (b), (A)(6), or (A)(7)(a) or (b), or (A)(8)(a) or (b) of this section that is made by the superintendent with respect to information considered in a criminal records check in accordance with this section is valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent makes the determination. During the period in which the determination in regard to a person is valid, if another request under this section is made for a criminal records check for that person, the superintendent shall provide the information that is the basis for the superintendent's initial determination at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.
(E) As used in this section:
(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.
(2) "Home and community-based waiver services" has the same meaning as in section 5111.95 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
(3)(4) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.
Sec. 109.71.  There is hereby created in the office of the attorney general the Ohio peace officer training commission. The commission shall consist of nine members appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate and selected as follows: one member representing the public; two members who are incumbent sheriffs; two members who are incumbent chiefs of police; one member from the bureau of criminal identification and investigation; one member from the state highway patrol; one member who is the special agent in charge of a field office of the federal bureau of investigation in this state; and one member from the department of education, trade and industrial education services, law enforcement training.
As used in sections 109.71 to 109.77 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Peace officer" means:
(1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of the organized police department of a township or municipal corporation, member of a township police district or joint township police district police force, member of a police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, or township constable, who is commissioned and employed as a peace officer by a political subdivision of this state or by a metropolitan housing authority, and whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to protect life and property, and to enforce the laws of this state, ordinances of a municipal corporation, resolutions of a township, or regulations of a board of county commissioners or board of township trustees, or any of those laws, ordinances, resolutions, or regulations;
(2) A police officer who is employed by a railroad company and appointed and commissioned by the governor pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;
(3) Employees of the department of taxation engaged in the enforcement of Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code laws the tax commissioner administers and designated by the tax commissioner for peace officer training for purposes of the delegation of investigation powers under section 5743.45 5703.58 of the Revised Code;
(4) An undercover drug agent;
(5) Enforcement agents of the department of public safety whom the director of public safety designates under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code;
(6) An employee of the department of natural resources who is a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated pursuant to section 1501.013, a park officer designated pursuant to section 1541.10, a forest officer designated pursuant to section 1503.29, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 1531.13, or a state watercraft officer designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code;
(7) An employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;
(8) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;
(9) A police officer who is employed by a hospital that employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by the governor pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;
(10) Veterans' homes police officers designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code;
(11) A police officer who is employed by a qualified nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section 1702.80 of the Revised Code;
(12) A state university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a state university law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on June 19, 1978, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;
(13) A special police officer employed by the department of mental health pursuant to section 5119.14 of the Revised Code or the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code;
(14) A member of a campus police department appointed under section 1713.50 of the Revised Code;
(15) A member of a police force employed by a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code;
(16) Investigators appointed by the auditor of state pursuant to section 117.091 of the Revised Code and engaged in the enforcement of Chapter 117. of the Revised Code;
(17) A special police officer designated by the superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person who was serving as a special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent basis on October 21, 1997, and who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;
(18) A special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a special police officer employed by a port authority on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;
(19) A special police officer employed by a municipal corporation who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission for satisfactory completion of an approved peace officer basic training program and who is employed on a permanent basis on or after the effective date of this amendment March 19, 2003, at a municipal airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the transportation security administration of the United States department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.
(B) "Undercover drug agent" has the same meaning as in division (B)(2) of section 109.79 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Crisis intervention training" means training in the use of interpersonal and communication skills to most effectively and sensitively interview victims of rape.
(D) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section 2901.30 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 117.45.  (A) The auditor of state shall draw warrants against the treasurer of state pursuant to all requests for payment that the director of budget and management has approved under section 126.07 of the Revised Code.
(B) Unless the director of job and family services has provided for the making of payments by electronic benefit transfer, if a financial institution and account have been designated by the participant or recipient, payment by the auditor of state to a participant in the Ohio works first program pursuant to Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code or a recipient of disability financial assistance pursuant to Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the participant or recipient in the financial institution. Payment by the auditor of state to a recipient of benefits distributed through the medium of electronic benefit transfer pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code shall be by electronic benefit transfer. Payment by the auditor of state as compensation to an employee of the state who has, pursuant to section 124.151 of the Revised Code, designated a financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such payments shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the employee. Payment to any other payee who has designated a financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such payment may be made by direct deposit to the account of the payee in the financial institution as provided in section 9.37 of the Revised Code. The auditor of state shall contract with an authorized financial institution for the services necessary to make direct deposits or electronic benefit transfers under this division and draw lump sum warrants payable to that institution in the amount to be transferred. Accounts maintained by the auditor of state or the auditor of state's agent in a financial institution for the purpose of effectuating payment by direct deposit or electronic benefit transfer shall be maintained in accordance with section 135.18 of the Revised Code.
(C) All other payments from the state treasury shall be made by paper warrants or by direct deposit payable to the respective payees. The auditor of state may mail the paper warrants to the respective payees or distribute them through other state agencies, whichever the auditor of state determines to be the better procedure.
(D) If the average per transaction cost the auditor of state incurs in making direct deposits for a state agency exceeds the average per transaction cost the auditor of state incurs in drawing paper warrants for all public offices during the same period of time, the auditor of state may certify the difference in cost and the number of direct deposits for the agency to the director of administrative services. The director shall reimburse the auditor of state for such additional costs and add the amount to the processing charge assessed upon the state agency.
Sec. 119.035.  An agency may appoint an advisory committee to advise the agency concerning its development of a rule, amendment, or rescission, and may otherwise consult with persons representing interests that would be affected by the rule, amendment, or rescission were it actually to be proposed and adopted. Upon an agency's request, the executive director or another officer or employee of the Ohio commission on dispute resolution and conflict management may serve as a group facilitator for, but not as a member of, such an advisory committee.
Sec. 121.04.  Offices are created within the several departments as follows:
In the department of commerce:
Commissioner of securities;
Superintendent of real estate and professional licensing;
Superintendent of financial institutions;
Fire marshal;
Superintendent of labor and worker safety;
Beginning on July 1, 1997,
Superintendent of liquor control;
Superintendent of industrial compliance.

In the department of administrative services:
State architect and engineer;
Equal employment opportunity coordinator.

In the department of agriculture:
Chiefs of divisions as follows:
Administration;
Animal industry;
Dairy;
Food safety;
Plant industry;
Markets;
Meat inspection;
Consumer analytical laboratory;
Amusement ride safety;
Enforcement;
Weights and measures.

In the department of natural resources:
Chiefs of divisions as follows:
Water;
Mineral resources management;
Forestry;
Natural areas and preserves;
Wildlife;
Geological survey;
Parks and recreation;
Watercraft;
Recycling and litter prevention;
Civilian conservation;
Soil and water conservation;
Real estate and land management;
Engineering.

In the department of insurance:
Deputy superintendent of insurance;
Assistant superintendent of insurance, technical;
Assistant superintendent of insurance, administrative;
Assistant superintendent of insurance, research.

Sec. 121.084.  (A) All moneys collected under sections 1333.96, 3783.05, 3791.07, 4104.07, 4104.18, 4104.42, 4104.44, 4104.45, 4105.17, 4105.20, 4169.03, 4171.04, and 5104.051 of the Revised Code, and any other moneys collected by the division of industrial compliance shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the industrial compliance operating fund, which is hereby created. The department of commerce shall use the moneys in the fund for paying the operating expenses of the division and the administrative assessment described in division (B) of this section.
(B) The director of commerce, with the approval of the director of budget and management, shall prescribe procedures for assessing the industrial compliance operating fund a proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department of commerce. The assessment shall be made in accordance with those procedures and be paid from the industrial compliance operating fund to the division of administration fund created in section 121.08 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 122.011.  (A) The department of development shall develop and promote plans and programs designed to assure that state resources are efficiently used, economic growth is properly balanced, community growth is developed in an orderly manner, and local governments are coordinated with each other and the state, and for such purposes may do all of the following:
(1) Serve as a clearinghouse for information, data, and other materials that may be helpful or necessary to persons or local governments, as provided in section 122.07 of the Revised Code;
(2) Prepare and activate plans for the retention, development, expansion, and use of the resources and commerce of the state, as provided in section 122.04 of the Revised Code;
(3) Assist and cooperate with federal, state, and local governments and agencies of federal, state, and local governments in the coordination of programs to carry out the functions and duties of the department;
(4) Encourage and foster research and development activities, conduct studies related to the solution of community problems, and develop recommendations for administrative or legislative actions, as provided in section 122.03 of the Revised Code;
(5) Serve as the economic and community development planning agency, which shall prepare and recommend plans and programs for the orderly growth and development of this state and which shall provide planning assistance, as provided in section 122.06 of the Revised Code;
(6) Cooperate with and provide technical assistance to state departments, political subdivisions, regional and local planning commissions, tourist associations, councils of government, community development groups, community action agencies, and other appropriate organizations for carrying out the functions and duties of the department or for the solution of community problems;
(7) Coordinate the activities of state agencies that have an impact on carrying out the functions and duties of the department;
(8) Encourage and assist the efforts of and cooperate with local governments to develop mutual and cooperative solutions to their common problems that relate to carrying out the purposes of this section;
(9) Study existing structure, operations, and financing of regional or local government and those state activities that involve significant relations with regional or local governmental units, recommend to the governor and to the general assembly such changes in these provisions and activities as will improve the operations of regional or local government, and conduct other studies of legal provisions that affect problems related to carrying out the purposes of this section;
(10) Appoint, with the approval of the governor, technical and other advisory councils as it considers appropriate, as provided in section 122.09 of the Revised Code;
(11) Create and operate a division of community development to develop and administer programs and activities that are authorized by federal statute or the Revised Code;
(12) Until July 1, 2003 October 15, 2005, establish fees and charges, in consultation with the director of agriculture, for purchasing loans from financial institutions and providing loan guarantees under the family farm loan program created under sections 901.80 to 901.83 of the Revised Code;
(13) Provide loan servicing for the loans purchased and loan guarantees provided under section 901.80 of the Revised Code as that section existed prior to July 1, 2003 October 15, 2005;
(14) Until July 1, 2003 October 15, 2005, and upon approval by the controlling board under division (A)(3) of section 901.82 of the Revised Code of the release of money to be used for purchasing a loan or providing a loan guarantee, request the release of that money in accordance with division (B) of section 166.03 of the Revised Code for use for the purposes of the fund created by section 166.031 of the Revised Code.
(B) The director of development may request the attorney general to, and the attorney general, in accordance with section 109.02 of the Revised Code, shall bring a civil action in any court of competent jurisdiction. The director may be sued in the director's official capacity, in connection with this chapter, in accordance with Chapter 2743. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 122.04.  The department of development shall do the following:
(A) Maintain a continuing evaluation of the sources available for the retention, development, or expansion of industrial and commercial facilities in this state through both public and private agencies;
(B) Assist public and private agencies in obtaining information necessary to evaluate the desirability of the retention, construction, or expansion of industrial and commercial facilities in the state;
(C) Facilitate contracts between community improvement corporations organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code or Ohio development corporations organized under Chapter 1726. of the Revised Code and industrial and commercial concerns seeking to locate or expand in Ohio the state;
(D) Upon request, consult with public agencies or authorities in the preparation of studies of human and economic needs or advantages relating to economic and community development;
(E) Encourage, promote, and assist trade and commerce between this state and foreign nations;
(F) Promote and encourage persons to visit and travel within this state;
(G) Maintain membership in the national association of state development agencies;
(H) Assist in the development of facilities and technologies that will lead to increased, environmentally sound use of Ohio coal;
(I) Promote economic growth in the state.
Sec. 122.08.  (A) There is hereby created within the department of development an office to be known as the office of small business. The office shall be under the supervision of a manager appointed by the director of development.
(B) The office shall do all of the following:
(1) Act as liaison between the small business community and state governmental agencies;
(2) Furnish information and technical assistance to persons and small businesses concerning the establishment and maintenance of a small business, and concerning state laws and rules relevant to the operation of a small business. In conjunction with these duties, the office shall keep a record of all state agency rules affecting individuals, small businesses, or small organizations, as defined in section 121.24 of the Revised Code, and may testify before the joint committee on agency rule review concerning any proposed rule affecting individuals, small businesses, or small organizations.
(3) Prepare and publish the small business register under section 122.081 of the Revised Code;
(4) Receive complaints from small businesses concerning governmental activity, compile and analyze those complaints, and periodically make recommendations to the governor and the general assembly on changes in state laws or agency rules needed to eliminate burdensome and unproductive governmental regulation to improve the economic climate within which small businesses operate;
(5) Receive complaints or questions from small businesses and direct such those businesses to the appropriate governmental agency. If, within a reasonable period of time, a complaint is not satisfactorily resolved or a question is not satisfactorily answered, the office shall, on behalf of the small business, make every effort to secure a satisfactory result. For this purpose, the office may consult with any state governmental agency and may make any suggestion or request that seems appropriate.
(6) Utilize, to the maximum extent possible, the printed and electronic media to disseminate information of current concern and interest to the small business community and to make known to small businesses the services available through the office. The office shall publish such books, pamphlets, and other printed materials, and shall participate in such trade association meetings, conventions, fairs, and other meetings involving the small business community, as the manager considers appropriate.
(7) Prepare for inclusion in the department of development's annual report to the governor and general assembly, a description of the activities of the office and a report of the number of rules affecting individuals, small businesses, and small organizations that were filed with the office under division (B)(2) of section 121.24 of the Revised Code, during the preceding calendar year;
(8) Operate the Ohio one-stop business permit center first-stop business connection to assist individuals in identifying and preparing applications for business licenses, permits, and certificates and to serve as the central public distributor for all forms, applications, and other information related to business licensing. Each state agency, board, and commission shall cooperate in providing assistance, information, and materials to enable the center connection to perform its duties under this division (B)(8) of this section.
(C) The office of small business may, upon the request of a state agency, assist the agency with the preparation of any rule that will affect individuals, small businesses, or small organizations.
(D) The director of development shall assign such employees and furnish such equipment and supplies to the office as the director considers necessary for the proper performance of the duties assigned to the office.
Sec. 122.17.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed for consideration for at least thirty-five hours a week, or who renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom or specified by contract as full-time employment.
(2) "New employee" means one of the following:
(a) A full-time employee first employed by a taxpayer in the project that is the subject of the agreement after the taxpayer enters into a tax credit agreement with the tax credit authority under this section;
(b) A full-time employee first employed by a taxpayer in the project that is the subject of the tax credit after the tax credit authority approves a project for a tax credit under this section in a public meeting, as long as the taxpayer enters into the tax credit agreement prepared by the department of development after such meeting within sixty days after receiving the agreement from the department. If the taxpayer fails to enter into the agreement within sixty days, "new employee" has the same meaning as under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
Under division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, if the tax credit authority determines it appropriate, "new employee" also may include an employee re-hired or called back from lay-off to work in a new facility or on a new product or service established or produced by the taxpayer after entering into the agreement under this section or after the tax credit authority approves the tax credit in a public meeting. "New employee" does not include any employee of the taxpayer who was previously employed in this state by a related member of the taxpayer and whose employment was shifted to the taxpayer after the taxpayer entered into the tax credit agreement or after the tax credit authority approved the credit in a public meeting, or any employee of the taxpayer for which the taxpayer has been granted a certificate under division (B) of section 5709.66 of the Revised Code. "New employee" also does not include an employee of the taxpayer who is employed in an employment position that was relocated to a project from other operations of the taxpayer in this state or from operations of a related member of the taxpayer in this state. In addition, "new employee" does not include a child, grandchild, parent, or spouse, other than a spouse who is legally separated from the individual, of any individual who is an employee of the taxpayer and who has a direct or indirect ownership interest of at least five per cent in the profits, capital, or value of the taxpayer. Such ownership interest shall be determined in accordance with section 1563 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations prescribed thereunder.
(3) "New income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during the taxable year from the compensation of new employees for the tax levied under Chapter 5747. of the Revised Code.
(4) "Related member" has the same meaning as under division (A)(6) of in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code without regard to division (B) of that section.
(B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax imposed by section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code. The credit shall be claimed for the taxable years specified in the taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under division (D) of this section. The credit shall be claimed after the allowance of all other credits provided by Chapter 5733. or 5747. of the Revised Code. The amount of the credit equals the new income tax revenue for the taxable year multiplied by the percentage specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority.
(C) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under this section. The director of development shall prescribe the form of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under this section if it determines all of the following:
(1) The taxpayer's project will create new jobs in this state;
(2) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for employment and strengthening the economy of this state;
(3) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.
(D) An agreement under this section shall include all of the following:
(1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject of the agreement;
(2) The term of the tax credit, which shall not exceed ten years, and the first taxable year for which the credit may be claimed;
(3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain operations at the project location for at least twice the number of years as the term of the tax credit;
(4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit authority, of new income tax revenue that will be allowed as the amount of the credit for each taxable year;
(5) A specific method for determining how many new employees are employed during a taxable year;
(6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report to the director of development the number of new employees, the new income tax revenue withheld in connection with the new employees, and any other information the director needs to perform his the director's duties under this section;
(7) A requirement that the director of development annually shall verify the amounts reported under division (D)(6) of this section, and after doing so shall issue a certificate to the taxpayer stating that the amounts have been verified;
(8)(a) A provision requiring that the taxpayer, except as otherwise provided in division (D)(8)(b) of this section, shall not relocate employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project site that is the subject of the agreement for the lesser of five years from the date the agreement is entered into or the number of years the taxpayer is entitled to claim the tax credit.
(b) The taxpayer may relocate employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project site that is the subject of the agreement if the director of development determines both of the following:
(i) That the site from which the employment positions would be relocated is inadequate to meet market and industry conditions, expansion plans, consolidation plans, or other business considerations affecting the taxpayer;
(ii) That the legislative authority of the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the employment positions would be relocated has been notified of the relocation.
For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment position from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment position, but the transfer of an individual employee from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall not be considered a relocation of an employment position as long as the individual's employment position in the first political subdivision is refilled.
(E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term of the tax credit. The reduction of the percentage or term shall take effect in the taxable year immediately following the taxable year in which the authority amends the agreement. If the taxpayer relocates employment positions in violation of the provision required under division (D)(8)(a) of this section, the taxpayer shall not claim the tax credit under section 5733.0610 of the Revised Code for any tax years following the calendar year in which the relocation occurs, or shall not claim the tax credit under section 5747.058 of the Revised Code for the taxable year in which the relocation occurs and any subsequent taxable years.
(F) Projects that consist solely of point-of-final-purchase retail facilities are not eligible for a tax credit under this section. If a project consists of both point-of-final-purchase retail facilities and nonretail facilities, only the portion of the project consisting of the nonretail facilities is eligible for a tax credit and only the new income tax revenue from new employees of the nonretail facilities shall be considered when computing the amount of the tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax credit. Catalog distribution centers are not considered point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of this division, and are eligible for tax credits under this section.
(G) Financial statements and other information submitted to the department of development or the tax credit authority by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any information taken for any purpose from such statements or information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may make use of the statements and other information for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the request of the tax commissioner, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the commissioner any statement or information submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in connection with the credit. The commissioner shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or information.
(H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall submit to the tax commissioner a copy of the director of development's certificate of verification under division (D)(7) of this section for the taxable year. However, failure to submit a copy of the certificate does not invalidate a claim for a credit.
(I) The director of development, after consultation with the tax commissioner and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this section. The rules may provide for recipients of tax credits under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative costs of the tax credit program. At the time the director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the standing committees on economic development in the senate and the house of representatives.
(J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a distributive share to its owners. A credit received under this section by a partnership, S-corporation, or other such business entity shall be apportioned among the persons to whom the income or profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is distributed, in the same proportions as those in which the income or profit is distributed.
(K) If the director of development determines that a taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:
(1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for at least one and one-half times the number of years of the term of the tax credit, an amount not exceeding twenty-five per cent of the sum of any previously allowed credits under this section;
(2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for at least the number of years of the term of the tax credit, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the sum of any previously allowed credits under this section;
(3) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for less than the number of years of the term of the tax credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum of any previously allowed credits under this section.
In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. After making the determination, the authority shall certify the amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner. The commissioner shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5733. or 5747. of the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under Chapter 5733. or 5747. of the Revised Code do not apply to an assessment under this division, but the commissioner shall make the assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies to the commissioner the amount to be refunded.
(L) On or before the thirty-first day of March each year, the director of development shall submit a report to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives on the tax credit program under this section. The report shall include information on the number of agreements that were entered into under this section during the preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of projects under agreements entered into before the preceding calendar year.
During the fifth year of the tax credit program, the director of development in conjunction with the director of budget and management shall conduct an evaluation of it. The evaluation shall include assessments of the effectiveness of the program in creating new jobs in this state and of the revenue impact of the program, and may include a review of the practices and experiences of other states with similar programs. The director of development shall submit a report on the evaluation to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives on or before January 1, 1998.
(M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority, which consists of the director of development and four other members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each shall appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days after January 13, 1993. Each member shall serve on the authority until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. Members may be reappointed to the authority. Members of the authority shall receive their necessary and actual expenses while engaged in the business of the authority. The director of development shall serve as chairperson of the authority, and the members annually shall elect a vice-chairperson from among themselves. Three members of the authority constitute a quorum to transact and vote on the business of the authority. The majority vote of the membership of the authority is necessary to approve any such business, including the election of the vice-chairperson.
The director of development may appoint a professional employee of the department of development to serve as the director's substitute at a meeting of the authority. The director shall make the appointment in writing. In the absence of the director from a meeting of the authority, the appointed substitute shall serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the director and the director's substitute from a meeting, the vice-chairperson shall serve as chairperson.
Sec. 122.25.  (A) In administering the program established under section 122.24 of the Revised Code, the director of development shall do all of the following:
(1) Annually designate, by the first day of January of each year, the entities that constitute the eligible areas in this state as defined in section 122.23 of the Revised Code;
(2) Inform local governments and others in the state of the availability of the program and financial assistance established under sections 122.23 to 122.27 of the Revised Code;
(3) Report to the governor, president of the senate, speaker of the house of representatives, and minority leaders of the senate and the house of representatives by the thirtieth day of June of each year on the activities carried out under the program during the preceding calendar year. The report shall include the number of loans made that year and the amount and recipient of each loan.
(4) Work in conjunction with conventional lending institutions, local revolving loan funds, private investors, and other private and public financing sources to provide loans or loan guarantees to eligible applicants;
(5) Establish fees, charges, interest rates, payment schedules, local match requirements, and other terms and conditions for loans and loan guarantees provided under the loan program created by section 122.24 of the Revised Code;
(6) Require each applicant to demonstrate the suitability of any site for the assistance sought; that the site has been surveyed, has adequate or available utilities, and that there are no zoning restrictions, environmental regulations, or other matters impairing the use of the site for the purpose intended;
(7) Require each applicant to provide a marketing plan and management strategy for the project;
(8) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing all of the following:
(a) Forms and procedures by which eligible applicants may apply for assistance;
(b) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and ranking applications, and for approving applications that best serve the goals of the program;
(c) Reporting requirements and monitoring procedures;
(d) Guidelines regarding situations in which industrial parks would be considered to compete against one another for the purposes of division (B)(2) of section 122.27 of the Revised Code;
(e) Any other rules necessary to implement and administer the program created by section 122.24 of the Revised Code.
(B) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing requirements governing the use of any industrial park site receiving assistance under section 122.24 of the Revised Code, such that a certain portion of the site must be used for manufacturing, distribution, high technology, research and development, or other businesses wherein a majority of the product or service produced is exported out of the state.
(C) As a condition to receiving assistance under section 122.24 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division (D) of this section, an applicant must agree, for a period of five years, not to permit the use of a site that is developed or improved with such assistance to cause the relocation of jobs to that site from elsewhere in Ohio.
(D) A site developed or improved with assistance under section 122.24 of the Revised Code may be the site of jobs relocated from elsewhere in Ohio if the director of development does all of the following:
(1) Makes a written determination that the site from which the jobs would be relocated is inadequate to meet market or industry conditions, expansion plans, consolidation plans, or other business considerations affecting the relocating employer;
(2) Provides a copy of the determination required by division (D)(1) of this section to the members of the general assembly whose legislative districts include the site from which the jobs would be relocated, and to the joint legislative committee on tax incentives;
(3) Determines that the governing body of the area from which the jobs would be relocated has been notified in writing by the relocating company of the possible relocation.
(E) The director of development must obtain the approval of the controlling board for any loan or loan guarantee provided under sections 122.23 to 122.27 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 122.651. (A) There is hereby created the clean Ohio council consisting of the director of development or the director's designee, the director of environmental protection or the director's designee, the lieutenant governor or the lieutenant governor's designee, the director of the Ohio public works commission as a nonvoting, ex officio member, one member of the majority party of the senate and one member of the minority party of the senate to be appointed by the president of the senate, one member of the majority party of the house of representatives and one member of the minority party of the house of representatives to be appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and seven members to be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. Of the members appointed by the governor, one shall represent the interests of counties, one shall represent the interests of townships, one shall represent the interests of municipal corporations, two shall represent the interests of business and development, and two shall represent statewide environmental advocacy organizations. The members appointed by the governor shall reflect the demographic and economic diversity of the population of the state. Additionally, the governor's appointments shall represent all areas of the state. All appointments to the council shall be made not later than one hundred twenty days after July 26, 2001.
(B) The members appointed by the president of the senate and speaker of the house of representatives shall serve at the pleasure of their appointing authorities. Of the initial members appointed by the governor to the clean Ohio council, four shall be appointed for two years and three shall be appointed for one year. Thereafter, terms of office for members appointed by the governor shall be for two years, with each term ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that it succeeds. Each of those members shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member is appointed.
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. A member shall continue in office after the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The governor may remove a member appointed by the governor for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.
(C) The director of development governor shall appoint a member of the clean Ohio council to serve as the chairperson of the clean Ohio council. The director of development shall serve as the vice-chairperson of the council unless appointed chairperson. If the director is appointed chairperson, the council annually shall select from among its members a vice-chairperson to serve while the director is chairperson. The council annually shall select from among its members a vice-chairperson and a secretary to keep a record of its proceedings. A majority vote of a quorum of the members of the council is necessary to take action on any matter. The council may adopt bylaws governing its operation, including bylaws that establish the frequency of meetings, procedures for reviewing eligible projects under sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code and policies and requirements established under section 122.657 of the Revised Code, and other necessary procedures.
(D) Members of the clean Ohio council shall be deemed to be public officials or officers only for the purposes of section 9.86 and Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code. Serving as a member of the clean Ohio council does not constitute holding a public office or position of employment so as to constitute grounds for removal of public officers or employees serving as members of the council from their offices or positions of employment. Members of the council shall file with the Ohio ethics commission the disclosure statement described in division (A) of section 102.02 of the Revised Code on the form prescribed by the commission and be subject to divisions (C) and (D) of that section. Members of the council shall serve without compensation for attending council meetings, but shall receive their actual and necessary traveling and other expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties in accordance with the rules of the office of budget and management.
(E) Members appointed by the governor to represent the interests of counties, townships, and municipal corporations do not have a conflict of interest by virtue of their service in the position. For the purposes of this division, "conflict of interest" means the taking of any action as a member of the council that affects a public agency the person serves as an officer or employee.
(F) The department of development shall provide office space for the council. The council shall be assisted in its duties by the staff of the department of development and the environmental protection agency.
(G) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not apply to the clean Ohio council.
Sec. 122.658. (A) The clean Ohio revitalization fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys credited to it pursuant to section 151.40 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the fund shall be used to make grants or loans for projects that have been approved by the clean Ohio council in accordance with section 122.653 of the Revised Code, except that the council annually shall devote twenty per cent of the net proceeds of obligations deposited in the clean Ohio revitalization fund for the purposes of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.
Moneys in the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of development and the environmental protection agency in administering sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. For two years after July 26, 2001, investment Investment earnings credited to the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to pay costs incurred by the department of development and the environmental protection agency pursuant to sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code.
The department of development shall administer the clean Ohio revitalization fund in accordance with this section, policies and requirements established under section 122.657 of the Revised Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the council under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.
(B) Grants awarded and loans made under section 122.653 of the Revised Code shall provide not more than seventy-five per cent of the estimated total cost of a project. A grant or loan to any one project shall not exceed three million dollars. An applicant shall provide at least twenty-five per cent of the estimated total cost of a project. The applicant's share may consist of one or a combination of any of the following:
(1) Payment of the cost of acquiring the property for the purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code;
(2) Payment of the reasonable cost of an assessment at the property;
(3) The reasonable value, as determined by the council, of labor and materials that will be contributed by the applicant in performing the cleanup or remediation;
(4) Moneys received by the applicant in any form for use in performing the cleanup or remediation;
(5) Loans secured by the applicant for the purpose of the cleanup or remediation of the brownfield.
Costs that were incurred more than two years prior to the submission of an application to the clean Ohio council for the acquisition of property, assessments, and labor and materials shall not be used as part of the applicant's matching share.
(C) The department of development shall not make any payment to an applicant from the clean Ohio revitalization fund to pay costs of the applicant that were not included in an application for a grant or loan under section 122.653 of the Revised Code or that exceed the amount of the estimated total cost of the project included in the application. If, upon completion of a project, the costs of the project are less than the amounts included in the application, the amounts included in the application less the amounts of the actual costs of the project shall be credited to the clean Ohio revitalization fund. However, the amounts credited shall be equivalent in percentage to the percentage of the costs of the project that were to be funded by the grant or loan from the fund.
(D) Grants awarded or loans made under section 122.653 of the Revised Code from the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used by an applicant only to pay the costs of the actual cleanup or remediation of a brownfield and shall not be used by an applicant to pay any administrative costs incurred by the applicant. Costs related to the use of a certified professional for purposes of section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not administrative costs and may be paid with moneys from grants awarded or loans made under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.
(E) The portion of net proceeds of obligations devoted under division (A) of this section for the purposes of section 122.656 of the Revised Code shall be used to make grants for assessments, cleanup or remediation of brownfields, and public health projects that have been approved by the director of development under that section. The department of development shall administer section 122.656 of the Revised Code in accordance with this section, policies and requirements established under section 122.657 of the Revised Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the director under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. The director shall not grant more than twenty-five million dollars for public health projects under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.
(F) Grants awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code shall be used by an applicant only to pay the costs of actually conducting an assessment, a cleanup or remediation of a brownfield, or a public health project and shall not be used by an applicant to pay any administrative costs incurred by the applicant. Costs related to the use of a certified professional for purposes of section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not administrative costs and may be paid with moneys from grants awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.
(G)(1) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund is hereby created in the state treasury. Payments of principal and interest on loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be credited to this revolving loan fund, as shall payments of principal and interest on loans made from the revolving loan fund itself. The revolving loan fund's investment earnings shall be credited to it.
(2) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund shall be used to make loans for the same purposes and subject to the same policies, requirements, criteria, and application procedures as loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund.
Sec. 122.87.  As used in sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Surety company" means a company that is authorized by the department of insurance to issue bonds as surety.
(B) "Minority business" means any of the following occupations:
(1) Minority construction contractor;
(2) Minority seller;
(3) Minority service vendor.
(C) "Minority construction contractor" means a person who is both a construction contractor and an owner of a minority business enterprise certified under division (B) of section 123.151 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Minority seller" means a person who is both a seller of goods and an owner of a minority business enterprise listed on the special minority business enterprise bid notification list under division (B) of section 125.08 of the Revised Code.
(E) "Minority service vendor" means a person who is both a vendor of services and an owner of a minority business enterprise listed on the special minority business enterprise bid notification list under division (B) of section 125.08 of the Revised Code.
(F) "Minority business enterprise" has the meaning given in section 122.71 of the Revised Code.
(G) "EDGE business enterprise" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture certified as a participant in the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program by the director of administrative services under section 123.152 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 122.88.  (A) There is hereby created in the state treasury the minority business bonding fund, consisting of moneys deposited or credited to it pursuant to section 169.05 of the Revised Code; all grants, gifts, and contributions received pursuant to division (B)(9) of section 122.74 of the Revised Code; all moneys recovered following defaults; and any other moneys obtained by the director of development for the purposes of sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be administered by the director. Moneys in the fund shall be held in trust for the purposes of sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code.
(B) Any claims against the state arising from defaults shall be payable from the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund as provided in division (C) of this section or from the minority business bonding fund. Nothing in sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code grants or pledges to any obligee or other person any state moneys other than the moneys in the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund or the minority business bonding fund, or moneys available to the minority business bonding fund upon request of the director in accordance with division (B) of section 169.05 of the Revised Code.
(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund, consisting of all premiums charged and collected in accordance with section 122.89 of the Revised Code and any interest income earned from the moneys in the minority business bonding fund. All expenses of the director and the minority development financing advisory board in carrying out the purposes of sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund.
Any moneys to the credit of the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund in excess of the amount necessary to fund the appropriation authority for the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund shall be held as a loss reserve to pay claims arising from defaults on surety bonds underwritten in accordance with section 122.89 of the Revised Code or guaranteed in accordance with section 122.90 of the Revised Code. If the balance of funds in the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund is insufficient to pay a claim against the state arising from default, then such claim shall be payable from the minority business bonding fund.
Sec. 122.90.  (A) The director of development may guarantee bonds executed by sureties for minority businesses and EDGE business enterprises certified under section 123.152 of the Revised Code as principals on contracts with the state, any political subdivision or instrumentality, or any person as the obligee. The director, as guarantor, may exercise all the rights and powers of a company authorized by the department of insurance to guarantee bonds under Chapter 3929. of the Revised Code but otherwise is not subject to any laws related to a guaranty company under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code nor to any rules of the department of insurance.
(B) The director shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish procedures for the application for bond guarantees and the review and approval of applications for bond guarantees submitted by sureties that execute bonds eligible for guarantees under division (A) of this section.
(C) In accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this section, the director may guarantee up to ninety per cent of the loss incurred and paid by sureties on bonds guaranteed under division (A) of this section.
(D) The penal sum amounts of all outstanding guarantees made by the director under this section shall not exceed three times the difference between the amount of moneys in the minority business bonding fund and available to the fund under division (B) of section 169.05 of the Revised Code and the amount of all outstanding bonds issued by the director in accordance with division (A) of section 122.89 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. of the Revised Code, and as provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise the following powers:
(1) To prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by state agencies that may be authorized by legislative appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or public buildings is a statutory duty of the department. This section does not require the independent employment of an architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised Code in the cases to which that section applies nor affect or alter the existing powers of the director of transportation.
(2) To have general supervision over the construction of any projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a state agency and over the inspection of materials previous to their incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings;
(3) To make contracts for and supervise the construction of any projects and improvements or the construction and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency, except contracts for the repair of buildings under the management and control of the departments of public safety, job and family services, mental health, mental retardation and developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, and youth services, the bureau of workers' compensation, the rehabilitation services commission, and boards of trustees of educational and benevolent institutions. These contracts shall be made and entered into by the directors of public safety, job and family services, mental health, mental retardation and developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, and youth services, the administrator of workers' compensation, the rehabilitation services commission, and the boards of trustees of such institutions, respectively. All such contracts may be in whole or in part on unit price basis of maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon actual quantities or units.
(4) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state agency;
(5) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or grant, all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise of which power the department may exercise the power of eminent domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code;
(6) To make and provide all plans, specifications, and models for the construction and perfection of all systems of sewerage, drainage, and plumbing for the state in connection with buildings and grounds under the control of a state agency;
(7) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;
(8) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a state agency;
(9) To lease or grant easements or licenses for unproductive and unused lands or other property under the control of a state agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses shall be granted for a period not to exceed fifteen years and shall be executed for the state by the director of administrative services and the governor and shall be approved as to form by the attorney general, provided that leases, easements, or licenses may be granted to any county, township, municipal corporation, port authority, water or sewer district, school district, library district, health district, park district, soil and water conservation district, conservancy district, or other political subdivision or taxing district, or any agency of the United States government, for the exclusive use of that agency, political subdivision, or taxing district, without any right of sublease or assignment, for a period not to exceed fifteen years, and provided that the director shall grant leases, easements, or licenses of university land for periods not to exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the respective university's board of trustees wherein the uses are compatible with the uses and needs of the university and may grant leases of university land for periods not to exceed forty years for purposes approved by the respective university's board of trustees pursuant to section 123.77 of the Revised Code.
(10) To lease office space in buildings for the use of a state agency;
(11) To have general supervision and care of the storerooms, offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state agency;
(12) To exercise general custodial care of all real property of the state;
(13) To assign and group together state offices in any city in the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state agencies involved, rules governing space requirements for office or storage use;
(14) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, shall become the property of the state without cost.
(a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, details, bills of materials, and specifications:
(i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics and other builders in the improvement;
(ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and represented as to be easily understood;
(iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different kinds of material necessary to the construction;
(iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be performed, together with such directions as will enable a competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford bidders all needed information;
(v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and of the aggregate cost thereof.
(b) The department shall give public notice, in such newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director of administrative services prescribes, published once each week for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.
(c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty days after the day on which the bids are received, the department shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications required by this section of the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those concerned therein shall be rejected.
(15) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and to transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section existed before its repeal by    . B.     of the 125th general assembly;
(16) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, notwithstanding any other division of this section, the state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the Revised Code.
Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall also include provision for protection of the property by insurance or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.
The department may employ, as employees or consultants, persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and other necessary experts. The department shall review the development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of the following:
(a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by entering into a lease with the developer;
(b) The development plans are satisfactory;
(c) The developer has established the developer's financial responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the development.
The lease shall contain a provision that construction or renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to between the department and the developer or the lease will be terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the property of the state without cost.
(17) To lease to any person any tract of land owned by the state and under the control of the department, or any part of such a tract, for the purpose of drilling for or the pooling of oil or gas. Such a lease shall be granted for a period not exceeding forty years, with the full power to contract for, determine the conditions governing, and specify the amount the state shall receive for the purposes specified in the lease, and shall be prepared as in other cases.
(B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall not interfere with any of the following:
(1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general as director of state armories;
(2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such buildings as the director may require in the administration of the department;
(3) The power of the director of public safety and the registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings to be used as locations for division or district offices as required in the maintenance of operations of the department of public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;
(4) The power of the division of liquor control in the leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities for the use of the division;
(5) The power of the director of development to enter into leases of real property, buildings, and office space to be used solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to carry out the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code.
(C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings under the management and control of the capitol square review and advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission, the bureau of workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job and family services, mental health, mental retardation and developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation and correction, and buildings of educational and benevolent institutions under the management and control of boards of trustees, are not subject to the control and jurisdiction of the department of administrative services.
(D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 123.152. (A) As used in this section, "EDGE business enterprise" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture certified as a participant in the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program by the director of administrative services under this section of the Revised Code.
(B) The director of administrative services shall establish a business assistance program known as the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program and shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to administer the program and that do all of the following:
(1) Establish procedures by which a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture may apply for certification as an EDGE business enterprise;
(2) Establish agency procurement goals for contracting with EDGE business enterprises in the award of contracts under Chapters 123., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code based on the availability of eligible program participants by region or geographic area, as determined by the director, and by standard industrial code.
(a) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section shall be based on a percentage level of participation and a percentage of contractor availability.
(b) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section shall be applied at the contract level, relative to an overall dollar goal for each state agency, in accordance with the following certification categories: construction, architecture, and engineering; professional services; goods and services; and information technology services.
(3) Establish a system of certifying EDGE business enterprises based on a requirement that the business owner or owners show both social and economic disadvantage based on the following, as determined to be sufficient by the director:
(a) Relative wealth of the business seeking certification as well as the personal wealth of the owner or owners of the business;
(b) Social disadvantage based on any of the following:
(i) A rebuttable presumption when the business owner or owners demonstrate membership in a racial minority group or show personal disadvantage due to color, ethnic origin, gender, physical disability, long-term residence in an environment isolated from the mainstream of American society, location in an area of high unemployment;
(ii) Some other demonstration of personal disadvantage not common to other small businesses;
(iii) By business location in a qualified census tract.
(c) Economic disadvantage based on economic and business size thresholds and eligibility criteria designed to stimulate economic development through contract awards to businesses located in qualified census tracts.
(4) Establish standards to determine when an EDGE business enterprise no longer qualifies for EDGE business enterprise certification;
(5) Develop a process for evaluating and adjusting goals established by this section to determine what adjustments are necessary to achieve participation goals established by the director;
(6) Establish a point system to evaluate bid proposals to encourage EDGE business enterprises to participate in the procurement of professional design and information technology services;
(7) Establish a system to track data and analyze each certification category established under division (B)(2)(b) of this section;
(8) Establish a process to mediate complaints and to review EDGE business enterprise certification appeals;
(9) Implement an outreach program to educate potential participants about the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program;
(10) Establish a system to assist state agencies in identifying and utilizing EDGE business enterprises in their contracting processes;
(11) Implement a system of self-reporting by EDGE business enterprises as well as an on-site inspection process to validate the qualifications of an EDGE business enterprise;
(12) Establish a waiver mechanism to waive program goals or participation requirements for those companies that, despite their best-documented efforts, are unable to contract with certified EDGE business enterprises;
(13) Establish a process for monitoring overall program compliance in which equal employment opportunity officers primarily are responsible for monitoring their respective agencies.
(C) Not later than December 31, 2003, the director of administrative services shall prepare a detailed report to the governor outlining and evaluating the progress made in implementing the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program.
Sec. 123.153.  The director of development shall do all of the following with regard to the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program created under section 123.152 of the Revised Code:
(A) Conduct outreach, marketing, and recruitment of EDGE business enterprises;
(B) Provide assistance to the department of administrative services, as needed, to certify new EDGE business enterprises and to train appropriate state agency staff;
(C) Provide business development services to EDGE business enterprises in the developmental and transitional stages of the program, including financial and bonding and management and technical assistance;
(D) Develop a mentor program to bring businesses into a working relationship with EDGE business enterprises in a way that commercially benefits both entities and serves the purpose of the EDGE program;
(E) Not later than December 31, 2003, prepare a detailed report to the governor outlining and evaluating the progress made in implementing the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program;
(F) Establish processes by which an EDGE business enterprise may apply for contract assistance, financial and bonding assistance, management and technical assistance, and mentoring opportunities.
Sec. 124.03.  The state personnel board of review shall exercise the following powers and perform the following duties:
(A) Hear appeals, as provided by law, of employees in the classified state service from final decisions of appointing authorities or the director of administrative services relative to reduction in pay or position, job abolishments, layoff, suspension, discharge, assignment or reassignment to a new or different position classification, or refusal of the director, or anybody authorized to perform the director's functions, to reassign an employee to another classification or to reclassify the employee's position with or without a job audit under division (D) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code. As used in this division, "discharge" includes disability separations. The
The board may affirm, disaffirm, or modify the decisions of the appointing authorities or the director, as the case may be, and its decision is final. The board's decisions shall be consistent with the applicable classification specifications. The
The board shall not be deprived of jurisdiction to hear any appeal due to the failure of an appointing authority to file its decision with the board. Any final decision of an appointing authority or of the director not filed in the manner provided in this chapter shall be disaffirmed. The
The board may place an exempt employee, as defined in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, into a bargaining unit classification, if the board determines that the bargaining unit classification is the proper classification for that employee. Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments and contracts negotiated under it, such placements are at the board's discretion.
In any hearing before the board, including any hearing at which a record is taken that may be the basis of an appeal to a court, an employee may be represented by a person permitted to practice before the board who is not an attorney at law so as long as the person does not receive any compensation from the employee for such the representation.
(B) Hear appeals, as provided by law, of appointing authorities from final decisions of the director relative to the classification or reclassification of any position in the classified state service under the jurisdiction of such that appointing authority. The board may affirm, disaffirm, or modify the decisions of the director, and its decision is final. The board's decisions shall be consistent with the applicable classification specifications.
(C) Exercise the authority provided by section 124.40 of the Revised Code, for appointment, removal, and supervision of municipal and civil service township civil service commissions;
(D) Appoint a secretary, referees, examiners, and whatever other employees are necessary in the exercise of its powers and performance of its duties and functions. The board shall determine appropriate education and experience requirements for its secretary, referees, examiners, and other employees and shall prescribe their duties. A referee or examiner does not need to have been admitted to the practice of law.
(E) Maintain a journal which that shall be open to public inspection, in which it shall keep a record of all of its proceedings and of the vote of each of its members upon every action taken by it;
(F) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code relating to the procedure of the board in administering the laws which it has the authority or duty to administer and for the purpose of invoking the jurisdiction of the board in hearing appeals of appointing authorities and employees in matters set forth in divisions (A) and (B) of this section;
(G) Subpoena and require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books, papers, public records, and other documentary evidence pertinent to any matter which it has authority to investigate, inquire into, or hear in the same manner and to the same extent as provided by division (G) of section 124.09 of the Revised Code. All witness fees shall be paid in the manner set forth in that division.
(H) The board shall be funded by general revenue fund appropriations. All moneys received by the board for copies of documents, rule books, and transcriptions shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the transcript and other documents fund, which is hereby created to defray the cost of furnishing or making available such copies, rule books, and transcriptions producing an administrative record.
Sec. 125.05.  Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no state agency shall purchase any supplies or services except as provided in divisions (A) to (C) of this section.
(A) Subject to division (D) of this section, a state agency may, without competitive selection, make any purchase of services that cost fifty thousand dollars or less or any purchase of supplies that cost twenty-five thousand dollars or less. The agency may make the purchase directly or may make the purchase from or through the department of administrative services, whichever the agency determines. The department shall establish written procedures to assist state agencies when they make direct purchases. If the agency makes the purchase directly, it shall make the purchase by a term contract whenever possible.
(B) Subject to division (D) of this section, a state agency wanting to purchase services that cost more than fifty thousand dollars or supplies that cost more than twenty-five thousand dollars shall, unless otherwise authorized by law, make the purchase from or through the department. The department shall make the purchase by competitive selection under section 125.07 of the Revised Code. If the director of administrative services determines that it is not possible or not advantageous to the state for the department to make the purchase, the department shall grant the agency a release and permit under section 125.06 of the Revised Code to make the purchase. Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to purchases the department makes under this section.
(C) An agency that has been granted a release and permit to make a purchase may make the purchase without competitive selection if after making the purchase the cumulative purchase threshold as computed under division (F) of section 127.16 of the Revised Code would:
(1) Be exceeded and the controlling board approves the purchase;
(2) Not be exceeded and the department of administrative services approves the purchase.
(D) Not later than January 31, 1997, the amounts specified in divisions (A) and (B) of this section and, not later than the thirty-first day of January of each second year thereafter, any amounts computed by adjustments made under this division, shall be increased or decreased by the average percentage increase or decrease in the consumer price index prepared by the United States bureau of labor statistics (U.S. City Average for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers: "All Items 1982-1984=100") for the twenty-four calendar month period prior to the immediately preceding first day of January over the immediately preceding twenty-four calendar month period, as reported by the bureau. The director of administrative services shall make this determination and adjust the appropriate amounts accordingly.
(E) If the Ohio SchoolNet commission, the department of education, or the Ohio education computer network determines that it can purchase software services or supplies for specified school districts at a price less than the price for which the districts could purchase the same software services or supplies for themselves, the office, department, or network shall certify that fact to the department of administrative services and, acting as an agent for the specified school districts, shall make that purchase without following the provisions in divisions (A) to (D) of this section.
Sec. 125.15.  All state agencies required to secure any equipment, materials, supplies, or services, or contracts of insurance from the department of administrative services shall make acquisition in the manner and upon forms prescribed by the director of administrative services and shall reimburse the department for the equipment, materials, supplies, or services, or contracts of insurance, including a reasonable sum to cover the department's administrative costs, whenever reimbursement is required by the department. The money so paid shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the general services fund or the information technology fund, as appropriate. Such Those funds are hereby created.
Sec. 125.91.  As used in sections 125.92 to 125.98 of the Revised Code:
(A) "State agency" includes every department, bureau, board, commission, office, or other organized body established by the constitution and laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government, but does not include any state-supported institution of higher education, the general assembly or any legislative agency, the attorney general, the auditor of state, the secretary of state, the treasurer of state, the bureau of workers' compensation, any court or judicial agency, or any political subdivision or agency thereof of a political subdivision.
(B) "Form" means any document, device, or item used to convey information, regardless of medium, that has blank spaces for the insertion of information and that may have a predetermined format and data elements to guide the entry, interpretration interpretation, and use of the information. "Form" does not include letterheads, envelopes, labels, tags, tickets, or note pads, or forms mandated by the federal government, but does include all computer-generated forms except those mandated by the federal government. As used in sections 125.931 to 125.935 of the Revised Code, "form" applies only to a form that is used by a state agency and that is completed in whole or in part by private business, political subdivisions, or the public.
Sec. 125.92.  There is hereby established in the department of administrative services a state forms management control center program, which shall be under the control and supervision of the director of administrative services, who shall appoint an administrator of the center or the director's designee.
The center state forms management program shall develop, implement, and maintain a statewide forms management program that involves be developed, implemented, and maintained for all state agencies and is be designed to simplify, consolidate, or eliminate, when expedient, forms, surveys, and other documents used by state agencies. In developing the program, particular emphasis shall be placed upon determining the actual need for any information, records, and reports sought from private business, agriculture, and local governments through the use of such forms, surveys, and other documents.
Sec. 125.93.  The state forms management control center program shall do each of the following:
(A) Assist state agencies in establishing internal forms management capabilities;
(B) Study, develop, coordinate, and initiate forms of interagency and common administrative usage, and establish basic design and specification criteria to standardize state forms;
(C) Assist state agencies to design economical forms and compose art work for forms;
(D) Establish and supervise control procedures to prevent the undue creation and reproduction of state forms;
(E) Assist, train, and instruct state agencies and their forms management representatives in forms management techniques, and provide direct forms management assistance to new state agencies as they are created;
(F)(E) Maintain a central cross index forms repository of all state forms to facilitate standardization of the forms, eliminate redundant forms, and provide a central source of information on forms usage and availability;
(G) Utilize existing functions within the department of administrative services to design economical forms and compose art work, as well as use appropriate procurement techniques to take advantage of competitive selection, consolidated orders, and contract procurement of forms;
(H) Conduct an annual evaluation of the effectiveness of the forms management program and the forms management practices of individual state agencies, and maintain records that indicate dollar savings resulting from, and the number of forms eliminated, simplified, or standardized through, centralized forms management. The results of the evaluation shall be reported to the speaker of the house of representatives and president of the senate not later than the fifteenth day of January each year. The center shall report on the first day of each month to the state records administrator on its activities during the preceding month.
Sec. 125.95.  (A) The administrator of the state forms management control center program may permit any state agency to manage fully any forms used or proposed to be used by it, whenever the administrator program determines that the delegation will result in the most timely and economical method of accomplishing the objectives of the forms management program as set forth in section 125.93 of the Revised Code. A determination to delegate to a state agency authority to manage forms may, among other matters, take into consideration the benefits of central management of any form in relation to the costs associated with such that management.
(B) To expedite the collection and disposition of general state and local revenue, the administrator state forms management program shall permit, without prior authorization, the tax commissioner to design, print or have printed, distribute, and require the use of those forms which that the tax commissioner determines are necessary for the proper administration of those taxes and programs he the tax commissioner administers except as provided in division (A) of section 4307.05 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall report to the administrator program not later than fifteen days after the close of each calendar quarter with respect to the forms activities occurring within his the tax commissioner's agency during the preceding calendar quarter.
Sec. 125.96.  The director of administrative services may adopt, amend, or rescind rules necessary to carry out the powers and duties imposed upon the state forms management control center and its administrator program and state agencies by sections 125.92 to 125.98 of the Revised Code. The director shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules providing that each of the following:
(A) After a date to be determined by the administrator state forms management program, no state agency shall utilize any form, other than a form subject to division (B) of section 125.95 of the Revised Code, the management of which has not been delegated to the agency by the administrator program under division (A) of that section 125.95 of the Revised Code or that has not been approved by the center program.
(B) The notice required by section 125.97 of the Revised Code shall appear in a standard place and a standard manner on each form to which the notice applies, and shall include specified indicia of approval by the administrator state forms management program.
(C) Any form required by a state agency on an emergency basis may be given interim approval by the administrator state forms management program if the form is accompanied by a letter from the director or other head of the agency setting forth the nature of the emergency and requesting interim approval.
Sec. 125.98.  (A) Each state agency shall appoint a forms management representative, who may be from existing personnel. The appointee shall cooperate with, and provide other necessary assistance to, the director of administrative services and the administrator of the state forms management control center program in implementing the state forms management program. A forms management representative shall do all of the following:
(1) Manage the agency's forms management program and cooperate with and provide other necessary assistance to the director of administrative services in implementing the state forms management program;
(2) Monitor the use and reproduction of all forms to ensure that all policies, procedures, guidelines, and standards established by the agency and the director of administrative services are followed;
(3) Ensure that every form used by the agency is presented to the state forms management control center program for registration prior to its reproduction;
(4) Maintain a master forms file history file, in numeric order, of all agency forms;
(5) Verify and update the information on all forms computer file reports returned to the agency by the state forms management control center in the central forms repository database.
(B) Any state agency, as such term is defined in section 1.60 of the Revised Code, not included within the definition of a state agency in section 125.91 of the Revised Code may elect to participate in the state forms management program. The center program may provide to any such agency any service required or authorized by sections 125.92 to 125.98 of the Revised Code to be performed for a state agency.
Sec. 126.11.  (A)(1) The director of budget and management shall, upon consultation with the treasurer of state, coordinate and approve the scheduling of initial sales of publicly offered securities of the state and of publicly offered fractionalized interests in or securitized issues of public obligations of the state. The director shall from time to time develop and distribute to state issuers an approved sale schedule for each of the obligations covered by division (A) or (B) of this section. Division (A) of this section applies only to those obligations on which the state or a state agency is the direct obligor or obligor on any backup security or related credit enhancement facility or source of money subject to state appropriations that is intended for payment of those obligations.
(2) The issuers of obligations pursuant to section 151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.07, or 151.09 or Chapter 152. of the Revised Code shall submit to the director:
(a) For review and approval: the projected sale date, amount, and type of obligations proposed to be sold; their purpose, security, and source of payment; and the proposed structure and maturity schedule;
(b) For review and comment: the authorizing order or resolution; preliminary and final offering documents; method of sale; preliminary and final pricing information; and any written reports or recommendations of financial advisors or consultants relating to those obligations;
(c) Promptly after each sale of those obligations: final terms, including sale price, maturity schedule and yields, and sources and uses; names of the original purchasers or underwriters; a copy of the final offering document and of the transcript of proceedings; and any other pertinent information requested by the director.
(3) The issuer of obligations pursuant to section 151.06 , 151.08, or 151.40 or Chapter 154. of the Revised Code shall submit to the director:
(a) For review and mutual agreement: the projected sale date, amount, and type of obligations proposed to be sold; their purpose, security, and source of payment; and the proposed structure and maturity schedule;
(b) For review and comment: the authorizing order or resolution; preliminary and final offering documents; method of sale; preliminary and final pricing information; and any written reports or recommendations of financial advisors or consultants relating to those obligations;
(c) Promptly after each sale of those obligations: final terms, including sale price, maturity schedule and yields, and sources and uses; names of the original purchasers or underwriters; a copy of the final offering document and of the transcript of proceedings; and any other pertinent information requested by the director.
(4) The issuers of obligations pursuant to Chapter 166., 4981., 5507., 5540., or 6121., or section 5531.10, of the Revised Code shall submit to the director:
(a) For review and comment: the projected sale date, amount, and type of obligations proposed to be sold; the purpose, security, and source of payment; and preliminary and final offering documents;
(b) Promptly after each sale of those obligations: final terms, including a maturity schedule; names of the original purchasers or underwriters; a copy of the complete continuing disclosure agreement pursuant to S.E.C. rule 15c2-12 or equivalent rule as from time to time in effect; and any other pertinent information requested by the director.
(5) Not later than thirty days after the end of a fiscal year, each issuer of obligations subject to divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall submit to the director and to the treasurer of state a sale plan for the then current fiscal year for each type of obligation, projecting the amount and term of each issuance, the method of sale, and the month of sale.
(B) Issuers of obligations pursuant to section 3318.085 or Chapter 175., 3366., 3706., 3737., 5537., 6121., or 6123. of the Revised Code shall submit to the director copies of the preliminary and final offering documents upon their availability if not previously submitted pursuant to division (A) of this section.
(C) Not later than the first day of January of each year, every state agency obligated to make payments on outstanding public obligations with respect to which fractionalized interests have been publicly issued, such as certificates of participation, shall submit a report to the director of the amounts payable from state appropriations under those public obligations during the then current and next two fiscal years, identifying the appropriation or intended appropriation from which payment is expected to be made.
(D)(1) Information relating generally to the historic, current, or future demographics or economy or financial condition or funds or general operations of the state, and descriptions of any state contractual obligations relating to public obligations, to be contained in any offering document, continuing disclosure document, or written presentation prepared, approved, or provided, or committed to be provided, by an issuer in connection with the original issuance and sale of, or rating, remarketing, or credit enhancement facilities relating to, public obligations referred to in division (A) of this section shall be approved as to format and accuracy by the director before being presented, published, or disseminated in preliminary, draft, or final form, or publicly filed in paper, electronic, or other format.
(2) Except for information described in division (D)(1) of this section that is to be contained in an offering document, continuing disclosure document, or written presentation, division (D)(1) of this section does not inhibit direct communication between an issuer and a rating agency, remarketing agent, or credit enhancement provider concerning an issuance of public obligations referred to in division (A) of this section or matters associated with that issuance.
(3) The materials approved and provided pursuant to division (D) of this section are the information relating to the particular subjects provided by the state or state agencies that are required or contemplated by any applicable state or federal securities laws and any commitments by the state or state agencies made under those laws. Reliance for the purpose should not be placed on any other information publicly provided, in any format including electronic, by any state agency for other purposes, including general information provided to the public or to portions of the public. A statement to that effect shall be included in those materials so approved or provided.
(E) Issuers of obligations referred to in division (A) of this section may take steps, by formal agreement, covenants in the proceedings, or otherwise, as may be necessary or appropriate to comply or permit compliance with applicable lawful disclosure requirements relating to those obligations, and may, subject to division (D) of this section, provide, make available, or file copies of any required disclosure materials as necessary or appropriate. Any such formal agreement or covenant relating to subjects referred to in division (D) of this section, and any description of that agreement or covenant to be contained in any offering document, shall be approved by the director before being entered into or published or publicly disseminated in preliminary, draft, or final form or publicly filed in paper, electronic, or other format. The director shall be responsible for making all filings in compliance with those requirements relating to direct obligations of the state, including fractionalized interests in those obligations.
(F) No state agency or official shall, without the approval of the director of budget and management, do either of the following:
(1) Enter into or commit to enter into a public obligation under which fractionalized interests in the payments are to be publicly offered, which payments are anticipated to be made from money from any source appropriated or to be appropriated by the general assembly or in which the provision stated in section 9.94 of the Revised Code is not included;
(2) Except as otherwise expressly authorized for the purpose by law, agree or commit to provide, from money from any source to be appropriated in the future by the general assembly, financial assistance to or participation in the costs of capital facilities, or the payment of debt charges, directly or by way of a credit enhancement facility, a reserve, rental payments, or otherwise, on obligations issued to pay costs of capital facilities.
(G) As used in this section, "credit enhancement facilities," "debt charges," "fractionalized interests in public obligations," "obligor," "public issuer," and "securities" have the same meanings as in section 133.01 of the Revised Code; "public obligation" has the same meaning as in division (GG)(2) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code; "obligations" means securities or public obligations or fractionalized interests in them; "issuers" means issuers of securities or state obligors on public obligations; "offering document" means an official statement, offering circular, private placement memorandum, or prospectus, or similar document; and "director" means the director of budget and management or the employee of the office of budget and management designated by the director for the purpose.
Sec. 127.16.  (A) Upon the request of either a state agency or the director of budget and management and after the controlling board determines that an emergency or a sufficient economic reason exists, the controlling board may approve the making of a purchase without competitive selection as provided in division (B) of this section.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no state agency, using money that has been appropriated to it directly, shall:
(1) Make any purchase from a particular supplier, that would amount to fifty thousand dollars or more when combined with both the amount of all disbursements to the supplier during the fiscal year for purchases made by the agency and the amount of all outstanding encumbrances for purchases made by the agency from the supplier, unless the purchase is made by competitive selection or with the approval of the controlling board;
(2) Lease real estate from a particular supplier, if the lease would amount to seventy-five thousand dollars or more when combined with both the amount of all disbursements to the supplier during the fiscal year for real estate leases made by the agency and the amount of all outstanding encumbrances for real estate leases made by the agency from the supplier, unless the lease is made by competitive selection or with the approval of the controlling board.
(C) Any person who authorizes a purchase in violation of division (B) of this section shall be liable to the state for any state funds spent on the purchase, and the attorney general shall collect the amount from the person.
(D) Nothing in division (B) of this section shall be construed as:
(1) A limitation upon the authority of the director of transportation as granted in sections 5501.17, 5517.02, and 5525.14 of the Revised Code;
(2) Applying to medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or payments or provider agreements under the disability assistance medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(3) Applying to the purchase of examinations from a sole supplier by a state licensing board under Title XLVII of the Revised Code;
(4) Applying to entertainment contracts for the Ohio state fair entered into by the Ohio expositions commission, provided that the controlling board has given its approval to the commission to enter into such contracts and has approved a total budget amount for such contracts as agreed upon by commission action, and that the commission causes to be kept itemized records of the amounts of money spent under each contract and annually files those records with the clerk of the house of representatives and the clerk of the senate following the close of the fair;
(5) Limiting the authority of the chief of the division of mineral resources management to contract for reclamation work with an operator mining adjacent land as provided in section 1513.27 of the Revised Code;
(6) Applying to investment transactions and procedures of any state agency, except that the agency shall file with the board the name of any person with whom the agency contracts to make, broker, service, or otherwise manage its investments, as well as the commission, rate, or schedule of charges of such person with respect to any investment transactions to be undertaken on behalf of the agency. The filing shall be in a form and at such times as the board considers appropriate.
(7) Applying to purchases made with money for the per cent for arts program established by section 3379.10 of the Revised Code;
(8) Applying to purchases made by the rehabilitation services commission of services, or supplies, that are provided to persons with disabilities, or to purchases made by the commission in connection with the eligibility determinations it makes for applicants of programs administered by the social security administration;
(9) Applying to payments by the department of job and family services under section 5111.13 of the Revised Code for group health plan premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and other cost-sharing expenses;
(10) Applying to any agency of the legislative branch of the state government;
(11) Applying to agreements or contracts entered into under section 5101.11, 5101.21, or 5101.211, 5101.212, or 5101.214 of the Revised Code;
(12) Applying to purchases of services by the adult parole authority under section 2967.14 of the Revised Code or by the department of youth services under section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;
(13) Applying to dues or fees paid for membership in an organization or association;
(14) Applying to purchases of utility services pursuant to section 9.30 of the Revised Code;
(15) Applying to purchases made in accordance with rules adopted by the department of administrative services of motor vehicle, aviation, or watercraft fuel, or emergency repairs of such vehicles;
(16) Applying to purchases of tickets for passenger air transportation;
(17) Applying to purchases necessary to provide public notifications required by law or to provide notifications of job openings;
(18) Applying to the judicial branch of state government;
(19) Applying to purchases of liquor for resale by the division of liquor control;
(20) Applying to purchases of motor courier and freight services made in accordance with department of administrative services rules;
(21) Applying to purchases from the United States postal service and purchases of stamps and postal meter replenishment from vendors at rates established by the United States postal service;
(22) Applying to purchases of books, periodicals, pamphlets, newspapers, maintenance subscriptions, and other published materials;
(23) Applying to purchases from other state agencies, including state-assisted institutions of higher education;
(24) Limiting the authority of the director of environmental protection to enter into contracts under division (D) of section 3745.14 of the Revised Code to conduct compliance reviews, as defined in division (A) of that section;
(25) Applying to purchases from a qualified nonprofit agency pursuant to sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the Revised Code;
(26) Applying to payments by the department of job and family services to the United States department of health and human services for printing and mailing notices pertaining to the tax refund offset program of the internal revenue service of the United States department of the treasury;
(27) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities under sections 5123.18, 5123.182, and 5111.252 5123.199 of the Revised Code;
(28) Applying to payments made by the department of mental health under a physician recruitment program authorized by section 5119.101 of the Revised Code;
(29) Applying to contracts entered into with persons by the director of commerce for unclaimed funds collection and remittance efforts as provided in division (F) of section 169.03 of the Revised Code. The director shall keep an itemized accounting of unclaimed funds collected by those persons and amounts paid to them for their services.
(30) Applying to purchases made by a state institution of higher education in accordance with the terms of a contract between the vendor and an inter-university purchasing group comprised of purchasing officers of state institutions of higher education;
(31) Applying to the department of job and family services' purchases of health assistance services under the children's health insurance program part I provided for under section 5101.50 of the Revised Code or the children's health insurance program part II provided for under section 5101.51 of the Revised Code;
(32) Applying to payments by the attorney general from the reparations fund to hospitals and other emergency medical facilities for performing medical examinations to collect physical evidence pursuant to section 2907.28 of the Revised Code;
(33) Applying to contracts with a contracting authority or administrative receiver under division (G)(2) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code.
(E) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, the cumulative purchase threshold shall be seventy-five thousand dollars for the departments of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, mental health, rehabilitation and correction, and youth services.
(F) When determining whether a state agency has reached the cumulative purchase thresholds established in divisions (B)(1), (B)(2), and (E) of this section, all of the following purchases by such agency shall not be considered:
(1) Purchases made through competitive selection or with controlling board approval;
(2) Purchases listed in division (D) of this section;
(3) For the purposes of the thresholds of divisions (B)(1) and (E) of this section only, leases of real estate.
(G) As used in this section, "competitive selection," "purchase," "supplies," and "services" have the same meanings as in section 125.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 131.23.  The various political subdivisions of this state may issue bonds, and any indebtedness created by such issuance shall not be subject to the limitations or included in the calculation of indebtedness prescribed by sections 133.05, 133.06, 133.07, and 133.09 of the Revised Code, but such bonds may be issued only under the following conditions:
(A) The subdivision desiring to issue such bonds shall obtain from the county auditor a certificate showing the total amount of delinquent taxes due and unpayable to such subdivision at the last semiannual tax settlement.
(B) The fiscal officer of that subdivision shall prepare a statement, from the books of the subdivision, verified by him the fiscal officer under oath, which shall contain the following facts of such subdivision:
(1) The total bonded indebtedness;
(2) The aggregate amount of notes payable or outstanding accounts of the subdivision, incurred prior to the commencement of the current fiscal year, which shall include all evidences of indebtedness issued by the subdivision except notes issued in anticipation of bond issues and the indebtedness of any nontax-supported public utility;
(3) Except in the case of school districts, the aggregate current year's requirement for disability financial assistance and disability medical assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code that the subdivision is unable to finance except by the issue of bonds;
(4) The indebtedness outstanding through the issuance of any bonds or notes pledged or obligated to be paid by any delinquent taxes;
(5) The total of any other indebtedness;
(6) The net amount of delinquent taxes unpledged to pay any bonds, notes, or certificates, including delinquent assessments on improvements on which the bonds have been paid;
(7) The budget requirements for the fiscal year for bond and note retirement;
(8) The estimated revenue for the fiscal year.
(C) The certificate and statement provided for in divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be forwarded to the tax commissioner together with a request for authority to issue bonds of such subdivision in an amount not to exceed seventy per cent of the net unobligated delinquent taxes and assessments due and owing to such subdivision, as set forth in division (B)(6) of this section.
(D) No subdivision may issue bonds under this section in excess of a sufficient amount to pay the indebtedness of the subdivision as shown by division (B)(2) of this section and, except in the case of school districts, to provide funds for disability financial assistance and disability medical assistance, as shown by division (B)(3) of this section.
(E) The tax commissioner shall grant to such subdivision authority requested by such subdivision as restricted by divisions (C) and (D) of this section and shall make a record of the certificate, statement, and grant in a record book devoted solely to such recording and which shall be open to inspection by the public.
(F) The commissioner shall immediately upon issuing the authority provided in division (E) of this section notify the proper authority having charge of the retirement of bonds of such subdivision by forwarding a copy of such grant of authority and of the statement provided for in division (B) of this section.
(G) Upon receipt of authority, the subdivision shall proceed according to law to issue the amount of bonds authorized by the commissioner, and authorized by the taxing authority, provided the taxing authority of that subdivision may by resolution submit to the electors of that subdivision the question of issuing such bonds. Such resolution shall make the declarations and statements required by section 133.18 of the Revised Code. The county auditor and taxing authority shall thereupon proceed as set forth in divisions (C) and (D) of such section. The election on the question of issuing such bonds shall be held under divisions (E), (F), and (G) of such section, except that publication of the notice of such election shall be made on four separate days prior to such election in one or more newspapers of general circulation in the subdivisions. Such bonds may be exchanged at their face value with creditors of the subdivision in liquidating the indebtedness described and enumerated in division (B)(2) of this section or may be sold as provided in Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, and in either event shall be uncontestable.
(H) The per cent of delinquent taxes and assessments collected for and to the credit of the subdivision after the exchange or sale of bonds as certified by the commissioner shall be paid to the authority having charge of the sinking fund of the subdivision, which money shall be placed in a separate fund for the purpose of retiring the bonds so issued. The proper authority of the subdivisions shall provide for the levying of a tax sufficient in amount to pay the debt charges on all such bonds issued under this section.
(I) This section is for the sole purpose of assisting the various subdivisions in paying their unsecured indebtedness, and providing funds for disability financial assistance and disability medical assistance. The bonds issued under authority of this section shall not be used for any other purpose and any exchange for other purposes, or the use of the money derived from the sale of such bonds by the subdivision for any other purpose, is misapplication of funds.
(J) The bonds authorized by this section shall be redeemable or payable in not to exceed ten years from date of issue and shall not be subject to or considered in calculating the net indebtedness of the subdivision. The budget commission of the county in which the subdivision is located shall annually allocate such portion of the then delinquent levy due such subdivision which is unpledged for other purposes to the payment of debt charges on the bonds issued under authority of this section.
(K) The issue of bonds under this section shall be governed by Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, respecting the terms used, forms, manner of sale, and redemption except as otherwise provided in this section.
The board of county commissioners of any county may issue bonds authorized by this section and distribute the proceeds of such bond issues to any or all of the cities and townships of such counties, according to their relative needs for disability financial assistance and disability medical assistance as determined by such county.
All sections of the Revised Code inconsistent with or prohibiting the exercise of the authority conferred by this section are inoperative respecting bonds issued under this section.
Sec. 131.35.  (A) With respect to the federal funds received into any fund of the state from which transfers may be made under division (D) of section 127.14 of the Revised Code:
(1) No state agency may make expenditures of any federal funds, whether such funds are advanced prior to expenditure or as reimbursement, unless such expenditures are made pursuant to specific appropriations of the general assembly identifying the federal program that is the source of funds, are authorized pursuant to section 131.38 of the Revised Code, are authorized by the controlling board pursuant to division (A)(5) of this section, or are authorized by an executive order issued in accordance with section 107.17 of the Revised Code, and until an allotment has been approved by the director of budget and management. All federal funds received by a state agency shall be reported to the director within fifteen days of the receipt of such funds or the notification of award, whichever occurs first. The director shall prescribe the forms and procedures to be used when reporting the receipt of federal funds.
(2) If the federal funds received are greater than the amount of such funds appropriated by the general assembly for a specific purpose, the total appropriation of federal and state funds for such purpose shall remain at the amount designated by the general assembly, except that the expenditure of federal funds received in excess of such specific appropriation may be authorized by the controlling board.
(3) To the extent that the expenditure of excess federal funds is authorized, the controlling board may transfer a like amount of general revenue fund appropriation authority from the affected agency to the emergency purposes appropriation of the controlling board, if such action is permitted under federal regulations.
(4) Additional funds may be created by the controlling board to receive revenues not anticipated in an appropriations act for the biennium in which such new revenues are received. Expenditures from such additional funds may be authorized by the controlling board, but such authorization shall not extend beyond the end of the biennium in which such funds are created.
(5) Controlling board authorization for a state agency to make an expenditure of federal funds constitutes authority for the agency to participate in the federal program providing the funds, and the agency is not required to obtain an executive order under section 107.17 of the Revised Code to participate in the federal program.
(B) With respect to nonfederal funds received into the waterways safety fund, the wildlife fund, and any fund of the state from which transfers may be made under division (D) of section 127.14 of the Revised Code:
(1) No state agency may make expenditures of any such funds unless the expenditures are made pursuant to specific appropriations of the general assembly.
(2) If the receipts received into any fund are greater than the amount appropriated, the appropriation for that fund shall remain at the amount designated by the general assembly or as increased and approved by the controlling board.
(3) Additional funds may be created by the controlling board to receive revenues not anticipated in an appropriations act for the biennium in which such new revenues are received. Expenditures from such additional funds may be authorized by the controlling board, but such authorization shall not extend beyond the end of the biennium in which such funds are created.
(C) The controlling board shall not authorize more than ten per cent of additional spending from the occupational licensing and regulatory fund, created in section 4743.05 of the Revised Code, in excess of any appropriation made by the general assembly to a licensing agency except an appropriation for costs related to the examination or reexamination of applicants for a license. As used in this division, "licensing agency" and "license" have the same meanings as in section 4745.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 147.01.  (A) The secretary of state may appoint and commission as notaries public as many persons who meet the qualifications of division (B) of this section as the secretary of state considers necessary.
(B) In order for a person to qualify to be appointed and commissioned as a notary public, the person must satisfy both of the following:
(1) The person has attained the age of eighteen years.
(2) One of the following applies:
(a) The person is a citizen legal resident of this state who is not an attorney admitted to the practice of law in this state by the Ohio supreme court.
(b) The person is a citizen legal resident of this state who is an attorney admitted to the practice of law in this state by the Ohio supreme court.
(c) The person is not a citizen legal resident of this state, is an attorney admitted to the practice of law in this state by the Ohio supreme court, and has the person's principal place of business or the person's primary practice in this state.
(C) A notary public shall be appointed and commissioned as a notary public for the state. The secretary of state may revoke a commission issued to a notary public upon presentation of satisfactory evidence of official misconduct or incapacity.
Sec. 147.37.  Each person receiving a commission as notary public, except including an attorney admitted to the practice of law in this state by the Ohio supreme court, shall pay a fee of five fifteen dollars to the secretary of state. Each person receiving a commission as a notary public who is an attorney admitted to the practice of law in this state by the Ohio supreme court shall pay a fee of ten dollars to the secretary of state.
Sec. 149.011.  As used in this chapter:
(A) "Public office" includes any state agency, public institution, political subdivision, or any other organized body, office, agency, institution, or entity established by the laws of this state for the exercise of any function of government.
(B) "State agency" includes every department, bureau, board, commission, office, or other organized body established by the constitution and laws of this state for the exercise of any function of state government, including any state-supported institution of higher education, the general assembly, or any legislative agency, any court or judicial agency, or any political subdivision or agency thereof of a political subdivision.
(C) "Public money" includes all money received or collected by or due a public official, whether in accordance with or under authority of any law, ordinance, resolution, or order, under color of office, or otherwise. It also includes any money collected by any individual on behalf of a public office or as a purported representative or agent of the public office.
(D) "Public official" includes all officers, employees, or duly authorized representatives or agents of a public office.
(E) "Color of office" includes any act purported or alleged to be done under any law, ordinance, resolution, order, or other pretension to official right, power, or authority.
(F) "Archive" includes any public record that is transferred to the state archives or other designated archival institutions because of the historical information contained on it.
(G) "Records" includes any document, device, or item, regardless of physical form or characteristic, including an electronic record as defined in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code, created or received by or coming under the jurisdiction of any public office of the state or its political subdivisions, which serves to document the organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, or other activities of the office.
Sec. 149.33.  (A) The department of administrative services shall have full responsibility for establishing and administering a state records program for all state agencies, except for state-supported institutions of higher education. The department shall apply efficient and economical management methods to the creation, utilization, maintenance, retention, preservation, and disposition of state records.
There is hereby established within the department of administrative services an office of a state records administration program, which shall be under the control and supervision of the director of administrative services or his the director's appointed deputy. The director shall designate an administrator of the office of state records administration.
(B) The boards of trustees of state-supported institutions of higher education shall have full responsibility for establishing and administering a records program for their respective institutions. The boards shall apply efficient and economical management methods to the creation, utilization, maintenance, retention, preservation, and disposition of the records of their respective institutions.
Sec. 149.331.  The state record administration records program of the department of administrative services shall do all of the following:
(A) Establish and promulgate in consultation with the state archivist standards, procedures, and techniques for the effective management of state records;
(B) Make continuing surveys of record-keeping operations and recommend improvements in current records management practices including the use of space, equipment, and supplies employed in creating, maintaining, storing, and servicing records;
(C) Establish and operate such state records centers and auxiliary facilities as may be authorized by appropriation and provide such related services as are deemed necessary for the preservation, screening, storage, and servicing of state records pending disposition;
(D) Review applications for one-time records disposal and schedules of records retention and destruction submitted by state agencies in accordance with section 149.333 of the Revised Code;
(E)(C) Establish "general schedules" proposing the disposal, after the lapse of specified periods of time, of records of specified form or character common to several or all agencies that either have accumulated or may accumulate in such agencies and that apparently will not, after the lapse of the periods specified, have sufficient administrative, legal, fiscal, or other value to warrant their further preservation by the state;
(F)(D) Establish and maintain a records management training program, and provide a basic consulting service, for personnel involved in record-making and record-keeping functions of departments, offices, and institutions;
(G) Obtain reports from departments, offices, and institutions necessary for the effective administration of the program;
(H)(E) Provide for the disposition of any remaining records of any state agency, board, or commission, whether in the executive, judicial, or legislative branch of government, that has terminated its operations. After the closing of the Ohio veterans' children's home, the resident records of the home and the resident records of the home when it was known as the soldiers' and sailors' orphans' home required to be maintained by approved records retention schedules shall be administered by the state department of education pursuant to this chapter, the administrative records of the home required to be maintained by approved records retention schedules shall be administered by the department of administrative services pursuant to this chapter, and historical records of the home shall be transferred to an appropriate archival institution in this state prescribed by the state record administration records program.
(I)(F) Establish a centralized program coordinating micrographics standards, training, and services for the benefit of all state agencies;
(J)(G) Establish and publish in accordance with the applicable law necessary procedures and rules for the retention and disposal of state records.
This section does not apply to the records of state-supported institutions of higher education, which shall keep their own records.
Sec. 149.332.  Upon request the state records administrator director of administrative services and the state archivist shall assist and advise in the establishment of records management programs in the legislative and judicial branches of state government and shall, as required by them, provide program services similar to those available to the executive branch pursuant to under section 149.33 of the Revised Code. Prior to the disposal of any records, the state archivist shall be allowed sixty days to select for preservation in the state archives those records he the state archivist determines to have continuing historical value.
Sec. 149.333.  No state agency shall retain, destroy, or otherwise transfer its state records in violation of this section. This section does not apply to state-supported institutions of higher education.
Each state agency shall submit to the state records administrator program under the director of administrative services all applications for records disposal or transfer and all schedules of records retention and destruction. The state records administrator program shall review such the applications and schedules and provide written approval, rejection, or modification of the an application or schedule. The state records administrator program shall then forward the application for records disposal or transfer or the schedule for retention or destruction, with the administrator's program's recommendation attached, to the auditor of state for review and approval. The decision of the auditor of state to approve, reject, or modify the applications application or schedules schedule shall be based upon the continuing administrative and fiscal value of the state records to the state or to its citizens. If the auditor of state disapproves the action by the state agency, he the auditor of state shall so inform the state agency through the state records administrator program within sixty days, and these the records shall not be destroyed. At
At the same time, the state records administrator program shall forward the application for records disposal or transfer or the schedule for retention or destruction to the state archivist for review and approval. The state archivist shall have sixty days to select for custody such the state records as he that the state archivist determines to be of continuing historical value. Records not so selected shall be disposed of in accordance with this section.
Sec. 149.34.  The head of each state agency, office, institution, board, or commission shall do the following:
(A) Establish, maintain, and direct an active continuing program for the effective management of the records of the state agency;
(B) Cooperate with the state records administrator in the conduct of surveys pursuant to section 149.331 of the Revised Code;
(C) Submit to the state records administrator program, in accordance with applicable standards and procedures, schedules proposing the length of time each record series warrants retention for administrative, legal, or fiscal purposes after it has been received or created by the agency. The head of each state agency also shall submit to the state records administrator program applications for disposal of records in his the head's custody that are not needed in the transaction of current business and are not otherwise scheduled for retention or destruction.
(D) Transfer to a state records center or auxiliary facilities, in the manner prescribed by the state records administrator, those records of the agency that can be retained more efficiently and economically in such a center;
(E)(C) Within one year after their date of creation or receipt, schedule all records for disposition or retention in the manner prescribed by applicable law and procedures.
This section does not apply to state-supported institutions of higher education.
Sec. 149.35.  If any law prohibits the destruction of records, neither the state records administrator nor director of administrative services, the director's designee, or the boards of trustees of state-supported institutions of higher education shall not order their destruction or other disposition, and, if. If any law provides that records shall be kept for a specified period of time, neither the administrator nor director of administrative services, the director's designee, or the boards shall not order their destruction or other disposition prior to the expiration of such that period.
Sec. 153.65.  As used in sections 153.65 to 153.71 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Public authority" means the state, or a county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or any public agency, authority, board, commission, instrumentality, or special district of the state or a county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision.
(B) "Professional design firm" means any person legally engaged in rendering professional design services.
(C) "Professional design services" means services within the scope of practice of an architect or landscape architect registered under Chapter 4703. of the Revised Code or a professional engineer or surveyor registered under Chapter 4733. of the Revised Code.
(D) "Qualifications" means all of the following:
(1) Competence of the professional design firm to perform the required professional design services as indicated by the technical training, education, and experience of the firm's personnel, especially the technical training, education, and experience of the employees within the firm who would be assigned to perform the services;
(2) Ability of the firm in terms of its workload and the availability of qualified personnel, equipment, and facilities to perform the required professional design services competently and expeditiously;
(3) Past performance of the firm as reflected by the evaluations of previous clients with respect to such factors as control of costs, quality of work, and meeting of deadlines;
(4) Other similar Any other relevant factors as determined by the public authority.
Sec. 163.06.  (A) A public agency, other than an agency appropriating property for the purposes described in division (B) of this section, which qualifies pursuant to Section 19 of Article I, Ohio Constitution, may deposit with the court at the time of filing the petition the value of such property appropriated together with the damages, if any, to the residue, as determined by the public agency, and thereupon take possession of and enter upon the property appropriated. The right of possession upon deposit as provided in this division shall not extend to structures.
(B) A public agency appropriating property for the purpose of making or repairing roads which shall be open to the public, without charge, or for the purpose of implementing rail service under Chapter 4981. of the Revised Code, may deposit with the court at the time of filing the petition the value of such property appropriated together with the damages, if any, to the residue, as determined by the public agency, and stated in an attached declaration of intention to obtain possession and thereupon take possession of and enter upon the property appropriated, including structures situated upon the land appropriated for such purpose or situated partly upon the land appropriated therefor and partly upon adjoining land, so that such structures cannot be divided upon the line between such lands without manifest injury thereto. The jury, in assessing compensation to any owner of land appropriated under this division shall assess the value thereof in accordance with section 163.14 of the Revised Code. The owner or occupant of such structures shall vacate the same within sixty days after service of summons as required under section 163.07 of the Revised Code, at no cost to the appropriating agency, after which time the agency may remove said structures. In the event such structures are to be removed before the jury has fixed the value of the same, the court, upon motion of the agency, shall:
(1) Order appraisals to be made by three persons, one to be named by the owner, one by the county auditor, and one by the agency. Such appraisals may be used as evidence by the owner or the agency in the trial of said case but shall not be binding on said owner, agency, or the jury, and the expense of said appraisals shall be approved by the court and charged as costs in said case.
(2) Cause pictures to be taken of all sides of said structures;
(3) Compile a complete description of said structures, which shall be preserved as evidence in said case to which the owner or occupants shall have access.
(C) Any time after the deposit is made by the public agency under division (A) or (B) of this section, the owner may apply to the court to withdraw the deposit, and such withdrawal shall in no way interfere with the action except that the sum so withdrawn shall be deducted from the sum of the final verdict or award. Upon such application being made the court shall direct that the sum be paid to such owner subject to the rights of other parties in interest provided such parties make timely application as provided in section 163.18 of the Revised Code. Interest shall not accrue on any sums withdrawable as provided in this division.
Sec. 164.27. (A) The clean Ohio conservation fund is hereby created in the state treasury. Seventy-five per cent of the net proceeds of obligations issued and sold by the issuing authority pursuant to sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. For two years after the effective date of this section, investment earnings credited to the fund and may be used to pay costs incurred by the Ohio public works commission in administering sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the clean Ohio conservation fund shall be used to make grants to local political subdivisions and nonprofit organizations for projects that have been approved for grants under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.
The clean Ohio conservation fund shall be administered by the Ohio public works commission.
(B) For the purpose of grants issued under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code, moneys shall be allocated on an annual basis from the clean Ohio conservation fund to districts represented by natural resources assistance councils as follows:
(1) Each district shall receive an amount that is equal to one-fourth of one per cent of the total annual amount allocated to all districts each year for each county that is represented by the district.
(2) The remaining moneys shall be allocated to each district annually on a per capita basis.
(C) A grant that is awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent of the estimated cost of a project. Matching funds from a grant recipient may consist of contributions of money by any person, any local political subdivision, or the federal government or of contributions in-kind by such entities through the purchase or donation of equipment, land, easements, interest in land, labor, or materials necessary to complete the project.
(D) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall notify the director of budget and management of the amounts allocated pursuant to this section, and that information shall be entered in the state accounting system. The director of budget and management may establish appropriate line items or other mechanisms that are needed to track the allocations.
(E) Grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code from the clean Ohio conservation fund shall be used by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization only to pay the costs related to the purposes for which grants may be issued under section 164.22 of the Revised Code and shall not be used by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization to pay any administrative costs incurred by the local political subdivision or nonprofit organization.
Sec. 165.09.  Any real or personal property, or both, of an issuer which that is acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished or equipped, or any combination thereof, and leased or subleased under authority of either Chapter 165. or 761. of the Revised Code shall be subject to ad valorem, sales, use, and franchise taxes and to zoning, planning, and building regulations and fees, to the same extent and in the same manner as if the lessee-user or sublessee-user thereof, rather than the issuer, had acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof, such real or personal property, and title thereto was in the name of such lessee-user or sublessee-user.
The transfer of tangible personal property by lease or sublease under authority of either Chapter 165. or 761. of the Revised Code is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code. The exemptions provided in divisions (B)(1) and (B)(14)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code shall not be applicable to purchases for a project under either Chapters 165. or 761. of the Revised Code.
An issuer shall be exempt from all taxes on its real or personal property, or both, which has been acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof, under Chapter 165. or 761. of the Revised Code, so long as such property is used by the issuer for purposes which would otherwise exempt such property; has ceased to be used by a former lessee-user or sublessee-user and is not occupied or used; or has been acquired by the issuer, but development has not yet commenced. The exemption shall be effective as of the date the exempt use begins. All taxes on the exempt real or personal property for the year should be prorated and the taxes for the exempt portion of the year shall be remitted by the county auditor.
Sec. 173.08. (A) The resident services coordinator program is established in the department of aging to fund resident services coordinators. The coordinators shall provide information to low-income and special-needs tenants, including the elderly, who live in subsidized rental housing complexes, and assist those tenants in identifying and obtaining community and program services and other benefits for which they are eligible.
(B) The resident services coordinator program fund is hereby created in the state treasury to support the resident services coordinator program established pursuant to this section. The fund consists of all moneys the department of development sets aside pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 175.21 of the Revised Code and moneys the general assembly appropriates to the fund.
Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code:
(A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential facility that provides personal care services for more than twenty-four hours for two or more unrelated adults, including all of the following:
(a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;
(b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;
(c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;
(d) An "adult care facility" as defined in section 3722.01 of the Revised Code;
(e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for the placement and care of veterans;
(f) An adult foster home certified under section 173.36 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.22 of the Revised Code or a "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.
(B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or deceased resident of a long-term care facility.
(C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health and social services provided to persons age sixty or older in their own homes or in community care settings, and includes any of the following:
(1) Case management;
(2) Home health care;
(3) Homemaker services;
(4) Chore services;
(5) Respite care;
(6) Adult day care;
(7) Home-delivered meals;
(8) Personal care;
(9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;
(10) Any other health and social services provided to persons age sixty or older that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or in community care settings.
(D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based long-term care services.
(E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a resident or a recipient.
(F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
(G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program" means an entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the state long-term care ombudsperson.
(H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program" means the state long-term care ombudsperson or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person certified as a representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised Code.
(I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.
Sec. 173.20.  (A) If consent is given and unless otherwise prohibited by law, a representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program shall have access to any records, including medical records, of a resident or a recipient that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint. Consent may be given in any of the following ways:
(1) In writing by the resident or recipient;
(2) Orally by the resident or recipient, witnessed in writing at the time it is given by one other person, and, if the records involved are being maintained by a long-term care provider, also by an employee of the long-term care provider designated under division (E)(1) of this section;
(3) In writing by the guardian of the resident or recipient;
(4) In writing by the attorney in fact of the resident or recipient, if the resident or recipient has authorized the attorney in fact to give such consent;
(5) In writing by the executor or administrator of the estate of a deceased resident or recipient.
(B) If consent to access to records is not refused by a resident or recipient or his the resident's or recipient's legal representative but cannot be obtained and any of the following circumstances exist, a representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program, on approval of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson, may inspect the records of a resident or a recipient, including medical records, that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint:
(1) The resident or recipient is unable to express written or oral consent and there is no guardian or attorney in fact;
(2) There is a guardian or attorney in fact, but he the guardian or attorney in fact cannot be contacted within three working days;
(3) There is a guardianship or durable power of attorney, but its existence is unknown by the long-term care provider and the representative of the office at the time of the investigation;
(4) There is no executor or administrator of the estate of a deceased resident or recipient.
(C) If a representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program has been refused access to records by a guardian or attorney in fact, but has reasonable cause to believe that the guardian or attorney in fact is not acting in the best interests of the resident or recipient, the representative may, on approval of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson, inspect the records of the resident or recipient, including medical records, that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint.
(D) A representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program shall have access to any records of a long-term care provider reasonably necessary to an investigation conducted under this section, including but not limited to: incident reports, dietary records, policies and procedures of a facility required to be maintained under section 5111.21 of the Revised Code, admission agreements, staffing schedules, any document depicting the actual staffing pattern of the provider, any financial records that are matters of public record, resident council and grievance committee minutes, and any waiting list maintained by a facility in accordance with section 5111.31 5111.222 of the Revised Code, or any similar records or lists maintained by a provider of community-based long-term care services. Pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, a representative shall be permitted to make or obtain copies of any of these records after giving the long-term care provider twenty-four hours' notice. A long-term care provider may impose a charge for providing copies of records under this division that does not exceed the actual and necessary expense of making the copies.
The state ombudsman ombudsperson shall take whatever action is necessary to ensure that any copy of a record made or obtained under this division is returned to the long-term care provider no later than three years after the date the investigation for which the copy was made or obtained is completed.
(E)(1) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or more of its employees to be responsible for witnessing the giving of oral consent under division (A) of this section. In the event that a designated employee is not available when a resident or recipient attempts to give oral consent, the provider shall designate another employee to witness the consent.
(2) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or more of its employees to be responsible for releasing records for copying to representatives of the office of the long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program who request permission to make or obtain copies of records specified in division (D) of this section. In the event that a designated employee is not available when a representative of the office makes the request, the long-term care provider shall designate another employee to release the records for copying.
(F) A long-term care provider or any employee of such a provider is immune from civil or criminal liability or action taken pursuant to a professional disciplinary procedure for the release or disclosure of records to a representative of the office pursuant to this section.
(G) A state or local government agency or entity with records relevant to a complaint or investigation being conducted by a representative of the office shall provide the representative access to the records.
(H) The state ombudsman ombudsperson, with the approval of the director of aging, may issue a subpoena to compel any person he the ombudsperson reasonably believes may be able to provide information to appear before him the ombudsperson or his the ombudsperson's designee and give sworn testimony and to produce documents, books, records, papers, or other evidence the state ombudsman ombudsperson believes is relevant to the investigation. On the refusal of a witness to be sworn or to answer any question put to him the witness, or if a person disobeys a subpoena, the ombudsman ombudsperson shall apply to the Franklin county court of common pleas for a contempt order, as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from the court, or a refusal to testify in the court.
(I) The state ombudsman ombudsperson may petition the court of common pleas in the county in which a long-term care facility is located to issue an injunction against any long-term care facility in violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.
(J) Any suspected violation of Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code discovered during the course of an investigation may be reported to the department of health. Any suspected criminal violation discovered during the course of an investigation shall be reported to the attorney general or other appropriate law enforcement authorities.
(K) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for referral by the state ombudsman ombudsperson and regional long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson programs of complaints to other public agencies or entities. A public agency or entity to which a complaint is referred shall keep the state ombudsman ombudsperson or regional program handling the complaint advised and notified in writing in a timely manner of the disposition of the complaint to the extent permitted by law.
Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program, through the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson and the regional long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson programs, shall require each representative of the office to complete a training and certification program in accordance with this section and to meet the continuing education requirements established under this section.
(B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program. Training for representatives other than those who are volunteers providing services through regional long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson programs shall include instruction regarding federal, state, and local laws, rules, and policies on long-term care facilities and community-based long-term care services; investigative techniques; and other topics considered relevant by the department and shall consist of the following:
(1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle complaints without the supervision of a representative of the office certified under this section;
(2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;
(3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson.
(4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the first twenty-four months of employment:
(a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of health to certify a facility to receive funds under sections 5111.20 to 5111.32 the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;
(b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of health to license an adult care facility under section 3722.04 of the Revised Code.
(5) Any other training considered appropriate by the department.
(C) Persons who for a period of at least six months prior to June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmen through the long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program established by the department of aging under division (M) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be required to complete a training program. These persons and persons who complete a training program shall take an examination administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as a representative of the office. The department shall issue the person an identification card, which the representative shall show at the request of any person with whom he the representative deals while performing his the representative's duties and which he shall surrender be surrendered at the time he the representative separates from the office.
(D) The state ombudsman ombudsperson and each regional program shall conduct training programs for volunteers on their respective staffs in accordance with the rules of the department of aging adopted under division (B) of this section. Training programs may be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, but not all, of the duties of a representative of the office. Each regional office shall bear the cost of training its representatives who are volunteers. On completion of a training program, the representative shall take an examination administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, he a volunteer shall be certified by the department as a representative authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The department shall issue an identification card, which the representative shall show at the request of any person with whom he the representative deals while performing his the representative's duties and which he shall surrender be surrendered at the time he the representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty unless he is certified as a representative having received appropriate training for that duty.
(E) The state ombudsman ombudsperson shall provide technical assistance to regional programs conducting training programs for volunteers and shall monitor the training programs.
(F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of this section, the state ombudsman ombudsperson shall obtain permission to have the survey or inspection observed from both the director of health and the long-term care facility at which the survey or inspection is to take place.
(G) The department of aging shall establish continuing education requirements for representatives of the office.
Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall annually pay to the department of aging three six dollars for each bed maintained by the facility for use by a resident during any part of the previous year:
(1) Nursing homes, residential care facilities, and homes for the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;
(2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;
(3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;
(4) Adult care facilities as defined in section 3722.01 of the Revised Code;
(5) Adult foster homes certified under section 173.36 of the Revised Code;
(6) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for the placement and care of veterans.
The department shall, by rule adopted under section 111.15 of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments required by this section.
(B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program fund, which is hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay the costs of operating the regional long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson programs.
(C) The state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson and the regional programs may solicit and receive contributions to support the operation of the office or a regional program, except that no contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.
Sec. 173.55.  The department of aging may charge a fee, not to exceed four hundred dollars, for each of the annual customer satisfaction surveys conducted under section 173.54 of the Revised Code. The fee shall be paid by the nursing facility and is subject to reimbursement through the medicaid program pursuant to sections 5111.20 to 5111.32 established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.
All fees collected under this section shall be deposited to the credit of the long-term care consumer guide fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be used for costs associated with publishing the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, including the cost of contracting with persons and government entities under section 173.47 of the Revised Code. The department may contract with a person or government entity to collect the fees on behalf of the department.
Sec. 173.57.  (A) The department of aging shall adopt rules to implement and administer sections 173.45 to 173.59 of the Revised Code. The rules shall specify all of the following:
(1) The content of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, including any information in addition to the information specified in section 173.51 of the Revised Code;
(2) The content of the computerized and printed forms of the executive summary of the consumer guide;
(3) The customer satisfaction measures to be published in the consumer guide pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 173.51 of the Revised Code;
(4) The clinical quality indicators to be published in the consumer guide pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 173.51 of the Revised Code;
(5) For purposes of clinical quality, customer satisfaction, and survey data tag comparisons under section 173.51 of the Revised Code, criteria to be used in classifying nursing facilities into peer groups, which may be based on case-mix scores calculated pursuant to rules adopted under section 5111.231 5111.02 of the Revised Code, the size of nursing facilities, the location of facilities, or other pertinent factors;
(6) The format for listing nursing facility services in the consumer guide and the manner in which that information is to be collected from nursing facilities;
(7) A method of including additional long-term care facilities and service providers in the consumer guide pursuant to considerations made under division (B)(4) of section 173.58 of the Revised Code;
(8) Any other requirements necessary to implement and administer sections 173.45 to 173.59 of the Revised Code.
(B) The department shall develop rules under this section in consultation with the long-term care consumer guide advisory council created under section 173.58 of the Revised Code. Before filing a rule under section 119.03 of the Revised Code, the department shall present it to the advisory council and provide the council a reasonable time to comment on it. The department shall give appropriate consideration to recommendations of the advisory council regarding proposed rules.
(C) All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Initial rules shall be adopted not later than six months after the effective date of this section July 1, 2000.
Sec. 175.03.  (A)(1) The Ohio housing finance agency shall consist of eleven members. Nine of the members shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. The director of commerce and the director of development, or their respective designees, shall also be voting members of the agency. Of the nine appointed members, at least one shall have experience in residential housing construction; at least one shall have experience in residential housing mortgage lending, loan servicing, or brokering; at least one shall have experience in the licensed residential housing brokerage business; at least one shall have experience with the housing needs of senior citizens; at least one shall be from a background in labor representation in the construction industry; at least one shall represent the interests of nonprofit multifamily housing development corporations; at least one shall represent the interests of for-profit multifamily housing development organizations; and two shall be public members. The governor shall receive recommendations from the Ohio housing council for appointees to represent the interests of nonprofit multifamily housing development corporations and for-profit multifamily housing development organizations. Each appointee representing multifamily housing interests currently shall be employed with an organization that is active in the area of affordable housing development or management. No more than six of the appointed members of the agency shall be of the same political party. Of the appointments made to the agency for the eighth and ninth appointed members in accordance with this amendment, one shall be for a term ending on January 31, 2005, and one shall be for a term ending on January 31, 2006. Thereafter, each appointed member shall serve for a term ending on the thirty-first day of January which is six years following the date of termination of the term which it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any appointed member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Each appointed member may be removed from office by the governor for misfeasance, nonfeasance, malfeasance in office, or for failure to attend in person three consecutive meetings of the agency.
(2) The director of development or the director's designee governor shall be appoint the chairperson of the agency. The agency shall elect one of its appointed members as vice-chairperson and such other officers as it deems necessary, who need not be members of the agency. Each appointed member of the agency shall receive compensation at the rate of one hundred fifty dollars per agency meeting attended in person, not to exceed a maximum of three thousand dollars per year. All members shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their official duties.
(3) Six members of the agency constitute a quorum, and the affirmative vote of six members shall be necessary for any action taken by the agency. No vacancy in membership of the agency impairs the right of a quorum to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties of the agency. Meetings of the agency may be held at any place within the state. Meetings of the agency, including notice of the place of meetings, shall comply with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) The appointed members of the agency are not subject to section 102.02 of the Revised Code. Each such appointed member shall file with the agency a signed written statement setting forth the general nature of sales of goods, property or services or of loans to the agency in which such member has a pecuniary interest or in which any member of the member's immediate family, as defined in section 102.01 of the Revised Code, or any corporation, partnership or enterprise of which the member is an officer, director, or partner, or of which the member or a member of the member's immediate family, as so defined, owns more than a five per cent interest, has a pecuniary interest, and of which sale, loan and interest such member has knowledge. The statement shall be supplemented from time to time to reflect changes in the general nature of any such sales or loans. No member shall participate in portions of agency meetings dealing with, or vote concerning, any such matter.
(2) The requirements of this section pertaining to disclosure and prohibition from participation and voting do not apply to agency loans to lending institutions or contracts between the agency and lending institutions for the purchase, administration, or servicing of loans notwithstanding that such lending institution has a director, officer, employee, or owner who is a member of the agency, and no such loans or contracts shall be deemed to be prohibited or otherwise regulated by reason of any other law or rule.
(3) The members of the agency representing multifamily housing interests are not in violation of division (A) of section 2921.42, division (D) of section 102.03, or division (E) of section 102.03 of the Revised Code in regard to a contract the agency enters into if both of the following apply:
(a) The contract is entered into for a loan, grant, or participation in a program administered or funded by the agency and the contract was awarded pursuant to rules or guidelines the agency adopted.
(b) The member does not participate in the discussion or vote on the contract if the contract secured a grant or loan that would directly benefit the member, a family member, or a business associate of the member.
Sec. 175.21.  (A) The low- and moderate-income housing trust fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of all appropriations made to the fund, housing trust fund fees collected by county recorders pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code and deposited into the fund pursuant to section 319.63 of the Revised Code, and all grants, gifts, loan repayments, and contributions of money made from any source to the department of development for deposit in the fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. The director of development shall allocate a portion of the money in the fund to an account of the Ohio housing finance agency. The department shall administer the fund. The agency shall use money allocated to it in the fund for implementing and administering its programs and duties under sections 175.22 and 175.24 of the Revised Code, and the department shall use the remaining money in the fund for implementing and administering its programs and duties under sections 175.22 to 175.25 of the Revised Code. Use of all money in the fund is subject to the following restrictions:
(1) Not more than six per cent of any current year appropriation authority for the fund shall be used for the transitional and permanent housing program to make grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, and nonprofit organizations for the acquisition, rehabilitation, renovation, construction, conversion, operation, and cost of supportive services for new and existing transitional and permanent housing for homeless persons.
(2)(a) Not more than five per cent of any current year appropriation authority for the fund shall be used for grants and loans to community development corporations and the Ohio community development finance fund, a private nonprofit corporation.
(b) In any year in which the amount in the fund exceeds one hundred thousand dollars, not less than one hundred thousand dollars shall be used to provide training, technical assistance, and capacity building assistance to nonprofit development organizations in areas of the state the director designates as underserved.
(c) For monies awarded in any fiscal year, priority shall be given to proposals submitted by nonprofit development organizations from areas of the state the director designates as underserved.
(3) Not more than seven per cent of any current year appropriation authority for the fund shall be used for the emergency shelter housing grants program to make grants to private, nonprofit organizations and municipal corporations, counties, and townships for emergency shelter housing for the homeless. The grants shall be distributed pursuant to rules the director adopts and qualify as matching funds for funds obtained pursuant to the McKinney Act, 101 Stat. 85 (1987), 42 U.S.C.A. 11371 to 11378.
(4) In any fiscal year in which the amount in the fund exceeds the amount awarded pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of this section by at least two hundred fifty thousand dollars, at least two hundred fifty thousand dollars from the fund shall be provided to the department of aging for the resident services coordinator program.
(5) Of all money in the fund:
(a) Not more than six per cent shall be used for administration.
(b) Not less than forty-five per cent of the amount of funds awarded during any one fiscal year shall be used to make for grants and loans to nonprofit organizations under section 175.22 of the Revised Code, not.
(c) Not less than fifty per cent of the amount of funds awarded during any one fiscal year, excluding the amounts awarded pursuant to divisions (A)(1), (A)(2), and (A)(3) of this section, shall be used to make for grants and loans for activities that will provide housing and housing assistance to families and individuals in rural areas and small cities that would are not be eligible to participate as a participating jurisdiction under the "HOME Investment Partnerships Act," 104 Stat. 4094 (1990), 42 U.S.C. 12701 note, 12721, no more than five per cent of the money in the fund shall be used for administration, and no.
(d) No money in the fund shall be used to pay for any legal services other than the usual and customary legal services associated with the acquisition of housing.
(6) Except as otherwise provided by the director under division (B) of this section, money in the fund may be used as matching money for federal funds received by the state, counties, municipal corporations, and townships for the activities listed in section 175.22 of the Revised Code.
(B) If after the second quarter of any year it appears to the director that the full amount of the money in the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund designated in that year for activities that will provide housing and housing assistance to families and individuals in rural areas and small cities under division (A) of this section will not be so used for that purpose, the director may reallocate all or a portion of that amount for other housing activities. In determining whether or how to reallocate money under this division, the director may consult with and shall receive advice from the housing trust fund advisory committee.
Sec. 175.22.  (A) The department of development and the Ohio housing finance agency shall each develop programs under which, in accordance with rules adopted under this section, it they may make grants, loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies to counties, municipal corporations, townships, local housing authorities, and nonprofit organizations and may make loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies to private developers and private lenders to assist them in activities that will provide housing and housing assistance for specifically targeted low- and moderate-income families and individuals. There shall be is no minimum housing project size for awards under this division for any project that is being developed for a special needs population and that is supported by a social service agency where the housing project will be is located. Activities for which grants, loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies may be made under this section include all of the following:
(1) Acquiring, financing, constructing, leasing, rehabilitating, remodeling, improving, and equipping publicly or privately owned housing;
(2) Providing supportive services related to housing and the homeless, including housing counseling. Not more than twenty per cent of the current year appropriation authority for the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund that remains after the expenditures made pursuant to divisions (A)(1), (A)(2), and (A)(3) of section 175.21 of the Revised Code, shall be awarded in any fiscal year for such supportive services.
(3) Providing rental assistance payments or other project operating subsidies that lower tenant rents.
(B) Grants, loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies may be made to counties, municipal corporations, townships, and nonprofit organizations for the additional purposes of providing technical assistance, design and finance services and consultation, and payment of pre-development and administrative costs related to any of the activities listed above.
(C) In developing programs under this section, the department and the agency shall invite, accept, and consider public comment, and recommendations from the housing trust fund advisory committee created under section 175.25 of the Revised Code, on how the programs should be designed to most effectively benefit low- and moderate-income families and individuals. The programs developed under this section shall respond collectively to housing and housing assistance needs of low- and moderate-income families and individuals statewide.
(D) The department and the agency, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall each adopt rules under which it shall to administer programs developed by it under this section. The rules shall prescribe procedures and forms whereby that counties, municipal corporations, townships, local housing authorities, and nonprofit organizations may apply shall use in applying for grants, loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies and that private developers and private lenders may apply shall use in applying for loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies; eligibility criteria for the receipt of funds; procedures for reviewing and granting or denying applications; procedures for paying out funds; conditions on the use of funds; procedures for monitoring the use of funds; and procedures under which a recipient shall be required to repay funds that are improperly used. The rules adopted by the department shall do both of the following:
(1) Require each recipient of a grant or loan made from the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund for activities that will provide, or assist in providing, a rental housing project, to reasonably ensure that the rental housing project will be remain affordable to those families and individuals targeted for the rental housing project for the useful life of the rental housing project or for thirty years, whichever is longer;
(2) Require each recipient of a grant or loan made from the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund for activities that will provide, or assist in providing, a housing project to prepare and implement a plan to reasonably assist any families and individuals displaced by the housing project in obtaining decent affordable housing.
(E) In prescribing eligibility criteria and conditions for the use of funds, neither the department nor the agency is limited to the criteria and conditions specified in this section and each may prescribe additional eligibility criteria and conditions that relate to the purposes for which grants, loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies may be made. However, the department and agency are limited by the following specifically targeted low- and moderate-income guidelines:
(1) Not less than seventy-five per cent of the money granted and loaned under this section in any fiscal year shall be for activities that will provide affordable housing and housing assistance to families and individuals in a county whose incomes are equal to or less than fifty per cent of the median income for that the county in which they live, as determined by the department under section 175.23 of the Revised Code.
(2) The remainder of the Any money granted and loaned under this section in any fiscal year that is not granted or loaned pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section shall be for activities that will provide affordable housing and housing assistance to families and individuals in a county whose incomes are equal to or less than eighty per cent of the median income for that the county in which they live, as determined by the department under section 175.23 of the Revised Code.
(F) In making grants, loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies under this section, the department and the agency shall give preference to viable projects and activities that will benefit those families and individuals in a county whose incomes are equal to or less than thirty-five per cent of the median income for that the county in which they live, as determined by the department under section 175.23 of the Revised Code.
(G) The department and the agency shall monitor the programs developed under this section to ensure that money granted and loaned under this section is not used in a manner that violates division (H) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code or discriminates against families with children.
Sec. 183.02.  This section's references to years mean state fiscal years.
All payments received by the state pursuant to the tobacco master settlement agreement shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the tobacco master settlement agreement fund, which is hereby created. All investment earnings of the fund shall also be credited to the fund. Except as provided in division (K) of this section, payments and interest credited to the fund shall be transferred by the director of budget and management as follows:
(A)(1) Of the first payment credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2000 and the net amounts credited to the fund annually from 2000 to 2006 and in 2012, the following amount or percentage shall be transferred to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund, created in section 183.03 of the Revised Code:
YEAR AMOUNT OR PERCENTAGE
2000 (first payment credited) $104,855,222.85
2000 (net amount credited) 70.30%
2001 62.84
2002 61.41
2003 63.24
2004 66.65
2005 66.24
2006 65.97
2012 56.01

(2) Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2013, the director shall transfer to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund the amount not transferred to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2002 due to Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405 and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general assembly. Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2014, the director shall transfer to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund the amount not transferred to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2003 due to Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405 and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general assembly. Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2015, the director shall transfer to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund the amount not transferred to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2004 due to H.B.     of the 125th general assembly.
(B) Of the first payment credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2000 and the net amounts credited to the fund annually in 2000 and 2001, the following amount or percentage shall be transferred to the law enforcement improvements trust fund, created in section 183.10 of the Revised Code:
YEAR AMOUNT OR PERCENTAGE
2000 (first payment credited) $10,000,000
2000 (net amount credited) 5.41%
2001 2.32

(C)(1) Of the first payment credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2000 and the net amounts credited to the fund annually from 2000 to 2011, the following percentages shall be transferred to the southern Ohio agricultural and community development trust fund, created in section 183.11 of the Revised Code:
YEAR PERCENTAGE
2000 (first payment credited) 5.00%
2000 (net amount credited) 8.73
2001 8.12
2002 9.18
2003 8.91
2004 7.84
2005 7.79
2006 7.76
2007 17.39
2008 through 2011 17.25

(2) Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2013, the director shall transfer to the southern Ohio agricultural and community development trust fund the amount not transferred to the southern Ohio agricultural and community development trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2002 due to Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405 and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general assembly. Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2014, the director shall transfer to the southern Ohio agricultural and community development trust fund the amount not transferred to the southern Ohio agricultural and community development trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2003 due to Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405 and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general assembly.
(D)(1) The following percentages of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually shall be transferred to Ohio's public health priorities trust fund, created in section 183.18 of the Revised Code:
YEAR PERCENTAGE
2000   5.41
2001   6.68
2002   6.79
2003   6.90
2004   7.82
2005   8.18
2006   8.56
2007 19.83
2008 19.66
2009 20.48
2010 21.30
2011 22.12
2012 10.47

(2) Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2013, the director shall transfer to Ohio's public health priorities trust fund the amount not transferred to Ohio's public health priorities trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2002 due to Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405 and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general assembly. Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2014, the director shall transfer to Ohio's public health priorities trust fund the amount not transferred to Ohio's public health priorities trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2003 due to Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405 and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general assembly.
(E) The following percentages of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually shall be transferred to the biomedical research and technology transfer trust fund, created in section 183.19 of the Revised Code:
YEAR PERCENTAGE
2000   2.71
2001 14.03
2002 13.29
2003 12.73
2004 13.78
2005 14.31
2006 14.66
2007 49.57
2008 to 2011 45.06
2012 18.77

(F) Of the amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually, the following amounts shall be transferred to the education facilities trust fund, created in section 183.26 of the Revised Code:
YEAR AMOUNT
2000 $133,062,504.95
2001   128,938,732.73
2002   185,804,475.78
2003   180,561,673.11
2004   122,778,219.49
2005   121,389,325.80
2006   120,463,396.67
2007   246,389,369.01
2008 to 2011   267,531,291.85
2012   110,954,545.28

(G) Of the amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually, from 2000 to 2012 five million dollars per year shall be transferred to the education facilities endowment fund, created in section 183.27 of the Revised Code. From 2013 to 2025, the following percentages of the amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually shall be transferred to the endowment fund:
YEAR PERCENTAGE
2013 30.22
2014 33.36
2015 to 2025 40.90

(H) The following percentages of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually shall be transferred to the education technology trust fund, created in section 183.28 of the Revised Code:
YEAR PERCENTAGE
2000 7.44
2001 6.01
2002 9.33
2003 8.22
2004 3.91
2005 3.48
2006 3.05
2007 13.21
2008 18.03
2009 17.21
2010 16.39
2011 15.57
2012 14.75

(I) In each year from 2003 to 2025, after the transfers made under divisions (F) and (G) of this section but prior to the transfers made under divisions (A) to (E) of this section, the director of budget and management shall transfer to the tobacco settlement oversight, administration, and enforcement fund created in section 183.34 of the Revised Code such amount as the director determines necessary to pay the costs incurred by the attorney general in tobacco settlement oversight, administration, and enforcement.
(J) In each year from 2003 to 2025, after the transfers made under divisions (F) and (G) of this section but prior to the transfers made under divisions (A) to (E) of this section, the director of budget and management shall transfer to the tobacco settlement enforcement fund created in section 183.35 of the Revised Code such amount as the director determines necessary to pay the costs incurred by the tax commissioner in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 5743.03 of the Revised Code.
(K) If in any year from 2001 to 2012 the payments and interest credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund during the year amount to less than the amounts required to be transferred to the education facilities trust fund and the education facilities endowment fund that year, the director of budget and management shall make none of the transfers required by divisions (A) to (J) of this section.
(L) If in any year from 2000 to 2025 the payments credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund during the year exceed the following amounts, the director of budget and management shall transfer the excess to the income tax reduction fund, created in section 131.44 of the Revised Code:
YEAR AMOUNT
2000 $443,892,767.51
2001   348,780,049.22
2002   418,783,038.09
2003   422,746,368.61
2004   352,827,184.57
2005   352,827,184.57
2006   352,827,184.57
2007   352,827,184.57
2008 to 2017   383,779,323.15
2018 to 2025   403,202,282.16

Sec. 183.28.  The education technology trust fund is hereby created in the state treasury. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay costs of the Ohio SchoolNet commission under section 3301.80 of the Revised Code department of education for school technology-related activities. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.
Sec. 305.28. (A) A board of county commissioners, by resolution, may adopt a cost allocation plan that identifies, accumulates, and distributes allowable direct and indirect costs that may be paid from any county special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund to the county general fund, including funds provided for in sections 307.806 and 307.846 of the Revised Code. The plan shall use cost principles like those contained in the United States office of management and budget circular A-87, "Cost Principles for State, Local, and Indian Tribal Governments." The plan may include reasonable rates or charges for general fund direct and indirect costs, administrative services, and centrally budgeted costs. If rates and charges are so included, the county shall periodically review them to ensure that they continue to reflect actual costs.
(B) After the adoption of a cost allocation plan under division (A) of this section, the board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution of intent declaring its intention to allocate costs identified in the plan to any special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund, and identifying the name of each such fund, any numerical fund identifier, and the rates or charges to be made. By regular mail or by personal service, the clerk of the board shall give a certified copy of the resolution of intent, a copy of the cost allocation plan, and an estimate of the costs that will be allocated to the particular fund in the next ensuing fiscal year, to the county elected official or the board, commission, or other instrumentality of the county associated with each fund identified in the resolution of intent.
Within twenty days after the mailing or personal service of those documents, a recipient county elected official, board, commission, or other instrumentality may request a meeting with the board of county commissioners to discuss the rates or charges in the resolution of intent. The board shall consider their comments. Not sooner than twenty days after receiving the comments of all recipients who timely made a request for a meeting, the board may adopt a resolution to proceed consistent with its cost allocation plan, which may amend the rates or charges specified in the resolution of intent. These rates and charges cannot be charged before the first day of January of the ensuing fiscal year to any special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund specified in the resolution to proceed with the plan.
(C) After adoption of the resolution to proceed with the cost allocation plan under division (B) of this section, the board of county commissioners shall charge, at least annually, each applicable county elected official, board, commission, or other instrumentality in a manner consistent with that resolution and the plan. Notwithstanding sections 5705.14, 5705.15, and 5705.16 of the Revised Code, if the county elected official, board, commission, or other instrumentality does not reimburse the general fund as charged, the board may authorize a transfer from the appropriate special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund to the general fund, or may take any other action to ensure that the rates or charges are collected and deposited in the general fund.
(D) The authority granted in this section is in addition to and not in derogation of the authority granted to the board of county commissioners in section 307.85, division (B) of section 343.08, section 955.17, division (H) of section 6103.02, and division (E) of section 6117.02 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 307.202.  As used in this section, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same meanings as in section 4981.01 5507.01 of the Revised Code.
The board of county commissioners may acquire, rehabilitate, and develop rail property and rail service, and may enter into agreements with the Ohio rail development commission, boards of township trustees, legislative authorities of municipal corporations, other boards of county commissioners, with other governmental agencies or organizations, and with private agencies or organizations in order to achieve those purposes.
Sec. 307.86.  Anything to be purchased, leased, leased with an option or agreement to purchase, or constructed, including, but not limited to, any product, structure, construction, reconstruction, improvement, maintenance, repair, or service, except the services of an accountant, architect, attorney at law, physician, professional engineer, construction project manager, consultant, surveyor, or appraiser, by or on behalf of the county or contracting authority, as defined in section 307.92 of the Revised Code, at a cost in excess of fifteen thousand dollars, except as otherwise provided in division (D) of section 713.23 and in sections 125.04, 307.022, 307.041, 307.861, 339.05, 340.03, 340.033, 4115.31 to 4115.35, 5119.16, 5513.01, 5543.19, 5713.01, and 6137.05 of the Revised Code, shall be obtained through competitive bidding. However, competitive bidding is not required when any of the following applies:
(A) The board of county commissioners, by a unanimous vote of its members, makes a determination that a real and present emergency exists, and that determination and the reasons for it are entered in the minutes of the proceedings of the board, when either of the following applies:
(1) The estimated cost is less than fifty thousand dollars.
(2) There is actual physical disaster to structures, radio communications equipment, or computers.
For purposes of this division, "unanimous vote" means all three members of a board of county commissioners when all three members are present, or two members of the board if only two members, constituting a quorum, are present.
Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is exempted from competitive bidding under division (A)(1) of this section because the estimated cost is less than fifty thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is fifteen thousand dollars or more, the county or contracting authority shall solicit informal estimates from no fewer than three persons who could perform the contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to each such contract, the county or contracting authority shall maintain a record of such estimates, including the name of each person from whom an estimate is solicited. The county or contracting authority shall maintain the record for the longer of at least one year after the contract is awarded or the amount of time the federal government requires.
(B) The purchase consists of supplies or a replacement or supplemental part or parts for a product or equipment owned or leased by the county, and the only source of supply for the supplies, part, or parts is limited to a single supplier.
(C) The purchase is from the federal government, the state, another county or contracting authority of another county, or a board of education, township, or municipal corporation.
(D) Public family Family services duties or workforce development activities are purchased for provision by the county department of job and family services under section 329.04 of the Revised Code, or program services, such as direct and ancillary client services, child day-care, case management services, residential services, and family resource services, are purchased for provision by a county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.
(E) The purchase consists of criminal justice services, social services programs, family services, or workforce development activities by the board of county commissioners from nonprofit corporations or associations under programs funded by the federal government or by state grants.
(F) The purchase consists of any form of an insurance policy or contract authorized to be issued under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or any form of health care plan authorized to be issued under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any combination of such policies, contracts, or plans that the contracting authority is authorized to purchase, and the contracting authority does all of the following:
(1) Determines that compliance with the requirements of this section would increase, rather than decrease, the cost of the purchase;
(2) Employs a competent consultant to assist the contracting authority in procuring appropriate coverages at the best and lowest prices;
(3) Requests issuers of the policies, contracts, or plans to submit proposals to the contracting authority, in a form prescribed by the contracting authority, setting forth the coverage and cost of the policies, contracts, or plans as the contracting authority desires to purchase;
(4) Negotiates with the issuers for the purpose of purchasing the policies, contracts, or plans at the best and lowest price reasonably possible.
(G) The purchase consists of computer hardware, software, or consulting services that are necessary to implement a computerized case management automation project administered by the Ohio prosecuting attorneys association and funded by a grant from the federal government.
(H) Child day-care services are purchased for provision to county employees.
(I)(1) Property, including land, buildings, and other real property, is leased for offices, storage, parking, or other purposes, and all of the following apply:
(a) The contracting authority is authorized by the Revised Code to lease the property.
(b) The contracting authority develops requests for proposals for leasing the property, specifying the criteria that will be considered prior to leasing the property, including the desired size and geographic location of the property.
(c) The contracting authority receives responses from prospective lessors with property meeting the criteria specified in the requests for proposals by giving notice in a manner substantially similar to the procedures established for giving notice under section 307.87 of the Revised Code.
(d) The contracting authority negotiates with the prospective lessors to obtain a lease at the best and lowest price reasonably possible considering the fair market value of the property and any relocation and operational costs that may be incurred during the period the lease is in effect.
(2) The contracting authority may use the services of a real estate appraiser to obtain advice, consultations, or other recommendations regarding the lease of property under this division.
(J) The purchase is made pursuant to section 5139.34 or sections 5139.41 to 5139.46 of the Revised Code and is of programs or services that provide case management, treatment, or prevention services to any felony or misdemeanant delinquent, unruly youth, or status offender under the supervision of the juvenile court, including, but not limited to, community residential care, day treatment, services to children in their home, or electronic monitoring.
(K) The purchase is made by a public children services agency pursuant to section 307.92 or 5153.16 of the Revised Code and consists of family services, programs, or ancillary services that provide case management, prevention, or treatment services for children at risk of being or alleged to be abused, neglected, or dependent children.
Any issuer of policies, contracts, or plans listed in division (F) of this section and any prospective lessor under division (I) of this section may have the issuer's or prospective lessor's name and address, or the name and address of an agent, placed on a special notification list to be kept by the contracting authority, by sending the contracting authority that name and address. The contracting authority shall send notice to all persons listed on the special notification list. Notices shall state the deadline and place for submitting proposals. The contracting authority shall mail the notices at least six weeks prior to the deadline set by the contracting authority for submitting proposals. Every five years the contracting authority may review this list and remove any person from the list after mailing the person notification of that action.
Any contracting authority that negotiates a contract under division (F) of this section shall request proposals and renegotiate with issuers in accordance with that division at least every three years from the date of the signing of such a contract.
Any consultant employed pursuant to division (F) of this section and any real estate appraiser employed pursuant to division (I) of this section shall disclose any fees or compensation received from any source in connection with that employment.
Sec. 307.98.  Each board of county commissioners shall enter into a one or more written partnership agreement fiscal agreements with the director of job and family services in accordance with section 5101.21 of the Revised Code. Prior to entering into or substantially amending the agreement, the board shall conduct a public hearing and consult with the county family services planning committee established under section 329.06 of the Revised Code. Through the hearing and consultation, the board shall obtain comments and recommendations concerning what would be the county's obligations and responsibilities under the agreement or amendment. As evidence that the board consulted with the county family services planning committee, the committee's chair shall sign a letter confirming that the consultation occurred, which shall be attached to the partnership agreement and any substantial amendments to the agreement. The boards shall enter into the agreements on behalf of their county family services agencies.
Sec. 307.981.  (A)(1) As used in the Revised Code:
(a) "County family services agency" means all of the following:
(i) A child support enforcement agency;
(ii) A county department of job and family services;
(iii) A public children services agency.
(b) "Family services duty" means a duty state law requires or allows a county family services agency to assume, including financial and general administrative duties.
(2) As used in sections 307.981 to 307.989 of the Revised Code, "private entity" means an entity other than a government entity.
(B) To the extent permitted by federal law, including, when applicable, subpart F of 5 C.F.R. part 900, and subject to any limitations established by the Revised Code, including division (H) of this section, a board of county commissioners may designate any private or government entity within this state to serve as any of the following:
(1) A child support enforcement agency;
(2) A county department of job and family services;
(3) A public children services agency;
(4) A county department of job and family services and one other of those county family services agencies;
(5) All three of those county family services agencies;
(6) A workforce development agency;
(7) A workforce development agency and a county department of job and family services;
(8) A workforce development agency and a county department of job and family services and one or two of the other county family services agencies.
(C) A To the extent permitted by federal law, including, when applicable, subpart F of 5 C.F.R. part 900, and subject to any limitations of the Revised Code, including division (H) of this section, a board of county commissioners may change the designation it makes under division (B) of this section by designating another private or government entity.
(D) If the director of job and family services determines that a designation under division (B) or (C) of this section constitutes a substantial change from what is the designation in the current partnership a fiscal agreement between the director of job and family services and the board of county commissioners under section 5101.21 of the Revised Code, the director may require that the director and board amend the partnership fiscal agreement and that the board provide the director written assurances that the newly designated private or government entity will meet or exceed all requirements of the family services duties or workforce development activities the entity is to assume.
(E) Not less than sixty days before a board of county commissioners designates an entity under division (B) or (C) of this section, the board shall notify the director of job and family services and publish notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the county of the board's intention to make the designation and reasons for the designation.
(F) A board of county commissioners shall enter into a written contract with each entity it designates under division (B) or (C) of this section specifying the entity's responsibilities and standards the entity is required to meet.
(G) This section does not require a board of county commissioners to abolish the child support enforcement agency, county department of job and family services, or public children services agency serving the county on October 1, 1997, and designate a different private or government entity to serve as the county's child support enforcement agency, county department of job and family services, or public children services agency.
(H) If a county children services board appointed under section 5153.03 of the Revised Code serves as a public children services agency for a county, the board of county commissioners may not redesignate the public children services agency unless the board of county commissioners does all of the following:
(1) Notifies the county children services board of its intent to redesignate the public children services agency. In its notification, the board of county commissioners shall provide the county children services board a written explanation of the administrative, fiscal, or performance considerations causing the board of county commissioners to seek to redesignate the public children services agency.
(2) Provides the county children services board an opportunity to comment on the proposed redesignation before the redesignation occurs;
(3) If the county children services board, not more than sixty days after receiving the notice under division (H)(1) of this section, notifies the board of county commissioners that the county children services board has voted to oppose the redesignation, votes unanimously to proceed with the redesignation.
Sec. 307.987.  To the extent federal statutes and regulations and state law permit, a partnership agreement entered into under section 307.98, a contract entered into under section 307.981 or 307.982, a plan of cooperation entered into under section 307.983, a regional plan of cooperation entered into under section 307.984, a transportation work plan developed under section 307.985, and procedures established under section 307.986 of the Revised Code shall permit the exchange of information needed to improve services and assistance to individuals and families and the protection of children. A private or government entity that receives information pursuant to an agreement, contract, a plan, or procedures is bound by the same standards of confidentiality as the entity that provides the information.
An agreement, contract, A plan, or procedures shall:
(A) Be coordinated and not conflict with another agreement, contract, plan, or procedures or an agreement entered into under section 329.05 of the Revised Code;
(B) Prohibit discrimination in hiring and promotion against applicants for and participants of the Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and the prevention, retention, and contingency program established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code;
(C) Comply with federal statutes and regulations and state law;
(D) Be adopted by resolution of a board of county commissioners;
(E) Specify how the agreement, contract, plan, or procedures may be amended.
Sec. 311.17.  For the services specified in this section, the sheriff shall charge the following fees, which the court or its clerk thereof shall tax in the bill of costs against the judgment debtor or those legally liable therefor for the judgment:
(A) For the service and return of the following writs and orders:
(1) Execution:
(a) When money is paid without levy or when no property is found, five twenty dollars;
(b) When levy is made on real property, for the first tract, twenty twenty-five dollars, and for each additional tract, five ten dollars;
(c) When levy is made on goods and chattels, including inventory, twenty-five fifty dollars;.
(2) Writ of attachment of property, except for purpose of garnishment, twenty forty dollars;
(3) Writ of attachment for the purpose of garnishment, five ten dollars;
(4) Writ of replevin, twenty forty dollars;
(5) Warrant to arrest, for each person named in the writ, five ten dollars;
(6) Attachment for contempt, for each person named in the writ, three six dollars;
(7) Writ of possession or restitution, twenty sixty dollars;
(8) Subpoena, for each person named in the writ, if in either a civil or criminal case three, six dollars, if in a criminal case one dollar;
(9) Venire, for each person named in the writ, if in either a civil or criminal case three, six dollars, if in a criminal case one dollar;
(10) Summoning each juror, other than on venire, if in either a civil or criminal case three, six dollars, if in a criminal case one dollar;
(11) Writ of partition, fifteen twenty-five dollars;
(12) Order of sale on partition, for the first tract, twenty-five fifty dollars, and for each additional tract, five twenty-five dollars;
(13) Other order of sale of real property, for the first tract, twenty fifty dollars, and for each additional tract, five twenty-five dollars;
(14) Administering oath to appraisers, one dollar and fifty cents three dollars each;
(15) Furnishing copies for advertisements, fifty cents one dollar for each hundred words;
(16) Copy of indictment, for each defendant, two five dollars;
(17) All summons, writs, orders, or notices, for the first name, three six dollars, and for each additional name, fifty cents one dollar.
(B) In addition to the fee for service and return, the sheriff may charge:
(1) On each summons, writ, order, or notice, a fee of fifty cents one dollar per mile for the first mile, and twenty fifty cents per mile for each additional mile, going and returning, actual mileage to be charged on each additional name;
(2) Taking bail bond, one dollar three dollars;
(3) Jail fees, as follows:
(a) For receiving a prisoner, four five dollars each time a prisoner is received, and for discharging or surrendering a prisoner, four five dollars; each time a prisoner is discharged or surrendered. The departure or return of a prisoner from or to a jail in connection with a program established under section 5147.28 of the Revised Code is not a receipt, discharge, or surrender of the prisoner for purposes of this division.
(b) Taking a prisoner before a judge or court, per day, three five dollars;
(c) Calling action, fifty cents one dollar;
(d) Calling jury, one dollar three dollars;
(e) Calling each witness, one dollar three dollars;
(f) Bringing prisoner before court on habeas corpus, four six dollars;.
(4) Poundage on all moneys actually made and paid to the sheriff on execution, decree, or sale of real estate, one and one-half per cent;
(5) Making and executing a deed of land sold on execution, decree, or order of the court, to be paid by the purchaser, twenty-five fifty dollars.
When any of the foregoing services described in division (A) or (B) of this section are rendered by an officer or employee, whose salary or per diem compensation is paid by the county, the applicable legal fees and any other extraordinary expenses, including overtime, provided for such the service in this section shall be taxed in the costs in the case, and, when such fees are collected they, shall be paid into the general fund of the county.
The sheriff shall charge the same fees for the execution of process issued in any other state as he the sheriff charges for the execution of process of a substantively similar nature that is issued in this state.
Sec. 317.32.  The county recorder shall charge and collect the following fees, to include base fees for the recorder's services and housing trust fund fees, collected pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code:
(A) For recording and indexing an instrument when the photocopy or any similar process is employed, a base fee of fourteen dollars for the first two pages and a housing trust fund fee of fourteen dollars, and a base fee of four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four dollars for each subsequent page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction of a page, including the caption page, of such instrument;
(B) For certifying a photocopy from the record previously recorded, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction of a page; for each certification where the recorder's seal is required, except as to instruments issued by the armed forces of the United States, a base fee of fifty cents and a housing trust fund fee of fifty cents;
(C) For manual or typewritten recording of assignment or satisfaction of mortgage or lease or any other marginal entry, a base fee of four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four dollars;
(D) For entering any marginal reference by separate recorded instrument, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars for each marginal reference set out in that instrument, in addition to the recording fee fees set forth in division (A) of this section;
(E) For indexing in the real estate mortgage records, pursuant to section 1309.519 of the Revised Code, financing statements covering crops growing or to be grown, timber to be cut, minerals or the like, including oil and gas, accounts subject to section 1309.301 of the Revised Code, or fixture filings made pursuant to section 1309.334 of the Revised Code, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars for each name indexed;
(F) For recording manually any plat not exceeding six lines, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars, and for each additional line, a base fee of ten cents and a housing trust fund fee of ten cents;
(G) For filing zoning resolutions, including text and maps, in the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.11 and 519.11 of the Revised Code, a base fee of fifty dollars and a housing trust fund fee of fifty dollars, regardless of the size or length of the resolutions;
(H) For filing zoning amendments, including text and maps, in the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.12 and 519.12 of the Revised Code, a base fee of ten dollars and a housing trust fund fee of ten dollars for the first page and a base fee of four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four dollars for each additional page;
(I) For photocopying a document, other than at the time of recording and indexing as provided for in division (A) of this section, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;
(J) For local facsimile transmission of a document, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction thereof; for long distance facsimile transmission of a document, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;
(K) For recording a declaration executed pursuant to section 2133.02 of the Revised Code or a durable power of attorney for health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised Code, or both a declaration and a durable power of attorney for health care, a base fee of at least fourteen dollars but not more than twenty dollars and a housing trust fund fee of at least fourteen dollars but not more than twenty dollars.
In any county in which the recorder employs the photostatic or any similar process for recording maps, plats, or prints the recorder shall determine, charge, and collect for the recording or rerecording of any map, plat, or print, a base fee of five cents and a housing trust fund fee of five cents per square inch, for each square inch of the map, plat, or print filed for that recording or rerecording, with a minimum base fee of twenty dollars and a minimum housing trust fund fee of twenty dollars; for certifying a copy from the record, a base fee of two cents and a housing trust fund fee of two cents per square inch of the record, with a minimum base fee of two dollars and a minimum housing trust fund fee of two dollars.
The fees provided in this section shall be paid upon the presentation of the instruments for record or upon the application for any certified copy of the record, except that the payment of fees associated with the filing and recording of, or the copying of, notices of internal revenue tax liens and notices of other liens in favor of the United States as described in division (A) of section 317.09 of the Revised Code and certificates of discharge or release of those liens, shall be governed by section 317.09 of the Revised Code, and the payment of fees for providing copies of instruments conveying or extinguishing agricultural easements to the office of farmland preservation under division (G) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code shall be governed by that division.
Sec. 317.36. (A) The county recorder shall collect the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund fee as specified in sections 317.32, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2505.13, 4141.23, 4509.60, 5111.021, 5310.15, 5719.07, 5727.56, 5733.18, 5733.22, 6101.09, and 6115.09 of the Revised Code. The amount of any housing trust fund fee the recorder is authorized to collect is equal to the amount of any base fee the recorder is authorized to collect for services. The housing trust fund fee shall be collected in addition to the base fee.
(B) The recorder shall certify the amounts collected as housing trust fund fees pursuant to division (A) of this section into the county treasury as housing trust fund fees, collected solely to provide revenue for the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund in the state treasury created under section 175.21 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 319.302.  After complying with section 319.301 of the Revised Code, the county auditor shall reduce the remaining sums to be levied against each parcel of real (A) Real property listed on the general current tax list and duplicate of real and public utility property for the current tax year, and against each manufactured and or mobile home that is homes taxed pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code and that is listed on the current manufactured home tax list for the current tax year, by ten per cent. Except shall be exempted from taxation to the extent provided in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section. The exemption shall be effected by the county auditor reducing the sums remaining to be levied against such real property and manufactured or mobile homes by the amounts prescribed in those divisions after the reduction under section 319.301 of the Revised Code:
(1) Ten per cent of the remaining sums in the case of a tract or parcel of real property classified according to use as agricultural;
(2) Ten per cent of the remaining sums in the case of a tract or parcel of real property classified according to use as residential and on which is situated a single-family or two-family dwelling. If the dwelling qualifies for the reduction in taxes under division (B) of section 323.152 of the Revised Code for the current tax year or would qualify if an application for the reduction had been filed, the ten per cent reduction shall apply only to the extent of the remaining sums to be levied on the first one million dollars in true value of those tracts, including the true value of the dwelling.
(3) Ten per cent of the remaining sums in the case of a manufactured or mobile home. If the manufactured or mobile home qualifies for the reduction in taxes under division (B) of section 323.152 of the Revised Code for the current tax year or would qualify if an application for the reduction had been filed, the ten per cent reduction shall apply to the home and the tract or parcel of land on which the home is situated only to the extent of the remaining sums to be levied on the first one million dollars in true value of the tract or parcel and the home. The reduction shall be applied first to the sums to be levied against the tract or parcel of land if owned by the owner of the home and then, if the maximum reduction is not exceeded after such application, to the sums to be levied against the manufactured or mobile home.
(4) Five per cent of the remaining sums in the case of all other real property.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in sections 323.152, 323.158, 505.06, and 715.263 of the Revised Code, the amount of the taxes remaining after such reduction the exemption is applied under this section shall be the real and public utility property taxes charged and payable, and the manufactured home tax charged and payable, on each property and shall be the amounts that are certified to the county treasurer for collection. Upon receipt of the tax duplicate, the county treasurer shall certify to the tax commissioner the total amount by which such taxes were reduced under this section, as shown on the duplicate. Such reduction
(C) The exemption provided in this section shall not directly or indirectly affect the determination of the principal amount of notes that may be issued in anticipation of any tax levies or the amount of bonds or notes for any planned improvements. If after application of sections 5705.31 and 5705.32 of the Revised Code and other applicable provisions of law, including division (F) of section 321.24 of the Revised Code, there would be insufficient funds for payment of debt charges on bonds or notes payable from taxes reduced by this section, the reduction of taxes exemption provided for in this section shall be adjusted to the extent necessary to provide funds from such taxes.
Sec. 319.63. (A) During the first thirty days of each calendar quarter, the county auditor shall pay to the treasurer of state all amounts that the county recorder collected as housing trust fund fees pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code during the previous calendar quarter. If payment is made to the treasurer of state within the first thirty days of the quarter, the county auditor may retain an administrative fee of one per cent of the amount of the trust fund fees collected during the previous calendar quarter.
(B) The treasurer of state shall deposit the first fifty million dollars of housing trust fund fees received each year pursuant to this section into the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund, created under section 175.21 of the Revised Code, and shall deposit any amounts received each year in excess of fifty million dollars into the state general revenue fund.
(C) The county auditor shall deposit the administrative fee that the auditor is permitted to retain pursuant to division (A) of this section into the county general fund for the county recorder to use in administering the trust fund fee.
Sec. 321.24.  (A) On or before the fifteenth day of February, in each year, the county treasurer shall settle with the county auditor for all taxes and assessments that the treasurer has collected on the general duplicate of real and public utility property at the time of making the settlement.
(B) On or before the thirtieth day of June, in each year, the treasurer shall settle with the auditor for all advance payments of general personal and classified property taxes that the treasurer has received at the time of making the settlement.
(C) On or before the tenth day of August, in each year, the treasurer shall settle with the auditor for all taxes and assessments that the treasurer has collected on the general duplicates of real and public utility property at the time of making such settlement, not included in the preceding February settlement.
(D) On or before the thirty-first day of October, in each year, the treasurer shall settle with the auditor for all taxes that the treasurer has collected on the general personal and classified property duplicates, and for all advance payments of general personal and classified property taxes, not included in the preceding June settlement, that the treasurer has received at the time of making such settlement.
(E) In the event the time for the payment of taxes is extended, pursuant to section 323.17 of the Revised Code, the date on or before which settlement for the taxes so extended must be made, as herein prescribed, shall be deemed to be extended for a like period of time. At each such settlement, the auditor shall allow to the treasurer, on the moneys received or collected and accounted for by the treasurer, the treasurer's fees, at the rate or percentage allowed by law, at a full settlement of the treasurer.
(F) Within thirty days after the day of each settlement of taxes required under divisions (A) and (C) of this section, the treasurer shall certify to the tax commissioner any adjustments which have been made to the amount certified previously pursuant to section 319.302 of the Revised Code and that the settlement has been completed. Upon receipt of such certification, the commissioner shall provide for payment to the county treasurer from the general revenue fund of an amount equal to one-half of the amount certified by the treasurer in the preceding tax year under section 319.302 of the Revised Code, less one-half of the amount computed for all taxing districts in that county for the current fiscal year under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code for crediting to the property tax administration fund. Such payment shall be credited upon receipt to the county's undivided income tax fund, and the county auditor shall transfer to the county general fund from the amount thereof the total amount of all fees and charges which the auditor and treasurer would have been authorized to receive had such section not been in effect and that amount had been levied and collected as taxes. The county auditor shall distribute the amount remaining among the various taxing districts in the county as if it had been levied, collected, and settled as real property taxes. The amount distributed to each taxing district shall be reduced by the total of the amounts computed for the district under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of section 5703.60 of the Revised Code, but the reduction shall not exceed the amount that otherwise would be distributed to the taxing district under this division. The tax commissioner shall make available to taxing districts such information as is sufficient for a taxing district to be able to determine the amount of the reduction in its distribution under this section.
(G)(1) Within thirty days after the day of the settlement required in division (D) of this section, the county treasurer shall certify to notify the tax commissioner that the settlement has been completed. Upon receipt of that certification notification, the commissioner shall provide for payment to the county treasurer from the general revenue fund of an amount equal to the amount certified under section 319.311 of the Revised Code in the current year paid in the state's fiscal year 2003 multiplied by the percentage specified in division (G)(2) of this section. The payment shall be credited upon receipt to the county's undivided income tax fund, and the county auditor shall distribute the amount thereof among the various taxing districts of the county as if it had been levied, collected, and settled as personal property taxes. The amount received by a taxing district under this division shall be apportioned among its funds in the same proportion as the current year's personal property taxes are apportioned.
(2) Payments required under division (G)(1) of this section shall be made at the following percentages of the amount paid under division (G) of this section in the state's fiscal year 2003:
(a) In fiscal year 2004, ninety per cent;
(b) In fiscal year 2005, eighty per cent;
(c) In fiscal year 2006, seventy per cent;
(d) In fiscal year 2007, sixty per cent;
(e) In fiscal year 2008, fifty per cent;
(f) In fiscal year 2009, forty per cent;
(g) In fiscal year 2010, thirty per cent;
(h) In fiscal year 2011, twenty per cent;
(i) In fiscal year 2012, ten per cent.
After fiscal year 2012, no payments shall be made under division (G) of this section.
(H)(1) On or before the fifteenth day of April each year, the county treasurer shall settle with the county auditor for all manufactured home taxes that the county treasurer has collected on the manufactured home tax duplicate at the time of making the settlement.
(2) On or before the fifteenth day of September each year, the county treasurer shall settle with the county auditor for all remaining manufactured home taxes that the county treasurer has collected on the manufactured home tax duplicate at the time of making the settlement.
(3) If the time for payment of such taxes is extended under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the time for making the settlement as prescribed by divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section is extended for a like period of time.
Sec. 323.01.  Except as otherwise provided, as used in Chapter 323. of the Revised Code:
(A) "Subdivision" means any county, township, school district, or municipal corporation.
(B) "Municipal corporation" includes charter municipalities.
(C) "Taxes" means the total amount of all charges against an entry appearing on a tax list and the duplicate thereof that was prepared and certified in accordance with section 319.28 of the Revised Code, including taxes levied against real estate; taxes on property whose value is certified pursuant to section 5727.23 of the Revised Code; recoupment charges applied pursuant to section 5713.35 of the Revised Code; all assessments; penalties and interest charged pursuant to section 323.121 of the Revised Code; charges added pursuant to section 319.35 of the Revised Code; and all of such charges which remain unpaid from any previous tax year.
(D) "Current taxes" means all taxes charged against an entry on the general tax list and duplicate of real and public utility property that have not appeared on such list and duplicate for any prior tax year and any penalty thereon charged by division (A) of section 323.121 of the Revised Code. Current taxes, whether or not they have been certified delinquent, become delinquent taxes if they remain unpaid after the last day prescribed for payment of the second installment of current taxes without penalty.
(E) "Delinquent taxes" means:
(1) Any taxes charged against an entry on the general tax list and duplicate of real and public utility property that were charged against an entry on such list and duplicate for a prior tax year and any penalties and interest charged against such taxes.
(2) Any current taxes charged on the general tax list and duplicate of real and public utility property that remain unpaid after the last day prescribed for payment of the second installment of such taxes without penalty, whether or not they have been certified delinquent, and any penalties and interest charged against such taxes.
(F) "Current tax year" means, with respect to particular taxes, the calendar year in which the first installment of taxes is due prior to any extension granted under section 323.17 of the Revised Code.
(G) "Liquidated claim" means:
(1) Any sum of money due and payable, upon a written contractual obligation executed between the subdivision and the taxpayer, but excluding any amount due on general and special assessment bonds and notes;
(2) Any sum of money due and payable, for disability financial assistance or disability medical assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code that is furnished to or in behalf of a subdivision, provided that such claim is recognized by a resolution or ordinance of the legislative body of such subdivision;
(3) Any sum of money advanced and paid to or received and used by a subdivision, pursuant to a resolution or ordinance of such subdivision or its predecessor in interest, and the moral obligation to repay which sum, when in funds, shall be recognized by resolution or ordinance by the subdivision.
Sec. 323.13.  Except as provided in section 323.134 of the Revised Code, immediately upon receipt of any tax duplicate from the county auditor, but not less than twenty days prior to the last date on which the first one-half taxes may be paid without penalty as prescribed in section 323.12 or 323.17 of the Revised Code, the county treasurer shall cause to be prepared and mailed or delivered to each person charged on such duplicate with taxes or to an agent designated by such person, the tax bill prescribed by the commissioner of tax equalization under section 323.131 of the Revised Code. When taxes are paid by installments, the county treasurer shall mail or deliver to each person charged on such duplicate or the agent designated by such person, a second tax bill showing the amount due at the time of the second tax collection. The second half tax bill shall be mailed or delivered at least twenty days prior to the close of the second half tax collection period.
After delivery of the delinquent land duplicate as prescribed in section 5721.011 of the Revised Code, the county treasurer may prepare and mail to each person in whose name property therein is listed an additional tax bill showing the total amount of delinquent taxes appearing on such duplicate against such property. The tax bill shall include a notice that the interest charge prescribed by division (B) of section 323.121 of the Revised Code has begun to accrue.
A change in the mailing address of any tax bill shall be made in writing to the county treasurer.
Upon certification by the county auditor of the apportionment of taxes following the transfer of a part of a tract or lot of real estate, and upon request by the owner of any transferred or remaining part of such tract or parcel, the treasurer shall cause to be prepared and mailed or delivered to such owner a tax bill for the taxes allocated to his the owner's part, together with the penalties, interest, and other charges.
Failure to receive any bill required by this section does not excuse failure or delay to pay any taxes shown on such bill or, except as provided in division (A)(B)(1) of section 5715.39 of the Revised Code, avoid any penalty, interest, or charge for such delay.
Sec. 323.152.  In addition to the reduction in taxes required under section 319.302 of the Revised Code, taxes shall be reduced as provided in divisions (A) and (B) of this section.
(A)(1) Division (A) of this section applies to any of the following:
(a) A person who is permanently and totally disabled;
(b) A person who is sixty-five years of age or older;
(c) A person who is the surviving spouse of a deceased person who was permanently and totally disabled or sixty-five years of age or older and who applied and qualified for a reduction in taxes under this division in the year of death, provided the surviving spouse is at least fifty-nine but not sixty-five or more years of age on the date the deceased spouse dies.
(2) Real property taxes on a homestead owned and occupied, or a homestead in a housing cooperative occupied, by a person to whom division (A) of this section applies shall be reduced for each year for which the owner obtains a certificate of reduction from the county auditor under section 323.154 of the Revised Code or for which the occupant obtains a certificate of reduction in accordance with section 323.159 of the Revised Code. The reduction shall equal the amount obtained by multiplying the tax rate for the tax year for which the certificate is issued by the reduction in taxable value shown in the following schedule:
Reduce Taxable Value
Total Income by the Lesser of:

$11,900 or less $5,000 or seventy-five per cent
More than $11,900 but not more than $17,500 $3,000 or sixty per cent
More than $17,500 but not more than $23,000 $1,000 or twenty-five per cent
More than $23,000 -0-

(3) Each calendar year, the tax commissioner shall adjust the foregoing schedule by completing the following calculations in September of each year:
(a) Determine the percentage increase in the gross domestic product deflator determined by the bureau of economic analysis of the United States department of commerce from the first day of January of the preceding calendar year to the last day of December of the preceding calendar year;
(b) Multiply that percentage increase by each of the total income amounts, and by each dollar amount by which taxable value is reduced, for the current tax year;
(c) Add the resulting product to each of the total income amounts, and to each of the dollar amounts by which taxable value is reduced, for the current tax year;
(d) Round the resulting sum to the nearest multiple of one hundred dollars.
The commissioner shall certify the amounts resulting from the adjustment to each county auditor not later than the first day of December each year. The certified amounts apply to the following tax year. The commissioner shall not make the adjustment in any calendar year in which the amounts resulting from the adjustment would be less than the total income amounts, or less than the dollar amounts by which taxable value is reduced, for the current tax year.
(B) Real property taxes on any homestead, and manufactured home taxes on any manufactured or mobile home on which a manufactured home tax is assessed pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, shall be reduced for each year for which the owner obtains a certificate of reduction from the county auditor under section 323.154 of the Revised Code. The amount of the reduction shall equal one-fourth of the amount by which the taxes charged and payable on the homestead or the manufactured or mobile home are reduced for such year under section 319.302 of the Revised Code two and one-half per cent of the amount of taxes to be levied against the homestead or manufactured or mobile home after the reductions required under sections 319.301 and 319.302 of the Revised Code, but the reduction shall apply only to the amount of taxes to be levied on the first one million dollars of the homestead's or home's true value.
(C) The reductions granted by this section do not apply to special assessments or respread of assessments levied against the homestead, and if there is a transfer of ownership subsequent to the filing of an application for a reduction in taxes, such reductions are not forfeited for such year by virtue of such transfer.
(D) The reductions in taxable value referred to in this section shall be applied solely as a factor for the purpose of computing the reduction of taxes under this section and shall not affect the total value of property in any subdivision or taxing district as listed and assessed for taxation on the tax lists and duplicates, or any direct or indirect limitations on indebtedness of a subdivision or taxing district. If after application of sections 5705.31 and 5705.32 of the Revised Code, including the allocation of all levies within the ten-mill limitation to debt charges to the extent therein provided, there would be insufficient funds for payment of debt charges not provided for by levies in excess of the ten-mill limitation, the reduction of taxes provided for in sections 323.151 to 323.159 of the Revised Code shall be proportionately adjusted to the extent necessary to provide such funds from levies within the ten-mill limitation.
(E) No reduction shall be made on the taxes due on the homestead of any person convicted of violating division (C) or (D) of section 323.153 of the Revised Code for a period of three years following the conviction.
Sec. 329.03.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Applicant" or "recipient" means an applicant for or participant in the Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code or an applicant for or recipient of disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
(2) "Voluntary direct deposit" means a system established pursuant to this section under which cash assistance payments to recipients who agree to direct deposit are made by direct deposit by electronic transfer to an account in a financial institution designated under this section.
(3) "Mandatory direct deposit" means a system established pursuant to this section under which cash assistance payments to all participants in the Ohio works first program or recipients of disability financial assistance, other than those exempt under division (E) of this section, are made by direct deposit by electronic transfer to an account in a financial institution designated under this section.
(B) A board of county commissioners may by adoption of a resolution require the county department of job and family services to establish a direct deposit system for distributing cash assistance payments under Ohio works first, disability financial assistance, or both, unless the director of job and family services has provided for those payments to be made by electronic benefit transfer pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code. Voluntary or mandatory direct deposit may be applied to either of the programs. The resolution shall specify for each program for which direct deposit is to be established whether direct deposit is voluntary or mandatory. The board may require the department to change or terminate direct deposit by adopting a resolution to change or terminate it. Within ninety days after adopting a resolution under this division, the board shall certify one copy of the resolution to the director of job and family services and one copy to the office of budget and management. The director of job and family services may adopt rules governing establishment of direct deposit by county departments of job and family services.
The county department of job and family services shall determine what type of account will be used for direct deposit and negotiate with financial institutions to determine the charges, if any, to be imposed by a financial institution for establishing and maintaining such accounts. Under voluntary direct deposit, the county department of job and family services may pay all charges imposed by a financial institution for establishing and maintaining an account in which direct deposits are made for a recipient. Under mandatory direct deposit, the county department of job and family services shall pay all charges imposed by a financial institution for establishing and maintaining such an account. No financial institution shall impose any charge for such an account that the institution does not impose on its other customers for the same type of account. Direct deposit does not affect the exemption of Ohio works first and disability financial assistance from attachment, garnishment, or other like process afforded by sections 5107.75 and 5115.07 5115.06 of the Revised Code.
(C) The county department of job and family services shall, within sixty days after a resolution requiring the establishment of direct deposit is adopted, establish procedures governing direct deposit.
Within one hundred eighty days after the resolution is adopted, the county department shall:
(1) Inform each applicant or recipient of the procedures governing direct deposit, including in the case of voluntary direct deposit those that prescribe the conditions under which a recipient may change from one method of payment to another;
(2) Obtain from each applicant or recipient an authorization form to designate a financial institution equipped for and authorized by law to accept direct deposits by electronic transfer and the account into which the applicant or recipient wishes the payments to be made, or in the case of voluntary direct deposit states the applicant's or recipient's election to receive such payments in the form of a paper warrant.
The department may require a recipient to complete a new authorization form whenever the department considers it necessary.
A recipient's designation of a financial institution and account shall remain in effect until withdrawn in writing or dishonored by the financial institution, except that no change may be made in the authorization form until the next eligibility redetermination of the recipient unless the department feels that good grounds exist for an earlier change.
(D) An applicant or recipient without an account who either agrees or is required to receive payments by direct deposit shall have ten days after receiving the authorization form to designate an account suitable for direct deposit. If within the required time the applicant or recipient does not make the designation or requests that the department make the designation, the department shall designate a financial institution and help the recipient to open an account.
(E) At the time of giving an applicant or recipient the authorization form, the county department of job and family services of a county with mandatory direct deposit shall inform each applicant or recipient of the basis for exemption and the right to request exemption from direct deposit.
Under mandatory direct deposit, an applicant or recipient who wishes to receive payments in the form of a paper warrant shall record on the authorization form a request for exemption under this division and the basis for the exemption.
The department shall exempt from mandatory direct deposit any recipient who requests exemption and is any of the following:
(1) Over age sixty-five;
(2) Blind or disabled;
(3) Likely, in the judgment of the department, to be caused personal hardship by direct deposit.
A recipient granted an exemption under this division shall receive payments for which the recipient is eligible in the form of paper warrants.
(F) The county department of job and family services shall bear the full cost of the amount of any replacement warrant issued to a recipient for whom an authorization form as provided in this section has not been obtained within one hundred eighty days after the later of the date the board of county commissioners adopts a resolution requiring payments of financial assistance by direct deposit to accounts of recipients of Ohio works first or disability financial assistance or the date the recipient made application for assistance, and shall not be reimbursed by the state for any part of the cost. Thereafter, the county department of job and family services shall continue to bear the full cost of each replacement warrant issued until the board of county commissioners requires the county department of job and family services to obtain from each such recipient the authorization forms as provided in this section.
Sec. 329.04.  (A) The county department of job and family services shall have, exercise, and perform the following powers and duties:
(1) Perform any duties assigned by the state department of job and family services regarding the provision of public family services, including the provision of the following services to prevent or reduce economic or personal dependency and to strengthen family life:
(a) Services authorized by a Title IV-A program, as defined in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code;
(b) Social services authorized by Title XX of the "Social Security Act" and provided for by section 5101.46 of the Revised Code;
(c) If the county department is designated as the child support enforcement agency, services authorized by Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act" and provided for by Chapter 3125. of the Revised Code. The county department may perform the services itself or contract with other government entities, and, pursuant to division (C) of section 2301.35 and section 2301.42 of the Revised Code, private entities, to perform the Title IV-D services.
(2) Administer disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, as required by the state department of job and family services under section 5115.03 of the Revised Code;
(3) Administer disability medical assistance, as required by the state department of job and family services under section 5115.13 of the Revised Code;
(3)(4) Administer burials insofar as the administration of burials was, prior to September 12, 1947, imposed upon the board of county commissioners and if otherwise required by state law;
(4)(5) Cooperate with state and federal authorities in any matter relating to family services and to act as the agent of such authorities;
(5)(6) Submit an annual account of its work and expenses to the board of county commissioners and to the state department of job and family services at the close of each fiscal year;
(6)(7) Exercise any powers and duties relating to family services duties or workforce development activities imposed upon the county department of job and family services by law, by resolution of the board of county commissioners, or by order of the governor, when authorized by law, to meet emergencies during war or peace;
(7)(8) Determine the eligibility for medical assistance of recipients of aid under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act";
(8)(9) If assigned by the state director of job and family services under section 5101.515 of the Revised Code, determine applicants' eligibility for health assistance under the children's health insurance program part II;
(9)(10) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of county commissioners under section 307.983, consult with the board in the development of the transportation work plan developed under section 307.985, establish with the board procedures under section 307.986 for providing services to children whose families relocate frequently, and comply with the contracts the board enters into under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the Revised Code that affect the county department;
(10)(11) For the purpose of complying with a partnership fiscal agreement the board of county commissioners enters into under section 307.98 of the Revised Code, exercise the powers and perform the duties the partnership fiscal agreement assigns to the county department;
(11)(12) If the county department is designated as the workforce development agency, provide the workforce development activities specified in the contract required by section 330.05 of the Revised Code.
(B) The powers and duties of a county department of job and family services are, and shall be exercised and performed, under the control and direction of the board of county commissioners. The board may assign to the county department any power or duty of the board regarding family services duties and workforce development activities. If the new power or duty necessitates the state department of job and family services changing its federal cost allocation plan, the county department may not implement the power or duty unless the United States department of health and human services approves the changes.
Sec. 329.05.  The county department of job and family services may administer or assist in administering any state or local family services activity duty in addition to those mentioned in section 329.04 of the Revised Code, supported wholly or in part by public funds from any source provided by agreement between the board of county commissioners and the officer, department, board, or agency in which the administration of such activity is vested. Such officer, department, board, or agency may enter into such agreement and confer upon the county department of job and family services, to the extent and in particulars specified in the agreement, the performance of any duties and the exercise of any powers imposed upon or vested in such officer, board, department, or agency, with respect to the administration of such activity. Such agreement shall be in the form of a resolution of the board of county commissioners, accepted in writing by the other party to the agreement, and filed in the office of the county auditor, and when so filed, shall have the effect of transferring the exercise of the powers and duties to which the agreement relates and shall exempt the other party from all further responsibility for the exercise of the powers and duties so transferred, during the life of the agreement.
Such agreement shall be coordinated and not conflict with a partnership fiscal agreement entered into under section 307.98, a contract entered into under section 307.981 or 307.982, a plan of cooperation entered into under section 307.983, a regional plan of cooperation entered into under section 307.984, a transportation work plan developed under section 307.985, or procedures for providing services to children whose families relocate frequently established under section 307.986 of the Revised Code. It may be revoked at the option of either party, by a resolution or order of the revoking party filed in the office of the auditor. Such revocation shall become effective at the end of the fiscal year occurring at least six months following the filing of the resolution or order. In the absence of such an express revocation so filed, the agreement shall continue indefinitely.
This section does not permit a county department of job and family services to manage or control hospitals, humane societies, detention facilities, jails or probation departments of courts, or veterans service commissions.
Sec. 329.051.  The county department of job and family services shall make voter registration applications as prescribed by the secretary of state under section 3503.10 of the Revised Code available to persons who are applying for, receiving assistance from, or participating in any of the following:
(A) The disability financial assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(B) The disability medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(C) The medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;
(C)(D) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code;
(D)(E) The prevention, retention, and contingency program established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 329.06.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and section 6301.08 of the Revised Code, the board of county commissioners shall establish a county family services planning committee. The board shall appoint a member to represent the county department of job and family services; an employee in the classified civil service of the county department of job and family services, if there are any such employees; and a member to represent the public. The board shall appoint other individuals to the committee in such a manner that the committee's membership is broadly representative of the groups of individuals and the public and private entities that have an interest in the family services provided in the county. The board shall make appointments in a manner that reflects the ethnic and racial composition of the county. The following groups and entities may be represented on the committee:
(1) Consumers of family services;
(2) The public children services agency;
(3) The child support enforcement agency;
(4) The county family and children first council;
(5) Public and private colleges and universities;
(6) Public entities that provide family services, including boards of health, boards of education, the county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, and the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serves the county;
(7) Private nonprofit and for-profit entities that provide family services in the county or that advocate for consumers of family services in the county, including entities that provide services to or advocate for victims of domestic violence;
(8) Labor organizations;
(9) Any other group or entity that has an interest in the family services provided in the county, including groups or entities that represent any of the county's business, urban, and rural sectors.
(B) The county family services planning committee shall do all of the following:
(1) Serve as an advisory body to the board of county commissioners with regard to the family services provided in the county, including assistance under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the Revised Code, publicly funded child day-care under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code, and social services provided under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code;
(2) At least once a year, review and analyze the county department of job and family services' implementation of the programs established under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the Revised Code. In its review, the committee shall use information available to it to examine all of the following:
(a) Return of assistance groups to participation in either program after ceasing to participate;
(b) Teen pregnancy rates among the programs' participants;
(c) The other types of assistance the programs' participants receive, including medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, publicly funded child day-care under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code, food stamp benefits under section 5101.54 of the Revised Code, and energy assistance under Chapter 5117. of the Revised Code;
(d) Other issues the committee considers appropriate.
The committee shall make recommendations to the board of county commissioners and county department of job and family services regarding the committee's findings.
(3) Provide comments and recommendations to the board prior to the board's entering into or substantially amending a partnership agreement with the director of job and family services under section 307.98 of the Revised Code;
(4) Conduct public hearings on proposed county profiles for the provision of social services under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code;
(5)(4) At the request of the board, make recommendations and provide assistance regarding the family services provided in the county;
(6)(5) At any other time the committee considers appropriate, consult with the board and make recommendations regarding the family services provided in the county. The committee's recommendations may address the following:
(a) Implementation and administration of family service programs;
(b) Use of federal, state, and local funds available for family service programs;
(c) Establishment of goals to be achieved by family service programs;
(d) Evaluation of the outcomes of family service programs;
(e) Any other matter the board considers relevant to the provision of family services.
(C) If there is a committee in existence in a county on October 1, 1997, that the board of county commissioners determines is capable of fulfilling the responsibilities of a county family services planning committee, the board may designate the committee as the county's family services planning committee and the committee shall serve in that capacity.
Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of mental health after consultation with relevant constituencies as required by division (A)(11) of section 5119.06 of the Revised Code, with regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall:
(1) Serve as the community mental health planning agency for the county or counties under its jurisdiction, and in so doing it shall:
(a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community mental health services;
(b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the community mental health needs, set priorities, and develop plans for the operation of facilities and community mental health services;
(c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of mental health after consultation with board representatives, develop and submit to the department of mental health, no later than six months prior to the conclusion of the fiscal year in which the board's current plan is scheduled to expire, a community mental health plan listing community mental health needs, including the needs of all residents of the district now residing in state mental institutions and severely mentally disabled adults, children, and adolescents; all children subject to a determination made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised Code; and all the facilities and community mental health services that are or will be in operation or provided during the period for which the plan will be in operation in the service district to meet such needs.
The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code the board intends to provide or purchase, an explanation of how the board intends to make any payments that it may be required to pay under section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, a statement of the inpatient and community-based services the board proposes that the department operate, an assessment of the number and types of residential facilities needed, and such other information as the department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to receive. The board shall also submit an allocation request for state and federal funds. Within sixty days after the department's determination that the plan and allocation request are complete, the department shall approve or disapprove the plan and request, in whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. The department's statement of approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient and the community-based services that the department will operate for the board. Eligibility for financial support shall be contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan.
If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the director shall inform the board of the reasons for the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the plan may be approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on behalf of the plan. The director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the criteria.
If the approval of a plan remains in dispute thirty days prior to the conclusion of the fiscal year in which the board's current plan is scheduled to expire, the board or the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of the dispute. Prior to the conclusion of the fiscal year in which the current plan is scheduled to expire, the director, taking into consideration the recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in part.
If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or an allocation request that has been approved under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove all or part of the amendment. If the director does not approve all or part of the amendment within thirty days after it is submitted, the amendment or part of it shall be considered to have been approved. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the criteria.
The board shall implement the plan approved by the department.
(d) Receive, compile, and transmit to the department of mental health applications for state reimbursement;
(e) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial agencies.
(2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving services from a community mental health agency as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or from a residential facility licensed under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. If the investigation substantiates the charge of abuse or neglect, the board shall take whatever action it determines is necessary to correct the situation, including notification of the appropriate authorities. Upon request, the board shall provide information about such investigations to the department.
(3) For the purpose of section 5119.611 of the Revised Code, cooperate with the director of mental health in visiting and evaluating whether the services of a community mental health agency satisfy the certification standards established by rules adopted under that section;
(4) In accordance with criteria established under division (G) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code, review and evaluate the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through its community mental health plan and submit its findings and recommendations to the department of mental health;
(5) In accordance with section 5119.22 of the Revised Code, review applications for residential facility licenses and recommend to the department of mental health approval or disapproval of applications;
(6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least annually all programs and services provided under contract with the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report shall be provided to the director of mental health, the auditor of state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's district.
(7) Recruit and promote local financial support for mental health programs from private and public sources;
(8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private facilities for the operation of facility services included in the board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with public and private community mental health agencies for the provision of community mental health services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code and included in the board's community mental health plan. Contracts with community mental health agencies are subject to section 5119.611 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this division. In contracting with a community mental health agency, a board shall consider the cost effectiveness of services provided by that agency and the quality and continuity of care, and may review cost elements, including salary costs, of the services to be provided. A utilization review process shall be established as part of the contract for services entered into between a board and a community mental health agency. The board may establish this process in a way that is most effective and efficient in meeting local needs. In the case of a contract with a community mental health facility described, as defined in division (B) of section 5111.022 of the Revised Code, to provide services established by listed in division (A)(B) of that section, the contract shall provide for the facility to be paid in accordance with the contract entered into between the departments of job and family services and mental health under division (E) of that section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.
If either the board or a facility or community mental health agency with which the board contracts under division (A)(8)(a) of this section proposes not to renew the contract or proposes substantial changes in contract terms, the other party shall be given written notice at least one hundred twenty days before the expiration date of the contract. During the first sixty days of this one hundred twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to resolve any dispute through good faith collaboration and negotiation in order to continue to provide services to persons in need. If the dispute has not been resolved sixty days before the expiration date of the contract, either party may notify the department of mental health of the unresolved dispute. The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the facility or community mental health agency. The third party shall issue to the board, the facility or agency, and the department recommendations on how the dispute may be resolved twenty days prior to the expiration date of the contract, unless both parties agree to a time extension. The director shall adopt rules establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution process.
(b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health, a board may operate a facility or provide a community mental health service as follows, if there is no other qualified private or public facility or community mental health agency that is immediately available and willing to operate such a facility or provide the service:
(i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a facility or provide a community mental health service in order to provide essential services for the duration of the emergency;
(ii) In a service district with a population of at least one hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a community mental health service for no longer than one year;
(iii) In a service district with a population of less than one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a community mental health service for no longer than one year, except that such a board may operate a facility or provide a community mental health service for more than one year with the prior approval of the director and the prior approval of the board of county commissioners, or of a majority of the boards of county commissioners if the district is a joint-county district.
The director shall not give a board approval to operate a facility or provide a community mental health service under division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the director determines that it is not feasible to have the department operate the facility or provide the service.
The director shall not give a board approval to operate a facility or provide a community mental health service under division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director determines that the board will provide greater administrative efficiency and more or better services than would be available if the board contracted with a private or public facility or community mental health agency.
The director shall not give a board approval to operate a facility previously operated by a person or other government entity unless the board has established to the director's satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot effectively operate the facility or that the person or other government entity has requested the board to take over operation of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to provide a community mental health service previously provided by a community mental health agency unless the board has established to the director's satisfaction that the agency cannot effectively provide the service or that the agency has requested the board take over providing the service.
The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of a facility and provision of community mental health service under division (A)(8)(b) of this section.
Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility or community mental health agency, but a facility or agency may contract with a board to receive administrative services or staff direction from the board under the direction of the governing body of the facility or agency.
(9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services provided by community mental health agencies in accordance with guidelines issued by the department as necessary to comply with state and federal laws pertaining to financial assistance;
(10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of the county or counties served by the board, and make available to the public, an annual report of the programs under the jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;
(11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a community support system, which provides for treatment, support, and rehabilitation services and opportunities. The essential elements of the system include, but are not limited to, the following components in accordance with section 5119.06 of the Revised Code:
(a) To locate persons in need of mental health services to inform them of available services and benefits mechanisms;
(b) Assistance for clients to obtain services necessary to meet basic human needs for food, clothing, shelter, medical care, personal safety, and income;
(c) Mental health care, including, but not limited to, outpatient, partial hospitalization, and, where appropriate, inpatient care;
(d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;
(e) Assistance for clients to obtain vocational services and opportunities for jobs;
(f) The provision of services designed to develop social, community, and personal living skills;
(g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of residential treatment and support;
(h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for families, friends, consumers of mental health services, and others;
(i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and meaningful employment as natural supports for consumers of mental health services;
(j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of consumers of mental health services;
(k) Case management, which includes continual individualized assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered and procured.
(12) Designate the treatment program, agency, or facility for each person involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code and authorize payment for such treatment. The board shall provide the least restrictive and most appropriate alternative that is available for any person involuntarily committed to it and shall assure that the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code are available to severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing payment for services, which may include prior authorization in appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency is available to provide the service.
(13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and appropriate, if any;
(14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community mental health agency have been approved as meeting minimum fire safety standards and that persons residing in the rooms or apartments are receiving appropriate and necessary services, including culturally relevant services, from a community mental health agency. This division does not apply to residential facilities licensed pursuant to section 5119.22 of the Revised Code.
(15) Establish a mechanism for involvement of consumer recommendation and advice on matters pertaining to mental health services in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;
(16) Perform the duties under section 3722.18 of the Revised Code required by rules adopted under section 5119.61 of the Revised Code regarding referrals by the board or mental health agencies under contract with the board of individuals with mental illness or severe mental disability to adult care facilities and effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the individuals. The board is accountable in the manner specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing mental health services are effectively arranged for the individuals.
(B) The board shall establish such rules, operating procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this chapter.
(C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for which the board is established, and may hold and apply it according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or grantor.
(D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope of the board member's official duties or the employee's employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of a board taken within the scope of the board member's official duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the conduct was unlawful.
(E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 121.22 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 505.69.  As used in this section, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same meanings as in section 4981.01 5507.01 of the Revised Code.
The board of township trustees may acquire, rehabilitate, and develop rail property and rail service, and may enter into agreements with the Ohio rail development commission, boards of county commissioners, legislative authorities of municipal corporations, other boards of township trustees, with other governmental agencies or organizations, and with private agencies or organizations in order to achieve those purposes.
Sec. 715.013. (A) Except as otherwise expressly authorized by the Revised Code, no municipal corporation shall levy a tax that is the same as or similar to a tax levied under Chapter 322., 3734., 3769., 4123., 4141., 4301., 4303., 4305., 4307., 4309., 5707., 5725., 5727., 5728., 5729., 5731., 5735., 5737., 5739., 5741., 5743., or 5749. of the Revised Code.
(B) This section does not prohibit a municipal corporation from levying a tax on amounts any of the following:
(1) Amounts received for admission to any place or, on and after January 1, 2002, on the;
(2) The income of an electric company or combined company, as defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code;
(3) On and after January 1, 2004, the income of a telephone company, as defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 717.01.  Each municipal corporation may do any of the following:
(A) Acquire by purchase or condemnation real estate with or without buildings on it, and easements or interests in real estate;
(B) Extend, enlarge, reconstruct, repair, equip, furnish, or improve a building or improvement that it is authorized to acquire or construct;
(C) Erect a crematory or provide other means for disposing of garbage or refuse, and erect public comfort stations;
(D) Purchase turnpike roads and make them free;
(E) Construct wharves and landings on navigable waters;
(F) Construct infirmaries, workhouses, prisons, police stations, houses of refuge and correction, market houses, public halls, public offices, municipal garages, repair shops, storage houses, and warehouses;
(G) Construct or acquire waterworks for supplying water to the municipal corporation and its inhabitants and extend the waterworks system outside of the municipal corporation limits;
(H) Construct or purchase gas works or works for the generation and transmission of electricity, for the supplying of gas or electricity to the municipal corporation and its inhabitants;
(I) Provide grounds for cemeteries or crematories, enclose and embellish them, and construct vaults or crematories;
(J) Construct sewers, sewage disposal works, flushing tunnels, drains, and ditches;
(K) Construct free public libraries and reading rooms, and free recreation centers;
(L) Establish free public baths and municipal lodging houses;
(M) Construct monuments or memorial buildings to commemorate the services of soldiers, sailors, and marines of the state and nation;
(N) Provide land for and improve parks, boulevards, and public playgrounds;
(O) Construct hospitals and pesthouses;
(P) Open, construct, widen, extend, improve, resurface, or change the line of any street or public highway;
(Q) Construct and improve levees, dams, waterways, waterfronts, and embankments and improve any watercourse passing through the municipal corporation;
(R) Construct or improve viaducts, bridges, and culverts;
(S)(1) Construct any building necessary for the police or fire department;
(2) Purchase fire engines or fire boats;
(3) Construct water towers or fire cisterns;
(4) Place underground the wires or signal apparatus of any police or fire department.
(T) Construct any municipal ice plant for the purpose of manufacturing ice for the citizens of a municipal corporation;
(U) Construct subways under any street or boulevard or elsewhere;
(V) Acquire by purchase, gift, devise, bequest, lease, condemnation proceedings, or otherwise, real or personal property, and thereon and thereof to establish, construct, enlarge, improve, equip, maintain, and operate airports, landing fields, or other air navigation facilities, either within or outside the limits of a municipal corporation, and acquire by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or condemnation proceedings rights-of-way for connections with highways, waterways, and electric, steam, and interurban railroads, and improve and equip such facilities with structures necessary or appropriate for such purposes. No municipal corporation may take or disturb property or facilities belonging to any public utility or to a common carrier engaged in interstate commerce, which property or facilities are required for the proper and convenient operation of the utility or carrier, unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, or duplication of the property or facilities elsewhere at the sole cost of the municipal corporation.
(W) Provide by agreement with any regional airport authority, created under section 308.03 of the Revised Code, for the making of necessary surveys, appraisals, and examinations preliminary to the acquisition or construction of any airport or airport facility and pay the portion of the expense of the surveys, appraisals, and examinations as set forth in the agreement;
(X) Provide by agreement with any regional airport authority, created under section 308.03 of the Revised Code, for the acquisition, construction, maintenance, or operation of any airport or airport facility owned or to be owned and operated by the regional airport authority or owned or to be owned and operated by the municipal corporation and pay the portion of the expense of it as set forth in the agreement;
(Y) Acquire by gift, purchase, lease, or condemnation, land, forest, and water rights necessary for conservation of forest reserves, water parks, or reservoirs, either within or without the limits of the municipal corporation, and improve and equip the forest and water parks with structures, equipment, and reforestation necessary or appropriate for any purpose for the utilization of any of the forest and water benefits that may properly accrue therefrom to the municipal corporation;
(Z) Acquire real property by purchase, gift, or devise and construct and maintain on it public swimming pools, either within or outside the limits of the municipal corporation;
(AA) Construct or rehabilitate, equip, maintain, operate, and lease facilities for housing of elderly persons and for persons of low and moderate income, and appurtenant facilities. No municipal corporation shall deny housing accommodations to or withhold housing accommodations from elderly persons or persons of low and moderate income because of race, color, religion, sex, familial status as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised Code, disability as defined in that section, ancestry, or national origin. Any elderly person or person of low or moderate income who is denied housing accommodations or has them withheld by a municipal corporation because of race, color, religion, sex, familial status as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised Code, disability as defined in that section, ancestry, or national origin may file a charge with the Ohio civil rights commission as provided in Chapter 4112. of the Revised Code.
(BB) Acquire, rehabilitate, and develop rail property or rail service, and enter into agreements with the Ohio rail development commission, boards of county commissioners, boards of township trustees, legislative authorities of other municipal corporations, with other governmental agencies or organizations, and with private agencies or organizations in order to achieve those purposes;
(CC) Appropriate and contribute money to a soil and water conservation district for use under Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;
(DD) Authorize the board of county commissioners, pursuant to a contract authorizing the action, to contract on the municipal corporation's behalf for the administration and enforcement within its jurisdiction of the state building code by another county or another municipal corporation located within or outside the county. The contract for administration and enforcement shall provide for obtaining certification pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code for the exercise of administration and enforcement authority within the municipal corporation seeking those services and shall specify which political subdivision is responsible for securing that certification.
(EE) Expend money for providing and maintaining services and facilities for senior citizens.
"Airport," "landing field," and "air navigation facility," as defined in section 4561.01 of the Revised Code, apply to division (V) of this section.
As used in divisions (W) and (X) of this section, "airport" and "airport facility" have the same meanings as in section 308.01 of the Revised Code.
As used in division (BB) of this section, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same meanings as in section 4981.01 5507.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 718.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Adjusted federal taxable income" has the same meaning as in section 5745.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended.
(2)(3) "Schedule C" means internal revenue service schedule C filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.
(3)(4) "Form 2106" means internal revenue service form 2106 filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.
(4)(5) "Intangible income" means income of any of the following types: income yield, interest, dividends, or other income arising from the ownership, sale, exchange, or other disposition of intangible property including, but not limited to, investments, deposits, money, or credits as those terms are defined in Chapter 5701. of the Revised Code.
(5)(6) "S corporation" means a corporation that has made an election under subchapter S of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year.
(7) On and after January 1, 2004, "net profit" means adjusted federal taxable income calculated on the basis of the Internal Revenue Code as it exists on the effective date of this amendment.
(8) "Taxpayer" means a person subject to a tax levied by a municipal corporation on income.
(9) "Taxable year" means a taxpayer's taxable year for federal income tax purposes.
(10) "Tax administrator" means the individual charged with direct responsibility for administration of a tax levied by a municipal corporation on income.
(B) No municipal corporation with respect to that income that it may tax shall tax such income at other than a uniform rate.
(C) No municipal corporation shall levy a tax on income at a rate in excess of one per cent without having obtained the approval of the excess by a majority of the electors of the municipality voting on the question at a general, primary, or special election. The legislative authority of the municipal corporation shall file with the board of elections at least seventy-five days before the day of the election a copy of the ordinance together with a resolution specifying the date the election is to be held and directing the board of elections to conduct the election. The ballot shall be in the following form: "Shall the Ordinance providing for a ... per cent levy on income for (Brief description of the purpose of the proposed levy) be passed?
FOR THE INCOME TAX
AGAINST THE INCOME TAX"
In the event of an affirmative vote, the proceeds of the levy may be used only for the specified purpose.
(D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) or (F)(9) of this section, no No municipal corporation shall exempt from a tax on income, compensation for personal services of individuals over eighteen years of age or the net profit from a business or profession.
(2) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation may, by ordinance or resolution, exempt from a tax on income any compensation arising from the grant, sale, exchange, or other disposition of a stock option; the exercise of a stock option; or the sale, exchange, or other disposition of stock purchased under a stock option. On and after January 1, 2004, no municipal corporation shall tax the net profit from a business or profession using any base other than the taxpayer's adjusted federal taxable income. Division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to any taxpayer required to file a return under section 5745.03 of the Revised Code.
(E) Nothing in this section shall prevent Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, a municipal corporation from permitting may permit lawful deductions as prescribed by ordinance. If a taxpayer's taxable income includes income against which the taxpayer has taken a deduction for federal income tax purposes as reportable on the taxpayer's form 2106, and against which a like deduction has not been allowed by the municipal corporation, the municipal corporation shall deduct from the taxpayer's taxable income an amount equal to the deduction shown on such form allowable against such income, to the extent not otherwise so allowed as a deduction by the municipal corporation. In the case of a taxpayer who has a net profit from a business or profession that is operated as a sole proprietorship, no municipal corporation may tax or use as the base for determining the amount of the net profit that shall be considered as having a taxable situs in the municipal corporation, a greater amount than the net profit reported by the taxpayer on schedule C filed in reference to the year in question as taxable income from such sole proprietorship, except as otherwise specifically provided by ordinance or regulation an amount other than the net profit required to be reported by the taxpayer on schedule C as taxable income from such sole proprietorship for the taxable year, but such amount shall be increased in accordance with the principles and concepts described in section 5745.042 of the Revised Code as if the taxpayer were a C corporation.
(F) A municipal corporation shall not tax any of the following:
(1) The military pay or allowances of members of the armed forces of the United States and of members of their reserve components, including the Ohio national guard;
(2) The income of religious, fraternal, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational institutions to the extent that such income is derived from tax-exempt real estate, tax-exempt tangible or intangible property, or tax-exempt activities;
(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (G) of this section, intangible income;
(4) Compensation paid under section 3501.28 or 3501.36 of the Revised Code to a person serving as a precinct election official, to the extent that such compensation does not exceed one thousand dollars annually. Such compensation in excess of one thousand dollars may be subjected to taxation by a municipal corporation. A municipal corporation shall not require the payer of such compensation to withhold any tax from that compensation.
(5) Compensation paid to an employee of a transit authority, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission created under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code for operating a transit bus or other motor vehicle for the authority or commission in or through the municipal corporation, unless the bus or vehicle is operated on a regularly scheduled route, the operator is subject to such a tax by reason of residence or domicile in the municipal corporation, or the headquarters of the authority or commission is located within the municipal corporation;
(6) The income of a public utility, when that public utility is subject to the tax levied under section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code, except starting January 1, 2002, the income of an electric company or combined company, as defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code, may be taxed by a municipal corporation may tax the following, subject to Chapter 5745. of the Revised Code:
(a) Beginning January 1, 2002, the income of an electric company or combined company;
(b) Beginning January 1, 2004, the income of a telephone company.
As used in division (F)(6) of this section, "combined company," "electric company" and "telephone company" have the same meanings as in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.
(7) On and after January 1, 2003, items excluded from federal gross income pursuant to section 107 of the Internal Revenue Code;
(8) On and after January 1, 2001, compensation paid to a nonresident individual to the extent prohibited under section 718.011 of the Revised Code;
(9) Except as provided in division (H) of this section, an S corporation shareholder's distributive share of net profits of the S corporation, other than any part of the distributive share of net profits that represents wages as defined in section 3121(a) of the Internal Revenue Code or net earnings from self-employment as defined in section 1402(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent such distributive share would not be allocated or apportioned to this state under division (B)(1) and (2) of section 5733.05 of the Revised Code if the S corporation were a corporation subject to the taxes imposed under Chapter 5733. of the Revised Code.
(10) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2004, with respect to a nonqualified deferred compensation plan or program under section 3121(v)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code:
(a) Any amount that is not included in a person's federal gross income; and
(b) Any amount included in a person's federal gross income to the extent the municipal corporation imposed a tax on the nonqualified deferred compensation at the time the compensation was deferred.
(11) Any amount of compensation included in a person's federal gross income if the amount may not be subjected to taxation by the municipal corporation under 4 U.S.C. 114 because the person is not a resident of the municipal corporation at the time such compensation is distributed.
(G) Any municipal corporation that taxes any type of intangible income on March 29, 1988, pursuant to Section 3 of Amended Substitute Senate Bill No. 238 of the 116th general assembly, may continue to tax that type of income after 1988 if a majority of the electors of the municipal corporation voting on the question of whether to permit the taxation of that type of intangible income after 1988 vote in favor thereof at an election held on November 8, 1988.
(H) Any municipal corporation that, on December 6, 2002, taxes an S corporation shareholder's distributive share of net profits of the S corporation to any greater extent than that permitted under division (F)(9) of this section may continue after 2002 to tax such distributive shares to such greater extent only if a majority of the electors of the municipal corporation voting on the question of such continuation vote in favor thereof at an election held on November 4, 2003. If a majority of electors vote in favor of that question, then, for purposes of section 718.14 of the Revised Code, "pass-through entity" includes S corporations, "income from a pass-through entity" includes distributive shares from an S corporation, and "owner" includes a shareholder of an S corporation, notwithstanding that section to the contrary.
(I) Nothing in this section or section 718.02 of the Revised Code shall authorize the levy of any tax on income that a municipal corporation is not authorized to levy under existing laws or shall require a municipal corporation to allow a deduction from taxable income for losses incurred from a sole proprietorship or partnership.
Sec. 718.02.  This section does not apply to electric companies or combined companies, or to electric light companies for which an election made under section 5745.031 taxpayers that are subject to and required to file reports under Chapter 5745. of the Revised Code is in effect.
(A) In the taxation of income that is subject to municipal income taxes, if the books and records of a taxpayer conducting a business or profession both within and without the boundaries of a municipal corporation disclose with reasonable accuracy what portion of its net profit is attributable to that part of the business or profession conducted within the boundaries of the municipal corporation, then only such portion shall be considered as having a taxable situs in such municipal corporation for purposes of municipal income taxation. In the absence of such records, net Net profit from a business or profession conducted both within and without the boundaries of a municipal corporation shall be considered as having a taxable situs in such municipal corporation for purposes of municipal income taxation in the same proportion as the average ratio of the following:
(1) The average net book value original cost of the real and tangible personal property owned or used by the taxpayer in the business or profession in such municipal corporation during the taxable period to the average net book value original cost of all of the real and tangible personal property owned or used by the taxpayer in the business or profession during the same period, wherever situated.
As used in the preceding paragraph, real property shall include property rented or leased by the taxpayer and the value of such property shall be determined by multiplying the annual rental thereon by eight;
(2) Wages, salaries, and other compensation paid during the taxable period to persons employed in the business or profession for services performed in such municipal corporation to wages, salaries, and other compensation paid during the same period to persons employed in the business or profession, wherever their services are performed, excluding compensation that is not taxable by the municipal corporation under section 718.011 of the Revised Code;
(3) Gross receipts of the business or profession from sales made and services performed during the taxable period in such municipal corporation to gross receipts of the business or profession during the same period from sales and services, wherever made or performed.
If the foregoing allocation apportionment formula does not produce an equitable result, another basis may be substituted, under uniform regulations, so as to produce an equitable result. If, for any taxable year, the foregoing apportionment formula produces an amount less than zero, the taxpayer shall not be entitled to a refund with respect to that taxable year of any amounts other than amounts the taxpayer has paid in estimated taxes for the taxable year and any overpayment from a previous taxable year credited towards the taxable year for which the foregoing apportionment formula produces an amount less than zero.
(B) As used in division (A) of this section, "sales made in a municipal corporation" mean:
(1) All sales of tangible personal property delivered within such municipal corporation regardless of where title passes if shipped or delivered from a stock of goods within such municipal corporation;
(2) All sales of tangible personal property delivered within such municipal corporation regardless of where title passes even though transported from a point outside such municipal corporation if the taxpayer is regularly engaged through its own employees in the solicitation or promotion of sales within such municipal corporation and the sales result from such solicitation or promotion;
(3) All sales of tangible personal property shipped from a place within such municipal corporation to purchasers outside such municipal corporation regardless of where title passes if the taxpayer is not, through its own employees, regularly engaged in the solicitation or promotion of sales at the place where delivery is made.
Sec. 718.021. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Apportioned net income" means the amount derived from the application of the apportionment formula described in section 718.02 of the Revised Code for taxable years beginning on and after January 1, 1999.
(2) "Loss-generating taxable year" means a taxable year in which the taxpayer has negative apportioned net income.
(3) "Negative apportioned net income" means apportioned net income that is less than zero, except that if, for any taxable year, a taxpayer was not subject to the income tax imposed by a municipal corporation or was exempt from that tax, then the taxpayer's negative apportioned net income with respect to that municipal corporation is zero for that taxable year.
(4) "Positive apportioned net income" means apportioned net income greater than zero.
(B)(1) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2004, if a taxpayer has negative apportioned net income for a taxable year with respect to a municipal income tax, then for each of the next five ensuing taxable years, the taxpayer may reduce any positive apportioned net income with respect to the municipal corporation in which the negative apportioned net income was generated by the lesser of:
(a) The positive apportioned net income for that ensuing taxable year; or
(b) The absolute value of the negative apportioned net income attributable to the loss-generating taxable year reduced by any amount the taxpayer was allowed to deduct under this section in any of the previous taxable years.
(2) If, during a period of five consecutive taxable years, a taxpayer has negative apportioned net income in more than one taxable year, the negative apportioned net income generated in the earliest of those taxable years shall be the first negative apportioned net income deducted under this section.
(C) Nothing in this section shall be construed as allowing any negative apportioned net income for a taxable year to be deducted more than once in any subsequent taxable year.
(D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as allowing any negative apportioned net income for a taxable year to be deducted in any subsequent taxable year beginning more than five years after the beginning of the loss-generating taxable year.
Sec. 718.03.  As used in this section, "other payer" means any person, other than an individual's employer or the employer's agent, that pays an individual any item included in the taxable income of the individual, other than the individual's employer or that employer's agent.
(A) Beginning January July 1, 2001 2003, a municipal corporation shall not require any nonresident employer, agent of such an employer, or other payer that is not situated in the municipal corporation to deduct and withhold taxes from the taxable income of an individual unless and until the total amount of tax required to be deducted and withheld for the municipal corporation on account of all of the employer's employees or all of the other payer's payees exceeds one hundred fifty dollars for a the calendar year beginning on or after that date.
If the total amount of tax required to be deducted and withheld on account of all of the nonresident employer's employees or all of the other payer's payees exceeds one hundred fifty dollars for a calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2001, the municipal corporation may require the employer, agent, or other payer to deduct and withhold taxes in each ensuing year even if the amount required to be deducted and withheld in each of those ensuing years is one hundred fifty dollars or less, except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section.
(B) If a nonresident employer, agent of such an employer, or other payer that is not situated in the municipal corporation is required to deduct and withhold taxes for an ensuing year under division (A) of this section, and the total amount of tax required to be deducted and withheld under that division in each of three consecutive ensuing years is one hundred fifty dollars or less, the municipal corporation shall not require the employer, agent, or other payer to deduct and withhold taxes in any year following the last of those consecutive years unless the amount required to be deducted and withheld in any such following year exceeds one hundred fifty dollars.
Sec. 718.031. (A) As used in this section, "qualifying wages" means wages, as defined in section 3121 of the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:
(1) Deduct any amount included in wages to the extent the amount constitutes compensation attributable to a nonqualified deferred compensation plan or program described in section 3121(v)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and is not included in any individual's federal gross income.
(2) Add any amount not included in wages to the extent the amount constitutes compensation attributable to a nonqualified deferred compensation plan or program described in section 3121(v)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code if the amount is included in any individual's federal gross income, but only to the extent the municipal corporation did not impose its tax on the nonqualified deferred compensation at the time the compensation was deferred. Division (A)(2) of this section applies only to the extent that division (F)(11) of section 718.01 of the Revised Code does not prohibit taxation of such amount by the municipal corporation. For purposes of determining the applicability of division (F)(11) of section 718.01 of the Revised Code, any employer or any agent of any employer or any other payer, as defined in section 718.03 of the Revised Code, may rely on an affidavit or other sworn statement, submitted in good faith by an employee or previous employee, setting forth the employee's residency status.
(3) Add any amount not included in wages to the extent the amount has been directly or indirectly paid to or for the benefit of any employee, payee, or former employee and is excluded from the employee's, payee's, or former employee's federal gross income under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(B) For taxable years beginning after 2003, no municipal corporation shall require any employer or any agent of any employer or any other payer, as defined in section 718.03 of the Revised Code, to withhold tax from any compensation other than qualifying wages directly or indirectly paid to or for the benefit of any employee or payee or former employee. Nothing in this section prohibits an employer from withholding amounts on a basis greater than qualifying wages.
Sec. 718.05.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Generic form" means an electronic or paper form designed for reporting estimated municipal income taxes and annual municipal income tax liability or for filing a refund claim that is not prescribed by a particular municipal corporation for the reporting of that municipal corporation's tax on income.
(2) "Return preparer" means any person other than a taxpayer that is authorized by a taxpayer to complete or file an income tax return, report, or other document for or on behalf of the taxpayer.
(B) A municipal corporation shall not require a taxpayer to file an annual income tax return or report prior to the filing date for the corresponding tax reporting period as prescribed for such a taxpayer under the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years beginning after 2003, except as otherwise provided in section 718.051 of the Revised Code and division (D) of this section, a municipal corporation shall not require a taxpayer to file an annual income tax return or report on any date other than the filing date for the corresponding tax reporting period as prescribed for such a taxpayer under the Internal Revenue Code.
(C) On and after January 1, 2001, any municipal corporation that requires taxpayers to file income tax returns, reports, or other documents shall accept for filing a generic form of such a return, report, or document if the generic form, once completed and filed, contains all of the information required to be submitted with the municipal corporation's prescribed returns, reports, or documents, and if the taxpayer or return preparer filing the generic form otherwise complies with rules or ordinances of the municipal corporation governing the filing of returns, reports, or documents.
(D) Beginning Except as otherwise provided in section 718.051 of the Revised Code, beginning January 1, 2001, any taxpayer that has requested an extension for filing a federal income tax return may request an extension for the filing of a municipal income tax return. The taxpayer shall make the request by filing a copy of the taxpayer's request for a federal filing extension with the individual or office charged with the administration of the municipal income tax. The request for extension shall be filed not later than the last day for filing the municipal income tax return as prescribed by ordinance or rule of the municipal corporation. A municipal corporation shall grant such a request for extension filed before January 1, 2004, for a period not less than the period of the federal extension request. For taxable years beginning after 2003, the extended due date of the municipal income tax return shall be the last day of the month to which the due date of the federal income tax return has been extended. A municipal corporation may deny a taxpayer's request for extension only if the taxpayer fails to timely file the request, fails to file a copy of the request for the federal extension, owes the municipal corporation any delinquent income tax or any penalty, interest, assessment, or other charge for the late payment or nonpayment of income tax, or has failed to file any required income tax return, report, or other related document for a prior tax period. The granting of an extension for filing a municipal corporation income tax return does not extend the last date for paying the tax without penalty unless the municipal corporation grants an extension of that date.
Sec. 718.051. (A) As used in this section, "Ohio business gateway" means the online computer network system, initially created by the department of administrative services under section 125.30 of the Revised Code, that allows private businesses to electronically file business reply forms with state agencies.
(B) Notwithstanding section 718.05 of the Revised Code, on and after January 1, 2005, any taxpayer that is subject to any municipal corporation's tax on the net profit from a business or profession and has received an extension to file the federal income tax return shall not be required to notify the municipal corporation of the federal extension and shall not be required to file any municipal income tax return until the last day of the month to which the due date for filing the federal return has been extended, provided that, on or before the date for filing the municipal income tax return, the person notifies the tax commissioner of the federal extension through the Ohio business gateway or any successor electronic filing and payment system.
(C) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a taxpayer subject to any municipal corporation's tax on the net profit from a business or profession may file any municipal income tax return or estimated municipal income return, and may make payment of amounts shown to be due on such returns, by using the Ohio business gateway or any successor electronic filing and payment system.
(D)(1) As used in this division, "qualifying wages" has the same meaning as in section 718.031 of the Revised Code.
(2) Any employer may report the amount of municipal income tax withheld from qualifying wages paid on or after January 1, 2007, and may make remittance of such amounts, by using the Ohio business gateway or any successor electronic filing and payment system.
(E) Nothing in this section shall be construed as affecting the due dates for filing income tax returns or employer withholding tax returns or for paying any amounts shown to be due on such returns.
(F) Nothing in this section requires this state to continue to make available the Ohio business gateway or to make available any successor electronic filing and payment system.
Sec. 718.11.  (A) If any employer or taxpayer required to file a tax return for a tax subject to this chapter fails to file the return within the time prescribed, files an incorrect return, or fails to remit the full amount of the tax due for the period covered by the return, the tax administrator may make an assessment against the employer or taxpayer for any deficiency for the period for which the return or tax is due, based upon any information in the administrator's possession.
The tax administrator shall not make or issue an assessment against an employer or taxpayer more than three years after the final date the return subject to assessment was required to be filed or the date the return was filed, whichever is later. The time limit may be extended if both the employer or taxpayer and the administrator consent in writing to the extension. An extension shall extend the three-year time limit in section 718.12 of the Revised Code for the same period of time. There is no bar or limit to an assessment against an employer or taxpayer that fails to file a return subject to assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a fraudulent return. The administrator shall give the employer or taxpayer assessed written notice of the assessment by personal service or mail. Notice sent by mail shall be sent to the address shown on the tax return or other documentation unless the employer or taxpayer notifies the administrator of a different address. With the notice, the administrator shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.
(B) Unless the employer or taxpayer assessed files with the tax administrator within sixty days from the mailing of the assessment a written petition for reassessment signed by the employer or taxpayer or by the authorized agent of the employer or taxpayer assessed having knowledge of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable from the employer or taxpayer to the treasurer of the municipal corporation. The petition shall indicate the employer's or taxpayer's objections, but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the administrator prior to the date shown on the final determination. An assessment sent by mail which is returned undeliverable or sent to a location other than that of the employer or taxpayer shall not be considered to be "the mailing of the assessment" until the assessment is actually mailed to the location of the employer or taxpayer.
(C) If the petitioner requests a hearing, the tax administrator shall assign a time and place for the hearing on the petition and shall notify the petitioner of the time and place of the hearing. The administrator may continue the hearing from time to time if necessary.
The tax administrator shall make such corrections to the assessment as the administrator finds proper. The administrator shall serve a copy of the final determination on the petitioner by personal service or by certified mail, and the administrator's determination in the matter shall be final, subject to appeal as provided for in section 5717.011 of the Revised Code. Only objections decided on the merits by the board of tax appeals or a court shall be given collateral estoppel or res judicata effect in considering an application for refund of amounts paid pursuant to the assessment.
(D) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified copy of the tax administrator's entry making the assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county where the municipal corporation is primarily located.
Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall enter a judgment against the employer or taxpayer assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for municipal corporation of income taxes" and shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax administrator, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.
The portion of an assessment not paid within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued shall bear additional interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the day the administrator issues the assessment until the assessment is paid. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.
(E) All money collected under this section shall be considered revenue arising from the tax imposed by the municipal corporation.
(F) If the tax administrator believes that collection of the tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the administrator may issue a jeopardy assessment against the employer or taxpayer liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy assessment, the administrator shall file an entry with the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (D) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served on the employer or taxpayer assessed or the taxpayer's legal representative by personal service or certified mail within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the employer or taxpayer assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with division (B) of this section and provides security in a form satisfactory to the administrator and in an amount sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the administrator's consideration of the petition for reassessment.
(G) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment is pending, the employer or taxpayer may pay all or a portion of the assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of a payment by the treasurer of the municipal corporation does not prejudice any claim for refund upon final determination of the petition.
If upon final determination of the petition an error in the assessment is corrected by the tax administrator, upon petition so filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so that the amount due from the employer or taxpayer under the corrected assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to the employer or taxpayer, its assignees, or legal representative a refund in the amount of the overpayment as provided by section 718.12 of the Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided in that section.
(H) As used in this section:
(1) "Employer" includes a responsible party if the municipal corporation imposes such liability.
(2) "Tax" includes amounts an employer is required to withhold.
Sec. 718.111. Except as provided in this section, no municipal corporation shall levy, assess, or collect any civil penalties for a tax subject to assessment under section 718.11 of the Revised Code.
(A) The following penalties shall apply to employers and taxpayers required to file a tax return for a tax subject to this chapter:
(1) If an employer or a taxpayer required to file a return or remit tax fails to make and file a return within the time prescribed, including any extensions of time granted by the tax administrator, the administrator may impose a penalty not exceeding the greater of fifty dollars per month or fraction of a month, not to exceed five hundred dollars, or five per cent per month or fraction of a month, not to exceed fifty per cent, of the tax required to be shown on the return, for each month or fraction of a month elapsing between the due date, including extensions of the due date, and the day on which the return is filed.
(2) If an employer or a taxpayer fails to pay any amount of estimated tax required to be paid, subject to section 718.08 of the Revised Code, by the dates prescribed for payment, the tax administrator may impose a penalty of up to twice the interest owed for the delinquent payment.
(3) If an employer or a taxpayer files what purports to be a return required by a municipal corporation to report income that does not contain information upon which the substantial correctness of the return may be judged or contains information that on its face indicates that the return is substantially incorrect, and the filing of the return in that manner is due to a position that is frivolous or a desire that is apparent from the return to delay or impede the administration of the tax, a penalty of up to five hundred dollars may be imposed.
(4) If an employer or a taxpayer makes a fraudulent attempt to evade the reporting or payment of the tax required to be shown on any return, a penalty may be imposed not exceeding the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per cent of the tax required to be shown on the return.
(5) If any person makes a false or fraudulent claim for a refund under section 718.12 of the Revised Code, a penalty may be imposed not exceeding the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per cent of the claim. Any penalty imposed under division (A)(5) of this section, any refund issued on the claim, and interest on any refund from the date of the refund, may be assessed under section 718.11 of the Revised Code without regard to any time limitation for the assessment imposed by division (A) of that section.
(B) For the purposes of this section, the tax required to be shown on the return shall be reduced by the amount of any part of the tax paid on or before the date, including extensions of the date, prescribed for filing the return.
(C) Each penalty imposed under this section shall be in addition to any other penalty described in this section. All or part of any penalty imposed under this section may be abated by the tax administrator. The administrator may adopt rules governing the imposition and abatement of such penalties.
(D) All amounts collected under this section from an employer or a taxpayer shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by the municipal corporation.
(E) The interest rate for any interest charges levied by a municipal corporation for the underpayment of tax shall be based upon the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 718.112.  (A) If any of the facts, figures, computations, or attachments required in a taxpayer's annual return to determine the tax charged by the municipal corporation must be altered as the result of an adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return, whether initiated by the taxpayer or the internal revenue service, and such alteration affects the taxpayer's tax liability, the taxpayer shall file an amended return with the tax administrator in such form as the administrator requires. The amended return shall be filed not later than sixty days after the adjustment has been agreed to or finally determined for federal income tax purposes or any federal income tax deficiency or refund, or the abatement or credit resulting therefrom, has been assessed or paid, whichever occurs first.
(B) In the case of an underpayment, the amended return shall be accompanied by payment of any additional tax due together with interest thereon. If the tax shown to be due is one dollar or less, such amount need not accompany the amended return. An amended return required by this section is a return subject to assessment under section 718.11 of the Revised Code for the purpose of assessing any additional tax due under this section, together with any applicable penalty and interest. An amended return does not reopen facts, figures, computations, or attachments from a previously filed return no longer subject to assessment that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.
(C) In the case of an overpayment, an application for refund may be filed under this division within the sixty-day period prescribed for filing the amended return even if it is filed beyond the period prescribed in section 718.12 of the Revised Code if it otherwise conforms to the requirements of that section. An application filed under this division shall claim refund of overpayments resulting from alterations to only those facts, figures, computations, or attachments required in the taxpayer's annual return that are affected, either directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return unless it is also filed within the time prescribed in section 718.12 of the Revised Code. The application does not reopen facts, figures, computations, or attachments that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.
Sec. 718.12.  (A) An application to refund to an employer or a taxpayer the amount of taxes paid on any illegal, erroneous, or excessive payment of tax to a municipal corporation, including assessments, shall be filed with the tax administrator of the municipal corporation within three years after the date of the illegal, erroneous, or excessive payment of the tax, or within any additional period allowed by division (A) of section 718.11 of the Revised Code. The application shall be filed in the form prescribed by the tax administrator or by using a generic form as allowed under section 718.05 of the Revised Code.
(B) Upon the filing of a refund application, the administrator shall determine the amount of refund to which the applicant is entitled. If the amount is not less than that claimed, the administrator shall issue a refund. If the amount is less than that claimed, the administrator shall give the applicant notice by ordinary mail of the amount approved for refund. The notice shall be sent to the address shown on the application for a refund unless the applicant notifies the administrator of a different address. The applicant shall have sixty days from the date the administrator mails the notice to provide additional information to the administrator or to request a hearing, or both. Nothing in this section prohibits the administrator from refunding the applicant the approved amount prior to the expiration of the sixty-day period.
(C) If the applicant neither requests a hearing nor provides additional information to the tax administrator within the time prescribed by division (B) of this section, the administrator shall take no further action, and the determination of the refund amount denied is final and is not subject to appeal under section 5717.011 of the Revised Code.
(D)(1) If the applicant requests a hearing within the time prescribed by division (B) of this section, the tax administrator shall assign a time and place for the hearing and shall notify the applicant of such time and place. The administrator may continue the hearing from time to time as necessary. After the hearing, the administrator may make such adjustments to the refund as the administrator finds proper and shall issue a final determination thereon.
(2) If the applicant does not request a hearing, but provides additional information, within the time prescribed by division (B) of this section, the tax administrator shall review the information, make such adjustments to the refund as the administrator finds proper, and shall issue a final determination thereon.
(3) The administrator shall serve a copy of the final determination made under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section on the applicant by personal service or by certified mail, and the decision is final, subject to appeal under section 5717.011 of the Revised Code.
(4) The administrator shall refund any additional tax found to be due the taxpayer under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section.
(E) Upon the written request of a taxpayer, the tax administrator may credit the amount of the refund against the taxpayer's estimated tax payments to the municipal corporation for an ensuing taxable year. The administrator may apply any refund due under this section to any taxes or fees owed to the municipal corporation as partial satisfaction of the debt owed to the municipal corporation if the refund is for less than the debt or for full satisfaction of the debt owed to the municipal corporation if the refund equals or exceeds the debt. If the refund is greater than the debt, the amount remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded. The preceding two sentences apply only to debts that have become final.
(F) Interest shall be allowed and paid on any overpayment by a taxpayer of tax from the date of the overpayment until the date of the refund of the overpayment, except that if any overpayment is refunded within ninety days after the final filing date of the annual return or ninety days after the complete return is filed, whichever is later, no interest shall be allowed on the refunded overpayment. For purposes of computing the payment of interest on overpayments, no amount of tax for any taxable year shall be treated as having been paid before the date on which the tax return for that year was due without regard to any extension of time for filing that return.
(G) If the amount of refund the applicant is entitled to under this section is for less than one dollar, the tax administrator is not required to issue the refund.
Sec. 901.17.  (A) The division of markets shall may do all of the following:
(1)(A) Investigate the cost of production and marketing in all its phases;
(2)(B) Gather and disseminate information concerning supply, demand, prevailing prices, and commercial movements, including common and cold storage of food products, and maintain market news service for disseminating such information;
(3)(C) Promote, assist, and encourage the organization and operation of cooperative and other associations and organizations for improving the relations and services among producers, distributors, and consumers of food products;
(4)(D) Investigate the practice, methods, and any specific transaction of commission merchants and others who receive, solicit, buy, or handle on commission or otherwise, food products;
(5)(E) Act as mediator or arbitrator, when invited, in any controversy or issue that arises between producers and distributors and that affects the interest of the consumer;
(6)(F) Act on behalf of the consumers in conserving and protecting their interests in every practicable way against excessive prices;
(7)(G) Act as market adviser for producers and distributors, assisting them in economical and efficient distribution of good products at fair prices;
(8)(H) Encourage the establishment of retail municipal markets and develop direct dealing between producers and consumers;
(9)(I) Encourage the consumption of Ohio-grown products within the state, nationally, and internationally, and inspect and determine the grade and condition of farm produce, both at collecting and receiving centers within the state;
(10)(J) Take such means and use such powers, relative to shipment, transportation, and storage of foodstuffs of any kind, as are necessary, advisable, or desirable in case of an emergency creating or threatening to create a scarcity of food within the state;
(K) Participate in trade missions between states and foreign countries in order to encourage the sale and promotion of Ohio-grown products.
(B)(1) The director of agriculture shall adopt and may amend schedules of fees to be charged for inspecting farm produce at collecting and receiving centers or such other services as may be rendered under this section. All such fees shall be made with a view to the minimum cost and to make this branch of the department of agriculture self-sustaining.
The fees shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the inspection fund, which is hereby created, for use in carrying out the purposes of this section. All investment earnings of the inspection fund shall be credited to the fund. If, in any year, the balance in the inspection fund is not sufficient to meet the expenses incurred pursuant to this section, the deficit shall be paid from funds appropriated for the use of the department.
(2) The director may adopt a schedule of fees to be charged for inspecting any agricultural product for the purposes of the issuance of an export certificate, as may be required by the United States department of agriculture or foreign purchasers. Such fees shall be credited to the general revenue fund.
Sec. 901.21.  (A) As used in this section and section 901.22 of the Revised Code:
(1) "Agricultural easement" has the same meaning as in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Agriculture" means those activities occurring on land devoted exclusively to agricultural use, as defined in section 5713.30 of the Revised Code, or on land that constitutes a homestead.
(3) "Homestead" means the portion of a farm on which is located a dwelling house, yard, or outbuildings such as a barn or garage.
(B) The director of agriculture may acquire real property used predominantly in agriculture and agricultural easements by gift, devise, or bequest if, at the time an easement is granted, such an easement is on land that is valued for purposes of real property taxation at its current value for agricultural use under section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that constitutes a homestead. Any terms may be included in an agricultural easement so acquired that are necessary or appropriate to preserve on behalf of the grantor of the easement the favorable tax consequences of the gift, devise, or bequest under the "Internal Revenue Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended. The director, by any such means or by purchase or lease, may acquire, or acquire the use of, stationary personal property or equipment that is located on land acquired in fee by the director under this section and that is necessary or appropriate for the use of the land predominantly in agriculture.
(C) The director may do all things necessary or appropriate to retain the use of real property acquired in fee under division (B) of this section predominantly in agriculture, including, without limitation, performing any of the activities described in division (A)(1) or (2) of section 5713.30 of the Revised Code or entering into contracts to lease or rent the real property so acquired to persons or governmental entities that will use the land predominantly in agriculture.
(D)(1) When the director considers it to be necessary or appropriate, the director may sell real property acquired in fee, and stationary personal property or equipment acquired by gift, devise, bequest, or purchase, under division (B) of this section on such terms as the director considers to be advantageous to this state.
(2) An agricultural easement acquired under division (B) of this section may be extinguished under the circumstances prescribed, and in accordance with the terms and conditions set forth, in the instrument conveying the agricultural easement.
(E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the agricultural easement purchase fund. The fund shall consist of the proceeds received from the sale of real and personal property under division (D) of this section; moneys received due to the extinguishment of agricultural easements acquired by the director under division (B) of this section or section 5301.691 of the Revised Code; moneys received due to the extinguishment of agricultural easements purchased with the assistance of matching grants made under section 901.22 of the Revised Code; gifts, bequests, devises, and contributions received by the director for the purpose of acquiring agricultural easements; and grants received from public or private sources for the purpose of purchasing agricultural easements. The fund shall be administered by the director, and moneys in the fund shall be used by the director exclusively to purchase agricultural easements under division (A) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code and provide matching grants under section 901.22 of the Revised Code to municipal corporations, counties, townships, and charitable organizations for the purchase of agricultural easements. Money in the fund shall be used only to purchase agricultural easements on land that is valued for purposes of real property taxation at its current value for agricultural use under section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that constitutes a homestead when the easement is purchased.
(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund. Twelve and one-half per cent of net proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. The fund shall be used by the director for the purposes of sections 901.21 and 901.22 and the provisions of sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code governing agricultural easements. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. For two years after the effective date of this amendment, investment earnings credited to the fund and may be used to pay costs incurred by the director in administering those sections and provisions.
(G) The term of an agricultural easement purchased wholly or in part with money from the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund or the agricultural easement purchase fund shall be perpetual and shall run with the land.
Sec. 902.11.  (A) Any real or personal property, or both, of an issuer which that is acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof, and leased or subleased under authority of this chapter shall be subject to ad valorem, sales, use, and franchise taxes and to zoning, planning, and building regulations and fees, to the same extent and in the same manner as if the lessee-user or sublessee-user thereof, rather than the issuer, had acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof, such real or personal property, and title thereto was in the name of such lessee-user or sublessee-user.
The transfer of tangible personal property by lease or sublease under authority of this chapter is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code. The exemptions provided in divisions (B)(1) and (14)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code shall not be applicable to purchases for a project under this chapter.
An issuer shall be exempt from all taxes on its real or personal property, or both, which has been acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof, under this chapter so long as such property is used by the issuer for purposes which would otherwise exempt such property; has ceased to be used by a former lessee-user or sublessee-user and is not occupied or used; or has been acquired by the issuer but development has not yet commenced. The exemption shall be effective as of the date the exempt use begins. All taxes on the exempt real or personal property for the year should be prorated and the taxes for the exempt portion of the year shall be remitted by the county auditor.
(B) Bonds issued under this chapter, the transfer thereof, and the interest and other income from the bonds, including any profit made on the sale thereof, are free from taxation within the state.
Sec. 921.151.  The pesticide program fund is hereby created in the state treasury. All The portion of the money in the fund that is collected under this chapter shall be used to carry out the purposes of this chapter. The portion of the money in the fund that is collected under Chapter 927. of the Revised Code shall be used to carry out the purposes of that chapter, provided that the money that is collected under section 927.701 of the Revised Code shall be used to carry out the purposes of that section. The fund shall consist of fees collected under sections 921.01 to 921.15 and section 927.69 of the Revised Code, money collected under section 927.701 of the Revised Code, and all fines, penalties, costs, and damages, except court costs, which that are collected by either the director of agriculture or the attorney general in consequence of any violation of sections 921.01 to 921.29 of the Revised Code. Not later than the thirtieth day of June of each year, the director of budget and management shall determine whether the amount credited to the pesticide program fund is in excess of the amount necessary to meet the expenses of the director of agriculture in administering this chapter and Chapter 927. of the Revised Code and shall transfer any excess from the pesticide program fund to the general revenue fund.
Sec. 927.69.  To effect the purpose of sections 927.51 to 927.74, inclusive, of the Revised Code, the director of agriculture, or his the director's authorized representative, may:
(A) Make reasonable inspection of any premises in this state and any property therein or thereon;
(B) Stop and inspect in a reasonable manner, any means of conveyance moving within this state upon probable cause to believe it contains or carries any pest, host, commodity, or other article which that is subject to sections 927.51 to 927.72, inclusive, of the Revised Code;
(C) Conduct inspections of agricultural products that are required by other states, the United States department of agriculture, other federal agencies, or foreign countries to determine whether the products are infested. If, upon making such an inspection, the director or the director's authorized representative determines that an agricultural product is not infested, the director or the director's authorized representative may issue a certificate, as required by other states, the United States department of agriculture, other federal agencies, or foreign countries, indicating that the product is not infested.
The director may charge a fee for the inspection and may charge an additional fee for the issuance of a certificate. The fees shall be established in rules adopted under section 927.52 of the Revised Code and shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the pesticide program fund created in Chapter 921. of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay the costs incurred by the department of agriculture in administering this chapter.
Sec. 927.701.  (A) As used in this section, "gypsy moth" means the live insect, Lymantria dispar, in any stage of development.
(B) The director of agriculture may establish a voluntary gypsy moth suppression program under which a landowner may request that the department of agriculture have the landowner's property aerially sprayed to suppress the presence of gypsy moths in exchange for payment from the landowner of a portion of the cost of the spraying. To determine the amount of payment that is due from a landowner, the department first shall determine the projected cost per acre to the department of gypsy moth suppression activities for the year in which the landowner's request is made. The cost shall be calculated by determining the total expense of aerial spraying for gypsy moths to be incurred by the department in that year divided by the total number of acres proposed to be sprayed in that year. With respect to a landowner, the department shall multiply the cost per acre by the number of acres that the landowner requests to be sprayed. The department shall add to that amount any administrative costs that it incurs in billing the landowner and collecting payment. The amount that the landowner shall pay to the department shall not exceed fifty per cent of the resulting amount.
(C) The director shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish procedures under which a landowner may make a request under division (B) of this section and to establish provisions governing agreements between the department and landowners concerning gypsy moth suppression together with any other provisions that the director considers appropriate to administer this section.
(D) The director shall deposit all money collected under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the pesticide program fund created in Chapter 921. of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund under this section shall be used for the suppression of gypsy moths in accordance with this section.
Sec. 1309.109.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this section, this chapter applies to the following:
(1) A transaction, regardless of its form, that creates a security interest in personal property or fixtures by contract;
(2) An agricultural lien;
(3) A sale of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes;
(4) A consignment;
(5) A security interest arising under section 1302.42 or 1302.49, division (C) of section 1302.85, or division (E) of section 1310.54 of the Revised Code, as provided in section 1309.110 of the Revised Code; and
(6) A security interest arising under section 1304.20 or 1305.18 of the Revised Code.
(B) The application of this chapter to a security interest in a secured obligation is not affected by the fact that the obligation is itself secured by a transaction or interest to which this chapter does not apply.
(C) This chapter does not apply to the extent that:
(1) A statute, regulation, or treaty of the United States preempts this chapter; or
(2) The rights of a transferee beneficiary or nominated person under a letter of credit are independent and superior under section 1305.13 of the Revised Code.
(D) This chapter does not apply to the following:
(1) A landlord's lien, other than an agricultural lien;
(2)(a) A lien, not enumerated in division (D)(2) of this section and other than an agricultural lien, given by statute or other rule of law for services or materials, including any lien created under any provision of Chapter 926., sections 1311.55 to 1311.57, sections 1311.71 to 1311.80, section 1701.66, or Chapter 4585. of the Revised Code;
(b) Notwithstanding division (D)(2)(a) of this section, section 1309.333 of the Revised Code applies with respect to priority of the lien.
(3) An assignment of a claim for wages, salary, or other compensation of an employee;
(4) A sale of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes as part of a sale of the business out of which they arose;
(5) An assignment of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes that is for the purpose of collection only;
(6) An assignment of a right to payment under a contract to an assignee that is also obligated to perform under the contract;
(7) An assignment of a single account, payment intangible, or promissory note to an assignee in full or partial satisfaction of a preexisting indebtedness;
(8) A transfer of an interest in or an assignment of a claim under a policy of insurance, other than an assignment by or to a health-care provider of a health-care-insurance receivable and any subsequent assignment of the right to payment, but sections 1309.315 and 1309.322 of the Revised Code apply with respect to proceeds and priorities in proceeds;
(9) An assignment of a right represented by a judgment, other than a judgment taken on a right to payment that was collateral;
(10) A right of recoupment or set-off, but:
(a) Section 1309.340 of the Revised Code applies with respect to the effectiveness of rights of recoupment or set-off against deposit accounts; and
(b) Section 1309.404 of the Revised Code applies with respect to defenses or claims of an account debtor.
(11) The creation or transfer of an interest in or lien on real property, including a lease or rents under a lease, except to the extent that provision is made for:
(a) Liens on real property in sections 1309.203 and 1309.308 of the Revised Code;
(b) Fixtures in section 1309.334 of the Revised Code;
(c) Fixture filings in sections 1309.501, 1309.502, 1309.512, 1309.516, and 1309.519 of the Revised Code; and
(d) Security agreements covering personal and real property in section 1309.604 of the Revised Code.
(12) An assignment of a claim arising in tort, other than a commercial tort claim, but sections 1309.315 and 1309.322 of the Revised Code apply with respect to proceeds and priorities in proceeds;
(13) An assignment of a deposit account in a consumer transaction, but sections 1309.315 and 1309.322 of the Revised Code apply with respect to proceeds and priorities in proceeds; or
(14) A transfer by a government, state, or governmental unit.
(E) The granting of a security interest in all or any part of a lottery prize award for consideration is subject to the prohibition of division (A)(3)(C) of section 3770.07 of the Revised Code. The sale, assignment, or other redirection of a lottery prize award for consideration is subject to the provisions of division (A)(4)(D) of section 3770.07 and sections 3770.10 to 3770.14 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1321.21.  All fees, charges, penalties, and forfeitures collected under Chapters 1321., 1322., 4712., 4727., and 4728., sections 1315.21 to 1315.30, and sections 1315.35 to 1315.44, and sections 1349.25 to 1349.37 of the Revised Code shall be paid to the superintendent of financial institutions and shall be deposited by the superintendent into the state treasury to the credit of the consumer finance fund, which is hereby created. The fund may be expended or obligated by the superintendent for the defrayment of the costs of administration of Chapters 1321., 1322., 4712., 4727., and 4728., sections 1315.21 to 1315.30, and sections 1315.35 to 1315.44, and sections 1349.25 to 1349.37 of the Revised Code by the division of financial institutions. All actual and necessary expenses incurred by the superintendent, including any services rendered by the department of commerce for the division's administration of Chapters 1321., 1322., 4712., 4727., and 4728., sections 1315.21 to 1315.30, and sections 1315.35 to 1315.44, and sections 1349.25 to 1349.37 of the Revised Code, shall be paid from the fund. The fund shall be assessed a proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department and the division. The proportionate share of the administrative costs of the division of financial institutions shall be determined in accordance with procedures prescribed by the superintendent and approved by the director of budget and management. Such assessment shall be paid from the consumer finance fund to the division of administration fund or the financial institutions fund.
Sec. 1333.99.  (A) Whoever violates sections 1333.01 to 1333.04 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.
(B) Whoever violates section 1333.12 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.
(C) Whoever violates section 1333.36 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(D) A prosecuting attorney may file an action to restrain any person found in violation of section 1333.36 of the Revised Code. Upon the filing of such an action, the common pleas court may receive evidence of such violation and forthwith grant a temporary restraining order as may be prayed for, pending a hearing on the merits of said cause.
(E) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 1333.52 or section 1333.81 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(F) Whoever violates division (A)(2) or (B) of section 1333.52 or division (F) or (H) of section 1333.96 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(G) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the compensation is five hundred dollars or more and less than five thousand dollars, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the compensation is five thousand dollars or more and less than one hundred thousand dollars, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the compensation is one hundred thousand dollars or more, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the third degree.
(H) Whoever violates division (B), (C), or (I) of section 1333.96 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(I) Any person not registered as a travel agency or tour promoter as provided in divisions (B) and (C) of section 1333.96 of the Revised Code who states that the person is so registered is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.
Sec. 1501.04.  There is hereby created in the department of natural resources a recreation and resources commission composed of the chairman chairperson of the wildlife council created under section 1531.03 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the parks and recreation council created under section 1541.40 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the waterways safety council created under section 1547.73 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the technical advisory council on oil and gas created under section 1509.38 of the Revised Code, the chairman of the forestry advisory council created under section 1503.40 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the Ohio soil and water conservation commission created under section 1515.02 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the Ohio natural areas council created under section 1517.03 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the Ohio water advisory council created under section 1521.031 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the recycling and litter prevention advisory council created under section 1502.04 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the civilian conservation advisory council created under section 1553.10 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the Ohio geology advisory council created under section 1505.11 of the Revised Code, and five members appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate, not more than three of whom shall belong to the same political party. The director of natural resources shall be an ex officio member of the commission, with a voice in its deliberations, but without the power to vote.
Terms of office of members of the commission appointed by the governor shall be for five years, commencing on the second day of February and ending on the first day of February. Each member shall hold office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term for which he the member was appointed.
In the event of the death, removal, resignation, or incapacity of a member of the commission, the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who shall hold office for the remainder of the term for which his the member's predecessor was appointed. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of his the member's term until his the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.
The governor may remove any appointed member of the commission for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.
The commission shall exercise no administrative function, but may:
(A) Advise with and recommend to the director of natural resources as to plans and programs for the management, development, utilization, and conservation of the natural resources of the state;
(B) Advise with and recommend to the director as to methods of coordinating the work of the divisions of the department;
(C) Consider and make recommendations upon any matter which that the director may submit to it;
(D) Submit to the governor biennially recommendations for amendments to the conservation laws of the state.
Before Each member of the commission, before entering upon the discharge of his the member's duties, each member of the commission shall take and subscribe to an oath of office, which oath, in writing, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state.
The members of the commission shall serve without compensation, but shall be entitled to receive their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties.
The commission, by a majority vote of all its members, shall adopt and amend bylaws.
To be eligible for appointment, a person shall be a citizen of the United States and an elector of the state and shall possess a knowledge of and have an interest in the natural resources of this state.
The commission shall hold at least four regular quarterly meetings each year. Special meetings shall be held at such times as the bylaws of the commission provide. Notices of all meetings shall be given in such manner as the bylaws provide. The commission shall choose annually from among its members a chairman chairperson to preside over its meetings and a secretary to keep a record of its proceedings. A majority of the members of the commission constitutes a quorum. No advice shall be given or recommendation made without a majority of the members of the commission concurring therein.
Sec. 1502.02.  (A) There is hereby created in the department of natural resources the division of recycling and litter prevention to be headed by the chief of recycling and litter prevention.
(B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the recycling and litter prevention fund, consisting of moneys distributed to it.
(C) The chief of recycling and litter prevention shall do all of the following:
(1) Use moneys credited to the fund exclusively for the purposes set forth in sections 1502.03, 1502.04, and 1502.05 of the Revised Code, with particular emphasis on programs relating to recycling;
(2) Expend for administration of the division not more than ten per cent of any fiscal year's appropriation to the division, excluding the amount assessed to the division for direct and indirect central support charges;
(3) Require recipients of grants under section 1502.05 of the Revised Code, as a condition of receiving and retaining them, to do all of the following:
(a) Create a separate account for the grants and any cash donations received that qualify for the donor credit allowed by section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;
(b) Make expenditures from the account exclusively for the purposes for which the grants were received;
(c) Use any auditing and accounting practices the chief considers necessary regarding the account;
(d) Report to the chief information regarding the amount and donor of cash donations received as described by section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;
(e) Use grants received to supplement and not to replace any existing funding for such purposes.
(4) Report to the tax commissioner information the chief receives pursuant to division (C)(3)(d) of this section.
Sec. 1503.011.  The chief of the division of forestry shall be responsible for the conservation and development of forests within this state. The chief shall be concerned with silvicultural practices, including the proper planting, growing, protecting, harvesting, and managing of trees for such purposes as watershed and soil protection, timber production and utilization, recreation, aesthetics, wildlife habitat development, and urban enhancement and for all benefits that forests provide.
The chief may do any or all of the following:
(A) Provide rural forestry assistance to nonindustrial private forest landowners, including advice in tree planting, forest improvement, harvesting, and all aspects of conservation;
(B) Provide urban forestry assistance to individuals, nonprofit organizations, and political subdivisions to manage their urban forest resource and develop comprehensive tree care programs;
(C) Provide wood utilization, marketing, and rural forestry development assistance to forest industries, political subdivisions and agencies thereof, and state and federal agencies for the purpose of establishing and maintaining a viable, economically sound wood-based industry while expanding the forest resource of this state;
(D) Provide forest pest protection assistance to forest landowners, political subdivisions and agencies thereof, and state and federal agencies on assessing and evaluating the health and vigor of the forest resource;
(E) Provide technical assistance to landowners in developing forest windbreaks, filter strips, and other forest management practices that provide conservation benefits;
(F) Provide awareness of and education concerning the programs provided for under divisions (A) to (E) of this section;
(G) Enter into agreements with political subdivisions and agencies thereof, state and federal agencies, firefighting agencies and private fire companies, as those terms are defined in section 9.60 of the Revised Code, nonprofit organizations, and individuals to meet the needs of forestry assistance in this state and, in accordance with section 1503.01 of the Revised Code, develop and administer grant programs for any of those entities requesting assistance. The chief shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing such requirements and procedures as are necessary to implement this division. As As used in this section division, "nonprofit organization" has the same meaning as in section 4141.01 of the Revised Code.
(H) Perform inventories and assessments of the forest resource in this state;
(I) Establish and administer a cost-share program, in accordance with rules adopted under section 1503.58 of the Revised Code, under which the state may share the costs to private forest landowners of enhancing the sustainability of the forest resource in this state;
(J) Establish and administer a grant program, in accordance with rules adopted under section 1503.58 of the Revised Code, for the purpose of enhancing the sustainability and economic development of the forest resource of this state;
(K) Enter into agreements with private entities to carry out the purposes of sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code;
(L) Upon the invitation or permission of a private property owner, enter private property or designate another person to do so on the chief's behalf to carry out the purposes of this section.
Sec. 1503.05.  (A) The chief of the division of forestry may sell timber and other forest products from the state forest and state forest nurseries whenever the chief considers such a sale desirable and, with the approval of the attorney general and the director of natural resources, may sell portions of the state forest lands when such a sale is advantageous to the state.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a timber sale agreement shall not be executed unless the person or governmental entity bidding on the sale executes and files a surety bond conditioned on completion of the timber sale in accordance with the terms of the agreement in an amount equal to twenty-five per cent of the highest value cutting section. All bonds shall be given in a form prescribed by the chief and shall run to the state as obligee.
The chief shall not approve any bond until it is personally signed and acknowledged by both principal and surety, or as to either by the attorney in fact thereof, with a certified copy of the power of attorney attached. The chief shall not approve the bond unless there is attached a certificate of the superintendent of insurance that the company is authorized to transact a fidelity and surety business in this state.
In lieu of a bond, the bidder may deposit any of the following:
(1) Cash in an amount equal to the amount of the bond;
(2) United States government securities having a par value equal to or greater than the amount of the bond;
(3) Negotiable certificates of deposit or irrevocable letters of credit issued by any bank organized or transacting business in this state having a par value equal to or greater than the amount of the bond.
The cash or securities shall be deposited on the same terms as bonds. If one or more certificates of deposit are deposited in lieu of a bond, the chief shall require the bank that issued any of the certificates to pledge securities of the aggregate market value equal to the amount of the certificate or certificates that is in excess of the amount insured by the federal deposit insurance corporation. The securities to be pledged shall be those designated as eligible under section 135.18 of the Revised Code. The securities shall be security for the repayment of the certificate or certificates of deposit.
Immediately upon a deposit of cash, securities, certificates of deposit, or letters of credit, the chief shall deliver them to the treasurer of state, who shall hold them in trust for the purposes for which they have been deposited. The treasurer of state is responsible for the safekeeping of the deposits. A bidder making a deposit of cash, securities, certificates of deposit, or letters of credit may withdraw and receive from the treasurer of state, on the written order of the chief, all or any portion of the cash, securities, certificates of deposit, or letters of credit upon depositing with the treasurer of state cash, other United States government securities, or other negotiable certificates of deposit or irrevocable letters of credit issued by any bank organized or transacting business in this state, equal in par value to the par value of the cash, securities, certificates of deposit, or letters of credit withdrawn.
A bidder may demand and receive from the treasurer of state all interest or other income from any such securities or certificates as it becomes due. If securities so deposited with and in the possession of the treasurer of state mature or are called for payment by their issuer, the treasurer of state, at the request of the bidder who deposited them, shall convert the proceeds of the redemption or payment of the securities into other United States government securities, negotiable certificates of deposit, or cash as the bidder designates.
When the chief finds that a person or governmental agency has failed to comply with the conditions of the person's or governmental agency's bond, the chief shall make a finding of that fact and declare the bond, cash, securities, certificates, or letters of credit forfeited. The chief thereupon shall certify the total forfeiture to the attorney general, who shall proceed to collect the amount of the bond, cash, securities, certificates, or letters of credit.
In lieu of total forfeiture, the surety, at its option, may cause the timber sale to be completed or pay to the treasurer of state the cost thereof.
All moneys collected as a result of forfeitures of bonds, cash, securities, certificates, and letters of credit under this section shall be credited to the state forest fund created in this section.
(C) The chief may grant easements and leases on portions of the state forest lands and state forest nurseries under terms that are advantageous to the state, and the chief may grant mineral rights on a royalty basis on those lands and nurseries, with the approval of the attorney general and the director.
(D) All moneys received from the sale of state forest lands, or in payment for easements or leases on or as rents from those lands or from state forest nurseries, shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the state forest fund, which is hereby created. All moneys received from the sale of standing timber taken from the state forest lands shall be deposited into the general revenue fund. All moneys received from the sale of forest products, other than standing timber, and minerals taken from the state forest lands and state forest nurseries, together with royalties from mineral rights, shall be paid into the state forest fund. In addition, all fees collected under section 1503.51 of the Revised Code related to the licensure of timber buyers, all sustainable forestry fees collected under section 1503.56 of the Revised Code, and all per-acre fees collected under section 1503.57 of the Revised Code for the conversion of forest land shall be paid into the state forest fund.
At the time of making such a payment or deposit, the chief shall determine the amount and gross value of all such products sold or royalties received from lands and nurseries in each county, in each township within the county, and in each school district within the county. Afterward the chief shall send to each county treasurer a copy of the determination and shall provide for payment to the county treasurer, for the use of the general fund of that county from the amount so received as provided in this division, an amount equal to eighty per cent of the gross value of the products sold or royalties received from lands and nurseries located in that county. The county auditor shall do all of the following:
(1) Retain for the use of the general fund of the county one-fourth of the amount received by the county under division (D) of this section;
(2) Pay into the general fund of any township located within the county and containing such lands and nurseries one-fourth of the amount received by the county from products sold or royalties received from lands and nurseries located in the township;
(3) Request the board of education of any school district located within the county and containing such lands and nurseries to identify which fund or funds of the district should receive the moneys available to the school district under division (D)(3) of this section. After receiving notice from the board, the county auditor shall pay into the fund or funds so identified one-half of the amount received by the county from products sold or royalties received from lands and nurseries located in the school district, distributed proportionately as identified by the board.
The division of forestry shall not supply logs, lumber, or other forest products or minerals, taken from the state forest lands or state forest nurseries, to any other agency or subdivision of the state unless payment is made therefor in the amount of the actual prevailing value thereof. This section is applicable to the moneys so received. All moneys received from the sale of reforestation tree stock or other revenues derived from the operation of the state forests, facilities, or equipment shall be paid into the state forest fund.
The fund shall not be expended for any purpose other than the administration, operation, maintenance, development, or utilization of the state forests, forest nurseries, and forest programs, for facilities or equipment incident to them, or for the further purchase of lands for state forest or forest nursery purposes.
Sec. 1503.50. As used in sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Buying timber" means to purchase timber, cut timber in exchange for receiving a share of it, or barter for timber; to offer to do so; or to take possession of timber with or without the consent of the timber grower.
(B) "Forest land" means land consisting of a stand or stands of timber that contain not less than fifty square feet of basal area or not less than three hundred stems per acre and that are distributed evenly throughout the stand.
(C) "Person" means an individual, partnership, firm, association, business trust, or corporation.
(D) "Rules" means rules adopted by the chief of the division of forestry under section 1503.58 of the Revised Code.
(E) "Timber" means trees, standing or felled, and parts of trees that can be used for sawing or processing into lumber for building or structural purposes or for the manufacture of any article. "Timber" does not include Christmas trees, fruit or ornamental trees, or wood products that are not used or intended for use for building, structural, manufacturing, or processing purposes.
(F) "Timber buyer" means a person who is engaged in either of the following:
(1) The business of buying timber from its grower for the purposes of sawing it into lumber, processing it, or reselling it;
(2) Land-clearing, as "land-clearing" is defined in rules.
"Timber buyer" does not include a person who purchases timber for the purposes of sawing or processing it for the person's own use and not for resale, provided that the person does not purchase timber more frequently than the interval established in rules or in greater amounts than the amounts specified in rules.
Sec. 1503.51. Not later than July 1, 2004, the chief of the division of forestry shall establish a program for the licensure of timber buyers.
On and after July 1, 2004, no person shall act as a timber buyer unless the person holds a valid timber buyer license issued by the chief. A person who wishes to obtain a timber buyer license shall file an application with the chief on a form that the chief prescribes and provides. The application shall include the applicant's name, the names of the applicant's principal officers if the applicant is a corporation, the names of the applicant's partners if the applicant is a partnership, the location of any principal office or place of business of the applicant, the counties in this state in which the applicant proposes to engage in business as a timber buyer, and any additional information that the chief requires.
An applicant shall include with an application a filing fee of one hundred dollars plus an additional five-dollar fee for a timber buyer identification card. The chief shall deposit fees collected under this section in the state treasury to the credit of the state forest fund created in section 1503.05 of the Revised Code.
Upon receipt of a completed application together with the one-hundred-dollar fee and the five-dollar fee, the chief shall issue a license and a timber buyer identification card to the applicant, except that the chief shall not issue a license or timber buyer identification card to an applicant who has violated section 1503.56 or 1503.57 of the Revised Code by failing to pay a fee established in those sections. The license and identification card shall be valid for one year and may be renewed in the same manner that an initial license and identification card are applied for and issued.
Sec. 1503.52. (A) A timber buyer shall post a copy of that person's valid timber buyer license in the timber buyer's principal office in this state.
(B) When engaged in buying timber, a timber buyer shall carry on the timber buyer's person a valid timber buyer identification card. Upon the request of the chief of the division of forestry, the chief's authorized representative, a sheriff, a deputy sheriff, or any other peace officer, a timber buyer shall present the identification card for inspection. No person charged with violating this division shall be convicted if the person produces in court satisfactory evidence that a timber buyer identification card that was valid at the time of the violation had been issued to the person.
Sec. 1503.53. (A) No timber buyer shall do any of the following:
(1) Knowingly fail to pay for any timber purchased as agreed to with the seller;
(2) Knowingly cut or cause to be cut or appropriate any timber without the consent of the timber grower;
(3) Knowingly make any false statement in connection with an application for a timber buyer license or any other information that is required under sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code;
(4) Knowingly fail to accurately account for timber for purposes of calculating the sustainable forestry fee established under section 1503.56 of the Revised Code;
(5) Commit any act in connection with the cutting or purchase of timber with purpose to defraud or deceive;
(6) Violate sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code or rules.
(B) No person shall resist or obstruct the chief of the division of forestry or the chief's authorized representatives in the administration or enforcement of sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code or rules.
Sec. 1503.54. The chief of the division of forestry may inspect at any reasonable time the premises used by a timber buyer in the conduct of the timber buyer's business. During business hours, the books, accounts, records, and papers that are used in the conduct of the timber buyer's business are subject to inspection by the chief. A timber buyer shall retain the books, accounts, records, and papers that pertain to buying timber for a period of three years after the timber is bought.
Sec. 1503.55. The chief of the division of forestry may suspend or revoke the timber buyer license of any person who violates sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code or rules. In addition, the chief may refuse to issue a timber buyer license and timber buyer identification card to a person whose license has been suspended or revoked for a period not to exceed five years following the suspension or revocation.
The chief, by application to a court of competent jurisdiction, may seek, and the court may issue, an injunction restraining a timber buyer who engages in the business of buying timber in this state and who does not hold a valid timber buyer license from continuing to engage in that business until the person obtains a valid timber buyer license. Upon refusal or neglect to obey the order of the court, the court may compel compliance by initiating proceedings for contempt.
Sec. 1503.56. (A) On and after July 1, 2004, each timber buyer who engages in buying timber in this state shall pay a sustainable forestry fee. Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, the amount of the fee shall be equal to six per cent of the value, as determined by the sale price, of the timber involved in a transaction.
The timber buyer shall include with the fee a report describing the timber transaction that is the basis of the fee. The report shall be made on forms prescribed and provided by the chief of the division of forestry and shall include information specified by rules. The timber buyer shall post a copy of the report in a conspicuous place at the harvest site.
(B) In the case of a timber buyer who engages in the business of land-clearing forest land, as "land-clearing" is defined in rules, the timber buyer shall pay a sustainable forestry fee in an amount that is equal to six per cent of the gross value of the standing timber before its harvest. The timber buyer shall include with the fee a list on forms that the chief prescribes and provides. The list shall specify the size and species of the timber removed together with its gross value as standing timber. If the chief disputes the gross value assigned to the timber, the chief may cause an investigation to be made into the actual gross value of the timber.
A sustainable forestry fee is not due under this division for the clearing of land that does not consist of forest land.
(C) Prior to harvesting timber, a timber buyer shall submit the sustainable forestry fee together with the report or the list, as appropriate, that are required under this section to the chief in accordance with procedures established in rules. The chief shall deposit the fee in the state treasury to the credit of the state forest fund created in section 1503.05 of the Revised Code.
(D) The chief shall rebate one-sixth of a sustainable forestry fee that the chief receives to the following persons under the following circumstances:
(1) The owner of the land on which timber was harvested, provided that the landowner supplies the chief with documentation that either a professional forester planned and administered the harvest or a trained logger was utilized in the harvest of the timber;
(2) The timber buyer, provided that the timber buyer supplies the chief with any information about the harvest that is encouraged under section 1511.02 of the Revised Code and that a trained logger and management practices to protect water quality were utilized in the harvest of the timber.
For purposes of division (D) of this section, in order to be considered a professional forester or a trained logger, a person shall satisfy the standards established in rules.
Sec. 1503.57. A landowner who converts land use from forest land to nonforest land that is not used for agriculture shall pay a per-acre conversion fee to the chief of the division of forestry. The fee shall be submitted in an amount and in accordance with procedures and other requirements established by rules. The chief shall deposit the fee in the state treasury to the credit of the state forest fund created in section 1503.05 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1503.58. (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the chief of the division of forestry shall adopt rules that do all of the following:
(1) Establish procedures, eligibility criteria, and any other provisions that are necessary for the administration of a cost-share program under which the state may share the costs to private forest landowners of enhancing the sustainability of the forest resource in this state;
(2) Establish procedures, eligibility criteria, and any other provisions that are necessary for the administration of a grant program for the purpose of enhancing the sustainability and economic development of the forest resource in this state;
(3) Define "land-clearing" for purposes of sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code;
(4) Establish the maximum frequency and amount of timber purchases that a person may make for the person's own use without being considered to be a timber buyer;
(5) Specify the information that must be included in the report that is required to be submitted with a sustainable forestry fee under section 1503.56 of the Revised Code and establish procedures for submitting the report together with procedures for submitting the list that is required under that section;
(6) Establish standards that a person must meet in order to be considered to be a professional forester or a trained logger for purposes of section 1503.56 of the Revised Code;
(7) Establish the amount of the per-acre conversion fee that is required under section 1503.57 of the Revised Code and establish procedures for submitting the fee and any other requirements that are necessary to administer that section.
(B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the chief may adopt any additional rules that the chief considers necessary to administer sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1503.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 1503.01 or 1503.12 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.
(B) Whoever violates section 1503.18 or 1503.43 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(C) Whoever violates section 1503.53 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Whoever knowingly violates that section during a time period when the person does not possess a valid timber buyer license because the person's license has been suspended or revoked or the chief of the division of forestry has refused to issue a license under section 1503.55 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.
Sec. 1509.06.  An application for a permit to drill a new well, drill an existing well deeper, reopen a well, convert a well to any use other than its original purpose, or plug back a well to a different source of supply shall be filed with the chief of the division of mineral resources management upon such form as the chief prescribes and shall contain each of the following that is applicable:
(A) The name and address of the owner and, if a corporation, the name and address of the statutory agent;
(B) The signature of the owner or the owner's authorized agent. When an authorized agent signs an application, it shall be accompanied by a certified copy of the appointment as such agent.
(C) The names and addresses of all persons holding the royalty interest in the tract upon which the well is located or is to be drilled or within a proposed drilling unit;
(D) The location of the tract or drilling unit on which the well is located or is to be drilled identified by section or lot number, city, village, township, and county;
(E) Designation of the well by name and number;
(F) The geological formation to be tested or used and the proposed total depth of the well;
(G) The type of drilling equipment to be used;
(H) If the well is for the injection of a liquid, identity of the geological formation to be used as the injection zone and the composition of the liquid to be injected;
(I) A sworn statement that all requirements of any municipal corporation, county, or township having jurisdiction over any activity related to the drilling or operation of an oil or gas well that have been filed with the division of mineral resources management and are in effect at the time the application is filed, including, but not limited to, zoning ordinances and resolutions and the requirements of section 4513.34 of the Revised Code, will be complied with until abandonment of the well;
(J) A plan for restoration of the land surface disturbed by drilling operations. The plan shall provide for compliance with the restoration requirements of division (A) of section 1509.072 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted by the chief pertaining to that restoration.
(K) A description by name or number of the county, township, and municipal corporation roads, streets, and highways that the applicant anticipates will be used for access to and egress from the well site;
(L) Such other relevant information as the chief prescribes by rule.
Each application shall be accompanied by a map, on a scale not smaller than four hundred feet to the inch, prepared by an Ohio registered surveyor, showing the location of the well and containing such other data as may be prescribed by the chief. If the well is or is to be located within the excavations and workings of a mine, the map also shall include the location of the mine, the name of the mine, and the name of the person operating the mine.
The chief shall cause a copy of the weekly circular prepared by the division to be provided to the county engineer of each county that contains active or proposed drilling activity. The weekly circular shall contain, in the manner prescribed by the chief, the names of all applicants for permits, the location of each well or proposed well, the information required by division (K) of this section, and any additional information the chief prescribes.
The chief shall not issue a permit for at least ten days after the date of filing of the application for the permit unless, upon reasonable cause shown, the chief waives that period or a request for expedited review is filed under this section. However, the chief shall issue a permit within twenty-one days of the filing of the application unless the chief denies the application by order.
An applicant may file a request with the chief for expedited review of a permit application if the well is not or is not to be located in a gas storage reservoir or reservoir protective area, as "reservoir protective area" is defined in section 1571.01 of the Revised Code. If the well is or is to be located in a coal bearing township, the application shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the landowner prescribed in section 1509.08 of the Revised Code.
In addition to a complete application for a permit that meets the requirements of this section and the permit fee prescribed by this section, a request for expedited review shall be accompanied by a separate nonrefundable filing fee of five hundred dollars. Upon the filing of a request for expedited review, the chief shall cause the county engineer of the county in which the well is or is to be located to be notified of the filing of the permit application and the request for expedited review by telephone or other means that in the judgment of the chief will provide timely notice of the application and request. The chief shall issue a permit within seven days of the filing of the request unless the chief denies the application by order. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section governing expedited review of permit applications, the chief may refuse to accept requests for expedited review if, in the chief's judgment, the acceptance of the requests would prevent the issuance, within twenty-one days of their filing, of permits for which applications are pending.
A well shall be drilled and operated in accordance with the plans, sworn statements, and other information submitted in the approved application.
The chief shall issue an order denying a permit if the chief finds that there is a substantial risk that the operation will result in violations of this chapter or rules adopted under it that will present an imminent danger to public health or safety or damage to the environment, provided that where the chief finds that terms or conditions to the permit can reasonably be expected to prevent such violations, the chief shall issue the permit subject to those terms or conditions.
Each application for a permit required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code, except an application for a well drilled or reopened for purposes of section 1509.22 of the Revised Code, also shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of two hundred fifty dollars.
The chief may order the immediate suspension of drilling, operating, or plugging activities after finding that any person is causing, engaging in, or maintaining a condition or activity that in the chief's judgment presents an imminent danger to public health or safety or results in or is likely to result in immediate substantial damage to natural resources or for nonpayment of the fee required by this section. The chief may order the immediate suspension of the drilling or reopening of a well in a coal bearing township after determining that the drilling or reopening activities present an imminent and substantial threat to public health or safety or to miners' health or safety. Before issuing any such order, the chief shall notify the owner in such manner as in the chief's judgment would provide reasonable notification that the chief intends to issue a suspension order. The chief may issue such an order without prior notification if reasonable attempts to notify the owner have failed, but in such an event notification shall be given as soon thereafter as practical. Within five calendar days after the issuance of the order, the chief shall provide the owner an opportunity to be heard and to present evidence that the condition or activity is not likely to result in immediate substantial damage to natural resources or does not present an imminent danger to public health or safety or to miners' health or safety, if applicable. In the case of activities in a coal bearing township, if the chief, after considering evidence presented by the owner, determines that the activities do not present such a threat, the chief shall revoke the suspension order. Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter, the owner may appeal a suspension order directly to the court of common pleas of the county in which the activity is located or, if in a coal bearing township, to the reclamation commission under section 1513.13 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1509.08.  Upon receipt of an application for a permit required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code, or upon receipt of an application for a permit to plug and abandon under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code, the chief of the division of mineral resources management shall determine whether the well is or is to be located in a coal bearing township.
Whether or not the well is or is to be located in a coal bearing township, the chief, by order, may refuse to issue a permit required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code to any applicant who at the time of applying for the permit is in material or substantial violation of this chapter or rules adopted or orders issued under it. The chief shall refuse to issue a permit to any applicant who at the time of applying for the permit has been found liable by a final nonappealable order of a court of competent jurisdiction for damage to streets, roads, highways, bridges, culverts, or drainways pursuant to section 4513.34 or 5577.12 of the Revised Code until the applicant provides the chief with evidence of compliance with the order. No applicant shall attempt to circumvent this provision by applying for a permit under a different name or business organization name, by transferring responsibility to another person or entity, by abandoning the well or lease, or by any other similar act.
If the well is not or is not to be located in a coal bearing township, or if it is to be located in a coal bearing township, but the landowner submits an affidavit attesting to ownership of the property in fee simple, including the coal, and has no objection to the well, the chief shall issue the permit.
If the application to drill, reopen, or convert concerns a well that is or is to be located in a coal bearing township, the chief immediately shall notify the owner or lessee of any affected mine that the application has been filed and send to the owner or lessee two copies of the map accompanying the application setting forth the location of the well.
If the owner or lessee objects to the location of the well or objects to any location within fifty feet of the original location as a possible site for relocation of the well, the owner or lessee shall notify the chief of the objection, giving the reasons for the objection and, if applicable, indicating on a copy of the map the particular location or locations within fifty feet of the original location to which the owner or lessee objects as a site for possible relocation of the well, within six days after the receipt of the notice. If the chief receives no objections from the owner or lessee of the mine within ten days after the receipt of the notice by the owner or lessee, or if in the opinion of the chief the objections offered by the owner or lessee are not sufficiently well founded, the chief immediately shall notify the owner or lessee of those findings. The owner or lessee may appeal the decision of the chief to the reclamation oil and gas commission under section 1513.13 1509.36 of the Revised Code. The appeal shall be filed within fifteen days, notwithstanding provisions in divisions (A)(1) of section 1513.13 1509.36 of the Revised Code, to the contrary, from the date on which the owner or lessee receives the notice. If the appeal is not filed within that time, the chief immediately shall approve the application and issue the permit if the provisions of this chapter pertaining to the issuance of such a permit have been complied with.
If the chief receives an objection from the owner or lessee of the mine as to the location of the well within ten days after receipt of the notice by the owner or lessee, and if in the opinion of the chief the objection is well founded, the chief shall disapprove the application and suggest a new location for the well, provided that the suggested new location shall not be a location within fifty feet of the original location to which the owner or lessee has objected as a site for possible relocation of the well if the chief has determined that the objection is well founded. The chief immediately shall notify the applicant for the permit of the disapproval and any suggestion as to a new location for the well. The applicant may withdraw the application or amend the application to drill the well at the location suggested by the chief, or the applicant may appeal the disapproval of the application by the chief to the reclamation commission.
If the chief receives no objection from the owner or lessee of a mine as to the location of the well, but does receive an objection from the owner or lessee as to one or more locations within fifty feet of the original location as possible sites for relocation of the well within ten days after receipt of the notice by the owner or lessee, and if in the opinion of the chief the objection is well founded, the chief nevertheless shall approve the application and issue a permit if the provisions of this chapter pertaining to the issuance of such a permit have been complied with, incorporating as a term or condition of the permit that the applicant is prohibited from commencing drilling at any location within fifty feet of the original location that has been disapproved by the chief. The applicant may appeal to the reclamation commission the terms and conditions of the permit prohibiting the commencement of drilling at any such location disapproved by the chief.
Any such appeal shall be filed within fifteen days, notwithstanding provisions in division (A)(1) of section 1513.13 1509.36 of the Revised Code to the contrary, from the date the applicant receives notice of the disapproval of the application, any other location within fifty feet of the original location, or terms or conditions of the permit, or the owner or lessee receives notice of the chief's decision. No approval or disapproval of an application shall be delayed by the chief for more than fifteen days from the date of sending the notice of the application to the mine owner or lessee as required by this section.
All appeals provided for in this section shall be treated as expedited appeals. The reclamation commission shall hear any such appeal in accordance with section 1513.13 1509.36 of the Revised Code and issue a decision within thirty days of the filing of the notice of appeal.
The chief shall not issue a permit to drill a new well or reopen a well that is or is to be located within three hundred feet of any opening of any mine used as a means of ingress, egress, or ventilation for persons employed in the mine, nor within one hundred feet of any building or inflammable structure connected with the mine and actually used as a part of the operating equipment of the mine, unless the chief determines that life or property will not be endangered by drilling and operating the well in that location.
Sec. 1513.02.  (A) The division of mineral resources management shall administer, enforce, and implement this chapter. The chief of the division of mineral resources management shall do all of the following:
(1) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules:
(a) To administer and enforce this chapter;
(b) To implement the requirements of this chapter for the reclamation of lands affected by coal mining, including such rules governing mining practices and procedures, segregation and placement of soil and topsoil, backfilling, grading, terracing, resoiling, soil conditioning and reconditioning, planting, establishment of drainage patterns, construction of impoundments, and the construction, maintenance, and disposition of haul roads, ditches, and dikes, as may be necessary or desirable, under varying conditions of slope, drainage, physical and chemical characteristics of soil and overburden, erodability of materials, season, growth characteristics of plants, and other factors affecting coal mining and reclamation, to facilitate the return of the land to a condition required by this chapter; to prevent pollution or substantial diminution of waters of the state, substantial erosion, substantial deposition of sediment, landslides, accumulation and discharge of acid water, and flooding, both during mining and reclamation and thereafter; to restore the recharge capacity of the mined area to approximate premining conditions; and to ensure full compliance with all requirements of this chapter relating to reclamation, and the attainment of those objectives in the interest of the public health, safety, and welfare to which these reclamation requirements are directed;
(c) To meet the requirements of the "Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977," 91 Stat. 445, 30 U.S.C. 1201.
(2) Issue orders to enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it;
(3) Adopt rules for the internal management of the division that do not affect private rights;
(4) Adopt programs, rules, and procedures designed to assist the coal operator in this state with the permitting process and complying with the environmental standards of this chapter. Upon request of the applicant for a permit, the chief shall make a determination of the probable hydrologic consequences required in division (B)(2)(1)(k) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code within sixty days after a permit has been submitted to the division for those applications requesting the chief to perform the study. The chief shall perform the chemical analysis of test borings or core samplings for operators who have a total annual production of coal at all locations that does not exceed one hundred thousand tons.
(5) Adopt programs, rules, and procedures designed to ensure that reclamation is performed on operations for which the performance bond has been forfeited pursuant to section 1513.16 of the Revised Code;
(6) Receive, administer, and expend moneys obtained from the United States department of the interior and other federal agencies to implement the state's permanent coal regulatory program;
(7)(a) Regulate the beneficial use of coal combustion byproducts at coal mining and reclamation operations and abandoned mine lands that are regulated under this chapter and rules adopted under it. The beneficial use of coal combustion byproducts at such coal mining and reclamation operations and abandoned mine lands is subject to all applicable performance standards and requirements established under this chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without limitation, standards and requirements established under section 1513.16 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to it.
The beneficial use of coal combustion byproducts that is authorized at coal mining and reclamation operations and abandoned mine lands that are regulated under this chapter and rules adopted under it is not subject to the following provisions of Chapters 3734. and 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those provisions:
(i) Permit and license requirements for solid waste facilities established under sections 3734.02 and 3734.05 of the Revised Code;
(ii) The prohibition against the open dumping of solid wastes established in section 3734.03 of the Revised Code;
(iii) Solid waste generation and disposal fees established under sections 3734.57 to 3734.574 of the Revised Code;
(iv) Permit to install and plan approval requirements established under sections 6111.03, 6111.44, and 6111.45 of the Revised Code.
Nothing in division (A)(7) of this section shall be construed to limit any other requirements that are applicable to the beneficial use of coal combustion byproducts and that are established under Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., or 6111. of the Revised Code or under local or federal laws, including, without limitation, requirements governing air pollution control permits, hazardous waste, national pollutant discharge elimination system permits, and section 401 water quality certifications.
(b) As used in division (A)(7) of this section:
(i) "Coal combustion byproducts" means fly ash, bottom ash, coal slag, flue gas desulphurization and fluidized bed combustion byproducts, air or water pollution control residues from the operation of a coal-fired electric or steam generation facility, and any material from a clean coal technology demonstration project or other innovative process at a coal-fired electric or steam generation facility.
(ii) "Beneficial use" means the use of coal combustion byproducts in a manner that is not equivalent to the establishment of a disposal system or a solid waste disposal facility and that is unlikely to affect human health or safety or the environment adversely or to degrade the existing quality of the land, air, or water. "Beneficial use" includes, without limitation, land application uses for agronomic value; land reclamation uses; and discrete, controlled uses for structural fill, pavement aggregate, pipe bedding aggregate, mine sealing, alternative drainage or capping material, and pilot demonstration projects.
(iii) "Structural fill" means the discrete, controlled use of a coal combustion byproduct as a substitute for a conventional aggregate, raw material, or soil under or immediately adjacent to a building or structure. "Structural fill" does not include uses that involve general filling or grading operations or valley fills.
(iv) "Pavement aggregate" means the discrete, controlled use of a coal combustion byproduct as a subbase material or drainage layer under or immediately adjacent to a paved road or a paved parking lot where the coal combustion byproduct is a substitute for a conventional aggregate, raw material, or soil.
(v) "Pipe bedding aggregate" means the discrete, controlled use of a coal combustion byproduct as a substitute for a conventional aggregate, raw material, or soil under, around, or immediately adjacent to a water, sewer, or other pipeline.
(vi) "Coal-fired electric or steam generation facility" includes any boiler that is fired with coal or with coal in combination with petroleum coke, oil, natural gas, or any other fossil fuel.
(vii) "Solid waste disposal facility" means a facility for the disposal of solid wastes as provided in Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.
(viii) "Disposal system" has the same meaning as in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) The chief, by rule, may designate as unsuitable for coal mining natural areas maintained on the registry of natural areas of the department of natural resources pursuant to Chapter 1517. of the Revised Code, wild, scenic, or recreational river areas designated pursuant to that chapter, publicly owned or dedicated parks, and other areas of unique and irreplaceable natural beauty or condition, or areas within specified distances of a public road, occupied dwelling, public building, school, church, community, or institutional building, public park, or cemetery. Such a designation may include land adjacent to the perimeters of those areas that may be necessary to protect their integrity.
(C)(1) The adoption, amendment, and rescission of rules under divisions (A)(1) and (B) of this section are subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(2) The issuance of orders under division (A)(2) of this section and appeals therefrom are not governed by or subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, but are governed by this chapter.
(D)(1) When the chief or an authorized representative of the chief determines that any condition or practice exists or that any permittee is in violation of any requirement of this chapter or any permit condition required by this chapter, which condition, practice, or violation creates an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public or is causing, or can reasonably be expected to cause, significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air, or water resources, the chief or the authorized representative immediately shall order the cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations or the portion thereof relevant to the condition, practice, or violation. The cessation order shall remain in effect until the chief or the authorized representative determines that the condition, practice, or violation has been abated or until the order is modified, vacated, or terminated by the chief or the authorized representative pursuant to division (D)(4) of this section or by the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. When the chief or the authorized representative finds that the ordered cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations or any portion thereof will not completely abate the imminent danger to the health or safety of the public or the significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air, or water resources, the chief or the authorized representative, in addition to the cessation order, shall order the operator to take whatever steps the chief or the authorized representative considers necessary to abate the imminent danger or the significant environmental harm.
(2) When the chief or an authorized representative of the chief determines that any person is in violation of any requirement of this chapter or any permit condition required by this chapter, but the violation does not create an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public or cannot reasonably be expected to cause significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air, or water resources, the chief or the authorized representative shall issue a notice of violation to the person or the person's agent fixing a reasonable time for the abatement of the violation, provided that the time afforded a person to abate the violation shall not exceed the time limitations prescribed by the secretary of the interior in 30 C.F.R. Part 843 for an approvable state regulatory program under the "Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977," 91 Stat. 445, 30 U.S.C. 1201.
If, upon expiration of the period of time as originally fixed or subsequently extended for good cause shown and upon the written finding of the chief or the authorized representative, the chief or the authorized representative finds that the violation has not been abated, the chief or the authorized representative immediately shall order the cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations or the portion thereof relevant to the violation. The cessation order shall remain in effect until the chief or the authorized representative determines that the violation has been abated or until the order is modified, vacated, or terminated by the chief or the authorized representative pursuant to division (D)(4) of this section or by the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. In a cessation order issued under division (D)(2) of this section, the chief or the authorized representative shall prescribe the steps necessary to abate the violation in the most expeditious manner possible.
(3) When in the judgment of the chief or an authorized representative of the chief a pattern of violations of any requirements of this chapter or any permit conditions required by this chapter exists or has existed and the violations are caused by the unwarranted failure of the permittee to comply with any requirements of this chapter or any permit conditions or are willfully caused by the permittee, the chief or the authorized representative immediately shall issue an order to the permittee to show cause why the permit should not be suspended or revoked. If a hearing is requested, the chief shall inform all interested parties of the time and place of the hearing and conduct the hearing pursuant to division (D) of section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. Upon the permittee's failure to show cause why the permit should not be suspended or revoked, the chief or the authorized representative immediately shall suspend or revoke the permit.
(4) Notices of violation and orders issued pursuant to this section shall set forth with reasonable specificity the nature of the violation and the remedial action required, the period of time established for abatement, and a reasonable description of the portion of the coal mining and reclamation operation to which the notice or order applies. Each notice or order issued under this section shall be given promptly to the alleged violator or the agent of the alleged violator by the chief or an authorized representative of the chief who issues the notice or order. Notices and orders shall be in writing and shall be signed by the chief or the authorized representative and may be modified, vacated, or terminated by the chief or the authorized representative. Any notice or order issued pursuant to this section that requires cessation of mining by the operator shall expire within thirty days after actual notice to the operator unless a public hearing pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code is held at the site or within such reasonable proximity to the site that any viewings of the site can be conducted during the course of the public hearing.
(E)(1) A person who violates a permit condition or any other provision of this chapter may be assessed a civil penalty by the chief, except that if the violation leads to the issuance of a cessation order under division (D) of this section, the civil penalty shall be assessed for each day until the person initiates the necessary corrective steps. The penalty shall not exceed five thousand dollars for each violation. Each day of continuing violation may be deemed a separate violation for purposes of penalty assessments. In determining the amount of the penalty, consideration shall be given to the person's history of previous violation at the particular coal mining operation; the seriousness of the violation, including any irreparable harm to the environment and any hazard to the health or safety of the public; whether the person was negligent; and the demonstrated diligence of the person charged in attempting to achieve rapid compliance after notification of the violation.
(2) A civil penalty shall be assessed by the chief only after the person charged with a violation under division (E)(1) of this section has been given an opportunity for a public hearing. If a person charged with such a violation fails to avail oneself of the opportunity for a public hearing, a civil penalty shall be assessed by the chief after the chief has determined that a violation did occur, and the amount of the penalty that is warranted, and has issued an order requiring that the penalty be paid.
(3) Upon the issuance of a notice or order charging that a violation of this chapter has occurred, the chief shall inform the operator within thirty days of the proposed amount of the penalty and provide opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. The person charged with the penalty then shall have thirty days to pay the proposed penalty in full or, if the person wishes to contest either the amount of the penalty or the fact of the violation, file a petition for review of the proposed assessment with the secretary of the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. If, after the hearing, the commission affirms or modifies the proposed amount of the penalty, the person charged with the penalty then shall have thirty days after receipt of the written decision to pay the amount in full or file an appeal with the court of appeals in accordance with section 1513.14 of the Revised Code. At the time the petition for review of the proposed assessment is filed with the secretary, the person shall forward the amount of the penalty to the secretary for placement in the reclamation penalty fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be in the custody of the treasurer of state, but shall not be a part of the state treasury. Pursuant to administrative or judicial review of the penalty, the secretary, within thirty days, shall remit the appropriate amount of the penalty to the person, with interest, if it is determined that no violation occurred or that the amount of the penalty should be reduced, and the secretary shall forward the balance of the penalty or, if the penalty was not reduced, the entire amount of the penalty, with interest, to the chief for deposit in the coal mining administration and reclamation reserve fund created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code. Failure to forward the money to the secretary within thirty days after the chief informs the operator of the proposed amount of the penalty shall result in a waiver of all legal rights to contest the violation or the amount of the penalty. Within fifteen days after being informed of the penalty, the person charged with the penalty may request in writing an informal assessment conference to review the amount of the penalty. The conference shall be presided over by the chief or an individual appointed by the chief other than the inspector that issued the notice of violation or order upon which the penalty is based. The chief shall adopt rules governing procedures to be followed in informal conferences. Time allowed for payment of the penalty or appeal to the commission shall be tolled while the penalty is being reviewed in an informal conference.
(4) An operator who fails to correct a violation for which a notice of violation or order has been issued under division (D) of this section within the period permitted for its correction shall be assessed a civil penalty of not less than seven hundred fifty dollars for each day during which the failure or violation continues. However, a civil penalty shall not be assessed under division (E)(4) of this section if the commission orders the suspension of the abatement requirement after determining, based upon the findings of an expedited hearing held under section 1513.13 of the Revised Code at the request of the operator, that the operator will suffer irreparable loss or damage from the application of the abatement requirement or if the court orders suspension of the abatement requirement pursuant to review proceedings held under section 1513.14 of the Revised Code at the request of the operator.
(F) The chief may enter into a cooperative agreement with the secretary of the interior to provide for state regulation of coal mining and reclamation operations on federal lands within the state.
(G) The chief may prohibit augering if necessary to maximize the utilization, recoverability, or conservation of the solid fuel resources or to protect against adverse water quality impacts.
(H) The chief shall transmit copies of all schedules submitted under section 1513.07 of the Revised Code pertaining to violations of air or water quality laws and rules adopted and orders issued under those laws in connection with coal mining operations to the director of environmental protection for verification.
(I) For the purposes of sections 1513.18, 1513.24, 1513.37, and 1514.06 of the Revised Code, the chief triennially shall determine the average wage rate for companies performing reclamation work for the division under those sections by averaging the wage rate paid by all companies performing such reclamation work during the three years immediately preceding the determination. However, in making the initial determination under this division, the chief shall average the wage rate paid by all companies performing such reclamation work during the ten years immediately preceding October 29, 1995.
Sec. 1513.07.  (A)(1) No operator shall conduct a coal mining operation without a permit for the operation issued by the chief of the division of mineral resources management.
(2) All permits issued pursuant to this chapter shall be issued for a term not to exceed five years, except that, if the applicant demonstrates that a specified longer term is reasonably needed to allow the applicant to obtain necessary financing for equipment and the opening of the operation, and if the application is full and complete for the specified longer term, the chief may grant a permit for the longer term. A successor in interest to a permittee who applies for a new permit within thirty days after succeeding to the interest and who is able to obtain the bond coverage of the original permittee may continue coal mining and reclamation operations according to the approved mining and reclamation plan of the original permittee until the successor's application is granted or denied.
(3) A permit shall terminate if the permittee has not commenced the coal mining operations covered by the permit within three years after the issuance of the permit, except that the chief may grant reasonable extensions of the time upon a showing that the extensions are necessary by reason of litigation precluding the commencement or threatening substantial economic loss to the permittee, or by reason of conditions beyond the control and without the fault or negligence of the permittee, and except that with respect to coal to be mined for use in a synthetic fuel facility or specified major electric generating facility, the permittee shall be deemed to have commenced coal mining operations at the time construction of the synthetic fuel or generating facility is initiated.
(4)(a) Any permit issued pursuant to this chapter shall carry with it the right of successive renewal upon expiration with respect to areas within the boundaries of the permit. The holders of the permit may apply for renewal and the renewal shall be issued, unless the chief determines by written findings, subsequent to fulfillment of the public notice requirements of this section and section 1513.071 of the Revised Code through demonstrations by opponents of renewal or otherwise, that one or more of the following circumstances exists:
(i) The terms and conditions of the existing permit are not being satisfactorily met;.
(ii) The present coal mining and reclamation operation is not in compliance with the environmental protection standards of this chapter;.
(iii) The renewal requested substantially jeopardizes the operator's continuing responsibilities on existing permit areas;.
(iv) The applicant has not provided evidence that the performance bond in effect for the operation will continue in effect for any renewal requested in the application;.
(v) Any additional, revised, or updated information required by the chief has not been provided. Prior to the approval of any renewal of a permit, the chief shall provide notice to the appropriate public authorities as prescribed by rule of the chief.
(b) If an application for renewal of a valid permit includes a proposal to extend the mining operation beyond the boundaries authorized in the existing permit, the portion of the application for renewal of a valid permit that addresses any new land areas shall be subject to the full standards applicable to new applications under this chapter.
(c) A permit renewal shall be for a term not to exceed the period of the original permit established by this chapter. Application for permit renewal shall be made at least one hundred twenty days prior to the expiration of the valid permit.
(5) A permit issued pursuant to this chapter does not eliminate the requirements for obtaining a permit to install or modify a disposal system or any part thereof or to discharge sewage, industrial waste, or other wastes into the waters of the state in accordance with Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) Each application for a coal mining and reclamation permit or renewal of such a permit shall be accompanied by a permit or renewal fee in an amount equal to the product of seventy-five dollars multiplied by the number of acres, estimated in the application, that will comprise the area of land to be affected within the permit or renewal period by the coal mining operation for which the permit or renewal is requested.
(2) The permit application shall be submitted in a manner satisfactory to the chief and shall contain, among other things, all of the following:
(a) The names and addresses of all of the following:
(i) The permit applicant;
(ii) Every legal owner of record of the property, surface and mineral, to be mined;
(iii) The holders of record of any leasehold interest in the property;
(iv) Any purchaser of record of the property under a real estate contract;
(v) The operator if different from the applicant;
(vi) If any of these are business entities other than a single proprietor, the names and addresses of the principals, officers, and statutory agent for service of process.
(b) The names and addresses of the owners of record of all surface and subsurface areas adjacent to any part of the permit area;
(c) A statement of any current or previous coal mining permits in the United States held by the applicant, the permit identification, and any pending applications;
(d) If the applicant is a partnership, corporation, association, or other business entity, the following where applicable: the names and addresses of every officer, partner, director, or person performing a function similar to a director, of the applicant, the name and address of any person owning, of record, ten per cent or more of any class of voting stock of the applicant, a list of all names under which the applicant, partner, or principal shareholder previously operated a coal mining operation within the United States within the five-year period preceding the date of submission of the application, and a list of the person or persons primarily responsible for ensuring that the applicant complies with the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted pursuant thereto while mining and reclaiming under the permit;
(e) A statement of whether the applicant, any subsidiary, affiliate, or persons controlled by or under common control with the applicant, any partner if the applicant is a partnership, any officer, principal shareholder, or director if the applicant is a corporation, or any other person who has a right to control or in fact controls the management of the applicant or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of the applicant:
(i) Has ever held a federal or state coal mining permit that in the five-year period prior to the date of submission of the application has been suspended or revoked or has had a coal mining bond or similar security deposited in lieu of bond forfeited and, if so, a brief explanation of the facts involved;
(ii) Has been an officer, partner, director, principal shareholder, or person having the right to control or has in fact controlled the management of or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of a business entity that has had a coal mining or surface mining permit that in the five-year period prior to the date of submission of the application has been suspended or revoked or has had a coal mining or surface mining bond or similar security deposited in lieu of bond forfeited and, if so, a brief explanation of the facts involved.
(f) A copy of the applicant's advertisement to be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the locality of the proposed site at least once a week for four successive weeks, which shall include the ownership of the proposed mine, a description of the exact location and boundaries of the proposed site sufficient to make the proposed operation readily identifiable by local residents, and the location where the application is available for public inspection;
(g) A description of the type and method of coal mining operation that exists or is proposed, the engineering techniques proposed or used, and the equipment used or proposed to be used;
(h) The anticipated or actual starting and termination dates of each phase of the mining operation and number of acres of land to be affected;
(i) An accurate map or plan, to an appropriate scale, clearly showing the land to be affected and the land upon which the applicant has the legal right to enter and commence coal mining operations, copies of those documents upon which is based the applicant's legal right to enter and commence coal mining operations, and a statement whether that right is the subject of pending litigation. This chapter does not authorize the chief to adjudicate property title disputes.
(j) The name of the watershed and location of the surface stream or tributary into which drainage from the operation will be discharged;
(k) A determination of the probable hydrologic consequences of the mining and reclamation operations, both on and off the mine site, with respect to the hydrologic regime, providing information on the quantity and quality of water in surface and ground water systems including the dissolved and suspended solids under seasonal flow conditions and the collection of sufficient data for the mine site and surrounding areas so that an assessment can be made by the chief of the probable cumulative impacts of all anticipated mining in the area upon the hydrology of the area and particularly upon water availability, but this determination shall not be required until hydrologic information of the general area prior to mining is made available from an appropriate federal or state agency; however, the permit shall not be approved until the information is available and is incorporated into the application;
(l) When requested by the chief, the climatological factors that are peculiar to the locality of the land to be affected, including the average seasonal precipitation, the average direction and velocity of prevailing winds, and the seasonal temperature ranges;
(m) Accurate maps prepared by or under the direction of and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer, registered surveyor, or licensed landscape architect to an appropriate scale clearly showing all types of information set forth on topographical maps of the United States geological survey of a scale of not more than four hundred feet to the inch, including all artificial features and significant known archeological sites. The map, among other things specified by the chief, shall show all boundaries of the land to be affected, the boundary lines and names of present owners of record of all surface areas abutting the permit area, and the location of all buildings within one thousand feet of the permit area.
(n)(i) Cross-section maps or plans of the land to be affected including the actual area to be mined, prepared by or under the direction of and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer or certified professional geologist with assistance from experts in related fields such as hydrology, hydrogeology, geology, and landscape architecture, showing pertinent elevations and locations of test borings or core samplings and depicting the following information: the nature and depth of the various strata of overburden; the nature and thickness of any coal or rider seam above the coal seam to be mined; the nature of the stratum immediately beneath the coal seam to be mined; all mineral crop lines and the strike and dip of the coal to be mined within the area to be affected; existing or previous coal mining limits; the location and extent of known workings of any underground mines, including mine openings to the surface; the location of spoil, waste, or refuse areas and topsoil preservation areas; the location of all impoundments for waste or erosion control; any settling or water treatment facility; constructed or natural drainways and the location of any discharges to any surface body of water on the land to be affected or adjacent thereto; profiles at appropriate cross sections of the anticipated final surface configuration that will be achieved pursuant to the operator's proposed reclamation plan; the location of subsurface water, if encountered; the location and quality of aquifers; and the estimated elevation of the water table. Registered surveyors shall be allowed to perform all plans, maps, and certifications under this chapter as they are authorized under Chapter 4733. of the Revised Code.
(ii) A statement of the quality and locations of subsurface water. The chief shall provide by rule the number of locations to be sampled, frequency of collection, and parameters to be analyzed to obtain the statement required.
(o) A statement of the results of test borings or core samplings from the permit area, including logs of the drill holes, the thickness of the coal seam found, an analysis of the chemical properties of the coal, the sulfur content of any coal seam, chemical analysis of potentially acid or toxic forming sections of the overburden, and chemical analysis of the stratum lying immediately underneath the coal to be mined, except that this division may be waived by the chief with respect to the specific application by a written determination that its requirements are unnecessary;
(p) For those lands in the permit application that a reconnaissance inspection suggests may be prime farmlands, a soil survey shall be made or obtained according to standards established by the secretary of the United States department of agriculture in order to confirm the exact location of the prime farmlands, if any;
(q) A certificate issued by an insurance company authorized to do business in this state certifying that the applicant has a public liability insurance policy in force for the coal mining and reclamation operations for which the permit is sought or evidence that the applicant has satisfied other state self-insurance requirements. The policy shall provide for personal injury and property damage protection in an amount adequate to compensate any persons damaged as a result of coal mining and reclamation operations, including the use of explosives, and entitled to compensation under the applicable provisions of state law. The policy shall be maintained in effect during the term of the permit or any renewal, including the length of all reclamation operations. The insurance company shall give prompt notice to the permittee and the chief if the public liability insurance policy lapses for any reason, including the nonpayment of insurance premiums. Upon the lapse of the policy, the chief may suspend the permit and all other outstanding permits until proper insurance coverage is obtained.
(r) The business telephone number of the applicant;
(s) If the applicant seeks an authorization under division (E)(7) of this section to conduct coal mining and reclamation operations on areas to be covered by the permit that were affected by coal mining operations before August 3, 1977, that have resulted in continuing water pollution from or on the previously mined areas, such additional information pertaining to those previously mined areas as may be required by the chief, including, without limitation, maps, plans, cross sections, data necessary to determine existing water quality from or on those areas with respect to pH, iron, and manganese, and a pollution abatement plan that may improve water quality from or on those areas with respect to pH, iron, and manganese.
(3)(2) Information pertaining to coal seams, test borings, core samplings, or soil samples as required by this section shall be made available by the chief to any person with an interest that is or may be adversely affected, except that information that pertains only to the analysis of the chemical and physical properties of the coal, excluding information regarding mineral or elemental content that is potentially toxic in the environment, shall be kept confidential and not made a matter of public record.
(4)(3)(a) If the chief finds that the probable total annual production at all locations of any operator will not exceed three hundred thousand tons, the following activities, upon the written request of the operator in connection with a permit application, shall be performed by a qualified public or private laboratory or another public or private qualified entity designated by the chief, and the cost of the activities shall be assumed by the chief, provided that sufficient moneys for such assistance are available:
(i) The determination of probable hydrologic consequences required under division (B)(2)(1)(k) of this section;
(ii) The development of cross-section maps and plans required under division (B)(2)(1)(n)(i) of this section;
(iii) The geologic drilling and statement of results of test borings and core samplings required under division (B)(2)(1)(o) of this section;
(iv) The collection of archaeological information required under division (B)(2)(1)(m) of this section and any other archaeological and historical information required by the chief, and the preparation of plans necessitated thereby;
(v) Pre-blast surveys required under division (E) of section 1513.161 of the Revised Code;
(vi) The collection of site-specific resource information and production of protection and enhancement plans for fish and wildlife habitats and other environmental values required by the chief under this chapter.
(b) A coal operator that has received assistance under division (B)(4)(3)(a) of this section shall reimburse the chief for the cost of the services rendered, if the chief finds that the operator's actual and attributed annual production of coal for all locations exceeds three hundred thousand tons during the twelve months immediately following the date on which the operator was issued a coal mining and reclamation permit.
(5)(4) Each applicant for a permit shall submit to the chief as part of the permit application a reclamation plan that meets the requirements of this chapter.
(6)(5) Each applicant for a coal mining and reclamation permit shall file a copy of the application for a permit, excluding that information pertaining to the coal seam itself, for public inspection with the county recorder or an appropriate public office approved by the chief in the county where the mining is proposed to occur.
(7)(6) Each applicant for a coal mining and reclamation permit shall submit to the chief as part of the permit application a blasting plan that describes the procedures and standards by which the operator will comply with section 1513.161 of the Revised Code.
(C) Each reclamation plan submitted as part of a permit application shall include, in the detail necessary to demonstrate that reclamation required by this chapter can be accomplished, a statement of:
(1) The identification of the lands subject to coal mining operations over the estimated life of those operations and the size, sequence, and timing of the subareas for which it is anticipated that individual permits for mining will be sought;
(2) The condition of the land to be covered by the permit prior to any mining, including all of the following:
(a) The uses existing at the time of the application and, if the land has a history of previous mining, the uses that preceded any mining;
(b) The capability of the land prior to any mining to support a variety of uses, giving consideration to soil and foundation characteristics, topography, and vegetative cover and, if applicable, a soil survey prepared pursuant to division (B)(2)(1)(p) of this section;
(c) The productivity of the land prior to mining, including appropriate classification as prime farmlands as well as the average yield of food, fiber, forage, or wood products obtained from the land under high levels of management.
(3) The use that is proposed to be made of the land following reclamation, including information regarding the utility and capacity of the reclaimed land to support a variety of alternative uses, the relationship of the proposed use to existing land use policies and plans, and the comments of any owner of the land and state and local governments or agencies thereof that would have to initiate, implement, approve, or authorize the proposed use of the land following reclamation;
(4) A detailed description of how the proposed postmining land use is to be achieved and the necessary support activities that may be needed to achieve the proposed land use;
(5) The engineering techniques proposed to be used in mining and reclamation and a description of the major equipment; a plan for the control of surface water drainage and of water accumulation; a plan, where appropriate, for backfilling, soil stabilization, and compacting, grading, and appropriate revegetation; a plan for soil reconstruction, replacement, and stabilization, pursuant to the performance standards in section 1513.16 of the Revised Code, for those food, forage, and forest lands identified in that section; and an estimate of the cost per acre of the reclamation, including a statement as to how the permittee plans to comply with each of the requirements set out in section 1513.16 of the Revised Code;
(6) A description of the means by which the utilization and conservation of the solid fuel resource being recovered will be maximized so that reaffecting the land in the future can be minimized;
(7) A detailed estimated timetable for the accomplishment of each major step in the reclamation plan;
(8) A description of the degree to which the coal mining and reclamation operations are consistent with surface owner plans and applicable state and local land use plans and programs;
(9) The steps to be taken to comply with applicable air and water quality laws and regulations and any applicable health and safety standards;
(10) A description of the degree to which the reclamation plan is consistent with local physical, environmental, and climatological conditions;
(11) A description of all lands, interests in lands, or options on such interests held by the applicant or pending bids on interests in lands by the applicant, which lands are contiguous to the area to be covered by the permit;
(12) The results of test borings that the applicant has made at the area to be covered by the permit, or other equivalent information and data in a form satisfactory to the chief, including the location of subsurface water, and an analysis of the chemical properties, including acid forming properties of the mineral and overburden; except that information that pertains only to the analysis of the chemical and physical properties of the coal, excluding information regarding mineral or elemental contents that are potentially toxic in the environment, shall be kept confidential and not made a matter of public record;
(13) A detailed description of the measures to be taken during the mining and reclamation process to ensure the protection of all of the following:
(a) The quality of surface and ground water systems, both on- and off-site, from adverse effects of the mining and reclamation process;
(b) The rights of present users to such water;
(c) The quantity of surface and ground water systems, both on- and off-site, from adverse effects of the mining and reclamation process or, where such protection of quantity cannot be assured, provision of alternative sources of water.
(14) Any other requirements the chief prescribes by rule.
(D)(1) Any information required by division (C) of this section that is not on public file pursuant to this chapter shall be held in confidence by the chief.
(2) With regard to requests for an exemption from the requirements of this chapter for coal extraction incidental to the extraction of other minerals, as described in division (H)(1)(a) of section 1513.01 of the Revised Code, confidential information includes and is limited to information concerning trade secrets or privileged commercial or financial information relating to the competitive rights of the persons intending to conduct the extraction of minerals.
(E)(1) Upon the basis of a complete mining application and reclamation plan or a revision or renewal thereof, as required by this chapter, and information obtained as a result of public notification and public hearing, if any, as provided by section 1513.071 of the Revised Code, the chief shall grant, require modification of, or deny the application for a permit in a reasonable time set by the chief and notify the applicant in writing. The applicant for a permit or revision of a permit has the burden of establishing that the application is in compliance with all the requirements of this chapter. Within ten days after the granting of a permit, the chief shall notify the boards of township trustees and county commissioners, the mayor, and the legislative authority in the township, county, and municipal corporation in which the area of land to be affected is located that a permit has been issued and shall describe the location of the land. However, failure of the chief to notify the local officials shall not affect the status of the permit.
(2) No permit application or application for revision of an existing permit shall be approved unless the application affirmatively demonstrates and the chief finds in writing on the basis of the information set forth in the application or from information otherwise available, which shall be documented in the approval and made available to the applicant, all of the following:
(a) The application is accurate and complete and all the requirements of this chapter have been complied with.
(b) The applicant has demonstrated that the reclamation required by this chapter can be accomplished under the reclamation plan contained in the application.
(c)(i) Assessment of the probable cumulative impact of all anticipated mining in the general and adjacent area on the hydrologic balance specified in division (B)(2)(1)(k) of this section has been made by the chief, and the proposed operation has been designed to prevent material damage to hydrologic balance outside the permit area.
(ii) There shall be an ongoing process conducted by the chief in cooperation with other state and federal agencies to review all assessments of probable cumulative impact of coal mining in light of post-mining data and any other hydrologic information as it becomes available to determine if the assessments were realistic. The chief shall take appropriate action as indicated in the review process.
(d) The area proposed to be mined is not included within an area designated unsuitable for coal mining pursuant to section 1513.073 of the Revised Code or is not within an area under study for such designation in an administrative proceeding commenced pursuant to division (A)(3)(c) or (B) of section 1513.073 of the Revised Code, unless in an area as to which an administrative proceeding has commenced pursuant to division (A)(3)(c) or (B) of section 1513.073 of the Revised Code, the operator making the permit application demonstrates that, prior to January 1, 1977, the operator made substantial legal and financial commitments in relation to the operation for which a permit is sought.
(e) In cases where the private mineral estate has been severed from the private surface estate, the applicant has submitted to the chief one of the following:
(i) The written consent of the surface owner to the extraction of coal by strip mining methods;
(ii) A conveyance that expressly grants or reserves the right to extract the coal by strip mining methods;
(iii) If the conveyance does not expressly grant the right to extract coal by strip mining methods, the surface-subsurface legal relationship shall be determined under the law of this state. This chapter does not authorize the chief to adjudicate property rights disputes.
(3)(a) The applicant shall file with the permit application a schedule listing all notices of violations of any law, rule, or regulation of the United States or of any department or agency thereof or of any state pertaining to air or water environmental protection incurred by the applicant in connection with any coal mining operation during the three-year period prior to the date of application. The schedule also shall indicate the final resolution of such a notice of violation. Upon receipt of an application, the chief shall provide a schedule listing all notices of violations of this chapter pertaining to air or water environmental protection incurred by the applicant during the three-year period prior to receipt of the application and the final resolution of all such notices of violation. The chief shall provide this schedule to the applicant for filing by the applicant with the application filed for public review, as required by division (B)(6)(5) of this section. When the schedule or other information available to the chief indicates that any coal mining operation owned or controlled by the applicant is currently in violation of such laws, the permit shall not be issued until the applicant submits proof that the violation has been corrected or is in the process of being corrected to the satisfaction of the regulatory authority, department, or agency that has jurisdiction over the violation and that any civil penalties owed to the state for a violation and not the subject of an appeal have been paid. No permit shall be issued to an applicant after a finding by the chief that the applicant or the operator specified in the application controls or has controlled mining operations with a demonstrated pattern of willful violations of this chapter of a nature and duration to result in irreparable damage to the environment as to indicate an intent not to comply with or a disregard of this chapter.
(b) For the purposes of division (E)(3)(a) of this section, any violation resulting from an unanticipated event or condition at a surface coal mining operation on lands eligible for remining under a permit held by the person submitting an application for a coal mining permit under this section shall not prevent issuance of that permit. As used in this division, "unanticipated event or condition" means an event or condition encountered in a remining operation that was not contemplated by the applicable surface coal mining and reclamation permit.
(4)(a) In addition to finding the application in compliance with division (E)(2) of this section, if the area proposed to be mined contains prime farmland as determined pursuant to division (B)(2)(1)(p) of this section, the chief, after consultation with the secretary of the United States department of agriculture and pursuant to regulations issued by the secretary of the interior with the concurrence of the secretary of agriculture, may grant a permit to mine on prime farmland if the chief finds in writing that the operator has the technological capability to restore the mined area, within a reasonable time, to equivalent or higher levels of yield as nonmined prime farmland in the surrounding area under equivalent levels of management and can meet the soil reconstruction standards in section 1513.16 of the Revised Code.
(b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not apply to a permit issued prior to August 3, 1977, or revisions or renewals thereof.
(5) The chief shall issue an order denying a permit after finding that the applicant has misrepresented or omitted any material fact in the application for the permit.
(6) The chief may issue an order denying a permit after finding that the applicant, any partner, if the applicant is a partnership, any officer, principal shareholder, or director, if the applicant is a corporation, or any other person who has a right to control or in fact controls the management of the applicant or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of the applicant has been a sole proprietor or partner, officer, director, principal shareholder, or person having the right to control or has in fact controlled the management of or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of a business entity that ever has had a coal mining license or permit issued by this or any other state or the United States suspended or revoked, ever has forfeited a coal or surface mining bond or security deposited in lieu of bond in this or any other state or with the United States, or ever has substantially or materially failed to comply with this chapter.
(7) When issuing a permit under this section, the chief may authorize an applicant to conduct coal mining and reclamation operations on areas to be covered by the permit that were affected by coal mining operations before August 3, 1977, that have resulted in continuing water pollution from or on the previously mined areas for the purpose of potentially reducing the pollution loadings of pH, iron, and manganese from discharges from or on the previously mined areas. Following the chief's authorization to conduct such operations on those areas, the areas shall be designated as pollution abatement areas for the purposes of this chapter.
The chief shall not grant an authorization under division (E)(7) of this section to conduct coal mining and reclamation operations on any such previously mined areas unless the applicant demonstrates to the chief's satisfaction that all of the following conditions are met:
(a) The applicant's pollution abatement plan for mining and reclaiming the previously mined areas represents the best available technology economically achievable;.
(b) Implementation of the plan will potentially reduce pollutant loadings of pH, iron, and manganese resulting from discharges of surface waters or ground water from or on the previously mined areas within the permit area;.
(c) Implementation of the plan will not cause any additional degradation of surface water quality off the permit area with respect to pH, iron, and manganese;.
(d) Implementation of the plan will not cause any additional degradation of ground water;.
(e) The plan meets the requirements governing mining and reclamation of such previously mined pollution abatement areas established by the chief in rules adopted under section 1513.02 of the Revised Code;.
(f) Neither the applicant; any partner, if the applicant is a partnership; any officer, principal shareholder, or director, if the applicant is a corporation; any other person who has a right to control or in fact controls the management of the applicant or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of the applicant; nor any contractor or subcontractor of the applicant, has any of the following:
(i) Responsibility or liability under this chapter or rules adopted under it as an operator for treating the discharges of water pollutants from or on the previously mined areas for which the authorization is sought;
(ii) Any responsibility or liability under this chapter or rules adopted under it for reclaiming the previously mined areas for which the authorization is sought;
(iii) During the eighteen months prior to submitting the permit application requesting an authorization under division (E)(7) of this section, had a coal mining and reclamation permit suspended or revoked under division (D)(3) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code for violating this chapter or Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code or rules adopted under them with respect to water quality, effluent limitations, or surface or ground water monitoring;
(iv) Ever forfeited a coal or surface mining bond or security deposited in lieu of a bond in this or any other state or with the United States.
(F)(1) During the term of the permit, the permittee may submit an application for a revision of the permit, together with a revised reclamation plan, to the chief.
(2) An application for a revision of a permit shall not be approved, unless the chief finds that reclamation required by this chapter can be accomplished under the revised reclamation plan. The revision shall be approved or disapproved within ninety days after receipt of a complete revision application. The chief shall establish, by rule, criteria for determining the extent to which all permit application information requirements and procedures, including notice and hearings, shall apply to the revision request, except that any revisions that propose significant alterations in the reclamation plan, at a minimum, shall be subject to notice and hearing requirements.
(3) Any extensions to the area covered by the permit except incidental boundary revisions shall be made by application for a permit.
(G) No transfer, assignment, or sale of the rights granted under a permit issued pursuant to this chapter shall be made without the written approval of the chief.
(H) The chief, within a time limit prescribed in the chief's rules, shall review outstanding permits and may require reasonable revision or modification of a permit. A revision or modification shall be based upon a written finding and subject to notice and hearing requirements established by rule of the chief.
(I)(1) If an informal conference has been held pursuant to section 1513.071 of the Revised Code, the chief shall issue and furnish the applicant for a permit, persons who participated in the informal conference, and persons who filed written objections pursuant to division (B) of section 1513.071 of the Revised Code, with the written finding of the chief granting or denying the permit in whole or in part and stating the reasons therefor within sixty days of the conference.
(2) If there has been no informal conference held pursuant to section 1513.071 of the Revised Code, the chief shall notify the applicant for a permit within a reasonable time as provided by rule of the chief, taking into account the time needed for proper investigation of the site, the complexity of the permit application, whether or not a written objection to the application has been filed, and whether the application has been approved or disapproved in whole or in part.
(3) If the application is approved, the permit shall be issued. If the application is disapproved, specific reasons therefor shall be set forth in the notification. Within thirty days after the applicant is notified of the final decision of the chief on the permit application, the applicant or any person with an interest that is or may be adversely affected may appeal the decision to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code.
(4) Any applicant or any person with an interest that is or may be adversely affected who has participated in the administrative proceedings as an objector and is aggrieved by the decision of the reclamation environmental review appeals commission, or if the commission fails to act within the time limits specified in this chapter, may appeal in accordance with section 1513.14 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1513.13.  (A)(1) Any person having an interest that is or may be adversely affected by a notice of violation, order, or decision of the chief of the division of mineral resources management, other than a decision made under section 1509.06 or 1509.08 of the Revised Code or a show cause order or an order that adopts a rule, or by any modification, vacation, or termination of such a notice, order, or decision, may appeal by filing a notice of appeal with the reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code for review of the notice, order, or decision within thirty days after the notice, order, or decision is served upon the person or within thirty days after its modification, vacation, or termination and by filing a copy of the notice of appeal with the chief within three days after filing the notice of appeal with the commission. The notice of appeal shall contain a copy of the notice of violation, order, or decision complained of and the grounds upon which the appeal is based. The commission has exclusive original jurisdiction to hear and decide such appeals. The filing of a notice of appeal under division (A)(1) of this section does not operate as a stay of any order, notice of violation, or decision of the chief.
(2) The permittee, the chief, and other interested persons shall be given written notice of the time and place of the hearing at least five days prior thereto. The hearing shall be of record.
(3) Any person authorized under this section to appeal to the commission may request an informal review by the chief or the chief's designee by filing a written request with the chief within thirty days after a notice, order, decision, modification, vacation, or termination is served upon the person. Filing of the written request shall toll the time for appeal before the commission, but shall not operate as a stay of any order, notice of violation, or decision of the chief. The chief's determination of an informal review is appealable to the commission under this section.
(B) The commission shall affirm the notice of violation, order, or decision of the chief unless the commission determines that it is arbitrary, capricious, or otherwise inconsistent with law; in that case the commission may modify the notice of violation, order, or decision or vacate it and remand it to the chief for further proceedings that the commission may direct.
The commission shall conduct hearings and render decisions in a timely fashion, except that all of the following apply:
(1) When the appeal concerns an order for the cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations issued pursuant to division (D)(1) or (2) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code, the commission shall issue its written decision within thirty days after the receipt of the appeal unless temporary relief has been granted by the chairperson pursuant to division (C) of this section.
(2) When the appeal concerns an application for a permit under division (I) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code, the commission shall hold a hearing within thirty days after receipt of the notice of appeal and issue its decision within thirty days after the hearing.
(3) When the appeal concerns a decision of the chief regarding release of bond under division (F) of section 1513.16 of the Revised Code, the commission shall hold a hearing within thirty days after receipt of the notice of appeal and issue its decision within sixty days after the hearing.
(4) When the appeal concerns a decision of the chief regarding the location of a well in a coal bearing township under section 1509.08 of the Revised Code, the commission shall hold a hearing and issue its decision within thirty days after receipt of the notice of appeal.
(C) The chairperson of the commission, under conditions the chairperson prescribes, may grant temporary relief the chairperson considers appropriate pending final determination of an appeal if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) All parties to the appeal have been notified and given an opportunity for a hearing to be held in the locality of the subject site on the request for temporary relief and the opportunity to be heard on the request.
(2) The person requesting relief shows that there is a substantial likelihood that the person will prevail on the merits.
(3) The relief will not adversely affect public health or safety or cause significant imminent environmental harm to land, air, or water resources.
The chairperson shall issue a decision expeditiously, except that when the applicant requests relief from an order for the cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations issued pursuant to division (D)(1) or (2) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code, the decision shall be issued within five days after its receipt.
Any party to an appeal filed with the commission who is aggrieved or adversely affected by a decision of the chairperson to grant or deny temporary relief under this section may appeal that decision to the commission. The commission may confine its review to the record developed at the hearing before the chairperson.
The appeal shall be filed with the commission within thirty days after the chairperson issues the decision on the request for temporary relief. The commission shall issue a decision as expeditiously as possible, except that when the appellant requests relief from an order for the cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations issued pursuant to division (D)(1) or (2) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code, the decision of the commission shall be issued within five days after receipt of the notice of appeal.
The commission shall affirm the decision of the chairperson granting or denying temporary relief unless it determines that the decision is arbitrary, capricious, or otherwise inconsistent with law.
(D) Following the issuance of an order to show cause as to why a permit should not be suspended or revoked pursuant to division (D)(3) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code, the chief or a representative of the chief shall hold a public adjudicatory hearing after giving written notice of the time, place, and date thereof. The hearing shall be of record.
Within sixty days following the public hearing, the chief shall issue and furnish to the permittee and all other parties to the hearing a written decision, and the reasons therefor, concerning suspension or revocation of the permit. If the chief revokes the permit, the permittee immediately shall cease coal mining operations on the permit area and shall complete reclamation within a period specified by the chief, or the chief shall declare as forfeited the performance bonds for the operation.
(E)(1) Whenever an enforcement order or permit decision is issued under this chapter and is appealed under this section or any action is filed under division (B) of section 1513.15 or 1513.39 of the Revised Code, at the request of a prevailing party, a sum equal to the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses, including attorney's fees, as determined to have been necessary and reasonably incurred by the prevailing party for or in connection with participation in the enforcement proceedings before the commission, the court under section 1513.15 of the Revised Code, or the chief under section 1513.39 of the Revised Code, may be awarded, as considered proper, in accordance with divisions (E)(1)(a) to (c) of this section. In no event shall attorney's fees awarded under this section exceed, for the kind and quality of services, the prevailing market rates at the time the services were furnished under division (A) of this section. A party may be entitled to costs and expenses related solely to the preparation, defense, and appeal of a petition for costs and expenses, provided that the costs and expenses are limited and proportionate to costs and expenses otherwise allowed under division (E) of this section.
(a) A party, other than the permittee or the division of mineral resources management, shall may file a petition, if any, for an award of costs and expenses, including attorney's fees, with the chief, who shall review the petition. If the chief finds that the party, other than the permittee or the division, prevailed in whole or in part, made a substantial contribution to a full and fair determination of the issues, and made a contribution separate and distinct from the contribution made by any other party, the chief may award to that party the party's those costs and expenses, including attorney's fees that were necessary and reasonably incurred by the petitioning party for, or in connection with, participation in the proceeding before the commission.
(b) If a permittee who made a request under division (E)(1) of this section demonstrates that a party other than a A permittee who initiated an appeal under this section or participated in such may file, with the chief, a request for an award to the permittee of the costs and expenses, including attorney's fees, reasonably incurred by the permittee in connection with an appeal initiated or participated in the appeal in bad faith and for the purpose of harassing or embarrassing the permittee, the permittee may file a petition with the chief under this section. The chief may award to the permittee the assess those costs and expenses reasonably incurred by the permittee in connection with participation in the appeal and assess those costs and expenses against the a party who initiated or participated in the appeal if the permittee demonstrates that the party initiated or participated in the appeal in bad faith and for the purpose of harassing or embarrassing the permittee.
(c) The division may file, with the commission, a request for an award to the division of the costs and expenses, including attorney's fees, reasonably incurred by the division in connection with an appeal initiated under this section. The commission may assess those costs and expenses against the a party who initiated or participated in the appeal if the division demonstrates that the party initiated or participated in the appeal in bad faith and for the purpose of harassing or embarrassing the division.
(2) Whenever an If a final order involving this chapter is issued by the commission as a decision under division (B) of this section or as a result of any administrative proceeding under this chapter is by a court of common pleas under division (B) of section 1513.15 of the Revised Code or by the chief under section 1513.39 of the Revised Code and the final order becomes the subject of judicial review, at the request of any party, a sum equal to the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses, including attorney's fees, as determined by the court to have been necessary and reasonably incurred by the party for or in connection with participation in the proceedings, may be awarded to either party, in accordance with division (E)(1) of this section, as the court, on the basis of judicial review, considers proper.
Sec. 1513.131.  For the purpose of conducting any public adjudicatory hearing under this chapter or Chapter 1514. of the Revised Code, the chief, of the division of mineral resources management or the reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code may require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, records, and papers, and may, and at the request of any party, shall issue subpoenas for witnesses or subpoenas duces tecum to compel the production of any books, records, papers, or other material relevant to the inquiry, directed to the sheriff of the counties where the witnesses or materials are found, which subpoenas shall be served and returned in the same manner as subpoenas issued by courts of common pleas are served and returned. The fees and mileage of sheriffs and witnesses shall be the same as those allowed by the court of common pleas in criminal cases.
In cases of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served on any person or the refusal of any witness to testify to any matter regarding which the witness may lawfully be interrogated, the court of common pleas of the county in which such disobedience, neglect, or refusal occurs, or any judge thereof, on application of the chief or the commission or any member thereof, shall compel obedience by attachment procedures for contempt as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from the court or a refusal to testify therein.
A witness at any hearing shall testify under oath or affirmation, which the chief or any member of the commission may administer.
Hearing officers designated by the commission shall have the same powers and authority in conducting the hearings as granted to the commission. Whenever a hearing officer conducts a hearing, the officer shall prepare a report setting forth the hearing officer's findings of fact and conclusions of law and a recommendation of the action to be taken by the commission. The hearing officer shall file the report with the secretary of the commission and shall mail a copy by certified mail to the parties. A party may, within fourteen days after receipt of the report, serve and file written objections to the hearing officer's report with the secretary of the commission. Objections shall be specific and state with particularity the grounds therefor. Upon consideration of the objections, the commission may adopt, reject, or modify the report; hear additional evidence; return the report to the hearing officer with instructions; or hear the matter itself.
Sec. 1513.14.  (A) Any party aggrieved or adversely affected by a decision of the reclamation environmental review appeals commission that is made under this chapter or Chapter 1514. of the Revised Code may appeal to the court of appeals for the county in which the activity addressed by the decision of the commission occurred, is occurring, or will occur, which court has exclusive jurisdiction over the appeal. The appeal shall be filed within thirty days of issuance of the decision of the commission. The court shall confine its review to the record certified by the commission. The court may, upon motion, grant such temporary relief as it considers appropriate pending final disposition of the appeal if all of the following apply:
(1) All parties to the appeal have been notified and given an opportunity to be heard on a request for temporary relief.
(2) The person requesting the relief shows that there is a substantial likelihood that the person will prevail on the merits.
(3) The relief will not adversely affect public health or safety or the health or safety of miners or cause significant imminent environmental harm to land, air, or water resources.
The court shall affirm the decision of the commission unless the court determines that it is arbitrary, capricious, or otherwise inconsistent with law, in which case the court shall vacate the decision and remand to the commission for such further proceedings as it may direct.
(B) Any order of the chief of the division of mineral resources management adopting a rule shall be subject to judicial review in the Franklin county court of appeals, which court has exclusive original jurisdiction to review the order. A petition for review of the order shall be filed within thirty days from the date of such order. The petition may be made by any person who participated in the rule-making proceedings and who is aggrieved by the order. The court shall confine its review to the record of the rule-making proceedings. The order shall be affirmed unless the court concludes that the order is arbitrary, capricious, or otherwise inconsistent with law, in which case the court shall vacate the order or portion thereof and remand to the chief for such further proceedings as it may direct.
Sec. 1513.16.  (A) Any permit issued under this chapter to conduct coal mining operations shall require that the operations meet all applicable performance standards of this chapter and such other requirements as the chief of the division of mineral resources management shall adopt by rule. General performance standards shall apply to all coal mining and reclamation operations and shall require the operator at a minimum to do all of the following:
(1) Conduct coal mining operations so as to maximize the utilization and conservation of the solid fuel resource being recovered so that reaffecting the land in the future through coal mining can be minimized;
(2) Restore the land affected to a condition capable of supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting prior to any mining, or higher or better uses of which there is reasonable likelihood, so long as the uses do not present any actual or probable hazard to public health or safety or pose any actual or probable threat of diminution or pollution of the waters of the state, and the permit applicants' declared proposed land uses following reclamation are not considered to be impractical or unreasonable, to be inconsistent with applicable land use policies and plans, to involve unreasonable delay in implementation, or to violate federal, state, or local law;
(3) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, with respect to all coal mining operations, backfill, compact where advisable to ensure stability or to prevent leaching of toxic materials, and grade in order to restore the approximate original contour of the land with all highwalls, spoil piles, and depressions eliminated unless small depressions are needed in order to retain moisture to assist revegetation or as otherwise authorized pursuant to this chapter, provided that if the operator demonstrates that due to volumetric expansion the amount of overburden and the spoil and waste materials removed in the course of the mining operation are more than sufficient to restore the approximate original contour, the operator shall backfill, grade, and compact the excess overburden and other spoil and waste materials to attain the lowest grade, but not more than the angle of repose, and to cover all acid-forming and other toxic materials in order to achieve an ecologically sound land use compatible with the surrounding region in accordance with the approved mining plan. The overburden or spoil shall be shaped and graded in such a way as to prevent slides, erosion, and water pollution and shall be revegetated in accordance with this chapter.
(4) Stabilize and protect all surface areas, including spoil piles affected by the coal mining and reclamation operation, to control erosion and attendant air and water pollution effectively;
(5) Remove the topsoil from the land in a separate layer, replace it on the backfill area, or, if not utilized immediately, segregate it in a separate pile from the spoil, and when the topsoil is not replaced on a backfill area within a time short enough to avoid deterioration of the topsoil, maintain a successful cover by quick-growing plants or other means thereafter so that the topsoil is preserved from wind and water erosion, remains free of any contamination by acid or other toxic material, and is in a usable condition for sustaining vegetation when restored during reclamation. If the topsoil is of insufficient quantity or of poor quality for sustaining vegetation or if other strata can be shown to be more suitable for vegetation requirements, the operator shall remove, segregate, and preserve in a like manner such other strata as are best able to support vegetation.
(6) Restore the topsoil or the best available subsoil that is best able to support vegetation;
(7) For all prime farmlands as identified in division (B)(2)(1)(p) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code to be mined and reclaimed, perform soil removal, storage, replacement, and reconstruction in accordance with specifications established by the secretary of the United States department of agriculture under the "Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977," 91 Stat. 445, 30 U.S.C.A. 1201. The operator, at a minimum, shall be required to do all of the following:
(a) Segregate the A horizon of the natural soil, except where it can be shown that other available soil materials will create a final soil having a greater productive capacity, and, if not utilized immediately, stockpile this material separately from the spoil and provide needed protection from wind and water erosion or contamination by acid or other toxic material;
(b) Segregate the B horizon of the natural soil, or underlying C horizons or other strata, or a combination of such horizons or other strata that are shown to be both texturally and chemically suitable for plant growth and that can be shown to be equally or more favorable for plant growth than the B horizon, in sufficient quantities to create in the regraded final soil a root zone of comparable depth and quality to that which existed in the natural soil, and, if not utilized immediately, stockpile this material separately from the spoil and provide needed protection from wind and water erosion or contamination by acid or other toxic material;
(c) Replace and regrade the root zone material described in division (A)(7)(b) of this section with proper compaction and uniform depth over the regraded spoil material;
(d) Redistribute and grade in a uniform manner the surface soil horizon described in division (A)(7)(a) of this section.
(8) Create, if authorized in the approved mining and reclamation plan and permit, permanent impoundments of water on mining sites as part of reclamation activities only when it is adequately demonstrated by the operator that all of the following conditions will be met:
(a) The size of the impoundment is adequate for its intended purposes.
(b) The impoundment dam construction will be so designed as to achieve necessary stability with an adequate margin of safety compatible with that of structures constructed under the "Watershed Protection and Flood Prevention Act," 68 Stat. 666 (1954), 16 U.S.C. 1001, as amended.
(c) The quality of impounded water will be suitable on a permanent basis for its intended use and discharges from the impoundment will not degrade the water quality below water quality standards established pursuant to applicable federal and state law in the receiving stream.
(d) The level of water will be reasonably stable.
(e) Final grading will provide adequate safety and access for proposed water users.
(f) The water impoundments will not result in the diminution of the quality or quantity of water utilized by adjacent or surrounding landowners for agricultural, industrial, recreational, or domestic uses.
(9) Conduct any augering operation associated with strip mining in a manner to maximize recoverability of mineral reserves remaining after the operation and reclamation are complete and seal all auger holes with an impervious and noncombustible material in order to prevent drainage, except where the chief determines that the resulting impoundment of water in such auger holes may create a hazard to the environment or the public health or safety. The chief may prohibit augering if necessary to maximize the utilization, recoverability, or conservation of the solid fuel resources or to protect against adverse water quality impacts.
(10) Minimize the disturbances to the prevailing hydrologic balance at the mine site and in associated offsite areas and to the quality and quantity of water in surface and ground water systems both during and after coal mining operations and during reclamation by doing all of the following:
(a) Avoiding acid or other toxic mine drainage by such measures as, but not limited to:
(i) Preventing or removing water from contact with toxic producing deposits;
(ii) Treating drainage to reduce toxic content that adversely affects downstream water upon being released to water courses in accordance with rules adopted by the chief in accordance with section 1513.02 of the Revised Code;
(iii) Casing, sealing, or otherwise managing boreholes, shafts, and wells, and keeping acid or other toxic drainage from entering ground and surface waters.
(b)(i) Conducting coal mining operations so as to prevent, to the extent possible using the best technology currently available, additional contributions of suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area, but in no event shall contributions be in excess of requirements set by applicable state or federal laws;
(ii) Constructing any siltation structures pursuant to division (A)(10)(b)(i) of this section prior to commencement of coal mining operations. The structures shall be certified by persons approved by the chief to be constructed as designed and as approved in the reclamation plan.
(c) Cleaning out and removing temporary or large settling ponds or other siltation structures from drainways after disturbed areas are revegetated and stabilized, and depositing the silt and debris at a site and in a manner approved by the chief;
(d) Restoring recharge capacity of the mined area to approximate premining conditions;
(e) Avoiding channel deepening or enlargement in operations requiring the discharge of water from mines;
(f) Such other actions as the chief may prescribe.
(11) With respect to surface disposal of mine wastes, tailings, coal processing wastes, and other wastes in areas other than the mine working areas or excavations, stabilize all waste piles in designated areas through construction in compacted layers, including the use of noncombustible and impervious materials if necessary, and ensure that the final contour of the waste pile will be compatible with natural surroundings and that the site can and will be stabilized and revegetated according to this chapter;
(12) Refrain from coal mining within five hundred feet of active and abandoned underground mines in order to prevent breakthroughs and to protect the health or safety of miners. The chief shall permit an operator to mine near, through, or partially through an abandoned underground mine or closer than five hundred feet to an active underground mine if both of the following conditions are met:
(a) The nature, timing, and sequencing of the approximate coincidence of specific strip mine activities with specific underground mine activities are approved by the chief;.
(b) The operations will result in improved resource recovery, abatement of water pollution, or elimination of hazards to the health and safety of the public.
(13) Design, locate, construct, operate, maintain, enlarge, modify, and remove or abandon, in accordance with the standards and criteria developed pursuant to rules adopted by the chief, all existing and new coal mine waste piles consisting of mine wastes, tailings, coal processing wastes, or other liquid and solid wastes, and used either temporarily or permanently as dams or embankments;
(14) Ensure that all debris, acid-forming materials, toxic materials, or materials constituting a fire hazard are treated or buried and compacted or otherwise disposed of in a manner designed to prevent contamination of ground or surface waters and that contingency plans are developed to prevent sustained combustion;
(15) Ensure that all reclamation efforts proceed in an environmentally sound manner and as contemporaneously as practicable with the coal mining operations, except that where the applicant proposes to combine strip mining operations with underground mining operations to ensure maximum practical recovery of the mineral resources, the chief may grant a variance for specific areas within the reclamation plan from the requirement that reclamation efforts proceed as contemporaneously as practicable to permit underground mining operations prior to reclamation if:
(a) The chief finds in writing that:
(i) The applicant has presented, as part of the permit application, specific, feasible plans for the proposed underground mining operations.
(ii) The proposed underground mining operations are necessary or desirable to ensure maximum practical recovery of the mineral resource and will avoid multiple disturbance of the surface.
(iii) The applicant has satisfactorily demonstrated that the plan for the underground mining operations conforms to requirements for underground mining in this state and that permits necessary for the underground mining operations have been issued by the appropriate authority.
(iv) The areas proposed for the variance have been shown by the applicant to be necessary for the implementing of the proposed underground mining operations.
(v) No substantial adverse environmental damage, either on-site or off-site, will result from the delay in completion of reclamation as required by this chapter.
(vi) Provisions for the off-site storage of spoil will comply with division (A)(21) of this section.
(b) The chief has adopted specific rules to govern the granting of such variances in accordance with this division and has imposed such additional requirements as the chief considers necessary.
(c) Variances granted under this division shall be reviewed by the chief not more than three years from the date of issuance of the permit.
(d) Liability under the bond filed by the applicant with the chief pursuant to section 1513.08 of the Revised Code shall be for the duration of the underground mining operations and until the requirements of this section and section 1513.08 of the Revised Code have been fully complied with.
(16) Ensure that the construction, maintenance, and postmining conditions of access roads into and across the site of operations will control or prevent erosion and siltation, pollution of water, and damage to fish or wildlife or their habitat, or to public or private property;
(17) Refrain from the construction of roads or other access ways up a stream bed or drainage channel or in such proximity to the channel as to seriously alter the normal flow of water;
(18) Establish, on the regraded areas and all other lands affected, a diverse, effective, and permanent vegetative cover of the same seasonal variety native to the area of land to be affected and capable of self-regeneration and plant succession at least equal in extent of cover to the natural vegetation of the area, except that introduced species may be used in the revegetation process where desirable and necessary to achieve the approved postmining land use plan;
(19)(a) Assume the responsibility for successful revegetation, as required by division (A)(18) of this section, for a period of five full years after the last year of augmented seeding, fertilizing, irrigation, or other work in order to ensure compliance with that division, except that when the chief approves a long-term intensive agricultural postmining land use, the applicable five-year period of responsibility for revegetation shall commence at the date of initial planting for that long-term intensive agricultural postmining land use, and except that when the chief issues a written finding approving a long-term intensive agricultural postmining land use as part of the mining and reclamation plan, the chief may grant an exception to division (A)(18) of this section;
(b) On lands eligible for remining, assume the responsibility for successful revegetation, as required by division (A)(18) of this section, for a period of two full years after the last year of augmented seeding, fertilizing, irrigation, or other work in order to ensure compliance with that division.
(20) Protect off-site areas from slides or damage occurring during the coal mining and reclamation operations and not deposit spoil material or locate any part of the operations or waste accumulations outside the permit area;
(21) Place all excess spoil material resulting from coal mining and reclamation operations in such a manner that all of the following apply:
(a) Spoil is transported and placed in a controlled manner in position for concurrent compaction and in such a way as to ensure mass stability and to prevent mass movement.
(b) The areas of disposal are within the bonded permit areas. All organic matter shall be removed immediately prior to spoil placement except in the zoned concept method.
(c) Appropriate surface and internal drainage systems and diversion ditches are used so as to prevent spoil erosion and mass movement.
(d) The disposal area does not contain springs, natural watercourses, or wet weather seeps unless lateral drains are constructed from the wet areas to the main underdrains in such a manner that filtration of the water into the spoil pile will be prevented unless the zoned concept method is used.
(e) If placed on a slope, the spoil is placed upon the most moderate slope among those slopes upon which, in the judgment of the chief, the spoil could be placed in compliance with all the requirements of this chapter and is placed, where possible, upon, or above, a natural terrace, bench, or berm if that placement provides additional stability and prevents mass movement.
(f) Where the toe of the spoil rests on a downslope, a rock toe buttress of sufficient size to prevent mass movement is constructed.
(g) The final configuration is compatible with the natural drainage pattern and surroundings and suitable for intended uses.
(h) Design of the spoil disposal area is certified by a qualified registered professional engineer in conformance with professional standards.
(i) All other provisions of this chapter are met.
(22) Meet such other criteria as are necessary to achieve reclamation in accordance with the purpose of this chapter, taking into consideration the physical, climatological, and other characteristics of the site;
(23) To the extent possible, using the best technology currently available, minimize disturbances and adverse impacts of the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental values, and achieve enhancement of such resources where practicable;
(24) Provide for an undisturbed natural barrier beginning at the elevation of the lowest coal seam to be mined and extending from the outslope for such distance as the chief shall determine to be retained in place as a barrier to slides and erosion.
(B)(1) The chief may permit mining operations for the purposes set forth in division (B)(3) of this section.
(2) When an applicant meets the requirements of divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this section, a permit without regard to the requirement to restore to approximate original contour known as mountain top removal set forth in divisions (A)(3) or (C)(2) and (3) of this section may be granted for the mining of coal where the mining operation will remove an entire coal seam or seams running through the upper fraction of a mountain, ridge, or hill, except as provided in division (B)(4)(a) of this section, by removing all of the overburden and creating a level plateau or a gently rolling contour with no highwalls remaining, and capable of supporting postmining uses in accordance with this division.
(3) In cases where an industrial, commercial, agricultural, residential, or public facility use, including recreational facilities, is proposed for the postmining use of the affected land, the chief may grant a permit for a mining operation of the nature described in division (B)(2) of this section when all of the following apply:
(a) After consultation with the appropriate land use planning agencies, if any, the proposed postmining land use is considered to constitute an equal or better economic or public use of the affected land, as compared with premining use.
(b) The applicant presents specific plans for the proposed postmining land use and appropriate assurances that the use will be all of the following:
(i) Compatible with adjacent land uses;
(ii) Obtainable according to data regarding expected need and market;
(iii) Assured of investment in necessary public facilities;
(iv) Supported by commitments from public agencies where appropriate;
(v) Practicable with respect to private financial capability for completion of the proposed use;
(vi) Planned pursuant to a schedule attached to the reclamation plan so as to integrate the mining operation and reclamation with the postmining land use;
(vii) Designed by a registered engineer in conformity with professional standards established to ensure the stability, drainage, and configuration necessary for the intended use of the site.
(c) The proposed use is consistent with adjacent land uses and existing state and local land use plans and programs.
(d) The chief provides the governing body of the unit of general-purpose local government in which the land is located, and any state or federal agency that the chief, in the chief's discretion, determines to have an interest in the proposed use, an opportunity of not more than sixty days to review and comment on the proposed use.
(e) All other requirements of this chapter will be met.
(4) In granting a permit pursuant to this division, the chief shall require that each of the following is met:
(a) The toe of the lowest coal seam and the overburden associated with it are retained in place as a barrier to slides and erosion.
(b) The reclaimed area is stable.
(c) The resulting plateau or rolling contour drains inward from the outslopes except at specified points.
(d) No damage will be done to natural watercourses.
(e) Spoil will be placed on the mountaintop bench as is necessary to achieve the planned postmining land use, except that all excess spoil material not retained on the mountaintop bench shall be placed in accordance with division (A)(21) of this section.
(f) Stability of the spoil retained on the mountaintop bench is ensured and the other requirements of this chapter are met.
(5) The chief shall adopt specific rules to govern the granting of permits in accordance with divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section and may impose such additional requirements as the chief considers necessary.
(6) All permits granted under divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section shall be reviewed not more than three years from the date of issuance of the permit unless the applicant affirmatively demonstrates that the proposed development is proceeding in accordance with the terms of the approved schedule and reclamation plan.
(C) All of the following performance standards apply to steep-slope coal mining and are in addition to those general performance standards required by this section, except that this division does not apply to those situations in which an operator is mining on flat or gently rolling terrain on which an occasional steep slope is encountered through which the mining operation is to proceed, leaving a plain or predominantly flat area, or where an operator is in compliance with division (B) of this section:
(1) The operator shall ensure that when performing coal mining on steep slopes, no debris, abandoned or disabled equipment, spoil material, or waste mineral matter is placed on the downslope below the bench or mining cut. Spoil material in excess of that required for the reconstruction of the approximate original contour under division (A)(3) or (C)(2) of this section shall be permanently stored pursuant to division (A)(21) of this section.
(2) The operator shall complete backfilling with spoil material to cover completely the highwall and return the site to the approximate original contour, which material will maintain stability following mining and reclamation.
(3) The operator shall not disturb land above the top of the highwall unless the chief finds that the disturbance will facilitate compliance with the environmental protection standards of this section, except that any such disturbance involving land above the highwall shall be limited to that amount of land necessary to facilitate compliance.
(D)(1) The chief may permit variances for the purposes set forth in division (D)(3) of this section, provided that the watershed control of the area is improved and that complete backfilling with spoil material shall be required to cover completely the highwall, which material will maintain stability following mining and reclamation.
(2) Where an applicant meets the requirements of divisions (D)(3) and (4) of this section, a variance from the requirement to restore to approximate original contour set forth in division (C)(2) of this section may be granted for the mining of coal when the owner of the surface knowingly requests in writing, as a part of the permit application, that such a variance be granted so as to render the land, after reclamation, suitable for an industrial, commercial, residential, or public use, including recreational facilities, in accordance with divisions (D)(3) and (4) of this section.
(3) A variance pursuant to division (D)(2) of this section may be granted if:
(a) After consultation with the appropriate land use planning agencies, if any, the potential use of the affected land is considered to constitute an equal or better economic or public use.
(b) The postmining land condition is designed and certified by a registered professional engineer in conformity with professional standards established to ensure the stability, drainage, and configuration necessary for the intended use of the site.
(c) After approval of the appropriate state environmental agencies, the watershed of the affected land is considered to be improved.
(4) In granting a variance pursuant to division (D) of this section, the chief shall require that only such amount of spoil will be placed off the mine bench as is necessary to achieve the planned postmining land use, ensure stability of the spoil retained on the bench, and meet all other requirements of this chapter. All spoil placement off the mine bench shall comply with division (A)(21) of this section.
(5) The chief shall adopt specific rules to govern the granting of variances under division (D) of this section and may impose such additional requirements as the chief considers necessary.
(6) All variances granted under division (D) of this section shall be reviewed not more than three years from the date of issuance of the permit unless the permittee affirmatively demonstrates that the proposed development is proceeding in accordance with the terms of the reclamation plan.
(E) The chief shall establish standards and criteria regulating the design, location, construction, operation, maintenance, enlargement, modification, removal, and abandonment of new and existing coal mine waste piles referred to in division (A)(13) of this section and division (A)(5) of section 1513.35 of the Revised Code. The standards and criteria shall conform to the standards and criteria used by the chief of the United States army corps of engineers to ensure that flood control structures are safe and effectively perform their intended function. In addition to engineering and other technical specifications, the standards and criteria developed pursuant to this division shall include provisions for review and approval of plans and specifications prior to construction, enlargement, modification, removal, or abandonment; performance of periodic inspections during construction; issuance of certificates of approval upon completion of construction; performance of periodic safety inspections; and issuance of notices for required remedial or maintenance work.
(F)(1) The permittee may file a request with the chief for release of a part of a performance bond or deposit under division (F)(3) of this section. Within thirty days after any request for bond or deposit release under this section has been filed with the chief, the operator shall submit a copy of an advertisement placed at least once a week for four successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the locality of the coal mining operation. The advertisement shall be considered part of any bond release application and shall contain a notification of the precise location of the land affected, the number of acres, the permit number and the date approved, the amount of the bond filed and the portion sought to be released, the type and appropriate dates of reclamation work performed, and a description of the results achieved as they relate to the operator's approved reclamation plan and, if applicable, the operator's pollution abatement plan. In addition, as part of any bond release application, the applicant shall submit copies of the letters sent to adjoining property owners, local governmental bodies, planning agencies, and sewage and water treatment authorities or water companies in the locality in which the coal mining and reclamation activities took place, notifying them of the applicant's intention to seek release from the bond.
(2) Upon receipt of a copy of the advertisement and request for release of a bond or deposit under division (F)(3)(c) of this section, the chief, within thirty days, shall conduct an inspection and evaluation of the reclamation work involved. The evaluation shall consider, among other things, the degree of difficulty to complete any remaining reclamation, whether pollution of surface and subsurface water is occurring, the probability of continuation or future occurrence of the pollution, and the estimated cost of abating the pollution. The chief shall notify the permittee in writing of the decision to release or not to release all or part of the performance bond or deposit within sixty days after the filing of the request if no public hearing is held pursuant to division (F)(6) of this section or, if there has been a public hearing held pursuant to division (F)(6) of this section, within thirty days thereafter.
(3) The chief may release the bond or deposit if the reclamation covered by the bond or deposit or portion thereof has been accomplished as required by this chapter and rules adopted under it according to the following schedule:
(a) When the operator completes the backfilling, regrading, and drainage control of a bonded area in accordance with the approved reclamation plan, and, if the area covered by the bond or deposit is one for which an authorization was made under division (E)(7) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code, the operator has complied with the approved pollution abatement plan and all additional requirements established by the chief in rules adopted under section 1513.02 of the Revised Code governing coal mining and reclamation operations on pollution abatement areas, the chief shall grant a release of fifty per cent of the bond or deposit for the applicable permit area.
(b) After resoiling and revegetation have been established on the regraded mined lands in accordance with the approved reclamation plan, the chief shall grant a release in an amount not exceeding thirty-five per cent of the original bond or deposit for all or part of the affected area under the permit. When determining the amount of bond to be released after successful revegetation has been established, the chief shall retain that amount of bond for the revegetated area that would be sufficient for a third party to cover the cost of reestablishing revegetation for the period specified for operator responsibility in this section for reestablishing revegetation. No part of the bond or deposit shall be released under this division so long as the lands to which the release would be applicable are contributing suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the permit area in excess of the requirements of this section or until soil productivity for prime farmlands has returned to equivalent levels of yield as nonmined land of the same soil type in the surrounding area under equivalent management practices as determined from the soil survey performed pursuant to section 1513.07 of the Revised Code. If the area covered by the bond or deposit is one for which an authorization was made under division (E)(7) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code, no part of the bond or deposit shall be released under this division until the operator has complied with the approved pollution abatement plan and all additional requirements established by the chief in rules adopted under section 1513.02 of the Revised Code governing coal mining and reclamation operations on pollution abatement areas. Where a silt dam is to be retained as a permanent impoundment pursuant to division (A)(10) of this section, the portion of bond may be released under this division so long as provisions for sound future maintenance by the operator or the landowner have been made with the chief.
(c) When the operator has completed successfully all coal mining and reclamation activities, including, if applicable, all additional requirements established in the pollution abatement plan approved under division (E)(7) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code and all additional requirements established by the chief in rules adopted under section 1513.02 of the Revised Code governing coal mining and reclamation operations on pollution abatement areas, the chief shall release all or any of the remaining portion of the bond or deposit for all or part of the affected area under a permit, but not before the expiration of the period specified for operator responsibility in this section, except that the chief may adopt rules for a variance to the operator period of responsibility considering vegetation success and probability of continued growth and consent of the landowner, provided that no bond shall be fully released until all reclamation requirements of this chapter are fully met.
(4) If the chief disapproves the application for release of the bond or deposit or portion thereof, the chief shall notify the permittee, in writing, stating the reasons for disapproval and recommending corrective actions necessary to secure the release, and allowing the opportunity for a public adjudicatory hearing.
(5) When any application for total or partial bond release is filed with the chief under this section, the chief shall notify the municipal corporation in which the coal mining operation is located by certified mail at least thirty days prior to the release of all or a portion of the bond.
(6) A person with a valid legal interest that might be adversely affected by release of a bond under this section or the responsible officer or head of any federal, state, or local government agency that has jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to any environmental, social, or economic impact involved in the operation or is authorized to develop and enforce environmental standards with respect to such operations may file written objections to the proposed release from the bond with the chief within thirty days after the last publication of the notice required by division (F)(1) of this section. If written objections are filed and an informal conference is requested, the chief shall inform all interested parties of the time and place of the conference. The date, time, and location of the informal conference shall be advertised by the chief in a newspaper of general circulation in the locality of the coal mining operation proposed for bond release for at least once a week for two consecutive weeks. The informal conference shall be held in the locality of the coal mining operation proposed for bond release or in Franklin county, at the option of the objector, within thirty days after the request for the conference. An electronic or stenographic record shall be made of the conference proceeding unless waived by all parties. The record shall be maintained and shall be accessible to the parties until final release of the performance bond at issue. In the event all parties requesting the informal conference stipulate agreement prior to the requested informal conference and withdraw their request, the informal conference need not be held.
(7) If an informal conference has been held pursuant to division (F)(6) of this section, the chief shall issue and furnish the applicant and persons who participated in the conference with the written decision regarding the release within sixty days after the conference. Within thirty days after notification of the final decision of the chief regarding the bond release, the applicant or any person with an interest that is or may be adversely affected by the decision may appeal the decision to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code.
(G) The chief shall adopt rules governing the criteria for forfeiture of bond, the method of determining the forfeited amount, and the procedures to be followed in the event of forfeiture. Cash received as the result of such forfeiture is the property of the state.
Sec. 1514.021.  (A) A permit holder who wishes to continue surface or in-stream mining operations after the expiration date of the existing permit or renewal permit shall file with the chief of the division of mineral resources management an application for renewal of a surface or in-stream mining permit or renewal permit at least ninety days before the expiration date of the existing permit or renewal permit. The application shall be upon the form that the chief prescribes and provides and shall be accompanied by a permit renewal fee. The amount of the fee for renewal of a surface mining permit or renewal permit shall be one thousand dollars, and the amount of the fee for renewal of an in-stream mining permit or renewal permit shall be five hundred dollars.
(B) Upon receipt of an application for renewal and the permit renewal fee under division (A) of this section, the chief shall notify the applicant to submit a map that is a composite of the information required to be contained in the most recent annual report map under section 1514.03 of the Revised Code and of all surface or in-stream mining and reclamation activities conducted under the existing permit or renewal permit; the annual report required under section 1514.03 of the Revised Code; in the case of an applicant proposing a significant change to the plan of mining and reclamation, as "significant" is defined by rule, a copy of the advertisement that the applicant is required to have published in accordance with section 1514.022 of the Revised Code; and additional maps, plans, and revised or updated information that the chief determines to be necessary for permit renewal. Within sixty days after receipt of this notification, the applicant shall submit all the required information to the chief.
(C)(1) Upon receipt of the information required under division (B) of this section and except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the chief shall approve the application for renewal and issue an order granting a renewal permit unless the chief finds that any of the following applies:
(a) The permit holder's operation is not in substantial or material compliance with this chapter, rules adopted and orders issued under it, and the plan of mining and reclamation under the existing permit or renewal permit.
(b) The permit holder has not provided evidence that a performance bond filed under section 1514.04 of the Revised Code applicable to lands affected under the existing permit or renewal permit will remain effective until released under section 1514.05 of the Revised Code.
(c) The permit holder, any partner if the applicant is a partnership, any officer or director if the applicant is a corporation, or any other person who has a right to control or in fact controls the management of the applicant or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of the applicant has failed substantially or materially to comply or continues to fail to comply with this chapter as provided in section 1514.02 of the Revised Code.
(2) If the application for renewal proposes significant changes to the plan of mining and reclamation, as "significant" is defined by rule, the chief may, but is not required to, approve the application for renewal.
(D) Within sixty days after receiving the information and permit renewal fees required under divisions (A) and (B) of this section, the chief shall approve the application for renewal and issue an order granting a renewal permit, issue an order denying the application, or notify the applicant that the time limit for issuing such an order has been extended. This extension of time shall not exceed sixty days.
(E) If an applicant for a renewal permit has complied with division (A) of this section, the applicant may continue surface or in-stream mining operations under the existing permit or renewal permit after its expiration date until the sixty-day period for filing the information required by the chief under division (B) of this section has expired or until the chief issues an order under division (D) of this section denying the renewal permit.
(F) A permit holder who fails to submit an application and required permit renewal fees within the time prescribed by division (A) of this section shall cease surface or in-stream mining operations on the expiration date of the existing permit or renewal permit. If such a permit holder then submits an application for renewal and the permit renewal fees otherwise required by division (A) of this section on or before the thirtieth day after the expiration date of the expired permit or renewal permit and provides the information required by the chief under division (B) of this section within sixty days after being notified of the information required under that division, the permit holder need not submit the final map and report required by section 1514.03 of the Revised Code until the later of thirty days after the chief issues an order denying the application for renewal or thirty days after the chief's order is affirmed upon appeal under section 1513.13 or 1513.14 of the Revised Code. An applicant under this division who fails to provide the information required by the chief under division (B) of this section within the prescribed time period shall submit the final map and report required by section 1514.03 of the Revised Code within thirty days after the expiration of that prescribed period.
(G) If the chief issues an order denying an application for renewal of a permit or renewal permit after the expiration date of the permit, the permit holder shall cease surface or in-stream mining operations immediately and, within thirty days after the issuance of the order, shall submit the final report and map required under section 1514.03 of the Revised Code. The chief shall state the reasons for denial in the order denying renewal of the application. An applicant may appeal the chief's order denying the renewal under section 1513.13 of the Revised Code and may continue surface or in-stream mining and reclamation operations under the expired permit until the reclamation environmental review appeals commission affirms the chief's order under that section and, if the applicant elects to appeal the order of the commission under section 1513.14 of the Revised Code, until the court of appeals affirms the order.
(H) The approval of an application for renewal under this section authorizes the continuation of an existing surface mining permit or renewal permit for a term of fifteen years from the expiration date of the existing permit.
The approval of an application for renewal under this section authorizes the continuation of an existing in-stream mining permit or renewal permit for a term of two years from the expiration date of the existing permit.
(I) Any renewal permit is subject to all the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted under it.
Sec. 1514.071.  (A) In addition to any other penalties established under this chapter, the chief of the division of mineral resources management may assess a civil penalty against any person who fails to comply with an order issued by the chief under section 1514.07 of the Revised Code by the date specified in the order or as subsequently extended by the chief.
(B) Civil penalties assessed under this section shall not exceed one thousand dollars for each occurrence of noncompliance with an order. Each day of continuing noncompliance, up to a maximum of thirty days, may be deemed a separate occurrence for purposes of penalty assessments. In determining the amount of the assessment, the chief shall consider the seriousness of the noncompliance, the effect of the noncompliance, and the operator's history of noncompliance.
(C) Upon issuance of a notice of noncompliance with an order, the chief shall inform the person to whom the notice of noncompliance is issued of the amount of any civil penalty to be assessed and provide an opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing with the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section 1514.09 1513.13 of the Revised Code. The person charged with the penalty shall have thirty days from receipt of the assessment to pay the penalty in full or, if the person wishes to contest the amount of the penalty, file a petition for review of the assessment with the commission pursuant to section 1514.09 1513.13 of the Revised Code and forward the amount of the penalty to the secretary of the commission as required by this division. Failure to forward the money to the secretary within thirty days after the chief informs the person of the amount of the penalty shall result in a waiver of all legal rights to contest the amount of the penalty.
If, after a hearing, the commission affirms or modifies the amount of the penalty, the person charged with the penalty shall have thirty days after receipt of the written decision to file an appeal from the commission's order in accordance with section 1514.09 1513.14 of the Revised Code.
At the time that the petition for review of the assessment is filed with the secretary, the person shall forward the amount of the penalty to the secretary for placement in the reclamation penalty fund created in division (F)(3) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code. Pursuant to administrative or judicial review of the penalty, the secretary shall do either of the following:
(1) If it is determined that the amount of the penalty should be reduced, within thirty days, remit the appropriate amount of the penalty to the person, with interest, and forward any balance of the penalty, with interest, to the chief for deposit in the surface mining fund created in section 1514.06 of the Revised Code for reclamation of abandoned surface or in-stream mining operations in the state;
(2) If the penalty was not reduced, forward the entire penalty, with interest, to the chief for deposit in the surface mining fund for reclamation of abandoned surface or in-stream mining operations in the state.
(D) Civil penalties owed under this section may be recovered in a civil action brought by the attorney general upon the request of the chief.
Sec. 1514.09.  The reclamation In accordance with procedures established under this chapter and Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code, the environmental review appeals commission established pursuant to in section 1513.05 3745.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the reclamation commission pursuant to this chapter. However, whenever the commission is considering any appeal pertaining to surface or in-stream mining, as distinguished from coal strip mining, the member representing the coal strip mine operators shall be replaced by a person who, by reason of the person's previous vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as a representative of surface or in-stream mine operators, as applicable. The appointment of that person shall be made in accordance with section 1513.05 of the Revised Code, and the person's term shall be concurrent with that of the representative of the coal strip mine operators consider appeals of actions of the chief of the division of mineral resources management under this chapter.
No party to an appeal brought under this section shall be eligible for an award of attorney's fees, costs, or expenses from the commission or any court.
Notwithstanding section 1513.14 of the Revised Code, appeals from an order of the commission pertaining to surface or in-stream mining may be taken to the court of common pleas of the county in which the operation is located, or to the court of common pleas of Franklin county.
Sec. 1514.10.  No person shall:
(A)(1) Engage in surface mining without a permit;
(2) Engage in in-stream mining or conduct an in-stream mining operation without an in-stream mining permit issued by the chief of the division of mineral resources management. A person who, on the effective date of this amendment March 15, 2002, holds a valid permit to conduct in-stream mining that is issued under section 10 of the "Rivers and Harbors Appropriation Act of 1899," 30 Stat. 1151, 33 U.S.C. 403, as amended, shall not be required to obtain an in-stream mining permit from the chief under this chapter until the existing permit expires.
(B) Exceed the limits of a surface or in-stream mining permit or amendment to a permit by mining land contiguous to an area of land affected under a permit or amendment, which contiguous land is not under a permit or amendment;
(C) Purposely misrepresent or omit any material fact in an application for a surface or in-stream mining permit or amendment, an annual or final report, or any hearing or investigation conducted by the chief or the reclamation environmental review appeals commission;
(D) Fail to perform any measure set forth in the approved plan of mining and reclamation that is necessary to prevent damage to adjoining property or to achieve a performance standard required in division (A)(10) of section 1514.02 of the Revised Code, or violate any other requirement of this chapter, a rule adopted thereunder, or an order of the chief;
(E) Conduct surface excavations of minerals within any of the following:
(1) One hundred twenty feet horizontal distance outward from the highwater mark on each bank of an area designated as a wild, scenic, or recreational river area under sections 1517.14 to 1517.18 of the Revised Code or of a portion of a river designated as a component of the national wild and scenic river system under the "Wild and Scenic Rivers Act," 82 Stat. 906 (1968), 16 U.S.C. 1274, as amended;
(2) Seventy-five feet horizontal distance outward from the highwater mark on each bank of a watercourse that drains a surface area of more than one hundred square miles;
(3) Fifty feet horizontal distance outward from the highwater mark on each bank of a watercourse that drains a surface area of more than twenty-five square miles, but fewer than one hundred square miles unless a variance is obtained under rules adopted by the chief.
(F) Conduct any surface mining activity within any of the following:
(1) Seventy-five feet horizontal distance outward from the highwater mark on each bank of an area designated as a wild, scenic, or recreational river area under sections 1517.14 to 1517.18 of the Revised Code or of a portion of a river designated as a component of the national wild and scenic river system under the "Wild and Scenic Rivers Act," 82 Stat. 906 (1968), 16 U.S.C. 1274, as amended;
(2) Seventy-five feet horizontal distance outward from the highwater mark on each bank of a watercourse that drains a surface area of more than one hundred square miles;
(3) Fifty feet horizontal distance outward from the highwater mark on each bank of a watercourse that drains a surface area of more than twenty-five square miles, but fewer than one hundred square miles unless a variance is obtained under rules adopted by the chief.
A person who has been issued a surface mining permit prior to the effective date of this amendment March 15, 2002, may continue to operate under that permit and shall not be subject to the prohibitions established in divisions (E) and (F) of this section until the permit is renewed.
The number of square miles of surface area that a watercourse drains shall be determined by consulting the "gazetteer of Ohio streams," which is a portion of the Ohio water plan inventory published in 1960 by the division of water in the department of natural resources, or its successor, if any.
(G) Engage in any part of a process that is followed in the production of minerals from the bottom of the channel of a watercourse in any of the following circumstances or areas:
(1) In an area designated as a wild, scenic, or recreational river area under sections 1517.14 to 1517.18 of the Revised Code, in a portion of a river designated as a component of the national wild and scenic river system under the "Wild and Scenic Rivers Act," 82 Stat. 906 (1968), 16 U.S.C. 1274, as amended, or within one-half mile upstream of any portion of such an area or component;
(2) During periods other than periods of low flow, as determined by rules adopted under section 1514.08 of the Revised Code;
(3) During critical fish or mussel spawning seasons as determined by the chief of the division of wildlife under Chapter 1531. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it;
(4) In an area known to possess critical spawning habitat for a species of fish or mussel that is on the federal endangered species list established in accordance with the "Endangered Species Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 884, 16 U.S.C. 1531-1543, as amended, or the state endangered species list established in rules adopted under section 1531.25 of the Revised Code.
Division (G) of this section does not apply to the activities described in divisions (M)(1) and (2) of section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1519.05. (A) As used in this section, "local political subdivision" and "nonprofit organization" have the same meanings as in section 164.20 of the Revised Code.
(B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the clean Ohio trail fund. Twelve and one-half per cent of the net proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund.
Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. For two years after the effective date of this section, investment earnings credited to the fund and may be used to pay costs incurred by the director of natural resources in administering this section.
Money in the clean Ohio trail fund shall not be used for the appropriation of land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, easements, or other property through the exercise of the right of eminent domain.
The director shall use moneys in the fund exclusively to provide matching grants to nonprofit organizations and to local political subdivisions for the purposes of purchasing land or interests in land for recreational trails and for the construction of such trails. A matching grant may provide up to seventy-five per cent of the cost of a recreational trail project, and the recipient of the matching grant shall provide not less than twenty-five per cent of that cost.
(C) The director shall establish policies for the purposes of this section. The policies shall establish all of the following:
(1) Procedures for providing matching grants to nonprofit organizations and local political subdivisions for the purposes of purchasing land or interests in land for recreational trails and for the construction of such trails, including, without limitation, procedures for both of the following:
(a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting, accepting, and approving grant applications;
(b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local political subdivisions in the application process.
(2) A requirement that an application for a matching grant for a recreational trail project include a copy of a resolution supporting the project from each county in which the proposed project is to be conducted and whichever of the following is applicable:
(a) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within the geographical boundaries of one township, a copy of a resolution supporting the project from the township;
(b) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within the geographical boundaries of one municipal corporation, a copy of a resolution supporting the project from the municipal corporation;
(c) If the proposed project is to be conducted in more than one, but fewer than five townships or municipal corporations, a copy of a resolution supporting the project from at least one-half of the total number of townships and municipal corporations in which the proposed project is to be conducted;
(d) If the proposed project is to be conducted in five or more municipal corporations, a copy of a resolution supporting the project from at least three-fifths of the total number of townships and municipal corporations in which the proposed project is to be conducted.
(3) Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an applicant in order to receive a matching grant and that emphasize the following:
(a) Synchronization with the statewide trail plan;
(b) Complete regional systems and links to the statewide trail system;
(c) A combination of funds from various state agencies;
(d) The provision of links in urban areas that support commuter access and show economic impact on local communities;
(e) The linkage of population centers with public outdoor recreation areas and facilities;
(f) The purchase of rail lines that are linked to the statewide trail plan;
(g) The preservation of natural corridors.
(4) Items of value, such as in-kind contributions of land, easements or other interests in land, labor, or materials, that may be considered as contributing toward the percentage of the cost of a recreational trails project that must be provided by a matching grant recipient.
Sec. 1521.06.  (A) No dam may be constructed for the purpose of storing, conserving, or retarding water, or for any other purpose, nor shall any dike or levee be constructed for the purpose of diverting or retaining flood water, unless the person or governmental agency desiring the construction has a construction permit for the dam, dike, or levee issued by the chief of the division of water.
A construction permit is not required under this section for:
(1) A dam which that is or will be less than ten feet in height and which that has or will have a storage capacity of not more than fifty acre-feet at the elevation of the top of the dam, as determined by the chief. For the purposes of this section, the height of a dam shall be measured from the natural stream bed or lowest ground elevation at the downstream or outside limit of the dam to the elevation of the top of the dam.
(2) A dam, regardless of height, which that has or will have a storage capacity of not more than fifteen acre-feet at the elevation of the top of the dam, as determined by the chief;
(3) A dam, regardless of storage capacity, which that is or will be six feet or less in height, as determined by the chief;
(4) A dam, dike, or levee which that belongs to a class exempted by the chief;
(5) The repair, maintenance, improvement, alteration, or removal of a dam, dike, or levee which that is subject to section 1521.062 of the Revised Code, unless the construction constitutes an enlargement of the structure as determined by the chief;
(6) A dam or impoundment constructed under Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code.
(B) Before a construction permit may be issued, three copies of the plans and specifications, including a detailed cost estimate, for the proposed construction, prepared by a registered professional engineer, together with the filing fee specified by this section and the bond or other security required by section 1521.061 of the Revised Code, shall be filed with the chief. The detailed estimate of the cost shall include all costs associated with the construction of the dam, dike, or levee, including supervision and inspection of the construction by a registered professional engineer. Except for a political subdivision, the The filing fee shall be based on the detailed cost estimate for the proposed construction as filed with and approved by the chief, and shall be determined by the following schedule unless otherwise provided by rules adopted under this section:
(1) For the first one hundred thousand dollars of estimated cost, a fee of two four per cent;
(2) For the next four hundred thousand dollars of estimated cost, a fee of one and one-half three per cent;
(3) For the next five hundred thousand dollars of estimated cost, a fee of one two per cent;
(4) For all costs in excess of one million dollars, a fee of one-quarter one-half of one per cent.
In no case shall the filing fee be less than two hundred one thousand dollars or more than fifty one hundred thousand dollars. If the actual cost exceeds the estimated cost by more than fifteen per cent, an additional filing fee shall be required equal to the fee determined by the preceding schedule less the original filing fee. The filing fee for a political subdivision shall be two hundred dollars. All fees collected pursuant to this section, and all fines collected pursuant to section 1521.99 of the Revised Code, shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the dam safety fund, which is hereby created. Expenditures from the fund shall be made by the chief for the purpose of administering this section and sections 1521.061 and 1521.062 of the Revised Code.
(C) The chief shall, within thirty days from the date of the receipt of the application, fee, and bond or other security, issue or deny a construction permit for the construction or may issue a construction permit conditioned upon the making of such changes in the plans and specifications for the construction as he the chief considers advisable if he the chief determines that the construction of the proposed dam, dike, or levee, in accordance with the plans and specifications filed, would endanger life, health, or property.
(D) The chief may deny a construction permit if he finds after finding that a dam, dike, or levee built in accordance with the plans and specifications would endanger life, health, or property, because of improper or inadequate design, or for such other reasons as the chief may determine.
In the event the chief denies a permit for the construction of the dam, dike, or levee, or issues a permit conditioned upon a making of changes in the plans or specifications for the construction, he the chief shall state his the reasons therefor and so notify, in writing, the person or governmental agency making the application for a permit. If the permit is denied, the chief shall return the bond or other security to the person or governmental agency making application for the permit.
The decision of the chief conditioning or denying a construction permit is subject to appeal as provided in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. A dam, dike, or levee built substantially at variance from the plans and specifications upon which a construction permit was issued is in violation of this section. The chief may at any time inspect any dam, dike, or levee, or site upon which any dam, dike, or levee is to be constructed, in order to determine whether it complies with this section.
(E) A registered professional engineer shall inspect the construction for which the permit was issued during all phases of construction and shall furnish to the chief such regular reports of his the engineer's inspections as the chief may require. When the chief finds that construction has been fully completed in accordance with the terms of the permit and the plans and specifications approved by him the chief, he the chief shall approve the construction. When one year has elapsed after approval of the completed construction, and the chief finds that within this period no fact has become apparent to indicate that the construction was not performed in accordance with the terms of the permit and the plans and specifications approved by the chief, or that the construction as performed would endanger life, health, or property, he the chief shall release the bond or other security. No bond or other security shall be released until one year after final approval by the chief, unless the dam, dike, or levee has been modified so that it will not retain water and has been approved as nonhazardous after determination by the chief that the dam, dike, or levee as modified will not endanger life, health, or property.
(F) When inspections required by this section are not being performed, the chief shall notify the person or governmental agency to which the permit has been issued that inspections are not being performed by the registered professional engineer and that the chief will inspect the remainder of the construction. Thereafter, the chief shall inspect the construction and the cost of inspection shall be charged against the owner. Failure of the registered professional engineer to submit required inspection reports shall be deemed notice that his the engineer's inspections are not being performed.
(G) The chief may order construction to cease on any dam, dike, or levee which that is being built in violation of the provisions of this section, and may prohibit the retention of water behind any dam, dike, or levee which that has been built in violation of the provisions of this section. The attorney general, upon written request of the chief, may bring an action for an injunction against any person who violates this section or to enforce an order or prohibition of the chief made pursuant to this section.
(H) The chief may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for the design and construction of dams, dikes, and levees for which a construction permit is required by this section or for which periodic inspection is required by section 1521.062 of the Revised Code, for establishing a filing fee schedule in lieu of the schedule established under division (B) of this section, for deposit and forfeiture of bonds and other securities required by section 1521.061 of the Revised Code, for the periodic inspection, operation, repair, improvement, alteration, or removal of all dams, dikes, and levees, as specified in section 1521.062 of the Revised Code, and for establishing classes of dams, dikes, or levees which that are exempt from the requirements of sections 1521.06 and 1521.062 of the Revised Code as being of a size, purpose, or situation which that does not present a substantial hazard to life, health, or property. The chief may, by rule, limit the period during which a construction permit issued under this section is valid. If a construction permit expires before construction is completed, the person or agency shall apply for a new permit, and shall not continue construction until the new permit is issued.
(I) As used in this section and section 1521.063 of the Revised Code, "political subdivision" includes townships, municipal corporations, counties, school districts, municipal universities, park districts, sanitary districts, and conservancy districts and subdivisions thereof.
Sec. 1521.063.  (A) Except for a political subdivision the federal government, the owner of any dam subject to section 1521.062 of the Revised Code shall pay an annual fee, based upon the height of the dam, to the division of water on or before June 30, 1988, and on or before the thirtieth day of June of each succeeding year. The annual fee shall be as follows until otherwise provided by rules adopted under this section:
(1) For any dam classified as a class I dam under rules adopted by the chief of the division of water under section 1521.06 of the Revised Code, thirty dollars plus three ten dollars per foot of height of dam;
(2) For any dam classified as a class II dam under those rules, thirty dollars plus one dollar per foot of height of dam;
(3) For any dam classified as a class III dam under those rules, thirty dollars.
For purposes of this section, the height of a dam is the vertical height, to the nearest foot, as determined by the division under section 1521.062 of the Revised Code. All fees collected under this section shall be deposited in the dam safety fund created in section 1521.06 of the Revised Code. Any owner who fails to pay any annual fee required by this section within sixty days after the due date shall be assessed a penalty of ten per cent of the annual fee plus interest at the rate of one-half per cent per month from the due date until the date of payment.
(B) The chief shall, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules for the collection of fees and the administration, implementation, and enforcement of this section and for the establishment of an annual fee schedule in lieu of the schedule established under division (A) of this section.
(C)(1) No person, political subdivision, or state governmental agency shall violate or fail to comply with this section or any rule or order adopted or issued under it.
(2) The attorney general, upon written request of the chief, may commence an action against any such violator. Any action under division (C)(2) of this section is a civil action.
(D) As used in this section, "political subdivision" includes townships, municipal corporations, counties, school districts, municipal universities, park districts, sanitary districts, and conservancy districts and subdivisions thereof.
Sec. 1531.26.  There is hereby created in the state treasury the nongame and endangered wildlife fund, which shall consist of moneys paid into it by the tax commissioner under section 5747.113 of the Revised Code, moneys deposited in the fund from the issuance of wildlife conservation license plates under section 4503.57 of the Revised Code, moneys deposited in the fund from the issuance of bald eagle license plates under section 4503.572 of the Revised Code, moneys credited to the fund under section 1533.151 of the Revised Code, and of contributions made directly to it. Any person may contribute directly to the fund in addition to or independently of the income tax refund contribution system established in section 5747.113 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the fund shall be disbursed pursuant to vouchers approved by the director of natural resources for use by the division of wildlife solely for the purchase, management, preservation, propagation, protection, and stocking of wild animals that are not commonly taken for sport or commercial purposes, including the acquisition of title and easements to lands, biological investigations, law enforcement, production of educational materials, sociological surveys, habitat development, and personnel and equipment costs; and for carrying out section 1531.25 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the fund also may be used to promote and develop nonconsumptive wildlife recreational opportunities involving wild animals. Moneys in the fund from the issuance of bald eagle license plates under section 4503.572 of the Revised Code shall be expended by the division only to pay the costs of acquiring, developing, and restoring habitat for bald eagles within this state. Moneys in the fund from any other source also may be used to pay the costs of acquiring, developing, and restoring habitat for bald eagles within this state.
All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. Subject to the approval of the director, the chief of the division of wildlife may enter into agreements that the chief considers appropriate to obtain additional moneys for the protection of nongame native wildlife under the "Endangered Species Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 884, 16 U.S.C.A. 1541-1543, as amended, and the "Fish and Wildlife Conservation Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 1322, 16 U.S.C.A. 2901-2911, as amended. Moneys appropriated from the fund are not intended to replace other moneys appropriated for these purposes.
Sec. 1533.08.  Except as otherwise provided by division rule, any person desiring to collect wild animals that are protected by law or their nests or eggs for scientific study, school instruction, other educational uses, or rehabilitation shall make application to the chief of the division of wildlife for a wild animal collecting permit on a form furnished by the chief. Each applicant for a wild animal collecting permit, other than an applicant desiring to rehabilitate wild animals, shall pay an annual fee of ten twenty-five dollars for each permit. No fee shall be charged to an applicant desiring to rehabilitate wild animals. When it appears that the application is made in good faith, the chief shall issue to the applicant a permit to take, possess, and transport at any time and in any manner specimens of wild animals protected by law or their nests and eggs for scientific study, school instruction, other educational uses, or rehabilitation and under any additional rules recommended by the wildlife council. Upon the receipt of a permit, the holder may take, possess, and transport those wild animals in accordance with the permit.
Each holder of a permit engaged in collecting such wild animals shall carry the permit at all times and shall exhibit it upon demand to any wildlife officer, constable, sheriff, deputy sheriff, or police officer, to the owner or person in lawful control of the land upon which the permit holder is collecting, or to any other person. Failure to so carry or exhibit the permit constitutes an offense under this section.
Each permit holder shall keep a daily record of all specimens collected under the permit and the disposition of the specimens and shall exhibit the daily record to any official of the division upon demand.
Each permit shall remain in effect for one year from the date of issuance unless it is revoked sooner by the chief.
All moneys received as fees for the issuance of a wild animal collecting permit shall be transmitted to the director of natural resources to be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the fund created by section 1533.15 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1533.10.  Except as provided in this section or division (A) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person shall hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped without a hunting license. Each day that any person hunts within the state without procuring such a license constitutes a separate offense. Every Except as otherwise provided in this section, every applicant for a hunting license who is a resident of the state and sixteen years of age or more shall procure a resident hunting license, the fee for which shall be fourteen eighteen dollars, unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident hunting license to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a special senior hunting license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. Every applicant who is a resident of the state and under the age of sixteen years shall procure a special youth hunting license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. The owner of lands in the state and the owner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on the lands without a hunting license. The tenant or manager and children of the tenant or manager, residing on lands in the state, may hunt on them without a hunting license. Every applicant for a hunting license who is a nonresident of the state shall procure a nonresident hunting license, the fee for which shall be ninety one hundred twenty-four dollars, unless the applicant is a resident of a state that is a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 of the Revised Code, in which case the fee shall be fourteen eighteen dollars.
The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a tourist's small game hunting license expiring three days from the effective date of the license to a nonresident of the state, the fee for which shall be twenty-four thirty-nine dollars. No person shall take or possess deer, wild turkeys, fur-bearing animals, ducks, geese, brant, or any nongame animal while possessing only a tourist's small game hunting license. A tourist's small game hunting license does not authorize the taking or possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without having obtained, in addition to the tourist's small game hunting license, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code. A tourist's small game hunting license does not authorize the taking or possessing of deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals. A nonresident of the state who wishes to take or possess deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals in this state shall procure, respectively, a special deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code or a fur taker permit as provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code in addition to a nonresident hunting license as provided in this section.
No person shall procure or attempt to procure a hunting license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false statement.
This section does not authorize the taking and possessing of deer or wild turkeys without first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required by this section, a special deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code or the taking and possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required by this section, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code.
This section does not authorize the hunting or trapping of fur-bearing animals without first having obtained, in addition to a hunting license required by this section, a fur taker permit as provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code.
No hunting license shall be issued unless it is accompanied by a written explanation of the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code and the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed.
No hunting license shall be issued unless the applicant presents to the agent authorized to issue the license a previously held hunting license or evidence of having held such a license in content and manner approved by the chief, a certificate of completion issued upon completion of a hunter education and conservation course approved by the chief, or evidence of equivalent training in content and manner approved by the chief.
No person shall issue a hunting license to any person who fails to present the evidence required by this section. No person shall purchase or obtain a hunting license without presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this section. Issuance of a hunting license in violation of the requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser of the illegally obtained hunting license and the clerk or agent who issued the hunting license. Any hunting license issued in violation of this section is void.
The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall adopt rules prescribing a hunter education and conservation course for first-time hunting license buyers and for volunteer instructors. The course shall consist of subjects including, but not limited to, hunter safety and health, use of hunting implements, hunting tradition and ethics, the hunter and conservation, the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code along with the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed, and other law relating to hunting. Authorized personnel of the division or volunteer instructors approved by the chief shall conduct such courses with such frequency and at such locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the needs of license applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate of completion to each person who successfully completes the course and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.
Sec. 1533.101.  Any person who has been issued a hunting or fishing license, a wetlands habitat stamp, a deer or wild turkey permit, or a fur taker permit for the current license, stamp, or permit year or for the license, stamp, or permit year next preceding the current such year pursuant to this chapter, and if the license, stamp, or permit has been lost, destroyed, or stolen, may be issued a reissued hunting or fishing license, wetlands habitat stamp, deer or wild turkey permit, or fur taker permit. The person shall file with the clerk of the court of common pleas an application in affidavit form or, if the chief of the division of wildlife authorizes it, apply for a reissued license, stamp, or permit to an authorized agent designated by the chief, and pay a fee for each license, stamp, or permit of two four dollars plus one dollar to the clerk or agent, who shall issue a reissued license, stamp, or permit that shall allow the applicant to hunt, fish, or trap, as the case may be. The clerk or agent shall administer the oath to the applicant and shall send a copy of the reissued license, stamp, or permit to the division of wildlife.
All moneys received as fees for the issuance of reissued licenses, stamps, or permits shall be transmitted to the director of natural resources to be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the funds to which the fees for the original licenses, stamps, and permits were credited.
No person shall knowingly or willfully secure, attempt to secure, or use a reissued hunting or fishing license, wetlands habitat stamp, deer or wild turkey permit, or fur taker permit to which the person is not entitled. No person shall knowingly or willfully issue a reissued hunting or fishing license, wetlands habitat stamp, deer or wild turkey permit, or fur taker permit under this section to any person who is not entitled to receive and use such a reissued license, stamp, or permit.
Sec. 1533.11.  (A) Except as provided in this section, no person shall hunt deer on lands of another without first obtaining an annual special deer permit. Except as provided in this section, no person shall hunt wild turkeys on lands of another without first obtaining an annual special wild turkey permit. Each applicant for a special deer or wild turkey permit shall pay an annual fee of nineteen twenty-three dollars for each permit, together with the one-dollar as a fee to the clerk or other issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code, for the permit unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a deer or wild turkey permit to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in division (A) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, a deer or wild turkey permit shall run concurrently with the hunting license. The money received, other than the one-dollar issuing agent's fee provided for above, shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund, created in section 1531.17 of the Revised Code, exclusively for the use of the division of wildlife in the acquisition and development of land for deer or wild turkey management, for investigating deer or wild turkey problems, and for the stocking, management, and protection of deer or wild turkey. Every person, while hunting deer or wild turkey on lands of another, shall carry the person's special deer or wild turkey permit and exhibit it to any enforcement officer so requesting. Failure to so carry and exhibit such a permit constitutes an offense under this section. The chief of the division of wildlife shall adopt any additional rules the chief considers necessary to carry out this section and section 1533.10 of the Revised Code.
The owner and the children of the owner of lands in this state may hunt deer or wild turkey thereon without a special deer or wild turkey permit. The tenant or manager and children of the tenant or manager may hunt deer or wild turkey on lands where they reside without a special deer or wild turkey permit.
(B) A special deer or wild turkey permit is not transferable. No person shall carry a special deer or wild turkey permit issued in the name of another person.
(C) The wildlife refunds fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money received from application fees for special deer permits that are not issued. Money in the fund shall be used to make refunds of such application fees.
Sec. 1533.111.  Except as provided in this section or division (A) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person shall hunt or trap fur-bearing animals on land of another without first obtaining an annual fur taker permit. Each applicant for a fur taker permit shall pay an annual fee of ten fourteen dollars, together with one dollar as a fee to the clerk or other issuing agent, for the permit, except as otherwise provided in this section or unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a fur taker permit to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a special senior fur taker permit, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular fur taker permit fee and which shall be paid together with the one-dollar fee to the clerk or other issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code. Each applicant who is a resident of the state and under the age of sixteen years shall procure a special youth fur taker permit, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular fur taker permit fee and which shall be paid together with the one-dollar as a fee to the clerk or other issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code. The fur taker permit shall run concurrently with the hunting license. The money received, other than the one- dollar issuing agent's fee provided for in this section, shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the fund established in section 1533.15 of the Revised Code.
No fur taker permit shall be issued unless it is accompanied by a written explanation of the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code and the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed.
No fur taker permit shall be issued unless the applicant presents to the agent authorized to issue a fur taker permit a previously held hunting license or trapping or fur taker permit or evidence of having held such a license or permit in content and manner approved by the chief of the division of wildlife, a certificate of completion issued upon completion of a trapper education course approved by the chief, or evidence of equivalent training in content and manner approved by the chief.
No person shall issue a fur taker permit to any person who fails to present the evidence required by this section. No person shall purchase or obtain a fur taker permit without presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this section. Issuance of a fur taker permit in violation of the requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser of the illegally obtained permit and the clerk or agent who issued the permit. Any fur taker permit issued in violation of this section is void.
The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall adopt rules prescribing a trapper education course for first-time fur taker permit buyers and for volunteer instructors. The course shall consist of subjects that include, but are not limited to, trapping techniques, animal habits and identification, trapping tradition and ethics, the trapper and conservation, the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code along with the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed, and other law relating to trapping. Authorized personnel of the division of wildlife or volunteer instructors approved by the chief shall conduct the courses with such frequency and at such locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the needs of permit applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate of completion to each person who successfully completes the course and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.
Every person, while hunting or trapping fur-bearing animals on lands of another, shall carry the person's fur taker permit affixed to the person's hunting license with the person's signature written across the face of the permit. Failure to carry such a signed permit constitutes an offense under this section. The chief shall adopt any additional rules the chief considers necessary to carry out this section.
The owner and the children of the owner of lands in this state may hunt or trap fur-bearing animals thereon without a fur taker permit. The tenant or manager and children of the tenant or manager may hunt or trap fur-bearing animals on lands where they reside without a fur taker permit.
A fur taker permit is not transferable. No person shall carry a fur taker permit issued in the name of another person.
A fur taker permit entitles a nonresident to take from this state fur-bearing animals taken and possessed by the nonresident as provided by law or division rule.
Sec. 1533.112.  Except as provided in this section or unless otherwise provided by division rule, no person shall hunt ducks, geese, or brant on the lands of another without first obtaining an annual wetlands habitat stamp. The annual fee for the wetlands habitat stamp shall be ten fourteen dollars for each stamp, together with the one-dollar as a fee to the clerk or other issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code, unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 provide for issuance of a wetlands habitat stamp to the applicant free of charge.
Moneys received from the stamp fee, other than the one- dollar clerk's issuing agent's fee, shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the wetlands habitat fund, which is hereby established. Moneys shall be paid from the fund on the order of the director of natural resources for the following purposes:
(A) Sixty per cent for projects that the division approves for the acquisition, development, management, or preservation of waterfowl areas within the state;
(B) Forty per cent for contribution by the division to an appropriate nonprofit organization for the acquisition, development, management, or preservation of lands and waters within the United States or Canada that provide or will provide habitat for waterfowl with migration routes that cross this state.
No moneys derived from the issuance of wetlands habitat stamps shall be spent for purposes other than those specified by this section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.
Wetlands habitat stamps shall be furnished by and in a form prescribed by the chief of the division of wildlife and issued by clerks and other agents authorized to issue licenses and permits under section 1533.13 of the Revised Code. The record of stamps kept by the clerks and other agents shall be uniform throughout the state, in such form or manner as the director prescribes, and open at all reasonable hours to the inspection of any person. Unless otherwise provided by rule, each stamp shall remain in force until midnight of the thirty-first day of August next ensuing. Wetlands habitat stamps may be issued in any manner to any person on any date, whether or not that date is within the period in which they are effective.
Every person to whom this section applies, while hunting ducks, geese, or brant, shall carry an unexpired wetlands habitat stamp that is validated by the person's signature written on the stamp in ink and shall exhibit the stamp to any enforcement officer so requesting. No person shall fail to carry and exhibit the person's stamp.
A wetlands habitat stamp is not transferable.
The chief shall establish a procedure to obtain subject matter to be printed on the wetlands habitat stamp and shall use, dispose of, or distribute the subject matter as the chief considers necessary. The chief also shall adopt rules necessary to administer this section.
This section does not apply to persons under sixteen years of age nor to persons exempted from procuring a hunting license under section 1533.10 or division (A) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1533.12.  (A) Every person on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, while on leave or furlough, may take or catch fish of the kind lawfully permitted to be taken or caught within the state, may hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped lawfully permitted to be hunted within the state, and may trap fur-bearing animals lawfully permitted to be trapped within the state, without procuring a fishing license, a hunting license, a fur taker permit, or a wetlands habitat stamp required by this chapter, provided that the person shall carry on self the person when fishing, hunting, or trapping, a card or other evidence identifying the person as being on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, and provided that the person is not otherwise violating any of the hunting, fishing, and trapping laws of this state.
In order to hunt deer or wild turkey, any such person shall obtain a special deer or wild turkey permit, as applicable, under section 1533.11 of the Revised Code. However, the person need not obtain a hunting license in order to obtain such a permit.
(B) The chief of the division of wildlife shall provide by rule adopted under section 1531.10 of the Revised Code all of the following:
(1) Every resident of this state with a disability that has been determined by the veterans administration to be permanently and totally disabling, who receives a pension or compensation from the veterans administration, and who received an honorable discharge from the armed forces of the United States, and every veteran to whom the registrar of motor vehicles has issued a set of license plates under section 4503.41 of the Revised Code, shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.
(2) Every resident of the state who is sixty-six years of age or older was born on or before December 31, 1937, shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.
(3) Every resident of state or county institutions, charitable institutions, and military homes in this state shall be issued an annual fishing license free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.
(4) Any mobility impaired or blind person, as defined in section 955.011 of the Revised Code, who is a resident of this state and who is unable to engage in fishing without the assistance of another person shall be issued an annual fishing license free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief. The person who is assisting the mobility impaired or blind person may assist in taking or catching fish of the kind permitted to be taken or caught without procuring the license required under section 1533.32 of the Revised Code, provided that only one line is used by both persons.
(5) As used in division (B)(5) of this section, "prisoner of war" means any regularly appointed, enrolled, enlisted, or inducted member of the military forces of the United States who was captured, separated, and incarcerated by an enemy of the United States.
Any person who has been a prisoner of war, was honorably discharged from the military forces, and is a resident of this state shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.
(C) The chief shall adopt rules pursuant to section 1531.08 of the Revised Code designating not more than two days, which need not be consecutive, in each year as "free sport fishing days" on which any resident may exercise the privileges accorded the holder of a fishing license issued under section 1533.32 of the Revised Code without procuring such a license, provided that the person is not otherwise violating any of the fishing laws of this state.
Sec. 1533.13.  Hunting and fishing licenses, wetlands habitat stamps, deer and wild turkey permits, and fur taker permits shall be issued by the clerk of the court of common pleas, village and township clerks, and other authorized agents designated by the chief of the division of wildlife. When required by the chief, a clerk or agent shall give bond in the manner provided by the chief. All bonds, reports, except records prescribed by the auditor of state, and moneys received by those persons shall be handled under rules adopted by the director of natural resources.
The premium of any bond prescribed by the chief under this section may be paid by the chief. Any person who is designated and authorized by the chief to issue licenses, stamps, and permits as provided in this section, except the clerk of the court of common pleas and the village and township clerks, shall pay to the chief a premium in an amount that represents the person's portion of the premium paid by the chief under this section, which amount shall be established by the chief and approved by the wildlife council created under section 1531.03 of the Revised Code. The chief shall pay all moneys that the chief receives as premiums under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund created under section 1531.17 of the Revised Code.
Every authorized agent, for the purpose of issuing hunting and fishing licenses, deer and wild turkey permits, and fur taker permits, may administer oaths to and take affidavits from applicants for the licenses or permits when required. An authorized agent may appoint deputies to perform any acts that the agent is authorized to perform, consistent with division rules.
Every applicant for a hunting or fishing license, deer or wild turkey permit, or fur taker permit, unless otherwise provided by division rule, shall make and subscribe an affidavit setting forth the applicant's name, age, weight, height, occupation, place of residence, personal description, and citizenship. The clerk or other agent authorized to issue licenses, stamps, and permits shall charge each applicant a fee of one dollar for taking the affidavit and issuing the license, stamp, or permit unless a different fee for the issuance of a fishing license is established in division rule as authorized by section 1533.32 of the Revised Code. The application, license, permit, and other blanks required by this section shall be prepared and furnished by the chief, in such form as the chief provides, to the clerk or other agent authorized to issue them. The licenses and permits shall be issued to applicants by the clerk or other agent. The record of licenses and permits kept by the clerk and other authorized agents shall be uniform throughout the state and in such form or manner as the auditor of state prescribes and shall be open at all reasonable hours to the inspection of any person. Unless otherwise provided by division rule, each hunting license, deer or wild turkey permit, and fur taker permit issued shall remain in force until midnight of the thirty-first day of August next ensuing. Application for any such license or permit may be made and a license or permit issued prior to the date upon which it becomes effective.
The chief may require an applicant who wishes to purchase a license, stamp, or permit by mail or telephone to pay a nominal fee for postage and handling.
The court before whom a violator of any laws or division rules for the protection of wild animals is tried, as a part of the punishment, shall revoke the license, stamp, or permit of any person convicted. The license, stamp, or permit fee paid by that person shall not be returned to the person. The person shall not procure or use any other license, stamp, or permit or engage in hunting wild animals or trapping fur-bearing animals during the period of revocation as ordered by the court.
No person under sixteen years of age shall engage in hunting unless accompanied by the person's parent or another adult person.
Sec. 1533.151.  The chief of the division of wildlife, with the approval of the director of natural resources, is hereby authorized to may print and issue stamps portraying wild animals of the state. This stamp shall be identified as a wildlife conservation stamp and the. The fee for each stamp shall be five dollars not more than the fee for a wetlands habitat stamp issued under section 1533.112 of the Revised Code together with the one-dollar fee to the issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code unless otherwise provided by division rule.
The purchase of wildlife conservation stamps shall provide no privileges to the purchaser, but merely recognizes such the person as voluntarily contributing to the management, protection, and the perpetuation of the wildlife resources of the state. All moneys received from the sale of wildlife conservation stamps shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the nongame and endangered wildlife fund to be used exclusively by the division of wildlife for the purposes outlined in section 1533.15 1531.26 of the Revised Code and for the management of all forms of wildlife for its ecological and non-consumptive recreational value.
Sec. 1533.19.  Except as otherwise provided by division rule, recognized field trial clubs may shoot domestically raised quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, or other game birds and common pigeons at any time during the daylight hours from the first day of September to the thirtieth day of April of the following year, both dates inclusive. Such domestically raised quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, and other game birds shall be banded prior to release and approved by the division of wildlife for field trial use, provided that permission for the holding of such a trial shall be obtained from the division. Permission shall be requested in writing at least thirty days in advance of the trial. The request shall contain the name of the recognized field trial club and the names of its officers, the date and location of the trial, and the name of the licensed breeders from whom the quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, or other game birds will be obtained. The division may grant a written permit when it is satisfied that the trial is a bona fide one conducted by a bona fide club under this section. When an application is approved, a permit shall be issued after the payment of a fee of twenty-five fifty dollars for each day upon which the trials are conducted. Participants in such trials need not possess a hunter's license while participating in the trials. The division shall supervise all such trials and shall enforce all laws and division rules governing them. If unbanded quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, or other game birds are accidentally shot during such trials, they immediately shall be replaced by the club by the releasing of an equal number of live quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, or other game birds under the supervision of the division.
Sec. 1533.23.  No person shall deal in or buy green or dried furs, skins, or parts thereof, taken from fur-bearing animals of the state, except domesticated rabbits, without a fur dealer's permit. Every applicant for a fur dealer's permit shall make and subscribe a statement setting forth his the applicant's name, place of residence, and whom he the applicant represents. Every applicant for a dealer's permit who is a nonresident of the state, or who is a resident of the state and is an agent or representative of a nonresident person, firm, or corporation, shall pay an annual fee of two hundred dollars to the chief of the division of wildlife issuing such permit, and every applicant for a dealer's permit who is a resident of the state shall pay an annual fee of fifty seventy-five dollars to the chief of the division of wildlife issuing such permit, and every. Every fur dealer shall operate under such additional regulations rules as are provided by the chief of the division of wildlife. The chief shall pay such the fees into the state treasury to the credit of the fund created by section 1533.15 of the Revised Code for the use of the division of wildlife in the purchase, preservation, protection, and stocking of fur-bearing animals and for the necessary clerical help and forms required by this section and section 1533.24 of the Revised Code.
All permits shall be procured from the chief and the application, license, and other blanks required by this section and section 1533.24 of the Revised Code shall be in such form as the chief prescribes. Each such permit shall expire on the thirtieth day of April next after its issuance.
Sec. 1533.301.  Any person may apply for a permit to transport fish that are for sale, sold, or purchased. The chief of the division of wildlife shall issue an annual permit granting the applicant the privilege to transport such fish, upon filing of an application on a form prescribed by the chief and payment of a fee of fifty sixty-five dollars. No person shall transport any fish or part thereof that is for sale, sold, or purchased, whether acquired in or outside this state, unless the consignor has a permit issued to him for the calendar year in which the fish is transported, except that no such permit is required for any of the following:
(A) Fish transported from a point outside this state to another point outside this state if the fish are not unloaded in this state. A fish is not to be considered unloaded for purposes of this section if it remains under the control of a common carrier.
(B) Fish being transported by a person holding a valid license under section 1533.34 of the Revised Code from the place of taking to his the person's usual place of processing or temporary storage as designated by him the person in the application for the license under that section;
(C) Fish being transported from a premises designated in a valid permit issued under section 1533.631 of the Revised Code to a premises where fish are to be sold at retail, sold for immediate consumption, or consumed if inspection of the designated premises as required by that section has not been denied during the preceding thirty days;
(D) Any quantity of fish the total weight of which does not exceed five hundred pounds in one vehicle;
(E) Minnows for which a permit is required under section 1533.40 of the Revised Code.
If a fish for which a permit is required under this section is transported in this state from a consignor who does not have a valid permit at the time of transportation, or if such a fish is transported in this state from a consignor who has a valid permit at the time of transportation, but the fish is part of the contents of a box, package, or receptacle that was or could be the basis for conviction of a violation of this chapter or a division rule, the fish may be seized by any law enforcement officer authorized by section 1531.13 of the Revised Code to enforce laws and division rules, and the fish shall escheat to the state unless a court of this state makes a specific finding that the consignor at the time of seizure had a valid permit under this section 1533.301 of the Revised Code and that the fish are lawful under the requirements of this chapter or a division rule relating thereto.
A fish for which a permit is required under this section may be transported only if each box, package, or other receptacle bears a label showing the total weight in pounds, the species of the fish, the name of the consignor and consignee, the initial point of billing, the destination, and a statement that each species of fish by weight in the box, package, or other receptacle that are undersized under the provisions of section 1533.63 of the Revised Code or division rule is ten per cent or less or is in excess of ten per cent, whichever the fact may be. If fish are not boxed or packaged, each compartment of a tank or other receptacle shall be considered a separate receptacle, but in lieu of a label on the compartment or tank a written statement containing the same information required to be contained on a label, and clearly identifying the tank or receptacle concerned, may be carried in the vehicle. Species may be designated in any manner, but the label also shall bear either the common name indicated in section 1533.63 of the Revised Code or the scientific name contained in section 1531.01 of the Revised Code. The consignor shall ascertain that labels are attached or statements carried as required herein and that the facts stated thereon are true.
The permit required by this section may be suspended by the chief for a period not to exceed five days upon conviction of the permittee of a violation of this chapter or Chapter 1531. of the Revised Code or a division rule if the permittee has been convicted of another such violation during the preceding twelve-month period. If the permittee has had two or more such convictions during the twelve-month period preceding such a conviction, his the permittee's permit may be suspended as provided herein for a period not to exceed twenty days. A permit is invalid during the period of suspension, but in no case is a permit invalid until fifteen days after mailing by certified mail a notice of the rule of suspension by the chief.
The chief may not suspend more than one permit of the same permittee, or suspend a permit of the same permittee more than once, for convictions resulting from violations that occur in a load in one vehicle.
A driver or other person in charge of a vehicle transporting fish that are for sale, sold, or purchased, upon demand by any law enforcement officer authorized by section 1531.13 of the Revised Code to enforce laws and division rules, shall stop and open the vehicle and allow inspection of the load, and any box, package, or receptacle, and the contents thereof, for the purpose of determining whether this chapter or a division rule is being violated.
The word "fish" in the English language, at least eight inches high and maintained in a clear, conspicuous, and legible condition at all times, shall appear on both sides of the vehicle body of all vehicles transporting fresh water fish in this state when the fish are for sale or sold, except those fish exempt from a transportation permit in divisions (A), (B), and (E) of this section.
The chief may refuse to issue a permit to any person whose purpose in applying for the permit is to allow it to be used by another person to whom a permit has been refused or revoked. The chief also may revoke a person's permit when it is used for that purpose.
No civil action may be brought in any court in the state for the value or agreed price of fish that have escheated to the state under this section.
No person shall fail to comply with any provision of this section or a division rule adopted pursuant thereto.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised Code, the permit of any person who is convicted of two violations of this section that occurred within a twelve-month period is suspended upon the second such conviction by operation of law for a period of five fishing season days immediately following that conviction.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised Code, the permit of any person who is convicted of three or more violations of this section that occurred within a twelve-month period is suspended upon the third or subsequent conviction by operation of law for a period of twenty fishing season days immediately following that conviction.
During any period of suspension, no person shall use or engage in hauling or transporting fish with equipment owned, used, or controlled at the time of conviction by the permittee whose permit has been suspended.
Sec. 1533.32.  Except as provided in this section or division (A) or (C) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person, including nonresidents, shall take or catch any fish by angling in any of the waters in the state or engage in fishing in those waters without a license. No person shall take or catch frogs or turtles without a valid fishing license, except as provided in this section. Persons fishing in privately owned ponds, lakes, or reservoirs to or from which fish are not accustomed to migrate are exempt from the license requirements set forth in this section. Persons fishing in privately owned ponds, lakes, or reservoirs that are open to public fishing through an agreement or lease with the division of wildlife shall comply with the license requirements set forth in this section.
The fee for an annual license shall be twenty-three thirty-nine dollars, unless otherwise provided by division rule, for a resident of a state that is not a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 of the Revised Code. The fee for an annual license shall be fourteen eighteen dollars, unless otherwise provided by division rule, for a resident of a state that is a party to such an agreement. The fee for an annual license for residents of this state shall be fourteen eighteen dollars unless otherwise provided by division rule or unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident fishing license to the applicant free of charge.
Any person under the age of sixteen years may take or catch frogs and turtles and take or catch fish by angling without a license. Any Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older may take or catch frogs and turtles without shall procure a special senior fishing license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the annual resident fishing license fee.
The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a tourist's license expiring three days from the effective date of the license to a resident of a state that is not a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 of the Revised Code. The fee for a tourist's license shall be fourteen eighteen dollars unless otherwise provided by division rule.
The chief shall adopt rules under section 1531.10 of the Revised Code providing for the issuance of a one-day fishing license to a resident of this state or of any other state. The fee for such a license shall be forty fifty-five per cent of the amount established under this section for a tourist's license, rounded up to the nearest whole dollar. A one-day fishing license shall allow the holder to take or catch fish by angling in the waters in the state, engage in fishing in those waters, or take or catch frogs or turtles in those waters for one day without obtaining an annual license or a tourist's license under this section. At the request of a holder of a one-day fishing license who wishes to obtain an annual license, a clerk or agent authorized to issue licenses under section 1533.13 of the Revised Code, not later than the last day on which the one-day license would be valid if it were an annual license, shall credit the amount of the fee paid for the one-day license toward the fee charged for the annual license if so authorized by the chief. The clerk or agent shall issue the annual license upon presentation of the one-day license and payment of a fee in an amount equal to the difference between the fee for the annual license and the fee for the one-day license.
A fee of one dollar for each license issued under this section shall be paid to the issuing clerk or agent in accordance with section 1533.13 of the Revised Code unless otherwise provided by division rule.
Unless otherwise provided by division rule, each annual license shall begin on the first day of March of the current year and expire on the last day of February of the following year.
No person shall alter a fishing license or possess a fishing license that has been altered.
No person shall procure or attempt to procure a fishing license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false statement.
Owners of land over, through, upon, or along which any water flows or stands, except where the land is in or borders on state parks or state-owned lakes, together with the members of the immediate families of such owners, may take frogs and turtles and may take or catch fish of the kind permitted to be taken or caught therefrom without procuring a license provided for in this section. This exemption extends to tenants actually residing upon such lands and to the members of the immediate families of the tenants. Residents of state or county institutions, charitable institutions, and military homes in this state may take frogs and turtles without procuring the required license, provided that a member of the institution or home has an identification card, which shall be carried on that person when fishing.
Every fisher required to be licensed, while fishing or taking or attempting to take frogs or turtles, shall carry the license and exhibit it to any person. Failure to so carry and exhibit the license constitutes an offense under this section.
Sec. 1533.35.  (A) Commercial fishing devices shall be annually licensed as follows:
(1) Trap and fyke nets, for the first twenty nets or any portion thereof, eight hundred dollars; and for each additional group of ten such nets or any portion thereof, four hundred dollars;
(2) For each seine of one hundred fifty rods or less in length other than an inland fishing district seine, four hundred dollars;
(3) For each seine over one hundred fifty rods in length other than an inland fishing district seine, six hundred dollars;
(4) For each inland fishing district seine, one hundred dollars;
(5) For each carp apron, one hundred dollars;
(6) For one trotline with seventy hooks or less attached thereto, twenty dollars;
(7) For each trotline, or trotlines, with a total of more than seventy hooks attached thereto, one hundred dollars;
(8) For each dip net, one hundred dollars.
The license fee for other commercial fishing gear not mentioned in this section, as approved by the chief of the division of wildlife, shall be set by the chief with approval of the wildlife council.
Commercial fishing gear owned or used by a nonresident may be licensed in this state only if a reciprocal agreement is in effect as provided for in section 1533.352 of the Revised Code.
All commercial license fees shall be paid upon application or shall be paid one-fourth upon application with the balance due and owing within ninety days of the date of application, except that those license fees of one hundred dollars or less shall be paid in full at the time of application.
(B) Royalty fees are hereby established as set forth on the following species of fish when taken commercially: catfish, white bass, and yellow perch.
The amount of the royalty fees shall be as follows: on the species taken for which an allowable catch or quota has been established by division rule, two five cents per pound. On the species taken for which an allowable catch or quota has not been established by division rule, one cent two cents per pound on that portion taken that exceeds one-half of the previous year's taking of the species.
For the purpose of this section, the previous year's taking shall be the amount reported for that previous year by the license holder to the division pursuant to reporting procedures set forth in this chapter and Chapter 1531. of the Revised Code.
All royalty fees established or provided for in this section shall be paid by the license holder to the division. No person may be issued a commercial fishing license until all royalty fees due from that person for the preceding fishing season have been paid in full. The chief may request the attorney general to recover any royalty fee or amount thereof that is not paid by the opening date of the next fishing season, and the attorney general shall commence appropriate legal proceedings to recover the unpaid fee or amount.
All commercial fishing license moneys and all other fees collected from commercial fishermen fishers shall be deposited in the state treasury in accordance with section 1533.33 of the Revised Code.
No person shall fail to comply with any provision of this section or a division rule adopted pursuant to it.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised Code, the license of any person who is convicted of one or more violations of this section shall be suspended upon the conviction by operation of law for a period of eighteen fishing season months immediately following the conviction.
During any period of suspension, no person shall use or engage in fishing with commercial gear owned, used, or controlled at the time of conviction by the licensee whose license has been suspended.
Sec. 1533.40.  Each person, firm, partnership, association, or corporation which that buys, sells, or deals in minnows, crayfish, or hellgrammites or collects the listed species for sale shall obtain, annually, from the chief of the division of wildlife a permit and shall operate under such rules as the chief of the division of wildlife prescribes adopts. Such A permit shall be issued upon application and the payment of a fee of twenty-five forty dollars. This permit expires at midnight, on the thirty-first day of December 31. Nonresidents engaging in the collecting, seining, or picking of minnows, crayfish, or hellgrammites for bait shall have a nonresident fishing license as prescribed in section 1533.32 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1533.54.  No person shall draw, set, place, locate, maintain, or possess a pound net, crib net, trammel net, fyke net, set net, seine, bar net, or fish trap, or any part thereof, or throw or hand line, with more than three hooks attached thereto, or any other device for catching fish, except a line with not more than three hooks attached thereto or lure with not more than three sets of three hooks each, in the inland fishing district of this state, except for taking carp, mullet, sheepshead, and grass pike as provided in section 1533.62 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in section 1533.60 of the Revised Code, or as otherwise provided for by division rule. No person shall catch or kill a fish in that fishing district with what are known as bob lines, trotlines, or float lines, or by grabbing with the hands, or by spearing or shooting, or with any other device other than by angling. In the waters of the inland fishing district, except those lakes, harbors, and reservoirs controlled by the state, a trotline may be used with not more than fifty hooks, and no two hooks less than three feet apart, by the owner or person having the owner's consent in that part of the stream bordering on or running through that owner's lands.
Notwithstanding this section, any resident who is licensed to fish with nets in the Ohio river may possess fish nets for the sole purpose of storage, repair, drying, and tarring in the area between United States route fifty and the Ohio river from the Indiana state line to Cincinnati, Ohio, and in the area between United States route fifty-two and the Ohio river from Cincinnati, Ohio, to Chesapeake, Ohio, and in the area between state route seven and the Ohio river from Chesapeake, Ohio, to East Liverpool, Ohio.
Any person possessing a net in this reserve district shall have an Ohio permit for each net in his the person's possession. The permit shall be issued annually by the chief of the division of wildlife upon application of the owner of the net and submission of evidence by him the owner of his possession of a valid fishing license permitting him the owner to fish with nets in the Ohio river, and the payment of ten fifty dollars for each net for which an application is made and a permit is issued. The permit shall expire at twelve midnight on the fifteenth day of March of each year.
Sec. 1533.631.  Any person may apply for a permit to handle commercial fish, or other fish that may be bought or sold under the Revised Code or division rule, at wholesale. The chief of the division of wildlife shall issue an annual permit granting the applicant the privilege to handle such fish at wholesale at one or more designated premises upon filing of an application on a form prescribed by the chief and payment of a fee of fifty sixty-five dollars. No person or his a person's agent shall handle at wholesale any fresh water fish or part thereof unless a permit has been issued for the calendar year in which the fish is handled at wholesale for the premises at which the fish is handled.
A fish is handled at wholesale for purposes of this section when it is on a premises within the state and is being held, stored, handled, or processed for the purpose of sale to a person who ordinarily resells the fish.
The permit required by this section shall be issued subject to the right of entry and inspection of the designated premises of the permittee by any law enforcement officer authorized by section 1531.13 of the Revised Code to enforce the laws and rules of the division of wildlife. Such an officer may enter and inspect the designated premises and any box, package, or receptacle, and the contents thereof, for the purpose of determining whether any provision of this chapter or Chapter 1531. of the Revised Code or division rule is being violated.
No person holding a permit under this section shall remove a label required by section 1533.301 of the Revised Code unless the box, package, or receptacle bearing the label has been opened or unless the label is replaced with another label that meets the requirements of that section.
No person shall fail to comply with any provision of this section or division rule adopted pursuant to it.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised Code, the permit of any person who is convicted of two violations of this section that occurred within a twelve-month period is suspended upon the second such conviction by operation of law for a period of five fishing season days immediately following that conviction.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised Code, the permit of any person who is convicted of three or more violations of this section that occurred within a twelve-month period is suspended upon the third or subsequent such conviction by operation of law for a period of twenty fishing season days immediately following that conviction.
During any period of suspension, no person shall use or engage in handling commercial fish at wholesale with equipment or facilities owned, used, or controlled at the time of conviction by the permittee whose permit has been suspended.
Sec. 1533.632.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Aquaculture" means a form of agriculture that involves the propagation and rearing of aquatic species in controlled environments under private control, including, but not limited to, for the purpose of sale for consumption as food.
(2) "Aquaculture species" means any aquatic species that may be raised through aquaculture that is either a class A aquaculture species or a class B aquaculture species.
(3) "Class A aquaculture species" includes all of the following:
(a) Trout and salmon (Onchorhynchus sp., Salmo sp., Salvelinus sp.);
(b) Walleye (Stizostedion vitreum);
(c) Sauger (Stizostedion canadense);
(d) Bluegill (Lepomis machrochirus);
(e) Redear sunfish (Lepomis microlophus);
(f) Green sunfish (Lepomis cyanellus);
(g) White crappie (Pomoxis annularis);
(h) Black crappie (Pomoxis nigromaculatus);
(i) Blue catfish (Ictalurus furcatus);
(j) Any species added by rule under division (B) of this section or listed as commercial fish under section 1531.01 of the Revised Code except white perch (Morone americana).
(4) "Class B aquaculture species" includes any species, except for class A aquaculture species, designated as such by the chief of the division of wildlife.
(5) "Aquaculture production facility" means a facility used for aquaculture.
(B) The chief, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules for the regulation of aquaculture and may issue permits to persons wishing to engage in aquaculture for the production of aquaculture species. Rules adopted under this section shall ensure the protection and preservation of the wildlife and natural resources of this state. The legal length and weight limitations established under section 1533.63 of the Revised Code do not apply to class A or class B aquaculture species.
A permit may be issued upon application to any person who satisfies the chief that the person has suitable equipment, of which he the person is the owner or lessee, to engage in aquaculture for a given aquaculture species or group of aquaculture species. Each permit shall be in such form as the chief prescribes. The permits shall be classified as either class A or class B. A class A permit shall be required for all class A aquaculture species that are specified in this section or designated by rule as a class A aquaculture species. Class B permits shall be issued on a case-by-case basis. In determining whether to issue a class B permit, the chief shall take into account the species for which the class B permit is requested, the location of the aquaculture production facility, and any other information determined by the chief to be necessary to protect the wildlife and natural resources of this state. The annual fee for a class A permit shall be fifty dollars unless otherwise provided by rule by the chief. The annual fee for a class B permit shall be set by the chief at a level between one hundred and five hundred dollars. In determining the fee to be charged for a class B permit, the chief shall take into account the additional costs to the division for the inspection of aquaculture facilities used to raise a given class B aquaculture species.
The chief may revoke a permit upon a determination that the person to whom the permit was issued has violated any rule adopted under this section. The permit shall be reissued upon a showing by the person that he the person is in compliance with the rules adopted under this section. A holder of an aquaculture permit may receive a permit issued under section 1533.301, 1533.39, or 1533.40 of the Revised Code without payment of the fee for that permit if the conditions for the issuance of the permit have been met.
(C) No person shall knowingly sell any aquatic species under an aquaculture permit issued under this section that was not raised in an aquaculture production facility. In addition to any other penalties prescribed for violation of this division, the chief may revoke the permit of any person convicted of a violation of this division for any period of time he the chief considers necessary.
(D) No person who does not hold a current valid aquaculture permit shall knowingly sell an aquaculture species while claiming to possess an aquaculture permit.
Sec. 1533.71.  Unless otherwise provided by division rule, any person desiring to engage in the business of raising and selling game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians, or fur-bearing animals in a wholly enclosed preserve of which the person is the owner or lessee, or to have game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians, or fur-bearing animals in captivity, shall apply in writing to the division of wildlife for a license to do so.
The division, when it appears that the application is made in good faith and upon the payment of the fee for each license, shall may issue to the applicant any of the following licenses that may be applied for:
(A) "Commercial propagating license" permitting the licensee to propagate game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians, or fur-bearing animals in the wholly enclosed preserve the location of which is stated in the license and the application therefor, and to sell the propagated game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians, or fur-bearing animals and ship them from the state alive at any time, and permitting the licensee and the licensee's employees to kill the propagated game birds, game quadrupeds, or fur-bearing animals and sell the carcasses for food subject to sections 1533.70 to 1533.80 of the Revised Code. The fee for such a license is twenty-five forty dollars per annum.
(B) "Noncommercial propagating license" permitting the licensee to propagate game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians, or fur-bearing animals and to hold the animals in captivity. Game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians, and fur-bearing animals propagated or held in captivity by authority of a noncommercial propagating license are for the licensee's own use and shall not be sold. The fee for such a license is ten twenty-five dollars per annum.
(C) A free "raise to release license" permitting duly organized clubs, associations, or individuals approved by the division to engage in the raising of game birds, game quadrupeds, or fur-bearing animals for release only and not for sale or personal use.
Except as provided by law, no person shall possess game birds, game quadrupeds, or fur-bearing animals in closed season, provided that municipal or governmental zoological parks are not required to obtain the licenses provided for in this section.
All licenses issued under this section shall expire on the fifteenth day of March of each year.
The chief of the division of wildlife shall pay all moneys received as fees for the issuance of licenses under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the fund created by section 1533.15 of the Revised Code for the use of the division in the purchase, preservation, and protection of wild animals and for the necessary clerical help and forms required by sections 1533.70 to 1533.80 of the Revised Code.
This section does not authorize the taking or the release for taking of the following:
(1) Game birds, without first obtaining a commercial bird shooting preserve license issued under section 1533.72 of the Revised Code;
(2) Game or nonnative wildlife, without first obtaining a wild animal hunting preserve license issued under section 1533.721 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1533.82.  (A) On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the chief of the division of wildlife shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license, permit, or certificate issued pursuant to section 1533.23, 1533.34, 1533.342, 1533.39, 1533.40, 1533.51, 1533.631, 1533.71, 1533.72, 1533.81, 1533.88, or 1533.881 of the Revised Code.
(B) On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.62 of the Revised Code, the chief shall comply with that section and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license, permit, or stamp issued pursuant to section 1533.10, 1533.11, 1533.111, 1533.112, or 1533.32 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1561.31.  Each As used in this section, "mineral" means "minerals" as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.
Each deputy mine inspector shall inspect each mine in the inspector's district, the owner, lessee, agent, or operator of which is an employer as defined in section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, or any other mine at which three or more persons work, at intervals not exceeding three months between inspections. The inspector shall inspect each underground coal or mineral mine not less than four times per calendar year, each surface coal or mineral mine not less than two times per calendar year, and all other mines in the inspector's district as often as practical, noting particularly. During each inspection, the inspector shall provide to the superintendent of the mine information concerning the health and safety conditions of the mine operation and shall determine whether the mine operation complies with applicable health and safety standards and with any citation, order, or decision issued under this chapter or Chapter 1509., 1563., 1565., or 1567. of the Revised Code. The inspector shall examine the location and condition of buildings, the condition of the boiler, machinery, the workings of the mine, the roof control measures, the traveling ways and haulageways, the circulation and condition of the air and drainage, and the condition of electrical circuits and appliances, as applicable. The inspector shall make tests for poisonous, explosive, and noxious gases, and shall specifically order compliance with any section of this chapter and Chapters 1563., 1565., and 1567. and sections 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13, 1509.14, 1509.15, 1509.17, and 1509.18 of the Revised Code that the inspector finds is being violated.
Upon completion of the inspection of a mine, the inspector shall fill out a report of the conditions found during inspections on a form provided by the chief of the division of mineral resources management, which form shall provide for statements as to whether the laws are being observed or violated, and if violated, the nature and extent thereof, the date of the inspection, the number of persons employed in and about the mine, whether or not a certificate of compliance issued pursuant to section 4123.35 of the Revised Code is posted and the date of expiration thereof, and matters, things, and practices that specifically are covered by law, order of the chief, or previous order of the inspector. The inspector shall make this report in quadruplicate or quintuplicate, and send the original to the chief, post a copy at the mine, give a copy to the mine superintendent, and retain a copy for the inspector's files. Where the miners of a mine have a mine safety committee, the inspector shall post one additional copy of the report of that mine at that mine for the use and possession of the committee. The report required by this section shall be known as the inspector's routine report.
If an inspector orders compliance with this chapter and Chapters 1563., 1565., and 1567. and sections 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13, 1509.14, 1509.15, 1509.17, and 1509.18 of the Revised Code, and is assured by the superintendent of the mine to which the order applies that the order will be complied with, the inspector shall revisit the mine within a reasonable period of time and ascertain whether or not the order has been complied with. The inspector shall report the inspector's findings to the chief on a form to be provided by the chief, and take action to enforce compliance.
Sec. 1561.35.  If the deputy mine inspector finds that any matter, thing, or practice connected with any mine and not prohibited specifically by law is dangerous or hazardous, or that from a rigid enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 1509., 1563., 1565., and 1567. of the Revised Code, the matter, thing, or practice would become dangerous and hazardous so as to tend to the bodily injury of any person, the deputy mine inspector forthwith shall give notice in writing to the owner, lessee, or agent of the mine of the particulars in which the deputy mine inspector considers the mine or any matter, thing, or practice connected therewith is dangerous or hazardous and recommend changes that the conditions require, and forthwith shall mail a copy of the report and the deputy mine inspector's recommendations to the chief of the division of mineral resources management. Upon receipt of the report and recommendations, the chief forthwith shall make a finding thereon and mail a copy to the owner, operator, lessee, or agent of the mine, and to the deputy mine inspector; a copy of the finding of the chief shall be posted upon the bulletin board of the mine. Where the miners have a mine safety committee, one additional copy shall be posted on the bulletin board for the use and possession of the committee.
The owner, operator, lessee, or agent of the mine, or the authorized representative of the workers of the mine, within ten days may appeal to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code for a review and redetermination of the finding of the chief in the matter in accordance with section 1513.13 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding division (A)(1) of that section, which provides for appeals within thirty days. A copy of the decision of the commission shall be mailed as required by this section for the mailing of the finding by the chief on the deputy mine inspector's report.
Sec. 1561.351.  A deputy mine inspector who makes a finding concerning a violation of this chapter or Chapter 1563., 1565., or 1567. or section 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13, 1509.14, 1509.15, 1509.17, or 1509.18 of the Revised Code that involves mining safety shall notify the owner, operator, lessee, agent, and representative of the miners of the mine involved of the finding. The owner, operator, lessee, or agent of the mine involved may request a review of the inspector's finding by the chief of the division of mineral resources management. Upon receipt of such a request, the chief shall review the inspector's finding, make a written determination regarding it, and provide a copy of the written determination to the owner, operator, lessee, or agent of the mine involved. The chief shall provide a copy of the written determination to any other interested party upon request.
A person, such as an owner, operator, lessee, or agent of the mine or the authorized representative of the miners of the mine, who has an interest that is or may be adversely affected by the chief's determination may appeal the determination, not later than ten days after receiving notice of the determination, to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code by filing a copy of the chief's written determination with the commission, notwithstanding division (A)(1) of section 1513.13 of the Revised Code, which provides for appeals within thirty days. The commission shall hear the appeal in accordance with section 1513.13 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1561.51.  When written charges of neglect of duty, incompetency, or malfeasance in office against the deputy mine inspector are filed with the chief of the division of mineral resources management, signed by not less than fifteen employees, or otherwise as provided in section 1561.50 of the Revised Code, or the owner, lessee, or agent of a mine, and the signers of the charges are dissatisfied with the result of the investigation made by the chief, they may appeal to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code by filing the same charges against the deputy mine inspector and a copy of the report of the investigation made by the chief in the matter with the commission, and the commission shall hear the appeal in accordance with section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. The commission shall mail a copy of its decision to the complainant whose name appears first in the charges.
Sec. 1563.13.  When a deputy mine inspector considers that the ways and means of egress in any underground mine from the interior working places to the surface are inadequate as a safe and ready means of escape in case of emergency, from danger of fire at any point, or any other cause that may result in the entombment of persons working in the mine, the deputy mine inspector shall give notice in writing to the owner, lessee, or agent of the mine of the particular in which the deputy mine inspector considers the conditions dangerous, recommending any changes that the conditions require, and forthwith shall mail a copy of the deputy mine inspector's recommendations to the chief of the division of mineral resources management. Upon receipt of the recommendations, the chief forthwith shall make a finding concerning them and mail a copy to the operator of the mine and to the deputy mine inspector. A copy of the finding of the chief shall be posted upon the bulletin board at the time.
The operator of the mine, or the authorized representative of the workers of the mine, within ten days may appeal to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code for a review and redetermination of the finding of the chief in the matter in accordance with section 1513.13 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding division (A)(1) of that section, which provides for appeals within thirty days. A copy of the decision of the commission shall be mailed as required by this section for the mailing of the finding by the chief on the deputy mine inspector's report.
No operator of a mine shall refuse or neglect to comply with this section.
Sec. 1563.42.  The operator of a mine, before the pillars are drawn previous to the abandonment of any part of the mine, shall have a correct map of such part of the mine made, showing its area and workings to the day of the abandonment and the pillars drawn previous to abandonment, and file such map within ninety days after the abandonment of such mine, in the office of the county recorder of the county where such mine is located, and with the chief of the division of mineral resources management. Such map shall have attached the usual certificate of the mining engineer making it, and the mine foreperson in charge of the underground workings of the mine, and such operator shall pay to the recorder for filing such map, a base fee of five dollars for services and a housing trust fee of five dollars pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.
No operator of a mine shall refuse or neglect to comply with this section.
Sec. 1702.59.  (A) Every nonprofit corporation, incorporated under the general corporation laws of this state, or previous laws, or under special provisions of the Revised Code, or created before September 1, 1851, which corporation has expressedly or impliedly elected to be governed by the laws passed since that date, and whose articles or other documents are filed with the secretary of state, shall file with the secretary of state a verified statement of continued existence, signed by a director, officer, or three members in good standing, setting forth the corporate name, the place where the principal office of the corporation is located, the date of incorporation, the fact that the corporation is still actively engaged in exercising its corporate privileges, and the name and address of its agent appointed pursuant to section 1702.06 of the Revised Code.
(B) Each corporation required to file a statement of continued existence shall file it with the secretary of state within each five years after the date of incorporation or of the last corporate filing.
(C) Corporations specifically exempted by division (N) of section 1702.06 of the Revised Code, or whose activities are regulated or supervised by another state official, agency, bureau, department, or commission are exempted from this section.
(D) The secretary of state shall give notice in writing and provide a form for compliance with this section to each corporation required by this section to file the statement of continued existence, such notice and form to be mailed to the last known address of the corporation as it appears on the records of the secretary of state or which the secretary of state may ascertain upon a reasonable search.
(E) If any nonprofit corporation required by this section to file a statement of continued existence fails to file the statement required every fifth year, then the secretary of state shall cancel the articles of such corporation, make a notation of the cancellation on the records, and mail to the corporation a certificate of the action so taken.
(F) A corporation whose articles have been canceled may be reinstated by filing an application for reinstatement and paying to the secretary of state the fee specified in division (Q) of section 111.16 of the Revised Code. The name of a corporation whose articles have been canceled shall be reserved for a period of one year after the date of cancellation. If the reinstatement is not made within one year from the date of the cancellation of its articles of incorporation and it appears that a corporate name, limited liability company name, limited liability partnership name, limited partnership name, or trade name has been filed, the name of which is not distinguishable upon the record as provided in section 1702.06 of the Revised Code, the applicant for reinstatement shall be required by the secretary of state, as a condition prerequisite to such reinstatement, to amend its articles by changing its name. A certificate of reinstatement may be filed in the recorder's office of any county in the state, for which the recorder shall charge and collect a base fee of one dollar for services and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code. The rights, privileges, and franchises of a corporation whose articles have been reinstated are subject to section 1702.60 of the Revised Code.
(G) The secretary of state shall furnish the tax commissioner a list of all corporations failing to file the required statement of continued existence.
Sec. 2101.16.  (A) The fees enumerated in this division shall be charged and collected, if possible, by the probate judge and shall be in full for all services rendered in the respective proceedings:
 (1) Account, in addition to advertising charges .......... $12.00
Waivers and proof of notice of hearing on account, per
page, minimum one dollar ............................. $ 1.00
 (2) Account of distribution, in addition to
advertising charges .................................. $ 7.00
 (3) Adoption of child, petition for ...................... $50.00
 (4) Alter or cancel contract for sale or purchase of
real estate, petition to ............................. $20.00
 (5) Application and order not otherwise provided
for in this section or by rule adopted pursuant to
division (E) of this section ......................... $ 5.00
 (6) Appropriation suit, per day, hearing in .............. $20.00
 (7) Birth, application for registration of ............... $ 7.00
 (8) Birth record, application to correct ................. $ 5.00
 (9) Bond, application for new or additional .............. $ 5.00
(10) Bond, application for release of surety or
reduction of ......................................... $ 5.00
(11) Bond, receipt for securities deposited in lieu of .... $ 5.00
(12) Certified copy of journal entry, record, or proceeding,
per page, minimum fee one dollar ..................... $ 1.00
(13) Citation and issuing citation, application for ....... $ 5.00
(14) Change of name, petition for ......................... $20.00
(15) Claim, application of administrator or executor for
allowance of administrator's or executor's own ....... $10.00
(16) Claim, application to compromise or settle ........... $10.00
(17) Claim, authority to present .......................... $10.00
(18) Commissioner, appointment of ......................... $ 5.00
(19) Compensation for extraordinary services and attorney's
fees for fiduciary, application for .................. $ 5.00
(20) Competency, application to procure adjudication of ... $20.00
(21) Complete contract, application to .................... $10.00
(22) Concealment of assets, citation for .................. $10.00
(23) Construction of will, petition for ................... $20.00
(24) Continue decedent's business, application to ......... $10.00
Monthly reports of operation ......................... $ 5.00
(25) Declaratory judgment, petition for ................... $20.00
(26) Deposit of will ...................................... $ 5.00
(27) Designation of heir .................................. $20.00
(28) Distribution in kind, application, assent, and
order for ............................................ $ 5.00
(29) Distribution under section 2109.36 of the Revised
Code, application for an order of .................... $ 7.00
(30) Docketing and indexing proceedings, including the
filing and noting of all necessary documents, maximum
fee, fifteen dollars ................................. $15.00
(31) Exceptions to any proceeding named in this section,
contest of appointment or ............................ $10.00
(32) Election of surviving partner to purchase assets of
partnership, proceedings relating to ................. $10.00
(33) Election of surviving spouse under will .............. $ 5.00
(34) Fiduciary, including an assignee or trustee of an
insolvent debtor or any guardian or conservator
accountable to the probate court, appointment of ..... $35.00
(35) Foreign will, application to record .................. $10.00
Record of foreign will, additional, per page ......... $ 1.00
(36) Forms when supplied by the probate court, not to
exceed ............................................... $10.00
(37) Heirship, petition to determine ...................... $20.00
(38) Injunction proceedings ............................... $20.00
(39) Improve real estate, petition to ..................... $20.00
(40) Inventory with appraisement .......................... $10.00
(41) Inventory without appraisement ....................... $ 7.00
(42) Investment or expenditure of funds, application for .. $10.00
(43) Invest in real estate, application to ................ $10.00
(44) Lease for oil, gas, coal, or other mineral, petition
to ................................................... $20.00
(45) Lease or lease and improve real estate, petition to .. $20.00
(46) Marriage license ..................................... $10.00
Certified abstract of each marriage .................. $ 2.00
(47) Minor or mentally ill person, etc., disposal of estate
under ten thousand dollars of ........................ $10.00
(48) Mortgage or mortgage and repair or improve real
estate, petition to .................................. $20.00
(49) Newly discovered assets, report of ................... $ 7.00
(50) Nonresident executor or administrator to bar
creditors' claims, proceedings by .................... $20.00
(51) Power of attorney or revocation of power,
bonding company ...................................... $10.00
(52) Presumption of death, petition to establish .......... $20.00
(53) Probating will ....................................... $15.00
Proof of notice to beneficiaries ..................... $ 5.00
(54) Purchase personal property, application of surviving
spouse to ............................................ $10.00
(55) Purchase real estate at appraised value, petition of
surviving spouse to .................................. $20.00
(56) Receipts in addition to advertising charges,
application and order to record ...................... $ 5.00
Record of those receipts, additional, per page ....... $ 1.00
(57) Record in excess of fifteen hundred words in any
proceeding in the probate court, per page ............ $ 1.00
(58) Release of estate by mortgagee or other lienholder ... $ 5.00
(59) Relieving an estate from administration under section
2113.03 of the Revised Code or granting an order for a
summary release from administration under section
2113.031 of the Revised Code ......................... $60.00
(60) Removal of fiduciary, application for ................ $10.00
(61) Requalification of executor or administrator ......... $10.00
(62) Resignation of fiduciary ............................. $ 5.00
(63) Sale bill, public sale of personal property .......... $10.00
(64) Sale of personal property and report, application
for .................................................. $10.00
(65) Sale of real estate, petition for .................... $25.00
(66) Terminate guardianship, petition to .................. $10.00
(67) Transfer of real estate, application, entry, and
certificate for ...................................... $ 7.00
(68) Unclaimed money, application to invest ............... $ 7.00
(69) Vacate approval of account or order of distribution,
motion to ............................................ $10.00
(70) Writ of execution .................................... $ 5.00
(71) Writ of possession ................................... $ 5.00
(72) Wrongful death, application and settlement of claim
for .................................................. $20.00
(73) Year's allowance, petition to review ................. $ 7.00
(74) Guardian's report, filing and review of .............. $ 5.00

(B)(1) In relation to an application for the appointment of a guardian or the review of a report of a guardian under section 2111.49 of the Revised Code, the probate court, pursuant to court order or in accordance with a court rule, may direct that the applicant or the estate pay any or all of the expenses of an investigation conducted pursuant to section 2111.041 or division (A)(2) of section 2111.49 of the Revised Code. If the investigation is conducted by a public employee or investigator who is paid by the county, the fees for the investigation shall be paid into the county treasury. If the court finds that an alleged incompetent or a ward is indigent, the court may waive the costs, fees, and expenses of an investigation.
(2) In relation to the appointment or functioning of a guardian for a minor or the guardianship of a minor, the probate court may direct that the applicant or the estate pay any or all of the expenses of an investigation conducted pursuant to section 2111.042 of the Revised Code. If the investigation is conducted by a public employee or investigator who is paid by the county, the fees for the investigation shall be paid into the county treasury. If the court finds that the guardian or applicant is indigent, the court may waive the costs, fees, and expenses of an investigation.
(C) Thirty dollars of the thirty-five-dollar fee collected pursuant to division (A)(34) of this section and twenty dollars of the sixty-dollar fee collected pursuant to division (A)(59) of this section shall be deposited by the county treasurer in the indigent guardianship fund created pursuant to section 2111.51 of the Revised Code.
(D) The fees of witnesses, jurors, sheriffs, coroners, and constables for services rendered in the probate court or by order of the probate judge shall be the same as provided for like services in the court of common pleas.
(E) The probate court, by rule, may require an advance deposit for costs, not to exceed one hundred twenty-five dollars, at the time application is made for an appointment as executor or administrator or at the time a will is presented for probate.
(F) The probate court, by rule, shall establish a reasonable fee, not to exceed fifty dollars, for the filing of a petition for the release of information regarding an adopted person's name by birth and the identity of the adopted person's biological parents and biological siblings pursuant to section 3107.41 of the Revised Code, all proceedings relative to the petition, the entry of an order relative to the petition, and all services required to be performed in connection with the petition. The probate court may use a reasonable portion of a fee charged under authority of this division to reimburse any agency, as defined in section 3107.39 of the Revised Code, for any services it renders in performing a task described in section 3107.41 of the Revised Code relative to or in connection with the petition for which the fee was charged.
(G)(1) Thirty dollars of the fifty-dollar fee collected pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section shall be deposited into the "putative father registry fund," which is hereby created in the state treasury. The department of job and family services shall use the money in the fund to fund the department's costs of performing its duties related to the putative father registry established under section 3107.062 of the Revised Code.
(2) If the department determines that money in the putative father registry fund is more than is needed for its duties related to the putative father registry, the department may use the surplus moneys in the fund as permitted in division (C) of section 2151.3529, division (B) of section 2151.3530, or section 5103.155 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2113.041. (A) The administrator of the estate recovery program established pursuant to section 5111.11 of the Revised Code may present an affidavit to a financial institution requesting that the financial institution release account proceeds to recover the cost of services correctly provided to a medicaid recipient. The affidavit shall include all of the following information:
(1) The name of the decedent;
(2) The name of any person who gave notice that the decedent was a medicaid recipient and that person's relationship to the decedent;
(3) The name of the financial institution;
(4) The account number;
(5) A description of the claim for estate recovery;
(6) The amount of funds to be recovered.
(B) A financial institution may release account proceeds to the administrator of the estate recovery program if all of the following apply:
(1) The decedent held an account at the financial institution that was in the decedent's name only.
(2) No estate has been, and it is reasonable to assume that no estate will be, opened for the decedent.
(3) The decedent has no outstanding debts known to the administrator of the estate recovery program.
(4) The financial institution has received no objections or has determined that no valid objections to release of proceeds have been received.
(C) If proceeds have been released pursuant to division (B) of this section and the department of job and family services receives notice of a valid claim to the proceeds that has a higher priority under section 2117.25 of the Revised Code than the claim of the estate recovery program, the department may refund the proceeds to the financial institution or pay them to the person or government entity with the claim.
Sec. 2117.06.  (A) All creditors having claims against an estate, including claims arising out of contract, out of tort, on cognovit notes, or on judgments, whether due or not due, secured or unsecured, liquidated or unliquidated, shall present their claims in one of the following manners:
(1) To the executor or administrator in a writing;
(2) To the executor or administrator in a writing, and to the probate court by filing a copy of the writing with it;
(3) In a writing that is sent by ordinary mail addressed to the decedent and that is actually received by the executor or administrator within the appropriate time specified in division (B) of this section. For purposes of this division, if an executor or administrator is not a natural person, the writing shall be considered as being actually received by the executor or administrator only if the person charged with the primary responsibility of administering the estate of the decedent actually receives the writing within the appropriate time specified in division (B) of this section.
(B) All Except as provided in section 2117.061 of the Revised Code, all claims shall be presented within one year after the death of the decedent, whether or not the estate is released from administration or an executor or administrator is appointed during that one-year period. Every claim presented shall set forth the claimant's address.
(C) A Except as provided in section 2117.061 of the Revised Code, a claim that is not presented within one year after the death of the decedent shall be forever barred as to all parties, including, but not limited to, devisees, legatees, and distributees. No payment shall be made on the claim and no action shall be maintained on the claim, except as otherwise provided in sections 2117.37 to 2117.42 of the Revised Code with reference to contingent claims.
(D) In the absence of any prior demand for allowance, the executor or administrator shall allow or reject all claims, except tax assessment claims, within thirty days after their presentation, provided that failure of the executor or administrator to allow or reject within that time shall not prevent the executor or administrator from doing so after that time and shall not prejudice the rights of any claimant. Upon the allowance of a claim, the executor or the administrator, on demand of the creditor, shall furnish the creditor with a written statement or memorandum of the fact and date of the allowance.
(E) If the executor or administrator has actual knowledge of a pending action commenced against the decedent prior to the decedent's death in a court of record in this state, the executor or administrator shall file a notice of the appointment of the executor or administrator in the pending action within ten days after acquiring that knowledge. If the administrator or executor is not a natural person, actual knowledge of a pending suit against the decedent shall be limited to the actual knowledge of the person charged with the primary responsibility of administering the estate of the decedent. Failure to file the notice within the ten-day period does not extend the claim period established by this section.
(F) This section applies to any person who is required to give written notice to the executor or administrator of a motion or application to revive an action pending against the decedent at the date of the death of the decedent.
(G) Nothing in this section or in section 2117.07 of the Revised Code shall be construed to reduce the time mentioned in section 2125.02, 2305.09, 2305.10, 2305.11, 2305.113, or 2305.12 of the Revised Code, provided that no portion of any recovery on a claim brought pursuant to any of those sections shall come from the assets of an estate unless the claim has been presented against the estate in accordance with Chapter 2117. of the Revised Code.
(H) Any person whose claim has been presented and has not been rejected after presentment is a creditor as that term is used in Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code. Claims that are contingent need not be presented except as provided in sections 2117.37 to 2117.42 of the Revised Code, but, whether presented pursuant to those sections or this section, contingent claims may be presented in any of the manners described in division (A) of this section.
(I) If a creditor presents a claim against an estate in accordance with division (A)(2) of this section, the probate court shall not close the administration of the estate until that claim is allowed or rejected.
(J) The probate court shall not require an executor or administrator to make and return into the court a schedule of claims against the estate.
(K) If the executor or administrator makes a distribution of the assets of the estate prior to the expiration of the time for the filing of claims as set forth in this section, the executor or administrator shall provide notice on the account delivered to each distributee that the distributee may be liable to the estate up to the value of the distribution and may be required to return all or any part of the value of the distribution if a valid claim is subsequently made against the estate within the time permitted under this section.
Sec. 2117.061. (A) As used in this section, "person responsible for the estate" means the executor, administrator, commissioner, or person who filed pursuant to section 2113.03 of the Revised Code for release from administration of an estate.
(B) If the decedent was fifty-five years of age or older at the time of death, the person responsible for an estate shall determine whether the decedent was a recipient of medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. If the decedent was a recipient, the person responsible for the estate shall give written notice to that effect to the administrator of the estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.11 of the Revised Code not later than thirty days after the occurrence of any of the following:
(1) The granting of letters testamentary;
(2) The administration of the estate;
(3) The filing of an application for release from administration or summary release from administration.
(C) The estate recovery program administrator shall present a claim for estate recovery to the person responsible for the estate or the person's legal representative not later than ninety days after the date on which notice is received under division (B) of this section or one year after the decedent's death, whichever is later.
Sec. 2117.25. (A) Every executor or administrator shall proceed with diligence to pay the debts of the decedent and shall apply the assets in the following order:
(1) Costs and expenses of administration;
(2) An amount, not exceeding two thousand dollars, for funeral expenses that are included in the bill of a funeral director, funeral expenses other than those in the bill of a funeral director that are approved by the probate court, and an amount, not exceeding two thousand dollars, for burial and cemetery expenses, including that portion of the funeral director's bill allocated to cemetery expenses that have been paid to the cemetery by the funeral director.
For purposes of this division, burial and cemetery expenses shall be limited to the following:
(a) The purchase of a place of interment;
(b) Monuments or other markers;
(c) The outer burial container;
(d) The cost of opening and closing the place of interment;
(e) The urn.
(3) The allowance for support made to the surviving spouse, minor children, or both under section 2106.13 of the Revised Code;
(4) Debts entitled to a preference under the laws of the United States;
(5) Expenses of the last sickness of the decedent;
(6) If the total bill of a funeral director for funeral expenses exceeds two thousand dollars, then, in addition to the amount described in division (A)(2) of this section, an amount, not exceeding one thousand dollars, for funeral expenses that are included in the bill and that exceed two thousand dollars;
(7) Personal property taxes, claims made under the estate recovery program instituted pursuant to section 5111.11 of the Revised Code, and obligations for which the decedent was personally liable to the state or any of its subdivisions;
(8) Debts for manual labor performed for the decedent within twelve months preceding the decedent's death, not exceeding three hundred dollars to any one person;
(9) Other debts for which claims have been presented and finally allowed.
(B) The part of the bill of a funeral director that exceeds the total of three thousand dollars as described in divisions (A)(2) and (6) of this section, and the part of a claim included in division (A)(8) of this section that exceeds three hundred dollars shall be included as a debt under division (A)(9) of this section, depending upon the time when the claim for the additional amount is presented.
(C) Any natural person or fiduciary who pays a claim of any creditor described in division (A) of this section shall be subrogated to the rights of that creditor proportionate to the amount of the payment and shall be entitled to reimbursement for that amount in accordance with the priority of payments set forth in that division.
(D)(1) Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code, relating to the manner in which and the time within which claims shall be presented, shall apply to claims set forth in divisions (A)(2), (6), and (8) of this section. Claims for an expense of administration or for the allowance for support need not be presented. The executor or administrator shall pay debts included in divisions (A)(4) and (7) of this section, of which the executor or administrator has knowledge, regardless of presentation.
(2) The giving of written notice to an executor or administrator of a motion or application to revive an action pending against the decedent at the date of death shall be equivalent to the presentation of a claim to the executor or administrator for the purpose of determining the order of payment of any judgment rendered or decree entered in such an action.
(E) No payments shall be made to creditors of one class until all those of the preceding class are fully paid or provided for. If the assets are insufficient to pay all the claims of one class, the creditors of that class shall be paid ratably.
(F) If it appears at any time that the assets have been exhausted in paying prior or preferred charges, allowances, or claims, those payments shall be a bar to an action on any claim not entitled to that priority or preference.
Sec. 2151.3529.  (A) The director of job and family services shall promulgate forms designed to gather pertinent medical information concerning a deserted child and the child's parents. The forms shall clearly and unambiguously state on each page that the information requested is to facilitate medical care for the child, that the forms may be fully or partially completed or left blank, that completing the forms or parts of the forms is completely voluntary, and that no adverse legal consequence will result from failure to complete any part of the forms.
(B) The director shall promulgate written materials to be given to the parents of a child delivered pursuant to section 2151.3516 of the Revised Code. The materials shall describe services available to assist parents and newborns and shall include information directly relevant to situations that might cause parents to desert a child and information on the procedures for a person to follow in order to reunite with a child the person delivered under section 2151.3516 of the Revised Code, including notice that the person will be required to submit to a DNA test, at that person's expense, to prove that the person is the parent of the child.
(C) If the department of job and family services determines that money in the putative father registry fund created under section 2101.16 of the Revised Code is more than is needed for its duties related to the putative father registry, the department may use surplus moneys in the fund for costs related to the development and publication of forms and materials promulgated pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of this section.
Sec. 2151.3530. (A) The director of job and family services shall distribute the medical information forms and written materials promulgated under section 2151.3529 of the Revised Code to entities permitted to receive a deserted child, to public children services agencies, and to other public or private agencies that, in the discretion of the director, are best able to disseminate the forms and materials to the persons who are most in need of the forms and materials.
(B) If the department of job and family services determines that money in the putative father registry fund created under section 2101.16 of the Revised Code is more than is needed to perform its duties related to the putative father registry, the department may use surplus moneys in the fund for costs related to the distribution of forms and materials pursuant to this section.
Sec. 2151.83.  (A) A public children services agency or private child placing agency, on the request of a young adult, shall enter into a jointly prepared written agreement with the young adult that obligates the agency to ensure that independent living services are provided to the young adult and sets forth the responsibilities of the young adult regarding the services. The agreement shall be developed based on the young adult's strengths, needs, and circumstances and the availability of funds provided pursuant to section 2151.84 of the Revised Code. The agreement shall be designed to promote the young adult's successful transition to independent adult living and emotional and economic self-sufficiency.
(B) If the young adult appears to be eligible for services from one or more of the following entities, the agency must contact the appropriate entity to determine eligibility:
(1) An entity, other than the agency, that is represented on a county family and children first council established pursuant to section 121.37 of the Revised Code. If the entity is a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, an alcohol and drug addiction services board, or a community mental health board, the agency shall contact the provider of alcohol, drug addiction, or mental health services that has been designated by the board to determine the young adult's eligibility for services.
(2) The rehabilitation services commission;
(3) A metropolitan housing authority established pursuant to section 3735.27 of the Revised Code.
If an entity described in this division determines that the young adult qualifies for services from the entity, that entity, the young adult, and the agency to which the young adult made the request for independent living services shall enter into a written addendum to the jointly prepared agreement entered into under division (A) of this section. The addendum shall indicate how services under the agreement and addendum are to be coordinated and allocate the service responsibilities among the entities and agency that signed the addendum.
Sec. 2151.84.  The department of job and family services shall establish model agreements that may be used by public children services agencies and private child placing agencies required to provide services under an agreement with a young adult pursuant to section 2151.83 of the Revised Code. The model agreements shall include provisions describing the specific independent living services to be provided to the extent funds are provided pursuant to this section, the duration of the services and the agreement, the duties and responsibilities of each party under the agreement, and grievance procedures regarding disputes that arise regarding the agreement or services provided under it.
To facilitate the provision of independent living services, the department shall provide funds to meet the requirement of state matching funds needed to qualify for federal funds under the "Foster Care Independence Act of 1999," 113 Stat. 1822 (1999), 42 U.S.C. 677, as amended. The department shall seek controlling board approval of any fund transfers necessary to meet this requirement.
Sec. 2305.234.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Chiropractic claim," "medical claim," and "optometric claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.11 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Dental claim" has the same meaning as in section 2305.11 of the Revised Code, except that it does not include any claim arising out of a dental operation or any derivative claim for relief that arises out of a dental operation.
(3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Health care professional" means any of the following who provide medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment:
(a) Physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;
(b) Registered nurses and licensed practical nurses licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;
(c) Physician assistants authorized to practice under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code;
(d) Dentists and dental hygienists licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;
(e) Physical therapists licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;
(f) Chiropractors licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code;
(g) Optometrists licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code;
(h) Podiatrists authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice podiatry;
(i) Dietitians licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code;
(j) Pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code.
(5) "Health care worker" means a person other than a health care professional who provides medical, dental, or other health-related care or treatment under the direction of a health care professional with the authority to direct that individual's activities, including medical technicians, medical assistants, dental assistants, orderlies, aides, and individuals acting in similar capacities.
(6) "Indigent and uninsured person" means a person who meets all of the following requirements:
(a) The person's income is not greater than one hundred fifty per cent of the current poverty line as defined by the United States office of management and budget and revised in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended.
(b) The person is not eligible to receive medical assistance under Chapter 5111., disability assistance medical assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or assistance under any other governmental health care program.
(c) Either of the following applies:
(i) The person is not a policyholder, certificate holder, insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan.
(ii) The person is a policyholder, certificate holder, insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan, but the insurer, policy, contract, or plan denies coverage or is the subject of insolvency or bankruptcy proceedings in any jurisdiction.
(7) "Operation" means any procedure that involves cutting or otherwise infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means, including surgery, laser surgery, ionizing radiation, therapeutic ultrasound, or the removal of intraocular foreign bodies. "Operation" does not include the administration of medication by injection, unless the injection is administered in conjunction with a procedure infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means other than the administration of medicine by injection.
(8) "Nonprofit shelter or health care facility" means a charitable nonprofit corporation organized and operated pursuant to Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code, or any charitable organization not organized and not operated for profit, that provides shelter, health care services, or shelter and health care services to indigent and uninsured persons, except that "shelter or health care facility" does not include a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, a facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or a medical facility that is operated for profit.
(9) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to person or property other than a civil action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement between persons or government entities.
(10) "Volunteer" means an individual who provides any medical, dental, or other health-care related diagnosis, care, or treatment without the expectation of receiving and without receipt of any compensation or other form of remuneration from an indigent and uninsured person, another person on behalf of an indigent and uninsured person, any shelter or health care facility, or any other person or government entity.
(B)(1) Subject to divisions (E) and (F)(3) of this section, a health care professional who is a volunteer and complies with division (B)(2) of this section is not liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the volunteer in the provision at a nonprofit shelter or health care facility to an indigent and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment, including the provision of samples of medicine and other medical products, unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.
(2) To qualify for the immunity described in division (B)(1) of this section, a health care professional shall do all of the following prior to providing diagnosis, care, or treatment:
(a) Determine, in good faith, that the indigent and uninsured person is mentally capable of giving informed consent to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment and is not subject to duress or under undue influence;
(b) Inform the person of the provisions of this section;
(c) Obtain the informed consent of the person and a written waiver, signed by the person or by another individual on behalf of and in the presence of the person, that states that the person is mentally competent to give informed consent and, without being subject to duress or under undue influence, gives informed consent to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment subject to the provisions of this section.
(3) A physician or podiatrist who is not covered by medical malpractice insurance, but complies with division (B)(2) of this section, is not required to comply with division (A) of section 4731.143 of the Revised Code.
(C) Subject to divisions (E) and (F)(3) of this section, health care workers who are volunteers are not liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, including an action upon a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the health care worker in the provision at a nonprofit shelter or health care facility to an indigent and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment, unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.
(D) Subject to divisions (E) and (F)(3) of this section and section 3701.071 of the Revised Code, a nonprofit shelter or health care facility associated with a health care professional described in division (B)(1) of this section or a health care worker described in division (C) of this section is not liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the health care professional or worker in providing for the shelter or facility medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment to an indigent and uninsured person, unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.
(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, the immunities provided by divisions (B), (C), and (D) of this section are not available to an individual or to a nonprofit shelter or health care facility if, at the time of an alleged injury, death, or loss to person or property, the individuals involved are providing one of the following:
(a) Any medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment pursuant to a community service work order entered by a court under division (F) of section 2951.02 of the Revised Code as a condition of probation or other suspension of a term of imprisonment or imposed by a court as a community control sanction pursuant to sections 2929.15 and 2929.17 of the Revised Code.
(b) Performance of an operation.
(c) Delivery of a baby.
(2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to an individual who provides, or a nonprofit shelter or health care facility at which the individual provides, diagnosis, care, or treatment that is necessary to preserve the life of a person in a medical emergency.
(F)(1) This section does not create a new cause of action or substantive legal right against a health care professional, health care worker, or nonprofit shelter or health care facility.
(2) This section does not affect any immunities from civil liability or defenses established by another section of the Revised Code or available at common law to which an individual or a nonprofit shelter or health care facility may be entitled in connection with the provision of emergency or other diagnosis, care, or treatment.
(3) This section does not grant an immunity from tort or other civil liability to an individual or a nonprofit shelter or health care facility for actions that are outside the scope of authority of health care professionals or health care workers.
(4) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of a health care professional or health care worker to comply with any applicable law of this state or rule of an agency of this state.
(5) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of a nonprofit shelter or health care facility to comply with any applicable law of this state, rule of an agency of this state, or local code, ordinance, or regulation that pertains to or regulates building, housing, air pollution, water pollution, sanitation, health, fire, zoning, or safety.
Sec. 2329.66.  (A) Every person who is domiciled in this state may hold property exempt from execution, garnishment, attachment, or sale to satisfy a judgment or order, as follows:
(1)(a) In the case of a judgment or order regarding money owed for health care services rendered or health care supplies provided to the person or a dependent of the person, one parcel or item of real or personal property that the person or a dependent of the person uses as a residence. Division (A)(1)(a) of this section does not preclude, affect, or invalidate the creation under this chapter of a judgment lien upon the exempted property but only delays the enforcement of the lien until the property is sold or otherwise transferred by the owner or in accordance with other applicable laws to a person or entity other than the surviving spouse or surviving minor children of the judgment debtor. Every person who is domiciled in this state may hold exempt from a judgment lien created pursuant to division (A)(1)(a) of this section the person's interest, not to exceed five thousand dollars, in the exempted property.
(b) In the case of all other judgments and orders, the person's interest, not to exceed five thousand dollars, in one parcel or item of real or personal property that the person or a dependent of the person uses as a residence.
(2) The person's interest, not to exceed one thousand dollars, in one motor vehicle;
(3) The person's interest, not to exceed two hundred dollars in any particular item, in wearing apparel, beds, and bedding, and the person's interest, not to exceed three hundred dollars in each item, in one cooking unit and one refrigerator or other food preservation unit;
(4)(a) The person's interest, not to exceed four hundred dollars, in cash on hand, money due and payable, money to become due within ninety days, tax refunds, and money on deposit with a bank, savings and loan association, credit union, public utility, landlord, or other person. Division (A)(4)(a) of this section applies only in bankruptcy proceedings. This exemption may include the portion of personal earnings that is not exempt under division (A)(13) of this section.
(b) Subject to division (A)(4)(d) of this section, the person's interest, not to exceed two hundred dollars in any particular item, in household furnishings, household goods, appliances, books, animals, crops, musical instruments, firearms, and hunting and fishing equipment, that are held primarily for the personal, family, or household use of the person;
(c) Subject to division (A)(4)(d) of this section, the person's interest in one or more items of jewelry, not to exceed four hundred dollars in one item of jewelry and not to exceed two hundred dollars in every other item of jewelry;
(d) Divisions (A)(4)(b) and (c) of this section do not include items of personal property listed in division (A)(3) of this section.
If the person does not claim an exemption under division (A)(1) of this section, the total exemption claimed under division (A)(4)(b) of this section shall be added to the total exemption claimed under division (A)(4)(c) of this section, and the total shall not exceed two thousand dollars. If the person claims an exemption under division (A)(1) of this section, the total exemption claimed under division (A)(4)(b) of this section shall be added to the total exemption claimed under division (A)(4)(c) of this section, and the total shall not exceed one thousand five hundred dollars.
(5) The person's interest, not to exceed an aggregate of seven hundred fifty dollars, in all implements, professional books, or tools of the person's profession, trade, or business, including agriculture;
(6)(a) The person's interest in a beneficiary fund set apart, appropriated, or paid by a benevolent association or society, as exempted by section 2329.63 of the Revised Code;
(b) The person's interest in contracts of life or endowment insurance or annuities, as exempted by section 3911.10 of the Revised Code;
(c) The person's interest in a policy of group insurance or the proceeds of a policy of group insurance, as exempted by section 3917.05 of the Revised Code;
(d) The person's interest in money, benefits, charity, relief, or aid to be paid, provided, or rendered by a fraternal benefit society, as exempted by section 3921.18 of the Revised Code;
(e) The person's interest in the portion of benefits under policies of sickness and accident insurance and in lump sum payments for dismemberment and other losses insured under those policies, as exempted by section 3923.19 of the Revised Code.
(7) The person's professionally prescribed or medically necessary health aids;
(8) The person's interest in a burial lot, including, but not limited to, exemptions under section 517.09 or 1721.07 of the Revised Code;
(9) The person's interest in the following:
(a) Moneys paid or payable for living maintenance or rights, as exempted by section 3304.19 of the Revised Code;
(b) Workers' compensation, as exempted by section 4123.67 of the Revised Code;
(c) Unemployment compensation benefits, as exempted by section 4141.32 of the Revised Code;
(d) Cash assistance payments under the Ohio works first program, as exempted by section 5107.75 of the Revised Code;
(e) Benefits and services under the prevention, retention, and contingency program, as exempted by section 5108.08 of the Revised Code;
(f) Disability financial assistance payments, as exempted by section 5115.07 5115.06 of the Revised Code.
(10)(a) Except in cases in which the person was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2921.41 of the Revised Code and in which an order for the withholding of restitution from payments was issued under division (C)(2)(b) of that section or in cases in which an order for withholding was issued under section 2907.15 of the Revised Code, and only to the extent provided in the order, and except as provided in sections 3105.171, 3105.63, 3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, and 3123.06 of the Revised Code, the person's right to a pension, benefit, annuity, retirement allowance, or accumulated contributions, the person's right to a participant account in any deferred compensation program offered by the Ohio public employees deferred compensation board, a government unit, or a municipal corporation, or the person's other accrued or accruing rights, as exempted by section 145.56, 146.13, 148.09, 742.47, 3307.41, 3309.66, or 5505.22 of the Revised Code, and the person's right to benefits from the Ohio public safety officers death benefit fund;
(b) Except as provided in sections 3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, and 3123.06 of the Revised Code, the person's right to receive a payment under any pension, annuity, or similar plan or contract, not including a payment from a stock bonus or profit-sharing plan or a payment included in division (A)(6)(b) or (10)(a) of this section, on account of illness, disability, death, age, or length of service, to the extent reasonably necessary for the support of the person and any of the person's dependents, except if all the following apply:
(i) The plan or contract was established by or under the auspices of an insider that employed the person at the time the person's rights under the plan or contract arose.
(ii) The payment is on account of age or length of service.
(iii) The plan or contract is not qualified under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended.
(c) Except for any portion of the assets that were deposited for the purpose of evading the payment of any debt and except as provided in sections 3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, and 3123.06 of the Revised Code, the person's right in the assets held in, or to receive any payment under, any individual retirement account, individual retirement annuity, "Roth IRA," or education individual retirement account that provides benefits by reason of illness, disability, death, or age, to the extent that the assets, payments, or benefits described in division (A)(10)(c) of this section are attributable to any of the following:
(i) Contributions of the person that were less than or equal to the applicable limits on deductible contributions to an individual retirement account or individual retirement annuity in the year that the contributions were made, whether or not the person was eligible to deduct the contributions on the person's federal tax return for the year in which the contributions were made;
(ii) Contributions of the person that were less than or equal to the applicable limits on contributions to a Roth IRA or education individual retirement account in the year that the contributions were made;
(iii) Contributions of the person that are within the applicable limits on rollover contributions under subsections 219, 402(c), 403(a)(4), 403(b)(8), 408(b), 408(d)(3), 408A(c)(3)(B), 408A(d)(3), and 530(d)(5) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.
(d) Except for any portion of the assets that were deposited for the purpose of evading the payment of any debt and except as provided in sections 3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, and 3123.06 of the Revised Code, the person's right in the assets held in, or to receive any payment under, any Keogh or "H.R. 10" plan that provides benefits by reason of illness, disability, death, or age, to the extent reasonably necessary for the support of the person and any of the person's dependents.
(11) The person's right to receive spousal support, child support, an allowance, or other maintenance to the extent reasonably necessary for the support of the person and any of the person's dependents;
(12) The person's right to receive, or moneys received during the preceding twelve calendar months from, any of the following:
(a) An award of reparations under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code, to the extent exempted by division (D) of section 2743.66 of the Revised Code;
(b) A payment on account of the wrongful death of an individual of whom the person was a dependent on the date of the individual's death, to the extent reasonably necessary for the support of the person and any of the person's dependents;
(c) Except in cases in which the person who receives the payment is an inmate, as defined in section 2969.21 of the Revised Code, and in which the payment resulted from a civil action or appeal against a government entity or employee, as defined in section 2969.21 of the Revised Code, a payment, not to exceed five thousand dollars, on account of personal bodily injury, not including pain and suffering or compensation for actual pecuniary loss, of the person or an individual for whom the person is a dependent;
(d) A payment in compensation for loss of future earnings of the person or an individual of whom the person is or was a dependent, to the extent reasonably necessary for the support of the debtor and any of the debtor's dependents.
(13) Except as provided in sections 3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, and 3123.06 of the Revised Code, personal earnings of the person owed to the person for services in an amount equal to the greater of the following amounts:
(a) If paid weekly, thirty times the current federal minimum hourly wage; if paid biweekly, sixty times the current federal minimum hourly wage; if paid semimonthly, sixty-five times the current federal minimum hourly wage; or if paid monthly, one hundred thirty times the current federal minimum hourly wage that is in effect at the time the earnings are payable, as prescribed by the "Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 206(a)(1), as amended;
(b) Seventy-five per cent of the disposable earnings owed to the person.
(14) The person's right in specific partnership property, as exempted by division (B)(3) of section 1775.24 of the Revised Code;
(15) A seal and official register of a notary public, as exempted by section 147.04 of the Revised Code;
(16) The person's interest in a tuition credit or a payment under section 3334.09 of the Revised Code pursuant to a tuition credit contract, as exempted by section 3334.15 of the Revised Code;
(17) Any other property that is specifically exempted from execution, attachment, garnishment, or sale by federal statutes other than the "Bankruptcy Reform Act of 1978," 92 Stat. 2549, 11 U.S.C.A. 101, as amended;
(18) The person's interest, not to exceed four hundred dollars, in any property, except that division (A)(18) of this section applies only in bankruptcy proceedings.
(B) As used in this section:
(1) "Disposable earnings" means net earnings after the garnishee has made deductions required by law, excluding the deductions ordered pursuant to section 3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, or 3123.06 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Insider" means:
(a) If the person who claims an exemption is an individual, a relative of the individual, a relative of a general partner of the individual, a partnership in which the individual is a general partner, a general partner of the individual, or a corporation of which the individual is a director, officer, or in control;
(b) If the person who claims an exemption is a corporation, a director or officer of the corporation; a person in control of the corporation; a partnership in which the corporation is a general partner; a general partner of the corporation; or a relative of a general partner, director, officer, or person in control of the corporation;
(c) If the person who claims an exemption is a partnership, a general partner in the partnership; a general partner of the partnership; a person in control of the partnership; a partnership in which the partnership is a general partner; or a relative in, a general partner of, or a person in control of the partnership;
(d) An entity or person to which or whom any of the following applies:
(i) The entity directly or indirectly owns, controls, or holds with power to vote, twenty per cent or more of the outstanding voting securities of the person who claims an exemption, unless the entity holds the securities in a fiduciary or agency capacity without sole discretionary power to vote the securities or holds the securities solely to secure to debt and the entity has not in fact exercised the power to vote.
(ii) The entity is a corporation, twenty per cent or more of whose outstanding voting securities are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or held with power to vote, by the person who claims an exemption or by an entity to which division (B)(2)(d)(i) of this section applies.
(iii) A person whose business is operated under a lease or operating agreement by the person who claims an exemption, or a person substantially all of whose business is operated under an operating agreement with the person who claims an exemption.
(iv) The entity operates the business or all or substantially all of the property of the person who claims an exemption under a lease or operating agreement.
(e) An insider, as otherwise defined in this section, of a person or entity to which division (B)(2)(d)(i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section applies, as if the person or entity were a person who claims an exemption;
(f) A managing agent of the person who claims an exemption.
(3) "Participant account" has the same meaning as in section 148.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Government unit" has the same meaning as in section 148.06 of the Revised Code.
(C) For purposes of this section, "interest" shall be determined as follows:
(1) In bankruptcy proceedings, as of the date a petition is filed with the bankruptcy court commencing a case under Title 11 of the United States Code;
(2) In all cases other than bankruptcy proceedings, as of the date of an appraisal, if necessary under section 2329.68 of the Revised Code, or the issuance of a writ of execution.
An interest, as determined under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, shall not include the amount of any lien otherwise valid pursuant to section 2329.661 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2505.13.  If a supersedeas bond has been executed and filed and the surety is one other than a surety company, the clerk of the court with which the bond has been filed, upon request, shall issue a certificate that sets forth the fact that the bond has been filed and that states the style and number of the appeal, the amount of the bond, and the sureties on it. Such a certificate may be filed in the office of the county recorder of any county in which the sureties may own land, and, when filed, the bond shall be a lien upon the land of the sureties in such county. The lien shall be extinguished upon the satisfaction, reversal, or vacation of the final order, judgment, or decree involved, or by an order of the court that entered the final order, judgment, or decree, that releases the lien or releases certain land from the operation of the lien.
The clerk, upon request, shall issue a notice of discharge of such a lien, which may be filed in the office of any recorder in whose office the certificate of lien was filed. Such notice shall state that the final order, judgment, or decree involved is satisfied, reversed, or vacated, or that an order has been entered that releases the lien or certain land from the operation of the lien. Such recorder shall properly keep and file such certificates and notices as are filed with him the recorder and shall index them in the book or record provided for in section 2937.27 of the Revised Code.
The fee for issuing such a certificate or notice shall be as provided by law, and shall be taxed as part of the costs of the appeal. A county recorder shall receive a base fee of fifty cents for filing and indexing such a certificate, which fee shall cover the filing and the entering on the index of such a the notice and a housing trust fund fee of fifty cents pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2715.041.  (A) Upon the filing of a motion for an order of attachment pursuant to section 2715.03 of the Revised Code, the plaintiff shall file with the clerk of the court a praecipe instructing the clerk to issue to the defendant against whom the motion was filed a notice of the proceeding. Upon receipt of the praecipe, the clerk shall issue the notice which shall be in substantially the following form:
"(Name and Address of Court)
Case No...................

(Case Caption)
NOTICE
You are hereby notified that (name and address of plaintiff), the plaintiff in this proceeding, has applied to this court for the attachment of property in your possession. The basis for this application is indicated in the documents that are enclosed with this notice.
The law of Ohio and the United States provides that certain benefit payments cannot be taken from you to pay a debt. Typical among the benefits that cannot be attached or executed on by a creditor are:
(1) Workers' compensation benefits;
(2) Unemployment compensation payments;
(3) Cash assistance payments under the Ohio works first program;
(4) Benefits and services under the prevention, retention, and contingency program;
(5) Disability financial assistance administered by the Ohio department of job and family services;
(6) Social security benefits;
(7) Supplemental security income (S.S.I.);
(8) Veteran's benefits;
(9) Black lung benefits;
(10) Certain pensions.
Additionally, your wages never can be taken to pay a debt until a judgment has been obtained against you. There may be other benefits not included in this list that apply in your case.
If you dispute the plaintiff's claim and believe that you are entitled to retain possession of the property because it is exempt or for any other reason, you may request a hearing before this court by disputing the claim in the request for hearing form appearing below, or in a substantially similar form, and delivering the request for the hearing to this court, at the office of the clerk of this court, not later than the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice. You may state your reasons for disputing the claim in the space provided on the form, but you are not required to do so. If you do state your reasons for disputing the claim in the space provided on the form, you are not prohibited from stating any other reasons at the hearing, and if you do not state your reasons, it will not be held against you by the court and you can state your reasons at the hearing.
If you request a hearing, it will be conducted in ................... courtroom ........, (address of court), at .............m. on ............., .....
You may avoid having a hearing but retain possession of the property until the entry of final judgment in the action by filing with the court, at the office of the clerk of this court, not later than the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice, a bond executed by an acceptable surety in the amount of $............
If you do not request a hearing or file a bond on or before the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice, the court, without further notice to you, may order a law enforcement officer or bailiff to take possession of the property. Notice of the dates, times, places, and purposes of any subsequent hearings and of the date, time, and place of the trial of the action will be sent to you.
..................................
Clerk of Court
Date:........................"

(B) Along with the notice required by division (A) of this section, the clerk of the court also shall deliver to the defendant, in accordance with division (C) of this section, a request for hearing form together with a postage-paid, self-addressed envelope or a request for hearing form on a postage-paid, self-addressed postcard. The request for hearing shall be in substantially the following form:
"(Name and Address of Court)
Case Number .................... Date .......................

REQUEST FOR HEARING
I dispute the claim for the attachment of property in the above case and request that a hearing in this matter be held at the time and place set forth in the notice that I previously received.
I dispute the claim for the following reasons:
................................................................
(Optional)
................................................................
................................................................
.............................
(Name of Defendant)
............................
(Signature)
............................
(Date)

WARNING: IF YOU DO NOT DELIVER THIS REQUEST FOR HEARING OR A REQUEST IN A SUBSTANTIALLY SIMILAR FORM TO THE OFFICE OF THE CLERK OF THIS COURT WITHIN FIVE (5) BUSINESS DAYS OF YOUR RECEIPT OF IT, YOU WAIVE YOUR RIGHT TO A HEARING AT THIS TIME AND YOU MAY BE REQUIRED TO GIVE UP THE PROPERTY SOUGHT WITHOUT A HEARING."
(C) The notice required by division (A) of this section shall be served on the defendant in duplicate not less than seven business days prior to the date on which the hearing is scheduled, together with a copy of the complaint and summons, if not previously served, and a copy of the motion for the attachment of property and the affidavit attached to the motion, in the same manner as provided in the Rules of Civil Procedure for the service of process. Service may be effected by publication as provided in the Rules of Civil Procedure except that the number of weeks for publication may be reduced by the court to the extent appropriate.
Sec. 2715.045.  (A) Upon the filing of a motion for attachment, a court may issue an order of attachment without issuing notice to the defendant against whom the motion was filed and without conducting a hearing if the court finds that there is probable cause to support the motion and that the plaintiff that filed the motion for attachment will suffer irreparable injury if the order is delayed until the defendant against whom the motion has been filed has been given the opportunity for a hearing. The court's findings shall be based upon the motion and affidavit filed pursuant to section 2715.03 of the Revised Code and any other relevant evidence that it may wish to consider.
(B) A finding by the court that the plaintiff will suffer irreparable injury may be made only if the court finds the existence of either of the following circumstances:
(1) There is present danger that the property will be immediately disposed of, concealed, or placed beyond the jurisdiction of the court.
(2) The value of the property will be impaired substantially if the issuance of an order of attachment is delayed.
(C)(1) Upon the issuance by a court of an order of attachment without notice and hearing pursuant to this section, the plaintiff shall file the order with the clerk of the court, together with a praecipe instructing the clerk to issue to the defendant against whom the order was issued a copy of the motion, affidavit, and order of attachment, and a notice that an order of attachment was issued and that the defendant has a right to a hearing on the matter. The clerk then immediately shall serve upon the defendant, in the manner provided by the Rules of Civil Procedure for service of process, a copy of the complaint and summons, if not previously served, a copy of the motion, affidavit, and order of attachment, and the following notice:
"(Name and Address of the Court)
(Case Caption) Case No. ........................

NOTICE
You are hereby notified that this court has issued an order in the above case in favor of (name and address of plaintiff), the plaintiff in this proceeding, directing that property now in your possession, be taken from you. This order was issued on the basis of the plaintiff's claim against you as indicated in the documents that are enclosed with this notice.
The law of Ohio and the United States provides that certain benefit payments cannot be taken from you to pay a debt. Typical among the benefits that cannot be attached or executed on by a creditor are:
(1) Workers' compensation benefits;
(2) Unemployment compensation payments;
(3) Cash assistance payments under the Ohio works first program;
(4) Benefits and services under the prevention, retention, and contingency program;
(5) Disability financial assistance administered by the Ohio department of job and family services;
(6) Social security benefits;
(7) Supplemental security income (S.S.I.);
(8) Veteran's benefits;
(9) Black lung benefits;
(10) Certain pensions.
Additionally, your wages never can be taken to pay a debt until a judgment has been obtained against you. There may be other benefits not included in this list that apply in your case.
If you dispute the plaintiff's claim and believe that you are entitled to possession of the property because it is exempt or for any other reason, you may request a hearing before this court by disputing the claim in the request for hearing form, appearing below, or in a substantially similar form, and delivering the request for hearing to this court at the above address, at the office of the clerk of this court, no later than the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice. You may state your reasons for disputing the claim in the space provided on the form; however, you are not required to do so. If you do state your reasons for disputing the claim, you are not prohibited from stating any other reasons at the hearing, and if you do not state your reasons, it will not be held against you by the court and you can state your reasons at the hearing. If you request a hearing, it will be held within three business days after delivery of your request for hearing and notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing will be sent to you.
You may avoid a hearing but recover and retain possession of the property until the entry of final judgment in the action by filing with the court, at the office of the clerk of this court, not later than the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice, a bond executed by an acceptable surety in the amount of $.........
If you do not request a hearing or file a bond before the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice, possession of the property will be withheld from you during the pendency of the action. Notice of the dates, times, places, and purposes of any subsequent hearings and of the date, time, and place of the trial of the action will be sent to you.
..............................
Clerk of the Court
..............................
Date"

(2) Along with the notice required by division (C)(1) of this section, the clerk of the court also shall deliver to the defendant a request for hearing form together with a postage-paid, self-addressed envelope or a request for hearing form on a postage-paid, self-addressed postcard. The request for hearing shall be in substantially the following form:
"(Name and Address of Court)
Case Number ..................... Date ........................

REQUEST FOR HEARING
I dispute the claim for possession of property in the above case and request that a hearing in this matter be held within three business days after delivery of this request to the court.
I dispute the claim for the following reasons:
..................................................................
(Optional)
..................................................................
..................................................................
..............................
(Name of Defendant)
..............................
(Signature)
..............................
(Date)

WARNING: IF YOU DO NOT DELIVER THIS REQUEST FOR HEARING OR A REQUEST IN A SUBSTANTIALLY SIMILAR FORM TO THE OFFICE OF THE CLERK OF THIS COURT WITHIN FIVE (5) BUSINESS DAYS OF YOUR RECEIPT OF IT, YOU WAIVE YOUR RIGHT TO A HEARING AND POSSESSION OF THE PROPERTY WILL BE WITHHELD FROM YOU DURING THE PENDENCY OF THE ACTION."
(D) The defendant may receive a hearing in accordance with section 2715.043 of the Revised Code by delivering a written request for hearing to the court within five business days after receipt of the notice provided pursuant to division (C) of this section. The request may set forth the defendant's reasons for disputing the plaintiff's claim for possession of property. However, neither the defendant's inclusion of nor failure to include such reasons upon the request constitutes a waiver of any defense of the defendant or affects the defendant's right to produce evidence at any hearing or at the trial of the action. If the request is made by the defendant, the court shall schedule a hearing within three business days after the request is made, send notice to the parties of the date, time, and place of the hearing, and hold the hearing accordingly.
(E) If, after hearing, the court finds that there is not probable cause to support the motion, it shall order that the property be redelivered to the defendant without the condition of bond.
Sec. 2716.13.  (A) Upon the filing of a proceeding in garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under section 2716.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall cause the matter to be set for hearing within twelve days after that filing.
(B) Upon the scheduling of a hearing relative to a proceeding in garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under division (A) of this section, the clerk of the court immediately shall issue to the garnishee three copies of the order of garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, and of a written notice that the garnishee answer as provided in section 2716.21 of the Revised Code and the garnishee's fee required by section 2716.12 of the Revised Code. The copies of the order and of the notice shall be served upon the garnishee in the same manner as a summons is served. The copies of the order and of the notice shall not be served later than seven days prior to the date on which the hearing is scheduled. The order shall bind the property, other than personal earnings, of the judgment debtor in the possession of the garnishee at the time of service.
The order of garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, and notice to answer shall be in substantially the following form:
"ORDER AND NOTICE OF GARNISHMENT
OF PROPERTY OTHER THAN PERSONAL EARNINGS
AND ANSWER OF GARNISHEE
Docket No. ...................
Case No. .....................
In the ................. Court
........................, Ohio

The State of Ohio
County of ............, ss
..................., Judgment Creditor
vs.
..................., Judgment Debtor
SECTION A. COURT ORDER AND NOTICE OF GARNISHMENT
To: ...................., Garnishee
The judgment creditor in the above case has filed an affidavit, satisfactory to the undersigned, in this Court stating that you have money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, in your hands or under your control that belong to the judgment debtor, and that some of the money, property, or credits may not be exempt from garnishment under the laws of the State of Ohio or the laws of the United States.
You are therefore ordered to complete the "ANSWER OF GARNISHEE" in section (B) of this form. Return one completed and signed copy of this form to the clerk of this court together with the amount determined in accordance with the "ANSWER OF GARNISHEE" by the following date on which a hearing is tentatively scheduled relative to this order of garnishment: ............ Deliver one completed and signed copy of this form to the judgment debtor prior to that date. Keep the other completed and signed copy of this form for your files.
The total probable amount now due on this judgment is $.......... The total probable amount now due includes the unpaid portion of the judgment in favor of the judgment creditor, which is $..........; interest on that judgment and, if applicable, prejudgment interest relative to that judgment at the rate of .....% per annum payable until that judgment is satisfied in full; and court costs in the amount of $...........
You also are ordered to hold safely anything of value that belongs to the judgment debtor and that has to be paid to the court, as determined under the "ANSWER OF GARNISHEE" in section (B) of this form, but that is of such a nature that it cannot be so delivered, until further order of the court.
Witness my hand and the seal of this court this .......... day of .........., ..........
.........................
Judge

SECTION B. ANSWER OF GARNISHEE
Now comes .................... the garnishee, who says:
1. That the garnishee has money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, of the judgment debtor under the garnishee's control and in the garnishee's possession.
............... ............... ...................
yes no if yes, amount

2. That property is described as:
3. If the answer to line 1 is "yes" and the amount is less than the probable amount now due on the judgment, as indicated in section (A) of this form, sign and return this form and pay the amount of line 1 to the clerk of this court.
4. If the answer to line 1 is "yes" and the amount is greater than that probable amount now due on the judgment, as indicated in section (A) of this form, sign and return this form and pay that probable amount now due to the clerk of this court.
5. If the answer to line 1 is "yes" but the money, property, or credits are of such a nature that they cannot be delivered to the clerk of the court, indicate that by placing an "X" in this space: ...... Do not dispose of that money, property, or credits or give them to anyone else until further order of the court.
6. If the answer to line 1 is "no," sign and return this form to the clerk of this court.
I certify that the statements above are true.
..............................
(Print Name of Garnishee)
..............................
(Print Name and Title of
Person Who Completed Form)

Signed........................................................
(Signature of Person Completing Form)
Dated this .......... day of .........., ....."
Section A of the form described in this division shall be completed before service. Section B of the form shall be completed by the garnishee, and the garnishee shall file one completed and signed copy of the form with the clerk of the court as the garnishee's answer. The garnishee may keep one completed and signed copy of the form and shall deliver the other completed and signed copy of the form to the judgment debtor.
If several affidavits seeking orders of garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, are filed against the same judgment debtor in accordance with section 2716.11 of the Revised Code, the court involved shall issue the requested orders in the same order in which the clerk received the associated affidavits.
(C)(1) At the time of the filing of a proceeding in garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under section 2716.11 of the Revised Code, the judgment creditor also shall file with the clerk of the court a praecipe instructing the clerk to issue to the judgment debtor a notice to the judgment debtor form and a request for hearing form. Upon receipt of the praecipe and the scheduling of a hearing relative to an action in garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under division (A) of this section, the clerk of the court immediately shall serve upon the judgment debtor, in accordance with division (D) of this section, two copies of the notice to the judgment debtor form and of the request for hearing form. The copies of the notice to the judgment debtor form and of the request for hearing form shall not be served later than seven days prior to the date on which the hearing is scheduled.
(a) The notice to the judgment debtor that must be served upon the judgment debtor shall be in substantially the following form:
"(Name and Address of the Court)
(Case Caption) ......................... Case No. .............
NOTICE TO THE JUDGMENT DEBTOR
You are hereby notified that this court has issued an order in the above case in favor of (name and address of judgment creditor), the judgment creditor in this proceeding, directing that some of your money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, now in the possession of (name and address of garnishee), the garnishee in this proceeding, be used to satisfy your debt to the judgment creditor. This order was issued on the basis of the judgment creditor's judgment against you that was obtained in (name of court) in (case number) on (date). Upon your receipt of this notice, you are prohibited from removing or attempting to remove the money, property, or credits until expressly permitted by the court. Any violation of this prohibition subjects you to punishment for contempt of court.
The law of Ohio and the United States provides that certain benefit payments cannot be taken from you to pay a debt. Typical among the benefits that cannot be attached or executed upon by a creditor are the following:
(1) Workers' compensation benefits;
(2) Unemployment compensation payments;
(3) Cash assistance payments under the Ohio works first program;
(4) Benefits and services under the prevention, retention, and contingency program;
(5) Disability financial assistance administered by the Ohio department of job and family services;
(6) Social security benefits;
(7) Supplemental security income (S.S.I.);
(8) Veteran's benefits;
(9) Black lung benefits;
(10) Certain pensions.
There may be other benefits not included in the above list that apply in your case.
If you dispute the judgment creditor's right to garnish your property and believe that the judgment creditor should not be given your money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, now in the possession of the garnishee because they are exempt or if you feel that this order is improper for any other reason, you may request a hearing before this court by disputing the claim in the request for hearing form, appearing below, or in a substantially similar form, and delivering the request for hearing to this court at the above address, at the office of the clerk of this court no later than the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice. You may state your reasons for disputing the judgment creditor's right to garnish your property in the space provided on the form; however, you are not required to do so. If you do state your reasons for disputing the judgment creditor's right, you are not prohibited from stating any other reason at the hearing. If you do not state your reasons, it will not be held against you by the court, and you can state your reasons at the hearing. NO OBJECTIONS TO THE JUDGMENT ITSELF WILL BE HEARD OR CONSIDERED AT THE HEARING. If you request a hearing, the hearing will be limited to a consideration of the amount of your money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, in the possession or control of the garnishee, if any, that can be used to satisfy all or part of the judgment you owe to the judgment creditor.
If you request a hearing by delivering your request for hearing no later than the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice, it will be conducted in .......... courtroom .........., (address of court), at ..... m. on .........., .......... You may request the court to conduct the hearing before this date by indicating your request in the space provided on the form; the court then will send you notice of any change in the date, time, or place of the hearing. If you do not request a hearing by delivering your request for a hearing no later than the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice, some of your money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, will be paid to the judgment creditor.
If you have any questions concerning this matter, you may contact the office of the clerk of this court. If you want legal representation, you should contact your lawyer immediately. If you need the name of a lawyer, contact the local bar association.
..............................
Clerk of the Court
..............................
Date"

(b) The request for hearing form that must be served upon the judgment debtor shall have attached to it a postage-paid, self-addressed envelope or shall be on a postage-paid self-addressed postcard, and shall be in substantially the following form:
"(Name and Address of Court)
Case Number ........................... Date ....................
REQUEST FOR HEARING
I dispute the judgment creditor's right to garnish my money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, in the above case and request that a hearing in this matter be held
..................................................................
(Insert "on" or "earlier than")
the date and time set forth in the document entitled "NOTICE TO THE JUDGMENT DEBTOR" that I received with this request form.
I dispute the judgment creditor's right to garnish my property for the following reasons:
..................................................................
(Optional)
..................................................................
..................................................................
I UNDERSTAND THAT NO OBJECTIONS TO THE JUDGMENT ITSELF WILL BE HEARD OR CONSIDERED AT THE HEARING.
..............................
(Name of Judgment Debtor)
..............................
(Signature)
..............................
(Date)

WARNING: IF YOU DO NOT DELIVER THIS REQUEST FOR HEARING OR A REQUEST IN A SUBSTANTIALLY SIMILAR FORM TO THE OFFICE OF THE CLERK OF THIS COURT WITHIN FIVE (5) BUSINESS DAYS OF YOUR RECEIPT OF IT, YOU WAIVE YOUR RIGHT TO A HEARING AND SOME OF YOUR MONEY, PROPERTY, OR CREDITS, OTHER THAN PERSONAL EARNINGS, NOW IN THE POSSESSION OF (GARNISHEE'S NAME) WILL BE PAID TO (JUDGMENT CREDITOR'S NAME) TO SATISFY SOME OF YOUR DEBT TO (JUDGMENT CREDITOR'S NAME)."
(2) The judgment debtor may receive a hearing in accordance with this division by delivering a written request for hearing to the court within five business days after receipt of the notice provided pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section. The request may set forth the judgment debtor's reasons for disputing the judgment creditor's right to garnish the money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings; however, neither the judgment debtor's inclusion of nor failure to include those reasons upon the request constitutes a waiver of any defense of the judgment debtor or affects the judgment debtor's right to produce evidence at the hearing. If the request is made by the judgment debtor within the prescribed time, the hearing shall be limited to a consideration of the amount of money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, of the judgment debtor in the hands of the garnishee, if any, that can be used to satisfy all or part of the debt owed by the judgment debtor to the judgment creditor. If a request for a hearing is not received by the court within the prescribed time, the hearing scheduled pursuant to division (A) of this section shall be canceled unless the court grants the judgment debtor a continuance in accordance with division (C)(3) of this section.
(3) If the judgment debtor does not request a hearing in the action within the prescribed time pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the court nevertheless may grant a continuance of the scheduled hearing if the judgment debtor, prior to the time at which the hearing was scheduled, as indicated on the notice to the judgment debtor required by division (C)(1) of this section, establishes a reasonable justification for failure to request the hearing within the prescribed time. If the court grants a continuance of the hearing, it shall cause the matter to be set for hearing as soon as practicable thereafter. The continued hearing shall be conducted in accordance with division (C)(2) of this section.
(4) The court may conduct the hearing on the matter prior to the time at which the hearing was scheduled, as indicated on the notice to the judgment debtor required by division (C)(1) of this section, upon the request of the judgment debtor. The parties shall be sent notice, by the clerk of the court, by regular mail, of any change in the date, time, or place of the hearing.
(5) If the scheduled hearing is canceled and no continuance is granted, the court shall issue an order to the garnishee to pay all or some of the money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, of the judgment debtor in the possession of the garnishee at the time of service of the notice and order into court if they have not already been paid to the court. This order shall be based on the answer of the garnishee filed pursuant to this section. If the scheduled hearing is conducted or if it is continued and conducted, the court shall determine at the hearing the amount of the money, property, or credits, other than personal earnings, of the judgment debtor in the possession of the garnishee at the time of service of the notice and order, if any, that can be used to satisfy all or part of the debt owed by the judgment debtor to the judgment creditor, and issue an order, accordingly, to the garnishee to pay that amount into court if it has not already been paid to the court.
(D) The notice to the judgment debtor form and the request for hearing form described in division (C) of this section shall be sent by the clerk by ordinary or regular mail service unless the judgment creditor requests that service be made in accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure, in which case the forms shall be served in accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. Any court of common pleas that issues an order of garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under this section has jurisdiction to serve process pursuant to this section upon a garnishee who does not reside within the jurisdiction of the court. Any county court or municipal court that issues an order of garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under this section has jurisdiction to serve process pursuant to this section upon a garnishee who does not reside within the jurisdiction of the court.
Sec. 2743.02.  (A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity from liability and, subject to division (H) of this section, consents to be sued, and have its liability determined, in the court of claims created in this chapter in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private parties, except that the determination of liability is subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter and, in the case of state universities or colleges, in section 3345.40 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section. To the extent that the state has previously consented to be sued, this chapter has no applicability.
Except in the case of a civil action filed by the state, filing a civil action in the court of claims results in a complete waiver of any cause of action, based on the same act or omission, which the filing party has against any officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code. The waiver shall be void if the court determines that the act or omission was manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or employee's office or employment or that the officer or employee acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.
(2) If a claimant proves in the court of claims that an officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, would have personal liability for his the officer's or employee's acts or omissions but for the fact that the officer or employee has personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code, the state shall be held liable in the court of claims in any action that is timely filed pursuant to section 2743.16 of the Revised Code and that is based upon the acts or omissions.
(B) The state hereby waives the immunity from liability of all hospitals owned or operated by one or more political subdivisions and consents for them to be sued, and to have their liability determined, in the court of common pleas, in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private parties, subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter. This division is also applicable to hospitals owned or operated by political subdivisions which have been determined by the supreme court to be subject to suit prior to July 28, 1975.
(C) Any hospital, as defined under section 2305.11 of the Revised Code, may purchase liability insurance covering its operations and activities and its agents, employees, nurses, interns, residents, staff, and members of the governing board and committees, and, whether or not such insurance is purchased, may, to such extent as its governing board considers appropriate, indemnify or agree to indemnify and hold harmless any such person against expense, including attorney's fees, damage, loss, or other liability arising out of, or claimed to have arisen out of, the death, disease, or injury of any person as a result of the negligence, malpractice, or other action or inaction of the indemnified person while acting within the scope of his the indemnified person's duties or engaged in activities at the request or direction, or for the benefit, of the hospital. Any hospital electing to indemnify such persons, or to agree to so indemnify, shall reserve such funds as are necessary, in the exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover the potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The superintendent of insurance may recommend, or, if such hospital requests him the superintendent to do so, the superintendent shall recommend, a specific amount for any period that, in his the superintendent's opinion, represents such a judgment. This authority is in addition to any authorization otherwise provided or permitted by law.
(D) Recoveries against the state shall be reduced by the aggregate of insurance proceeds, disability award, or other collateral recovery received by the claimant. This division does not apply to civil actions in the court of claims against a state university or college under the circumstances described in section 3345.40 of the Revised Code. The collateral benefits provisions of division (B)(2) of that section apply under those circumstances.
(E) The only defendant in original actions in the court of claims is the state. The state may file a third-party complaint or counterclaim in any civil action, except a civil action for two thousand five hundred dollars or less, that is filed in the court of claims.
(F) A civil action against an officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, that alleges that the officer's or employee's conduct was manifestly outside the scope of his the officer's or employee's employment or official responsibilities, or that the officer or employee acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner shall first be filed against the state in the court of claims, which has exclusive, original jurisdiction to determine, initially, whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code and whether the courts of common pleas have jurisdiction over the civil action.
The filing of a claim against an officer or employee under this division tolls the running of the applicable statute of limitations until the court of claims determines whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code.
(G) Whenever a claim lies against an officer or employee who is a member of the Ohio national guard, and the officer or employee was, at the time of the act or omission complained of, subject to the "Federal Tort Claims Act," 60 Stat. 842 (1946), 28 U.S.C. 2671, et seq., then the Federal Tort Claims Act is the exclusive remedy of the claimant and the state has no liability under this section.
(H) If an inmate of a state correctional institution has a claim against the state for the loss of or damage to property and the amount claimed does not exceed three hundred dollars, before commencing an action against the state in the court of claims, the inmate shall file a claim for the loss or damage under the rules adopted by the director of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to this division. The inmate shall file the claim within the time allowed for commencement of a civil action under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code. If the state admits or compromises the claim, the director shall make payment from a fund designated by the director for that purpose. If the state denies the claim or does not compromise the claim at least sixty days prior to expiration of the time allowed for commencement of a civil action based upon the loss or damage under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code, the inmate may commence an action in the court of claims under this chapter to recover damages for the loss or damage.
The director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this division.
Sec. 2915.01.  As used in this chapter:
(A) "Bookmaking" means the business of receiving or paying off bets.
(B) "Bet" means the hazarding of anything of value upon the result of an event, undertaking, or contingency, but does not include a bona fide business risk.
(C) "Scheme of chance" means a slot machine, lottery, numbers game, pool, or other scheme in which a participant gives a valuable consideration for a chance to win a prize, but does not include bingo.
(D) "Game of chance" means poker, craps, roulette, or other game in which a player gives anything of value in the hope of gain, the outcome of which is determined largely by chance, but does not include bingo.
(E) "Game of chance conducted for profit" means any game of chance designed to produce income for the person who conducts or operates the game of chance, but does not include bingo.
(F) "Gambling device" means any of the following:
(1) A book, totalizer, or other equipment for recording bets;
(2) A ticket, token, or other device representing a chance, share, or interest in a scheme of chance or evidencing a bet;
(3) A deck of cards, dice, gaming table, roulette wheel, slot machine, or other apparatus designed for use in connection with a game of chance;
(4) Any equipment, device, apparatus, or paraphernalia specially designed for gambling purposes;
(5) Bingo supplies sold or otherwise provided, or used, in violation of this chapter.
(G) "Gambling offense" means any of the following:
(1) A violation of section 2915.02, 2915.03, 2915.04, 2915.05, 2915.07, 2915.08, 2915.081, 2915.082, 2915.09, 2915.091, 2915.092, 2915.10, or 2915.11 of the Revised Code;
(2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (G)(1) of this section or a violation of section 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;
(3) An offense under an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States, of which gambling is an element;
(4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense under division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
(H) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, "charitable organization" means any tax exempt religious, educational, veteran's, fraternal, service, nonprofit medical, volunteer rescue service, volunteer firefighter's, senior citizen's, youth athletic, amateur athletic, or youth athletic park organization. An organization is tax exempt if the organization is, and has received from the internal revenue service a determination letter that currently is in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3), 501(c)(4), 501(c)(8), 501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code. To qualify as a charitable organization, an organization, except a volunteer rescue service or volunteer fire fighter's organization, shall have been in continuous existence as such in this state for a period of two years immediately preceding either the making of an application for a bingo license under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code or the conducting of any scheme of chance or game of chance as provided in division (C)of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code. A charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is created by a veteran's organization or a fraternal organization does not have to have been in continuous existence as such in this state for a period of two years immediately preceding either the making of an application for a bingo license under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code or the conducting of any scheme of chance or game of chance as provided in division (D) of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code.
(I) "Religious organization" means any church, body of communicants, or group that is not organized or operated for profit and that gathers in common membership for regular worship and religious observances.
(J) "Educational organization" means any organization within this state that is not organized for profit, the exclusive purpose of which is to educate and develop the capabilities of individuals through instruction, and that operates or contributes to the support of a school, academy, college, or university.
(K) "Veteran's organization" means any individual post of a national veteran's association or an auxiliary unit of any individual post of a national veteran's association, which post or auxiliary unit has been incorporated as a nonprofit corporation for at least two years and has received a letter from the state headquarters of the national veteran's association indicating that the individual post or auxiliary unit is in good standing with the national veteran's association. As used in this division, "national veteran's association" means any veteran's association that has been in continuous existence as such for a period of at least five years and either is incorporated by an act of the United States congress or has a national dues-paying membership of at least five thousand persons.
(L) "Volunteer firefighter's organization" means any organization of volunteer firefighters, as defined in section 146.01 of the Revised Code, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support for a volunteer fire department or a volunteer fire company and that is recognized or ratified by a county, municipal corporation, or township.
(M) "Fraternal organization" means any society, order, or association within this state, except a college or high school fraternity, that is not organized for profit, that is a branch, lodge, or chapter of a national or state organization, that exists exclusively for the common business or sodality of its members, and that has been in continuous existence in this state for a period of five years.
(N) "Volunteer rescue service organization" means any organization of volunteers organized to function as an emergency medical service organization, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
(O) "Service organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated exclusively to provide, medical and therapeutic services for persons who are crippled, born with birth defects, or have any other mental or physical defect or those organized and operated exclusively to protect, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated exclusively to protect, animals from inhumane treatment.
(P) "Nonprofit medical organization" means any organization that has been incorporated as a nonprofit corporation for at least five years and that has continuously operated and will be operated exclusively to provide, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated exclusively to provide, hospital, medical, research, or therapeutic services for the public.
(Q) "Senior citizen's organization" means any private organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide recreational or social services for persons who are fifty-five years of age or older and that is described and qualified under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.
(R) "Charitable bingo game" means any bingo game described in division (S)(1) or (2) of this section that is conducted by a charitable organization that has obtained a license pursuant to section 2915.08 of the Revised Code and the proceeds of which are used for a charitable purpose.
(S) "Bingo" means either of the following:
(1) A game with all of the following characteristics:
(a) The participants use bingo cards or sheets, including paper formats and electronic representation or image formats, that are divided into twenty-five spaces arranged in five horizontal and five vertical rows of spaces, with each space, except the central space, being designated by a combination of a letter and a number and with the central space being designated as a free space.
(b) The participants cover the spaces on the bingo cards or sheets that correspond to combinations of letters and numbers that are announced by a bingo game operator.
(c) A bingo game operator announces combinations of letters and numbers that appear on objects that a bingo game operator selects by chance, either manually or mechanically, from a receptacle that contains seventy-five objects at the beginning of each game, each object marked by a different combination of a letter and a number that corresponds to one of the seventy-five possible combinations of a letter and a number that can appear on the bingo cards or sheets.
(d) The winner of the bingo game includes any participant who properly announces during the interval between the announcements of letters and numbers as described in division (S)(1)(c) of this section, that a predetermined and preannounced pattern of spaces has been covered on a bingo card or sheet being used by the participant.
(2) Instant bingo, punch boards, and raffles.
(T) "Conduct" means to back, promote, organize, manage, carry on, sponsor, or prepare for the operation of bingo or a game of chance.
(U) "Bingo game operator" means any person, except security personnel, who performs work or labor at the site of bingo, including, but not limited to, collecting money from participants, handing out bingo cards or sheets or objects to cover spaces on bingo cards or sheets, selecting from a receptacle the objects that contain the combination of letters and numbers that appear on bingo cards or sheets, calling out the combinations of letters and numbers, distributing prizes, selling or redeeming instant bingo tickets or cards, supervising the operation of a punch board, selling raffle tickets, selecting raffle tickets from a receptacle and announcing the winning numbers in a raffle, and preparing, selling, and serving food or beverages.
(V) "Participant" means any person who plays bingo.
(W) "Bingo session" means a period that includes both of the following:
(1) Not to exceed five continuous hours for the conduct of one or more games described in division (S)(1) of this section, instant bingo, and seal cards;
(2) A period for the conduct of instant bingo and seal cards for not more than two hours before and not more than two hours after the period described in division (W)(1) of this section.
(X) "Gross receipts" means all money or assets, including admission fees, that a person receives from bingo without the deduction of any amounts for prizes paid out or for the expenses of conducting bingo. "Gross receipts" does not include any money directly taken in from the sale of food or beverages by a charitable organization conducting bingo, or by a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of a charitable organization conducting bingo, provided all of the following apply:
(1) The auxiliary unit or society has been in existence as a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of the charitable organization for at least two years prior to conducting bingo.
(2) The person who purchases the food or beverage receives nothing of value except the food or beverage and items customarily received with the purchase of that food or beverage.
(3) The food and beverages are sold at customary and reasonable prices.
(Y) "Security personnel" includes any person who either is a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, township constable, or member of an organized police department of a municipal corporation or has successfully completed a peace officer's training course pursuant to sections 109.71 to 109.79 of the Revised Code and who is hired to provide security for the premises on which bingo is conducted.
(Z) "Charitable purpose" means that the net profit of bingo, other than instant bingo, is used by, or is given, donated, or otherwise transferred to, any of the following:
(1) Any organization that is described in subsection 509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is either a governmental unit or an organization that is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;
(2) A veteran's organization that is a post, chapter, or organization of veterans, or an auxiliary unit or society of, or a trust or foundation for, any such post, chapter, or organization organized in the United States or any of its possessions, at least seventy-five per cent of the members of which are veterans and substantially all of the other members of which are individuals who are spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, or such individuals, provided that no part of the net earnings of such post, chapter, or organization inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and further provided that the net profit is used by the post, chapter, or organization for the charitable purposes set forth in division (B)(12)(11) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, is used for awarding scholarships to or for attendance at an institution mentioned in division (B)(12)(11) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, is donated to a governmental agency, or is used for nonprofit youth activities, the purchase of United States or Ohio flags that are donated to schools, youth groups, or other bona fide nonprofit organizations, promotion of patriotism, or disaster relief;
(3) A fraternal organization that has been in continuous existence in this state for fifteen years and that uses the net profit exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, if contributions for such use would qualify as a deductible charitable contribution under subsection 170 of the Internal Revenue Code;
(4) A volunteer firefighter's organization that uses the net profit for the purposes set forth in division (L) of this section.
(AA) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as now or hereafter amended.
(BB) "Youth athletic organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are twenty-one years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.
(CC) "Youth athletic park organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that satisfies both of the following:
(1) It owns, operates, and maintains playing fields that satisfy both of the following:
(a) The playing fields are used at least one hundred days per year for athletic activities by one or more organizations, not organized for profit, each of which is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are eighteen years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.
(b) The playing fields are not used for any profit-making activity at any time during the year.
(2) It uses the proceeds of bingo it conducts exclusively for the operation, maintenance, and improvement of its playing fields of the type described in division (CC)(1) of this section.
(DD) "Amateur athletic organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are training for amateur athletic competition that is sanctioned by a national governing body as defined in the "Amateur Sports Act of 1978," 90 Stat. 3045, 36 U.S.C.A. 373.
(EE) "Bingo supplies" means bingo cards or sheets; instant bingo tickets or cards; electronic bingo aids; raffle tickets; punch boards; seal cards; instant bingo ticket dispensers; and devices for selecting or displaying the combination of bingo letters and numbers or raffle tickets. Items that are "bingo supplies" are not gambling devices if sold or otherwise provided, and used, in accordance with this chapter. For purposes of this chapter, "bingo supplies" are not to be considered equipment used to conduct a bingo game.
(FF) "Instant bingo" means a form of bingo that uses folded or banded tickets or paper cards with perforated break-open tabs, a face of which is covered or otherwise hidden from view to conceal a number, letter, or symbol, or set of numbers, letters, or symbols, some of which have been designated in advance as prize winners. "Instant bingo" includes seal cards. "Instant bingo" does not include any device that is activated by the insertion of a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent, and that contains as one of its components a video display monitor that is capable of displaying numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.
(GG) "Seal card" means a form of instant bingo that uses instant bingo tickets in conjunction with a board or placard that contains one or more seals that, when removed or opened, reveal predesignated winning numbers, letters, or symbols.
(HH) "Raffle" means a form of bingo in which the one or more prizes are won by one or more persons who have purchased a raffle ticket. The one or more winners of the raffle are determined by drawing a ticket stub or other detachable section from a receptacle containing ticket stubs or detachable sections corresponding to all tickets sold for the raffle.
(II) "Punch board" means a board containing a number of holes or receptacles of uniform size in which are placed, mechanically and randomly, serially numbered slips of paper that may be punched or drawn from the hole or receptacle when used in conjunction with instant bingo. A player may punch or draw the numbered slips of paper from the holes or receptacles and obtain the prize established for the game if the number drawn corresponds to a winning number or, if the punch board includes the use of a seal card, a potential winning number.
(JJ) "Gross profit" means gross receipts minus the amount actually expended for the payment of prize awards.
(KK) "Net profit" means gross profit minus expenses.
(LL) "Expenses" means the reasonable amount of gross profit actually expended for all of the following:
(1) The purchase or lease of bingo supplies;
(2) The annual license fee required under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code;
(3) Bank fees and service charges for a bingo session or game account described in section 2915.10 of the Revised Code;
(4) Audits and accounting services;
(5) Safes;
(6) Cash registers;
(7) Hiring security personnel;
(8) Advertising bingo;
(9) Renting premises in which to conduct bingo;
(10) Tables and chairs;
(11) Any other product or service directly related to the conduct of bingo that is authorized in rules adopted by the attorney general under division (B)(1) of section 2915.08 of the Revised Code.
(MM) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code and includes any firm or any other legal entity, however organized.
(NN) "Revoke" means to void permanently all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under section 2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.
(OO) "Suspend" means to interrupt temporarily all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under section 2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.
(PP) "Distributor" means any person who purchases or obtains bingo supplies and who sells, offers for sale, or otherwise provides or offers to provide the bingo supplies to another person for use in this state.
(QQ) "Manufacturer" means any person who assembles completed bingo supplies from raw materials, other items, or subparts or who modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from bingo supplies to further their promotion or sale.
(RR) "Gross annual revenues" means the annual gross receipts derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (S)(1) of this section plus the annual net profit derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (S)(2) of this section.
(SS) "Instant bingo ticket dispenser" means a mechanical device that dispenses an instant bingo ticket or card as the sole item of value dispensed and that has the following characteristics:
(1) It is activated upon the insertion of United States currency.
(2) It performs no gaming functions.
(3) It does not contain a video display monitor or generate noise.
(4) It is not capable of displaying any numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.
(5) It does not simulate or display rolling or spinning reels.
(6) It is incapable of determining whether a dispensed bingo ticket or card is a winning or nonwinning ticket or card and requires a winning ticket or card to be paid by a bingo game operator.
(7) It may provide accounting and security features to aid in accounting for the instant bingo tickets or cards it dispenses.
(8) It is not part of an electronic network and is not interactive.
(TT)(1) "Electronic bingo aid" means an electronic device used by a participant to monitor bingo cards or sheets purchased at the time and place of a bingo session and that does all of the following:
(a) It provides a means for a participant to input numbers and letters announced by a bingo caller.
(b) It compares the numbers and letters entered by the participant to the bingo faces previously stored in the memory of the device.
(c) It identifies a winning bingo pattern.
(2) "Electronic bingo aid" does not include any device into which a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent is inserted to activate play.
(UU) "Deal of instant bingo tickets" means a single game of instant bingo tickets all with the same serial number.
(VV) "Slot" machine means either of the following:
(1) Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player who gives the thing of value in the hope of gain, the outcome of which is determined largely or wholly by chance;
(2) Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player to conduct or dispense bingo or a scheme or game of chance.
(WW) "Net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo" means gross profit minus the ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expense expended for the purchase of instant bingo supplies.
(XX) "Charitable instant bingo organization" means an organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is a charitable organization as defined in this section. A "charitable instant bingo organization" does not include a charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is created by a veteran's organization or a fraternal organization in regards to bingo conducted or assisted by a veteran's organization or a fraternal organization pursuant to section 2915.13 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2921.13.  (A) No person shall knowingly make a false statement, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false statement previously made, when any of the following applies:
(1) The statement is made in any official proceeding.
(2) The statement is made with purpose to incriminate another.
(3) The statement is made with purpose to mislead a public official in performing the public official's official function.
(4) The statement is made with purpose to secure the payment of unemployment compensation; Ohio works first; prevention, retention, and contingency benefits and services; disability financial assistance; retirement benefits; economic development assistance, as defined in section 9.66 of the Revised Code; or other benefits administered by a governmental agency or paid out of a public treasury.
(5) The statement is made with purpose to secure the issuance by a governmental agency of a license, permit, authorization, certificate, registration, release, or provider agreement.
(6) The statement is sworn or affirmed before a notary public or another person empowered to administer oaths.
(7) The statement is in writing on or in connection with a report or return that is required or authorized by law.
(8) The statement is in writing and is made with purpose to induce another to extend credit to or employ the offender, to confer any degree, diploma, certificate of attainment, award of excellence, or honor on the offender, or to extend to or bestow upon the offender any other valuable benefit or distinction, when the person to whom the statement is directed relies upon it to that person's detriment.
(9) The statement is made with purpose to commit or facilitate the commission of a theft offense.
(10) The statement is knowingly made to a probate court in connection with any action, proceeding, or other matter within its jurisdiction, either orally or in a written document, including, but not limited to, an application, petition, complaint, or other pleading, or an inventory, account, or report.
(11) The statement is made on an account, form, record, stamp, label, or other writing that is required by law.
(12) The statement is made in connection with the purchase of a firearm, as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, and in conjunction with the furnishing to the seller of the firearm of a fictitious or altered driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, a fictitious or altered identification card, or any other document that contains false information about the purchaser's identity.
(13) The statement is made in a document or instrument of writing that purports to be a judgment, lien, or claim of indebtedness and is filed or recorded with the secretary of state, a county recorder, or the clerk of a court of record.
(B) No person, in connection with the purchase of a firearm, as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly furnish to the seller of the firearm a fictitious or altered driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, a fictitious or altered identification card, or any other document that contains false information about the purchaser's identity.
(C) It is no defense to a charge under division (A)(4) of this section that the oath or affirmation was administered or taken in an irregular manner.
(D) If contradictory statements relating to the same fact are made by the offender within the period of the statute of limitations for falsification, it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove which statement was false but only that one or the other was false.
(E)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (10), (11), or (13) of this section is guilty of falsification, a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(2) Whoever violates division (A)(9) of this section is guilty of falsification in a theft offense. Except as otherwise provided in this division, falsification in a theft offense is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is five hundred dollars or more and is less than five thousand dollars, falsification in a theft offense is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is five thousand dollars or more and is less than one hundred thousand dollars, falsification in a theft offense is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one hundred thousand dollars or more, falsification in a theft offense is a felony of the third degree.
(3) Whoever violates division (A)(12) or (B) of this section is guilty of falsification to purchase a firearm, a felony of the fifth degree.
(F) A person who violates this section is liable in a civil action to any person harmed by the violation for injury, death, or loss to person or property incurred as a result of the commission of the offense and for reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, and other expenses incurred as a result of prosecuting the civil action commenced under this division. A civil action under this division is not the exclusive remedy of a person who incurs injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of a violation of this section.
Sec. 2925.44.  (A) If property is seized pursuant to section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code, it is deemed to be in the custody of the head of the law enforcement agency that seized it, and the head of that agency may do any of the following with respect to that property prior to its disposition in accordance with division (A)(4) or (B) of this section:
(1) Place the property under seal;
(2) Remove the property to a place that the head of that agency designates;
(3) Request the issuance of a court order that requires any other appropriate municipal corporation, county, township, park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement officer or other officer to take custody of the property and, if practicable, remove it to an appropriate location for eventual disposition in accordance with division (B) of this section;
(4)(a) Seek forfeiture of the property pursuant to federal law. If the head of that agency seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the law enforcement agency shall deposit, use, and account for proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or forfeited moneys it receives, in accordance with the applicable federal law and otherwise shall comply with that law.
(b) If the state highway patrol seized the property and if the superintendent of the state highway patrol seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys. The state highway patrol shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(c) If the investigative unit of the department of public safety seized the property and if the director of public safety seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(d) If the enforcement division of the department of taxation seized the property and if the tax commissioner seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of taxation enforcement fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(e) Division (B) of this section and divisions (D)(1) to (3) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code do not apply to proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law or to the interest or other earnings that are derived from the investment of proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law and that are described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section.
(B) In addition to complying with any requirements imposed by a court pursuant to section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code, and the requirements imposed by those sections, in relation to the disposition of property forfeited to the state under either of those sections, the prosecuting attorney who is responsible for its disposition shall dispose of the property as follows:
(1) Any vehicle, as defined in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code, that was used in a felony drug abuse offense or in an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense shall be given to the law enforcement agency of the municipal corporation or county in which the offense occurred if that agency desires to have the vehicle, except that, if the offense occurred in a township or in a park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code and a law enforcement officer employed by the township or the park district was involved in the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may be given to the law enforcement agency of that township or park district if that agency desires to have the vehicle, and except that, if the state highway patrol made the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may be given to the state highway patrol if it desires to have the vehicle.
(2) Any drug paraphernalia that was used, possessed, sold, or manufactured in a violation of section 2925.14 of the Revised Code that would be a felony drug abuse offense or in a violation of that section committed by a juvenile that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense, may be given to the law enforcement agency of the municipal corporation or county in which the offense occurred if that agency desires to have and can use the drug paraphernalia, except that, if the offense occurred in a township or in a park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code and a law enforcement officer employed by the township or the park district was involved in the seizure of the drug paraphernalia, the drug paraphernalia may be given to the law enforcement agency of that township or park district if that agency desires to have and can use the drug paraphernalia. If the drug paraphernalia is not so given, it shall be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section or disposed of in another manner that the court that issued the order of forfeiture considers proper under the circumstances.
(3) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11 of the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of the treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or scientific purposes under applicable federal law.
(4) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. Firearms suitable for sporting use, or as museum pieces or collectors' items, may be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section. Other firearms and dangerous ordnance shall be destroyed by a law enforcement agency or shall be sent to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation for destruction by it. As used in this division, "firearms" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.
(5) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. Other computers, computer networks, computer systems, and computer software shall be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section or disposed of in another manner that the court that issued the order of forfeiture considers proper under the circumstances. As used in this division, "computers," "computer networks," "computer systems," and "computer software" have the same meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.
(6) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.
(7) Beer, intoxicating liquor, and alcohol shall be disposed of in accordance with division (D)(4) of section 2933.41 of the Revised Code.
(8) In the case of property not described in divisions (B)(1) to (7) of this section and of property described in those divisions but not disposed of pursuant to them, the property shall be sold in accordance with division (B)(8) of this section or, in the case of forfeited moneys, disposed of in accordance with division (B)(8) of this section. If the property is to be sold, the prosecuting attorney shall cause a notice of the proposed sale of the property to be given in accordance with law, and the property shall be sold, without appraisal, at a public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The proceeds of a sale and forfeited moneys shall be applied in the following order:
(a) First, to the payment of the costs incurred in connection with the seizure of, storage of, maintenance of, and provision of security for the property, the forfeiture proceeding or civil action, and, if any, the sale;
(b) Second, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with division (B)(8)(a) of this section, to the payment of the value of any legal right, title, or interest in the property that is possessed by a person who, pursuant to division (F) of section 2925.42 of the Revised Code or division (E) of section 2925.43 of the Revised Code, established the validity of and consequently preserved that legal right, title, or interest, including, but not limited to, any mortgage, perfected or other security interest, or other lien in the property. The value of these rights, titles, or interests shall be paid according to their record or other order of priority.
(c) Third, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with divisions (B)(8)(a) and (b) of this section, as follows:
(i) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ten per cent to one or more alcohol and drug addiction treatment programs that are certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code and that are specified in the order of forfeiture. A juvenile court shall not specify an alcohol or drug addiction treatment program in the order of forfeiture unless the program is a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program and, except as provided in division (B)(8)(c)(i) of this section, unless the program is located in the county in which the court that orders the forfeiture is located or in a contiguous county. If no certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program is located in any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify in the order a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program located anywhere within this state.
(ii) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to appropriate funds in accordance with divisions (D)(1)(c) and (2) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code. The remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys so deposited shall be used only for the purposes authorized by those divisions and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of that section.
(C)(1) Sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code do not preclude a financial institution that possessed a valid mortgage, security interest, or lien that is not satisfied prior to a sale under division (B)(8) of this section or following a sale by application of division (B)(8)(b) of this section, from commencing a civil action in any appropriate court in this or another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor if the financial institution otherwise would have been entitled to do so in this or another state.
(2) Any law enforcement agency that obtains any vehicle pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section shall take the vehicle subject to the outstanding amount of any security interest or lien that attaches to the vehicle.
(3) Nothing in this section impairs a mortgage, security interest, lien, or other interest of a financial institution in property that was the subject of a forfeiture order under section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code and that was sold or otherwise disposed of in a manner that does not conform to the requirements of division (B) of this section, or any right of a financial institution of that nature to commence a civil action in any appropriate court in this or another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor.
(4) Following the sale under division (B)(8) of this section of any property that is required to be titled or registered under the law of this state, the prosecuting attorney responsible for the disposition of the property shall cause the state to issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to the purchaser of the property. Additionally, if, in a disposition of property pursuant to division (B) of this section, the state or a political subdivision is given any property that is required to be titled or registered under the law of this state, the prosecuting attorney responsible for the disposition of the property shall cause the state to issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to itself or to the political subdivision.
(D) Property that has been forfeited to the state pursuant to an order of criminal forfeiture under section 2925.42 of the Revised Code or an order of civil forfeiture under section 2925.43 of the Revised Code shall not be available for use to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony drug abuse offense or upon any juvenile who is found by a juvenile court to be a delinquent child for an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense.
(E) Sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code do not prohibit a law enforcement officer from seeking the forfeiture of contraband associated with a felony drug abuse offense pursuant to section 2933.43 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2933.43.  (A)(1) Except as provided in this division or in section 2913.34 or sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 or 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code, a law enforcement officer shall seize any contraband that has been, is being, or is intended to be used in violation of division (A) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code. A law enforcement officer shall seize contraband that is a watercraft, motor vehicle, or aircraft and that has been, is being, or is intended to be used in violation of division (A) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code only if the watercraft, motor vehicle, or aircraft is contraband because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense that is a felony.
Additionally, a law enforcement officer shall seize any watercraft, motor vehicle, aircraft, or other personal property that is classified as contraband under division (B) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code if the underlying offense involved in the violation of division (A) of that section that resulted in the watercraft, motor vehicle, aircraft, or personal property being classified as contraband, is a felony.
(2) If a law enforcement officer seizes property that is titled or registered under law, including a motor vehicle, pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, the officer or the officer's employing law enforcement agency shall notify the owner of the seizure. The notification shall be given to the owner at the owner's last known address within seventy-two hours after the seizure, and may be given orally by any means, including telephone, or by certified mail, return receipt requested.
If the officer or the officer's agency is unable to provide the notice required by this division despite reasonable, good faith efforts to do so, the exercise of the reasonable, good faith efforts constitutes fulfillment of the notice requirement imposed by this division.
(B)(1) A motor vehicle seized pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section and the contents of the vehicle may be retained for a reasonable period of time, not to exceed seventy-two hours, for the purpose of inspection, investigation, and the gathering of evidence of any offense or illegal use.
At any time prior to the expiration of the seventy-two-hour period, the law enforcement agency that seized the motor vehicle may petition the court of common pleas of the county that has jurisdiction over the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding involved in the forfeiture for an extension of the seventy-two-hour period if the motor vehicle or its contents are needed as evidence or if additional time is needed for the inspection, investigation, or gathering of evidence. Upon the filing of such a petition, the court immediately shall schedule a hearing to be held at a time as soon as possible after the filing, but in no event at a time later than the end of the next business day subsequent to the day on which the petition was filed, and upon scheduling the hearing, immediately shall notify the owner of the vehicle, at the address at which notification of the seizure was provided under division (A) of this section, of the date, time, and place of the hearing. If the court, at the hearing, determines that the vehicle or its contents, or both, are needed as evidence or that additional time is needed for the inspection, investigation, or gathering of evidence, the court may grant the petition and issue an order authorizing the retention of the vehicle or its contents, or both, for an extended period as specified by the court in its order. An order extending a period of retention issued under this division may be renewed.
If no petition for the extension of the initial seventy-two-hour period has been filed, prior to the expiration of that period, under this division, if the vehicle was not in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, and if, at the end of that seventy-two-hour period, the owner of the vehicle has not been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element and has not been charged with any other offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, the vehicle and its contents shall be released to its owner or the owner's agent, provided that the law enforcement agency that seized the vehicle may require proof of ownership of the vehicle, proof of ownership or legal possession of the contents, and an affidavit of the owner that the owner neither knew of nor expressly or impliedly consented to the use of the vehicle that resulted in its forfeiture as conditions precedent to release. If a petition for the extension of the initial seventy-two-hour period has been filed, prior to the expiration of that period, under this division but the court does not grant the petition, if the vehicle was not in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, and if, at the end of that seventy-two-hour period, the owner of the vehicle has not been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element and has not been charged with any other offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, the vehicle and its contents shall be released to its owner or the owner's agent, provided that the court may require the proof and affidavit described in the preceding sentence as conditions precedent to release. If the initial seventy-two-hour period has been extended under this division, the vehicle and its contents to which the extension applies may be retained in accordance with the extension order. If, at the end of that extended period, the owner of the vehicle has not been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element and has not been charged with any other offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, and if the vehicle was not in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, the vehicle and its contents shall be released to its owner or the owner's agent, provided that the court may require the proof and affidavit described in the third preceding sentence as conditions precedent to release. In cases in which the court may require proof and affidavits as conditions precedent to release, the court also may require the posting of a bond, with sufficient sureties approved by the court, in an amount equal to the value of the property to be released, as determined by the court, and conditioned upon the return of the property to the court if it is forfeited under this section, as a further condition to release. If, at the end of the initial seventy-two-hour period or at the end of any extended period granted under this section, the owner has been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element or has been charged with another offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, or if the vehicle was in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, the vehicle and its contents shall be retained pending disposition of the charge, provided that upon the filing of a motion for release by the owner, if the court determines that the motor vehicle or its contents, or both, are not needed as evidence in the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding, the court may permit the release of the property that is not needed as evidence to the owner; as a condition precedent to a release of that nature, the court may require the owner to execute a bond with the court. Any bond so required shall be in an amount equal to the value of the property to be released, as determined by the court, shall have sufficient sureties approved by the court, and shall be conditioned upon the return of the property to the court to which it is forfeited under this section.
The final disposition of a motor vehicle seized pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section shall be determined in accordance with division (C) of this section.
(2) Pending a hearing pursuant to division (C) of this section, and subject to divisions (B)(1) and (C) of this section, any property lawfully seized pursuant to division (A) of this section because it was contraband of a type described in division (A)(13)(b), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), or (j) of section 2901.01 of the Revised Code shall not be subject to replevin or other action in any court and shall not be subject to release upon request of the owner, and no judgment shall be enforced against the property. Pending the hearing, and subject to divisions (B)(1) and (C) of this section, the property shall be kept in the custody of the law enforcement agency responsible for its seizure.
Pending a hearing pursuant to division (C) of this section, and notwithstanding any provisions of division (B)(1) or (C) of this section to the contrary, any property lawfully seized pursuant to division (A) of this section because it was contraband of a type described in division (A)(13)(a) or (c) of section 2901.01 of the Revised Code shall not be subject to replevin or other action in any court and shall not be subject to release upon request of the owner, and no judgment shall be enforced against the property. Pending the hearing, and notwithstanding any provisions of division (B)(1) or (C) of this section to the contrary, the property shall be kept in the custody of the law enforcement agency responsible for its seizure.
A law enforcement agency that seizes property under division (A) of this section because it was contraband of any type described in division (A)(13) of section 2901.01 or division (B) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code shall maintain an accurate record of each item of property so seized, which record shall include the date on which each item was seized, the manner and date of its disposition, and if applicable, the name of the person who received the item; however, the record shall not identify or enable the identification of the individual officer who seized the item. The record of property of that nature that no longer is needed as evidence shall be open to public inspection during the agency's regular business hours. Each law enforcement agency that, during any calendar year, seizes property under division (A) of this section because it was contraband shall prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the records kept by the agency pursuant to this division for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a written notification that does all of the following:
(a) Indicates that the attorney general has received from law enforcement agencies reports of the type described in this division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that the reports were received under this division;
(b) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code;
(c) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives upon request.
(C) The prosecuting attorney, village solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer who has responsibility for the prosecution of the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding, or the attorney general if the attorney general has that responsibility, shall file a petition for the forfeiture, to the seizing law enforcement agency of the contraband seized pursuant to division (A) of this section. The petition shall be filed in the court that has jurisdiction over the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding involved in the forfeiture. If the property was seized on the basis of both a criminal violation and an administrative regulation violation, the petition shall be filed by the officer and in the court that is appropriate in relation to the criminal case.
The petitioner shall conduct or cause to be conducted a search of the appropriate public records that relate to the seized property for the purpose of determining, and shall make or cause to be made reasonably diligent inquiries for the purpose of determining, any person having an ownership or security interest in the property. The petitioner then shall give notice of the forfeiture proceedings by personal service or by certified mail, return receipt requested, to any persons known, because of the conduct of the search, the making of the inquiries, or otherwise, to have an ownership or security interest in the property, and shall publish notice of the proceedings once each week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the seizure occurred. The notices shall be personally served, mailed, and first published at least four weeks before the hearing. They shall describe the property seized; state the date and place of seizure; name the law enforcement agency that seized the property and, if applicable, that is holding the property; list the time, date, and place of the hearing; and state that any person having an ownership or security interest in the property may contest the forfeiture.
If the property seized was determined by the seizing law enforcement officer to be contraband because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation, no forfeiture hearing shall be held under this section unless the person pleads guilty to or is convicted of the commission of, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit, the offense or a different offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances or unless the person admits or is adjudicated to have committed the administrative violation or a different violation arising out of the same facts and circumstances; a forfeiture hearing shall be held in a case of that nature no later than forty-five days after the conviction or the admission or adjudication of the violation, unless the time for the hearing is extended by the court for good cause shown. The owner of any property seized because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation may request the court to release the property to the owner. Upon receipt of a request of that nature, if the court determines that the property is not needed as evidence in the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding, the court may permit the release of the property to the owner. As a condition precedent to a release of that nature, the court may require the owner to execute a bond with the court. Any bond so required shall have sufficient sureties approved by the court, shall be in a sum equal to the value of the property, as determined by the court, and shall be conditioned upon the return of the property to the court if the property is forfeited under this section. Any property seized because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation shall be returned to its owner if charges are not filed in relation to that underlying offense or violation within thirty days after the seizure, if charges of that nature are filed and subsequently are dismissed, or if charges of that nature are filed and the person charged does not plead guilty to and is not convicted of the offense or does not admit and is not found to have committed the violation.
If the property seized was determined by the seizing law enforcement officer to be contraband other than because of a relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation, the forfeiture hearing under this section shall be held no later than forty-five days after the seizure, unless the time for the hearing is extended by the court for good cause shown.
Where possible, a court holding a forfeiture hearing under this section shall follow the Rules of Civil Procedure. When a hearing is conducted under this section, property shall be forfeited upon a showing, by a preponderance of the evidence, by the petitioner that the person from which the property was seized was in violation of division (A) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code. If that showing is made, the court shall issue an order of forfeiture. If an order of forfeiture is issued in relation to contraband that was released to the owner or the owner's agent pursuant to this division or division (B)(1) of this section, the order shall require the owner to deliver the property, by a specified date, to the law enforcement agency that employed the law enforcement officer who made the seizure of the property, and the court shall deliver a copy of the order to the owner or send a copy of it by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the owner at the address to which notice of the seizure was given under division (A)(2) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in this division, all rights, interest, and title to the forfeited contraband vests in the state, effective from the date of seizure.
No property shall be forfeited pursuant to this division if the owner of the property establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the owner neither knew, nor should have known after a reasonable inquiry, that the property was used, or was likely to be used, in a crime or administrative violation. No bona fide security interest shall be forfeited pursuant to this division if the holder of the interest establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the holder of the interest neither knew, nor should have known after a reasonable inquiry, that the property was used, or likely to be used, in a crime or administrative violation, that the holder of the interest did not expressly or impliedly consent to the use of the property in a crime or administrative violation, and that the security interest was perfected pursuant to law prior to the seizure. If the holder of the interest satisfies the court that these requirements are met, the interest shall be preserved by the court. In a case of that nature, the court shall either order that the agency to which the property is forfeited reimburse the holder of the interest to the extent of the preserved interest or order that the holder be paid for the interest from the proceeds of any sale pursuant to division (D) of this section.
(D)(1) Contraband ordered forfeited pursuant to this section shall be disposed of pursuant to divisions (D)(1) to (7) of section 2933.41 of the Revised Code or, if the contraband is not described in those divisions, may be used, with the approval of the court, by the law enforcement agency that has custody of the contraband pursuant to division (D)(8) of that section. In the case of contraband not described in any of those divisions and of contraband not disposed of pursuant to any of those divisions, the contraband shall be sold in accordance with this division or, in the case of forfeited moneys, disposed of in accordance with this division. If the contraband is to be sold, the prosecuting attorney shall cause a notice of the proposed sale of the contraband to be given in accordance with law, and the property shall be sold, without appraisal, at a public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The proceeds of a sale and forfeited moneys shall be applied in the following order:
(a) First, to the payment of the costs incurred in connection with the seizure of, storage of, maintenance of, and provision of security for the contraband, the forfeiture proceeding, and, if any, the sale;
(b) Second, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with division (D)(1)(a) of this section, to the payment of the balance due on any security interest preserved pursuant to division (C) of this section;
(c) Third, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this section, as follows:
(i) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ten per cent to one or more alcohol and drug addiction treatment programs that are certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code and that are specified in the order of forfeiture. A juvenile court shall not certify an alcohol or drug addiction treatment program in the order of forfeiture unless the program is a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program and, except as provided in division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this section, unless the program is located in the county in which the court that orders the forfeiture is located or in a contiguous county. If no certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program is located in any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify in the order a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program located anywhere within this state.
(ii) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to the law enforcement trust fund of the prosecuting attorney and to the law enforcement trust fund of the county sheriff if the county sheriff made the seizure, to the law enforcement trust fund of a municipal corporation if its police department made the seizure, to the law enforcement trust fund of a township if the seizure was made by a township police department, township police district police force, or office of a township constable, to the law enforcement trust fund of a park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code if the seizure was made by the park district police force or law enforcement department, to the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund if the state highway patrol made the seizure, to the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund if the investigative unit of the department of public safety made the seizure, to the department of taxation enforcement fund if the department of taxation made the seizure, to the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund created by division (B)(1) of section 4729.65 of the Revised Code if the board made the seizure, or to the treasurer of state for deposit into the peace officer training commission fund if a state law enforcement agency, other than the state highway patrol, the investigative unit of the department of public safety, the enforcement division of the department of taxation, or the state board of pharmacy, made the seizure. The prosecuting attorney may decline to accept any of the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys, and, if the prosecuting attorney so declines, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be applied to the fund described in this division that relates to the law enforcement agency that made the seizure.
A law enforcement trust fund shall be established by the prosecuting attorney of each county who intends to receive any remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys pursuant to this division, by the sheriff of each county, by the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, by the board of township trustees of each township that has a township police department, township police district police force, or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners of each park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code that has a park district police force or law enforcement department, for the purposes of this division. There is hereby created in the state treasury the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and the peace officer training commission fund, for the purposes described in this division.
Proceeds or forfeited moneys distributed to any municipal corporation, township, or park district law enforcement trust fund shall be allocated from the fund by the legislative authority only to the police department of the municipal corporation, by the board of township trustees only to the township police department, township police district police force, or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners only to the park district police force or law enforcement department.
Additionally, no proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be allocated to or used by the state highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the state board of pharmacy, or a county sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department unless the state highway patrol, department of public safety, department of taxation, state board of pharmacy, sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department has adopted a written internal control policy under division (D)(3) of this section that addresses the use of moneys received from the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, or the appropriate law enforcement trust fund.
The state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and a law enforcement trust fund shall be expended only in accordance with the written internal control policy so adopted by the recipient, and, subject to the requirements specified in division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section, only to pay the costs of protracted or complex investigations or prosecutions, to provide reasonable technical training or expertise, to provide matching funds to obtain federal grants to aid law enforcement, in the support of DARE programs or other programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse, to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the laboratory, or for other law enforcement purposes that the superintendent of the state highway patrol, department of public safety, department of taxation, prosecuting attorney, county sheriff, legislative authority, board of township trustees, or board of park commissioners determines to be appropriate. The board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund shall be expended only in accordance with the written internal control policy so adopted by the board and only in accordance with section 4729.65 of the Revised Code, except that it also may be expended to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the laboratory. The state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, and a law enforcement trust fund shall not be used to meet the operating costs of the state highway patrol, of the investigative unit of the department of public safety, of the department of taxation enforcement division, of the state board of pharmacy, of any political subdivision, or of any office of a prosecuting attorney or county sheriff that are unrelated to law enforcement.
Proceeds and forfeited moneys that are paid into the state treasury to be deposited into the peace officer training commission fund shall be used by the commission only to pay the costs of peace officer training.
Any sheriff or prosecuting attorney who receives proceeds or forfeited moneys pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the county auditor, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. Any municipal corporation police department that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a municipal corporation law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the legislative authority of the municipal corporation, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. Any township police department, township police district police force, or office of the constable that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a township law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the board of township trustees of the township, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. Any park district police force or law enforcement department that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a park district law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the board of park commissioners of the park district, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall file a report with the attorney general, no later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund pursuant to this division during the prior calendar year were used by the state highway patrol during the prior calendar year only for the purposes authorized by this division and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. The executive director of the state board of pharmacy shall file a report with the attorney general, no later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund during the prior calendar year were used only in accordance with section 4729.65 of the Revised Code and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. The peace officer training commission shall file a report with the attorney general, no later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the peace officer training commission fund pursuant to this division during the prior calendar year were used by the commission during the prior calendar year only to pay the costs of peace officer training and specifying the amount used for that purpose.
The tax commissioner shall file a report with the attorney general, not later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the department of taxation enforcement fund pursuant to this division during the prior calendar year were used by the enforcement division during the prior calendar year to pay only the costs of enforcing the tax laws and specifying the amount used for that purpose.
(2) If more than one law enforcement agency is substantially involved in the seizure of contraband that is forfeited pursuant to this section, the court ordering the forfeiture shall equitably divide the proceeds or forfeited moneys, after calculating any distribution to the law enforcement trust fund of the prosecuting attorney pursuant to division (D)(1)(c) of this section, among any county sheriff whose office is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, any legislative authority of a municipal corporation whose police department is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, any board of township trustees whose law enforcement agency is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, any board of park commissioners of a park district whose police force or law enforcement department is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the state board of pharmacy if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the investigative unit of the department of public safety if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the enforcement division of the department of taxation if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, and the state highway patrol if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure. The proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be deposited in the respective law enforcement trust funds of the county sheriff, municipal corporation, township, and park district, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, or the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, in accordance with division (D)(1)(c) of this section. If a state law enforcement agency, other than the state highway patrol, the investigative unit of the department of public safety, the department of taxation, or the state board of pharmacy, is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the state agency's equitable share of the proceeds and forfeited moneys shall be paid to the treasurer of state for deposit into the peace officer training commission fund.
(3)(a)(i) Prior to being allocated or using any proceeds or forfeited moneys out of the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, or a law enforcement trust fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, the state highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the state board of pharmacy, and a county sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department shall adopt a written internal control policy that addresses the state highway patrol's, department of public safety's, department of taxation's, state board of pharmacy's, sheriff's, prosecuting attorney's, police department's, police force's, office of the constable's, or law enforcement department's use and disposition of all the proceeds and forfeited moneys received and that provides for the keeping of detailed financial records of the receipts of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the specific amount of each general type of expenditure, and the amounts, portions, and programs described in division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section. The policy shall not provide for or permit the identification of any specific expenditure that is made in an ongoing investigation.
All financial records of the receipts of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the specific amount of each general type of expenditure by the state highway patrol, by the department of public safety, by the department of taxation, by the state board of pharmacy, and by a sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department, and the amounts, portions, and programs described in division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section are public records open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Additionally, a written internal control policy adopted under this division is a public record of that nature, and the state highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the state board of pharmacy, or the sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department that adopted it shall comply with it.
(ii) The written internal control policy of a county sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department shall provide that at least ten per cent of the first one hundred thousand dollars of proceeds and forfeited moneys deposited during each calendar year in the sheriff's, prosecuting attorney's, municipal corporation's, township's, or park district's law enforcement trust fund pursuant to division (B)(7)(c)(ii) of section 2923.46 or division (B)(8)(c)(ii) of section 2925.44 of the Revised Code, and at least twenty per cent of the proceeds and forfeited moneys exceeding one hundred thousand dollars that are so deposited, shall be used in connection with community preventive education programs. The manner in which the described percentages are so used shall be determined by the sheriff, prosecuting attorney, department, police force, or office of the constable after the receipt and consideration of advice on appropriate community preventive education programs from the county's board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, from the county's alcohol and drug addiction services board, or through appropriate community dialogue. The financial records described in division (D)(3)(a)(i) of this section shall specify the amount of the proceeds and forfeited moneys deposited during each calendar year in the sheriff's, prosecuting attorney's, municipal corporation's, township's, or park district's law enforcement trust fund pursuant to division (B)(7)(c)(ii) of section 2923.46 or division (B)(8)(c)(ii) of section 2925.44 of the Revised Code, the portion of that amount that was used pursuant to the requirements of this division, and the community preventive education programs in connection with which the portion of that amount was so used.
As used in this division, "community preventive education programs" includes, but is not limited to, DARE programs and other programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse.
(b) Each sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department that receives in any calendar year any proceeds or forfeited moneys out of a law enforcement trust fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section or uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in its law enforcement trust fund in any calendar year shall prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general.
The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the state highway patrol uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the state highway patrol pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general.
The department of public safety shall prepare a report covering each fiscal year in which the department uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the department pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that fiscal year. The department shall send a copy of the cumulative report to the attorney general no later than the first day of August in the fiscal year following the fiscal year covered by the report. The director of public safety shall include in the report a verification that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section during the preceding fiscal year were used by the department during that fiscal year only for the purposes authorized by that division and shall specify the amount used for each authorized purpose.
The tax commissioner shall prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the department of taxation enforcement division uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the department of taxation enforcement fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the department of taxation enforcement division pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, not later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general.
The executive director of the state board of pharmacy shall prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the board uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the board pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a written notification that does all of the following:
(i) Indicates that the attorney general has received from entities or persons specified in this division reports of the type described in this division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that the reports were received under this division;
(ii) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code;
(iii) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives upon request.
(4)(a) A law enforcement agency that receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys shall deposit, use, and account for the proceeds or forfeited moneys in accordance with, and otherwise comply with, the applicable federal law.
(b) If the state highway patrol receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys. The state highway patrol shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(c) If the investigative unit of the department of public safety receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(d) If the tax commissioner receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of taxation enforcement fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(e) Divisions (D)(1) to (3) of this section do not apply to proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law or to the interest or other earnings that are derived from the investment of proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law and that are described in division (D)(4)(b) of this section.
(E) Upon the sale pursuant to this section of any property that is required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to the purchaser. If the state is vested with title pursuant to division (C) of this section and elects to retain property that is required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration.
(F) Notwithstanding any provisions of this section to the contrary, any property that is lawfully seized in relation to a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code shall be subject to forfeiture and disposition in accordance with sections 2923.32 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code; any property that is forfeited pursuant to section 2923.44 or 2923.45 of the Revised Code in relation to a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code or in relation to an act of a juvenile that is a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code may be subject to forfeiture and disposition in accordance with sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 of the Revised Code; and any property that is forfeited pursuant to section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code in relation to a felony drug abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or in relation to an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense of that nature, may be subject to forfeiture and disposition in accordance with sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code or this section.
(G) Any failure of a law enforcement officer or agency, a prosecuting attorney, village solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer, a court, or the attorney general to comply with any duty imposed by this section in relation to any property seized or with any other provision of this section in relation to any property seized does not affect the validity of the seizure of the property, provided the seizure itself was made in accordance with law, and is not and shall not be considered to be the basis for the suppression of any evidence resulting from the seizure of the property, provided the seizure itself was made in accordance with law.
(H) Contraband that has been forfeited pursuant to division (C) of this section shall not be available for use to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an underlying criminal offense or a different offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances.
Sec. 2935.01.  As used in this chapter:
(A) "Magistrate" has the same meaning as in section 2931.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) "Peace officer" includes, except as provided in section 2935.081 of the Revised Code, a sheriff; deputy sheriff; marshal; deputy marshal; member of the organized police department of any municipal corporation, including a member of the organized police department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state serving in Ohio under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 of the Revised Code; member of a police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code; member of a police force employed by a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.05 of the Revised Code; state university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code; enforcement agent of the department of public safety designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code; employee of the department of taxation to whom investigation powers have been delegated under section 5743.45 5703.58 of the Revised Code; employee of the department of natural resources who is a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest officer designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the Revised Code, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10 of the Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer designated pursuant to section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a state watercraft officer designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code; individual designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code; veterans' home police officer appointed under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code; special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code; police constable of any township; police officer of a township or joint township police district; a special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the transportation security administration of the United States department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended; the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code; and an assistant house sergeant at arms; officer or employee of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation established pursuant to section 109.51 of the Revised Code who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the officer's or employee's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program and who is providing assistance upon request to a law enforcement officer or emergency assistance to a peace officer pursuant to section 109.54 or 109.541 of the Revised Code; and, for the purpose of arrests within those areas, for the purposes of Chapter 5503. of the Revised Code, and the filing of and service of process relating to those offenses witnessed or investigated by them, the superintendent and troopers of the state highway patrol.
(C) "Prosecutor" includes the county prosecuting attorney and any assistant prosecutor designated to assist the county prosecuting attorney, and, in the case of courts inferior to courts of common pleas, includes the village solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer of a municipal corporation, any such officer's assistants, or any attorney designated by the prosecuting attorney of the county to appear for the prosecution of a given case.
(D) "Offense," except where the context specifically indicates otherwise, includes felonies, misdemeanors, and violations of ordinances of municipal corporations and other public bodies authorized by law to adopt penal regulations.
Sec. 2949.091.  (A)(1) The court, in which any person is convicted of or pleads guilty to any offense other than a traffic offense that is not a moving violation, shall impose the sum of eleven fifteen dollars as costs in the case in addition to any other court costs that the court is required by law to impose upon the offender. All such moneys collected during a month shall be transmitted on or before the twentieth day of the following month by the clerk of the court to the treasurer of state and deposited by the treasurer of state into the general revenue fund. The court shall not waive the payment of the additional eleven fifteen dollars court costs, unless the court determines that the offender is indigent and waives the payment of all court costs imposed upon the indigent offender.
(2) The juvenile court, in which a child is found to be a delinquent child or a juvenile traffic offender for an act which, if committed by an adult, would be an offense other than a traffic offense that is not a moving violation, shall impose the sum of eleven fifteen dollars as costs in the case in addition to any other court costs that the court is required or permitted by law to impose upon the delinquent child or juvenile traffic offender. All such moneys collected during a month shall be transmitted on or before the twentieth day of the following month by the clerk of the court to the treasurer of state and deposited by the treasurer of state into the general revenue fund. The eleven fifteen dollars court costs shall be collected in all cases unless the court determines the juvenile is indigent and waives the payment of all court costs, or enters an order on its journal stating that it has determined that the juvenile is indigent, that no other court costs are to be taxed in the case, and that the payment of the eleven fifteen dollars court costs is waived.
(B) Whenever a person is charged with any offense other than a traffic offense that is not a moving violation and posts bail, the court shall add to the amount of the bail the eleven fifteen dollars required to be paid by division (A)(1) of this section. The eleven fifteen dollars shall be retained by the clerk of the court until the person is convicted, pleads guilty, forfeits bail, is found not guilty, or has the charges dismissed. If the person is convicted, pleads guilty, or forfeits bail, the clerk shall transmit the eleven fifteen dollars on or before the twentieth day of the month following the month in which the person was convicted, pleaded guilty, or forfeited bail to the treasurer of state, who shall deposit it into the general revenue fund. If the person is found not guilty or the charges are dismissed, the clerk shall return the eleven fifteen dollars to the person.
(C) No person shall be placed or held in a detention facility for failing to pay the additional eleven fifteen dollars court costs or bail that are required to be paid by this section.
(D) As used in this section:
(1) "Moving violation" and "bail" have the same meanings as in section 2743.70 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Detention facility" has the same meaning as in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3111.04.  (A) An action to determine the existence or nonexistence of the father and child relationship may be brought by the child or the child's personal representative, the child's mother or her personal representative, a man alleged or alleging himself to be the child's father, the child support enforcement agency of the county in which the child resides if the child's mother is a recipient of public assistance or of services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, or the alleged father's personal representative.
(B) An agreement does not bar an action under this section.
(C) If an action under this section is brought before the birth of the child and if the action is contested, all proceedings, except service of process and the taking of depositions to perpetuate testimony, may be stayed until after the birth.
(D) A recipient of public assistance or of services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, shall cooperate with the child support enforcement agency of the county in which a child resides to obtain an administrative determination pursuant to sections 3111.38 to 3111.54 of the Revised Code, or, if necessary, a court determination pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code, of the existence or nonexistence of a parent and child relationship between the father and the child. If the recipient fails to cooperate, the agency may commence an action to determine the existence or nonexistence of a parent and child relationship between the father and the child pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code.
(E) As used in this section, "public assistance" means medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, assistance under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, or disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or disability medical assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3111.72.  (A) The contract between the department of job and family services and a local hospital shall require all of the following:
(A)(1) That the hospital provide a staff person to meet with each unmarried mother who gave birth in or en route to the hospital within twenty-four hours of the birth or before the mother is released from the hospital;
(B)(2) That the staff person attempt to meet with the father of the unmarried mother's child if possible;
(C)(3) That the staff person explain to the unmarried mother and the father, if he is present, the benefit to the child of establishing a parent and child relationship between the father and the child and the various proper procedures for establishing a parent and child relationship;
(D)(4) That the staff person present to the unmarried mother and, if possible, the father, the pamphlet or statement regarding the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent that is prepared and provided by the department of job and family services pursuant to section 3111.32 of the Revised Code;
(E)(5) That the staff person provide the mother and, if possible, the father, all forms and statements necessary to voluntarily establish a parent and child relationship, including, but not limited to, the acknowledgment of paternity affidavit prepared by the department of job and family services pursuant to section 3111.31 of the Revised Code;
(F)(6) That the staff person, at the request of both the mother and father, help the mother and father complete any form or statement necessary to establish a parent and child relationship;
(G)(7) That the hospital provide a notary public to notarize an acknowledgment of paternity affidavit signed by the mother and father;
(H)(8) That the staff person present to an unmarried mother who is not participating in the Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107. or receiving medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code an application for Title IV-D services;
(I)(9) That the staff person forward any completed acknowledgment of paternity, no later than ten days after it is completed, to the office of child support in the department of job and family services;
(J)(10) That the department of job and family services pay the hospital twenty dollars for every correctly signed and notarized acknowledgment of paternity affidavit from the hospital;
(11) That, if an acknowledgment of paternity application is not completed and signed by the mother and father, at the request of either the mother or father and on completion by the mother or father of an application for services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C. 651, as amended, including paternity determination, the hospital staff immediately collect genetic samples from the mother, father, and child at no cost to either parent;
(12) That the department pay the hospital thirty dollars for each sample collected pursuant to division (A)(11) of this section;
(13) That the department pay the cost of genetic tests of samples collected pursuant to division (A)(11) of this section.
(B) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.
Sec. 3119.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code, "child support enforcement agency" means a child support enforcement agency designated under former section 2301.35 of the Revised Code prior to October 1, 1997, or a private or government entity designated as a child support enforcement agency under section 307.981 of the Revised Code.
(B) As used in this chapter and Chapters 3121., 3123., and 3125. of the Revised Code:
(1) "Administrative child support order" means any order issued by a child support enforcement agency for the support of a child pursuant to section 3109.19 or 3111.81 of the Revised Code or former section 3111.211 of the Revised Code, section 3111.21 of the Revised Code as that section existed prior to January 1, 1998, or section 3111.20 or 3111.22 of the Revised Code as those sections existed prior to March 22, 2001.
(2) "Child support order" means either a court child support order or an administrative child support order.
(3) "Obligee" means the person who is entitled to receive the support payments under a support order.
(4) "Obligor" means the person who is required to pay support under a support order.
(5) "Support order" means either an administrative child support order or a court support order.
(C) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Combined gross income" means the combined gross income of both parents.
(2) "Court child support order" means any order issued by a court for the support of a child pursuant to Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, section 2151.23, 2151.231, 2151.232, 2151.33, 2151.36, 2151.361, 2151.49, 3105.21, 3109.05, 3109.19, 3111.13, 3113.04, 3113.07, 3113.31, 3119.65, or 3119.70 of the Revised Code, or division (B) of former section 3113.21 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Court support order" means either a court child support order or an order for the support of a spouse or former spouse issued pursuant to Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, section 3105.18, 3105.65, or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, or division (B) of former section 3113.21 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Extraordinary medical expenses" means any uninsured medical expenses incurred for a child during a calendar year that exceed one hundred dollars.
(5) "Income" means either of the following:
(a) For a parent who is employed to full capacity, the gross income of the parent;
(b) For a parent who is unemployed or underemployed, the sum of the gross income of the parent and any potential income of the parent.
(6) "Insurer" means any person authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to engage in the business of insurance in this state, any health insuring corporation, and any legal entity that is self-insured and provides benefits to its employees or members.
(7) "Gross income" means, except as excluded in division (C)(7) of this section, the total of all earned and unearned income from all sources during a calendar year, whether or not the income is taxable, and includes income from salaries, wages, overtime pay, and bonuses to the extent described in division (D) of section 3119.05 of the Revised Code; commissions; royalties; tips; rents; dividends; severance pay; pensions; interest; trust income; annuities; social security benefits, including retirement, disability, and survivor benefits that are not means-tested; workers' compensation benefits; unemployment insurance benefits; disability insurance benefits; benefits that are not means-tested and that are received by and in the possession of the veteran who is the beneficiary for any service-connected disability under a program or law administered by the United States department of veterans' affairs or veterans' administration; spousal support actually received; and all other sources of income. "Gross income" includes income of members of any branch of the United States armed services or national guard, including, amounts representing base pay, basic allowance for quarters, basic allowance for subsistence, supplemental subsistence allowance, cost of living adjustment, specialty pay, variable housing allowance, and pay for training or other types of required drills; self-generated income; and potential cash flow from any source.
"Gross income" does not include any of the following:
(a) Benefits received from means-tested government administered programs, including Ohio works first; prevention, retention, and contingency; means-tested veterans' benefits; supplemental security income; food stamps; disability financial assistance; or other assistance for which eligibility is determined on the basis of income or assets;
(b) Benefits for any service-connected disability under a program or law administered by the United States department of veterans' affairs or veterans' administration that are not means-tested, that have not been distributed to the veteran who is the beneficiary of the benefits, and that are in the possession of the United States department of veterans' affairs or veterans' administration;
(c) Child support received for children who were not born or adopted during the marriage at issue;
(d) Amounts paid for mandatory deductions from wages such as union dues but not taxes, social security, or retirement in lieu of social security;
(e) Nonrecurring or unsustainable income or cash flow items;
(f) Adoption assistance and foster care maintenance payments made pursuant to Title IV-E of the "Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 501, 42 U.S.C.A. 670 (1980), as amended.
(8) "Nonrecurring or unsustainable income or cash flow item" means an income or cash flow item the parent receives in any year or for any number of years not to exceed three years that the parent does not expect to continue to receive on a regular basis. "Nonrecurring or unsustainable income or cash flow item" does not include a lottery prize award that is not paid in a lump sum or any other item of income or cash flow that the parent receives or expects to receive for each year for a period of more than three years or that the parent receives and invests or otherwise uses to produce income or cash flow for a period of more than three years.
(9)(a) "Ordinary and necessary expenses incurred in generating gross receipts" means actual cash items expended by the parent or the parent's business and includes depreciation expenses of business equipment as shown on the books of a business entity.
(b) Except as specifically included in "ordinary and necessary expenses incurred in generating gross receipts" by division (C)(9)(a) of this section, "ordinary and necessary expenses incurred in generating gross receipts" does not include depreciation expenses and other noncash items that are allowed as deductions on any federal tax return of the parent or the parent's business.
(10) "Personal earnings" means compensation paid or payable for personal services, however denominated, and includes wages, salary, commissions, bonuses, draws against commissions, profit sharing, vacation pay, or any other compensation.
(11) "Potential income" means both of the following for a parent who the court pursuant to a court support order, or a child support enforcement agency pursuant to an administrative child support order, determines is voluntarily unemployed or voluntarily underemployed:
(a) Imputed income that the court or agency determines the parent would have earned if fully employed as determined from the following criteria:
(i) The parent's prior employment experience;
(ii) The parent's education;
(iii) The parent's physical and mental disabilities, if any;
(iv) The availability of employment in the geographic area in which the parent resides;
(v) The prevailing wage and salary levels in the geographic area in which the parent resides;
(vi) The parent's special skills and training;
(vii) Whether there is evidence that the parent has the ability to earn the imputed income;
(viii) The age and special needs of the child for whom child support is being calculated under this section;
(ix) The parent's increased earning capacity because of experience;
(x) Any other relevant factor.
(b) Imputed income from any nonincome-producing assets of a parent, as determined from the local passbook savings rate or another appropriate rate as determined by the court or agency, not to exceed the rate of interest specified in division (A) of section 1343.03 of the Revised Code, if the income is significant.
(12) "Schedule" means the basic child support schedule set forth in section 3119.021 of the Revised Code.
(13) "Self-generated income" means gross receipts received by a parent from self-employment, proprietorship of a business, joint ownership of a partnership or closely held corporation, and rents minus ordinary and necessary expenses incurred by the parent in generating the gross receipts. "Self-generated income" includes expense reimbursements or in-kind payments received by a parent from self-employment, the operation of a business, or rents, including company cars, free housing, reimbursed meals, and other benefits, if the reimbursements are significant and reduce personal living expenses.
(14) "Split parental rights and responsibilities" means a situation in which there is more than one child who is the subject of an allocation of parental rights and responsibilities and each parent is the residential parent and legal custodian of at least one of those children.
(15) "Worksheet" means the applicable worksheet that is used to calculate a parent's child support obligation as set forth in sections 3119.022 and 3119.023 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3123.952.  A child support enforcement agency may submit the name of a delinquent obligor to the office of child support for inclusion on a poster only if all of the following apply:
(A) The obligor is subject to a support order and there has been an attempt to enforce the order through a public notice, a wage withholding order, a lien on property, a financial institution deduction order, or other court-ordered procedures.
(B) The department of job and family services reviewed the obligor's records and confirms the child support enforcement agency's finding that the obligor's name and photograph may be submitted to be displayed on a poster.
(C) The agency does not know or is unable to verify the obligor's whereabouts.
(D) The obligor is not a participant in Ohio works first or the prevention, retention, and contingency program or a recipient of disability financial assistance, supplemental security income, or food stamps.
(E) The child support enforcement agency does not have evidence that the obligor has filed for protection under the federal Bankruptcy Code, 11 U.S.C.A. 101, as amended.
(F) The obligee gave written authorization to the agency to display the obligor on a poster.
(G) A legal representative of the agency and a child support enforcement administrator reviewed the case.
(H) The agency is able to submit to the department a description and photograph of the obligor, a statement of the possible locations of the obligor, and any other information required by the department.
Sec. 3123.97. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Default" has the same meaning as in section 3121.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Claimant" means an individual that brings a claim against an insurance company under a policy of liability or life insurance as a beneficiary of the policy. For this purpose, an "individual" includes an individual's estate.
(3) "Insurance company" means any person authorized to engage in the business of insurance in this state under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.
(B) A claimant shall provide the claimant's date of birth, social security number, and current address to the insurance company upon the insurance company's request. The insurance company may inform the claimant that the information request is being made in accordance with this section, for the purpose of assisting the department of job and family services in enforcing child support orders. An insurance company is prohibited from paying a claimant who refuses to provide the requested information. An insurance company that does not pay a claimant due to the claimant's refusal to provide the requested information is exempt from suit and immune from liability under the Revised Code and in any common law action in law or equity.
(C) Every month, for purposes of the information exchange required by this section, the department of job and family services shall provide all insurance companies writing life and liability policies of insurance with a list of all child support obligors against whom a final and enforceable determination of default has been made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code. The list provided by the department of job and family services also shall contain the addresses, dates of birth, and social security numbers of the obligors, as well as the amount of each obligor's default.
(D) Not fewer than ten days prior to making any nonrecurring payment to a claimant that is equal to or in excess of five hundred dollars, insurance companies shall attempt to match the claimant's name, date of birth, social security number, and current address with the list of obligors and related information provided by the department of job and family services in order to determine whether the claimant may be a child support obligor in default. If the claimant is a child support obligor in default, the insurance company shall hold the payment and advise the department of job and family services of the claimant's name, address, date of birth, and social security number.
(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, the insurance company holding a payment pursuant to division (D) of this section shall divert the payment to the department of job and family services upon receiving a notification from the department of the amount of the claimant's default. The department of job and family services shall distribute the diverted payment in accordance with state and federal laws.
(2) If the payment held is greater than the default amount, only an amount equal to the default amount shall be diverted to the department of job and family services. Any remaining money then shall be paid out according to the insurance policy.
(F) This section does not apply to that portion of a claim resulting in payments being issued to a third party on behalf of the claimant when there is documentation showing that the third party has provided or agreed to provide the claimant with a benefit or service related to the claim, including, but not limited to, the services of an attorney or a physician, or to any portion of a claim based on damage to or the loss of real property.
(G) No insurance company that is required to exchange information with and to divert payments to the department of job and family services under this section shall fail to cooperate with the department, or with any child support enforcement agency, when requested to provide information or to divert a payment. Any insurance company that fails to cooperate is liable to the department of job and family services for the default amount, up to the amount of the claim payment available.
(H) Information provided by the department of job and family services to an insurance company under this section may only be used for the purpose of assisting the department in collecting past-due child support. Any individual or insurance company that uses the information for any other purpose shall pay a fine of five hundred dollars per violation to the department of job and family services. The fines are to be considered program income by the department of job and family services.
(I) The department of job and family services may enter into contracts with private third-party vendors in order to carry out the information exchange with insurance companies required by this section.
(J) The department of job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to carry out the purposes of this section.
Sec. 3125.12.  Each child support enforcement agency shall enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of county commissioners under section 307.983 of the Revised Code and comply with the partnership each fiscal agreement the board enters into under section 307.98 and contracts the board enters into under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the Revised Code that affect the agency.
Sec. 3125.25.  The director of job and family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the operation of support enforcement by child support enforcement agencies. The rules shall include, but shall not be limited to, provisions relating to plans of cooperation between the agencies and boards of county commissioners entered into under section 3125.12 of the Revised Code, provisions concerning fiscal agreements that boards enter into under section 307.98 of the Revised Code, requirements for public hearings by the agencies, and provisions for appeals of agency decisions under procedures established by the director.
Rules concerning fiscal agreements shall be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as if they were internal management rules. All other rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.31.  As used in this section and sections 3301.32 to 3301.37 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Eligible individual" means an individual eligible for Title IV-A services.
(B) "Head start agency" means any of the following:
(1) An entity in this state that has been approved to be an agency for purposes of the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 9831, as amended;
(2) A Title IV-A head start agency;
(3) A Title IV-A head start plus agency.
(C) "Head start program" has the same meaning as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Title IV-A services" means benefits and services that are allowable under Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," as specified in 42 U.S.C.A 604(a), except that they shall not be benefits and services included in the term "assistance" as defined in 45 C.F.R. 260.31(a) and shall be benefits and services that are excluded from the definition of the term "assistance" under 45 C.F.R. 260.31(b).
(E) "Title IV-A head start agency" means an agency receiving funds to operate a head start program as prescribed in section 3301.34 of the Revised Code.
(F) "Title IV-A head start plus agency" means an agency receiving funds to operate a head start program as prescribed in section 3301.35 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.33. (A) There is hereby established the Title IV-A head start program to provide head start program services to eligible individuals.
(B) There is hereby established the Title IV-A head start plus program to provide year-long head start program services and child care services to eligible individuals.
(C) The programs established under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be administered by the department of education in accordance with an interagency agreement entered into with the department of job and family services under section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The programs shall provide Title IV-A services to eligible individuals who meet eligibility requirements established in rules and administrative orders adopted by the department of job and family services under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code. The department of job and family services and the department of education jointly shall adopt policies and procedures establishing program requirements for eligibility, services, program administration, fiscal accountability, and other criteria necessary to comply with the provisions of Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113, 42 U.S.C. 601 (1996), as amended.
The department of education shall be responsible for approving all Title IV-A head start agencies and Title IV-A head start plus agencies for provision of services under the programs established under this section. An agency that is not approved by the department shall not be reimbursed for the cost of providing services under the programs.
Sec. 3301.34. In administering the Title IV-A head start program established under division (A) of section 3301.33 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall enter into a contract with each Title IV-A head start agency establishing the terms and conditions applicable to the provision of Title IV-A services for eligible individuals. The contracts shall specify the respective duties of the Title IV-A head start agencies and the department of education, reporting requirements, eligibility requirements, procedures for obtaining verification of eligibility for Title IV-A services from a county department of job and family services, reimbursement methodology, audit requirements, and other provisions determined necessary. The department of education shall reimburse the Title IV-A head start agencies for Title IV-A services provided to eligible individuals in accordance with the terms of the contract, policies and procedures adopted by the department of education and the department of job and family services under section 3301.33 of the Revised Code, and the interagency agreement entered into by the departments.
The department of education shall ensure that all reimbursements paid to a Title IV-A head start agency are only for Title IV-A services.
The department of education shall ensure that all reimbursements paid to a Title IV-A head start agency are for only those individuals for whom the Title IV-A head start agency has obtained verification of eligibility for Title IV-A services from the appropriate county department of job and family services, as provided for in section 3301.36 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.35. (A) In administering the Title IV-A head start plus program established under division (B) of section 3301.33, the department of education shall enter into a contract with each county department of job and family services to administer the program within its respective county. The county departments shall verify the eligibility for Title IV-A services of individuals and reimburse Title IV-A head start plus agencies for Title IV-A services provided to eligible individuals under the program. The department of education shall reimburse the county departments for allowable payments made to Title IV-A head start plus agencies.
The contract entered into by the department of education and each county department shall specify the duties of the county department and the department of education, reporting requirements, reimbursement methodology, audit requirements, and other provisions determined necessary. The department of education shall reimburse each county department for reimbursements the county department pays to Title IV-A head start plus agencies for Title IV-A services in accordance with the terms of the contract and with policies and procedures adopted by the department of education and the state department of job and family services under section 3301.33 of the Revised Code.
Each county department shall deposit all reimbursements received under this section into the county public assistance fund.
(B) Each county department shall administer the program within its respective county in accordance with requirements established by the state department of job and family services under section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The county department shall ensure that all reimbursements paid to a Title IV-A head start plus agency are for only Title IV-A services.
The administration of the Title IV-A head start plus program by the county department shall include all of the following:
(1) Determining eligibility of individuals and establishing co-payment requirements in accordance with rules adopted by the state department of job and family services;
(2) Ensuring that any reimbursements paid by the county department to a Title IV-A head start plus agency comply with requirements of Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113, 42 U.S.C. 601 (1996), as amended, including eligibility of individuals, reporting requirements, allowable benefits and services, use of funds, and audit requirements, as specified in state and federal laws and regulations, United States office of management and budget circulars, and the Title IV-A state plan;
(3) Monitoring each Title IV-A head start plus agency that receives funds from the county department. The county department is responsible for assuring that all Title IV-A funds are used solely for purposes allowable under federal regulations, section 5101.801 of the Revised Code, and the Title IV-A state plan and shall take prompt action to recover funds that are not expended accordingly.
(C) Each county department shall enter into contracts with Title IV-A head start plus agencies to provide Title IV-A services to eligible individuals who meet eligibility requirements established in rules adopted by the department of job and family services.
The county department shall enter into contracts with only those agencies that have been approved by the department of education as a Title IV-A head start plus agency and that have been licensed in accordance with section 3301.37 of the Revised Code. Each contract entered into by a county department under this division shall specify all of the following:
(1) Requirements for financial management and accountability for the funds, including the prompt repayment of funds that were not spent in accordance with these requirements;
(2) Requirements applicable to the allowable use of and accountability for Title IV-A funds;
(3) Requirements for access, inspection, and examination of the agency's financial and program records by the county department, the state department of job and family services, the department of education, the auditor of state, and any other state or federal agency with authority to inspect and examine such records;
(4) Audit requirements applicable to funds received under the contract;
(5) Requirements for the prompt repayment to the county department of any funds that are the subject of any federal or state adverse audit findings;
(6) Procedures for adjustments and reconciliation of overpayments, underpayments, advanced funds, or other accounting procedures required by the county department, state department of job and family services, or department of education;
(7) Reimbursement rates;
(8) Billing dates, payment dates, and other reimbursement procedures established by the county department;
(9) Reporting requirements by and for the county department, the state department of job and family services, and the department of education;
(10) Provisions for the county department to withhold reimbursement, or to suspend, modify, or terminate the contract if the department of education suspends or removes the agency from the list of approved Title IV-A head start plus agencies or if the state department of job and family services denies or revokes a license for the agency.
Sec. 3301.36. At the request of a Title IV-A head start agency or Title IV-A head start plus agency, each county department of job and family services shall provide verification of eligibility for Title IV-A services for individuals seeking Title IV-A services from the agency.
Sec. 3301.37. (A) Each entity operating a head start program shall be licensed by the department of job and family services in accordance with Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code.
(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, any current license issued under section 3301.58 of the Revised Code by the department of education to an entity operating a head start program prior to the effective date of this section is hereby deemed to be a license issued by the department of job and family services under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code. The expiration date of the license shall be the earlier of the expiration date specified in the license as issued under section 3301.58 of the Revised Code or July 1, 2005. In order to continue operation of its head start program after that expiration date, the entity shall obtain a license as prescribed in division (A) of this section.
Sec. 3301.33 3301.40 (A) As used in this section, "adult education" has the meaning as established under the "adult education act," 102 Stat. 302 (1988), 20 U.S.C. 1201a(2), as amended.
(B) Beginning July 1, 1996, the department of education may distribute state funds to organizations that quality for federal funds under the "Adult Education Act," 102 Stat. 302 (1988), 20 1201 to 1213d, as amended. The funds shall be used by qualifying organizations to provide adult education services. State funds distributed pursuant to this section shall be distributed in accordance with the rules adopted by the state board of education pursuant to this section.
Each organization that receives funds under this section shall file program performance reports with the department. The reports shall be filed at times required by state board of education rule and contain assessments of individual students as they enter, progress through, and exit the adult education program; records regarding individual student program participation time; reports of individual student retention rates; and any other information required by rule.
(C) The state board of education shall adopt rules for the distribution of funds under this section. The rules shall include the following:
(1) Requirements for program performance reports.
(2) Indicators of adult education program quality, including indicators of learner achievement, program environment, program planning, curriculum and instruction, staff development, support services, and recruitment and retention.
(3) A formula for the distribution of funds under this section. The formula shall include as a factor an organization's quantifiable success in meeting the indicators of program quality established pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section.
(4) Standards and procedures for reducing or discontinuing funding to organizations that fail to meet the requirements of this section.
(5) Any other requirements or standards considered appropriate by the board.
Sec. 3301.52.  As used in sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Preschool program" means either of the following:
(1) A child day-care program for preschool children that is operated by a school district board of education, or an eligible nonpublic school, a head start grantee, or a head start delegate agency.
(2) A child day-care program for preschool children age three or older that is operated by a county MR/DD board.
(B) "Preschool child" or "child" means a child who has not entered kindergarten and is not of compulsory school age.
(C) "Parent, guardian, or custodian" means the person or government agency that is or will be responsible for a child's school attendance under section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of a school district or the chief administrative officer of an eligible nonpublic school.
(E) "Director" means the director, head teacher, elementary principal, or site administrator who is the individual on site and responsible for supervision of a preschool program.
(F) "Preschool staff member" means a preschool employee whose primary responsibility is care, teaching, or supervision of preschool children.
(G) "Nonteaching employee" means a preschool program or school child program employee whose primary responsibilities are duties other than care, teaching, and supervision of preschool children or school children.
(H) "Eligible nonpublic school" means a nonpublic school chartered as described in division (B)(8) of section 5104.02 of the Revised Code or chartered by the state board of education for any combination of grades one through twelve, regardless of whether it also offers kindergarten.
(I) "County MR/DD board" means a county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities.
(J) "School child program" means a child day-care program for only school children that is operated by a school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school.
(K) "School child" and "child day-care" have the same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.
(L) "School child program staff member" means an employee whose primary responsibility is the care, teaching, or supervision of children in a school child program.
(M) "Head start" means a program operated in accordance with subchapter II of the "Community Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 9831, and amendments thereto.
Sec. 3301.53.  (A) Not later than July 1, 1988, the state board of education, in consultation with the director of job and family services, shall formulate and prescribe by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code minimum standards to be applied to preschool programs operated by school district boards of education, county MR/DD boards, or eligible nonpublic schools, head start grantees, and head start delegate agencies. The rules shall include the following:
(1) Standards ensuring that the preschool program is located in a safe and convenient facility that accommodates the enrollment of the program, is of the quality to support the growth and development of the children according to the program objectives, and meets the requirements of section 3301.55 of the Revised Code;
(2) Standards ensuring that supervision, discipline, and programs will be administered according to established objectives and procedures;
(3) Standards ensuring that preschool staff members and nonteaching employees are recruited, employed, assigned, evaluated, and provided inservice education without discrimination on the basis of age, color, national origin, race, or sex; and that preschool staff members and nonteaching employees are assigned responsibilities in accordance with written position descriptions commensurate with their training and experience;
(4) A requirement that boards of education intending to establish a preschool program on or after March 17, 1989, demonstrate a need for a preschool program that is not being met by any existing program providing child day-care, prior to establishing the program;
(5) Requirements that children participating in preschool programs have been immunized to the extent considered appropriate by the state board to prevent the spread of communicable disease;
(6) Requirements that the parents of preschool children complete the emergency medical authorization form specified in section 3313.712 of the Revised Code.
(B) The state board of education in consultation with the director of job and family services shall ensure that the rules adopted by the state board under sections 3301.52 to 3301.58 of the Revised Code are consistent with and meet or exceed the requirements of Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code with regard to child day-care centers. The state board and the director of job and family services shall review all such rules at least once every five years.
(C) On or before January 1, 1992, the state board of education, in consultation with the director of job and family services, shall adopt rules for school child programs that are consistent with and meet or exceed the requirements of the rules adopted for school child day-care centers under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.54.  (A)(1) Each preschool program shall be directed and supervised by a director, a head teacher, an elementary principal, or a site administrator who is on site and responsible for supervision of the program. Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of this section, this person shall hold a valid educator license designated as appropriate for teaching or being an administrator in a preschool setting issued pursuant to section 3319.22 of the Revised Code and have completed at least four courses in child development or early childhood education from an accredited college, university, or technical college.
(2) If the person was employed prior to July 1, 1988, by a school district board of education or an eligible nonpublic school to direct a preschool program, the person shall be considered to meet the requirements of this section if the person holds a valid kindergarten-primary certificate described under former division (A) of section 3319.22 of the Revised Code as it existed on January 1, 1996.
(3) If the person is employed to direct a preschool program operated by an eligible, nontax-supported, nonpublic school, the person shall be considered to meet the requirements of this section if the person holds a valid teaching certificate issued in accordance with section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.
(4) If the person is a site administrator for a head start grantee or head start delegate agency, the person shall be considered to meet the requirements of this section if the person provides evidence that the person has attained at least a high school diploma or certification of high school equivalency issued by the state board of education or a comparable agency of another state, and that the person meets at least one of the following requirements:
(a) Two years of experience working as a child-care staff member in a child day-care center or preschool program and at least four courses in child development or early childhood education from an accredited college, university, or technical college, except that a person who has two years of experience working as a child-care staff member in a particular day-care center or preschool program and who has been promoted to or designated director shall have one year from the time the person was promoted or designated to complete the required four courses;
(b) Two years of training in an accredited college, university, or technical college that includes at least four courses in child development or early childhood education;
(c) A child development associate credential issued by the national child development associate credentialing commission;
(d) An associate or higher degree in child development or early childhood education from an accredited college, university, or technical college.
(B) Each preschool staff member shall be at least eighteen years of age and have a high school diploma or a certification of high school equivalency issued by the state board of education or a comparable agency of another state, except that a staff member may be less than eighteen years of age if the staff member is a graduate of a two-year vocational child-care training program approved by the state board of education, or is a student enrolled in the second year of such a program that leads to high school graduation, provided that the student performs duties in the preschool program under the continuous supervision of an experienced preschool staff member and receives periodic supervision from the vocational child-care training program teacher-coordinator in the student's high school.
A preschool staff member shall annually complete fifteen hours of inservice training in child development or early childhood education, child abuse recognition and prevention, and first aid, and in the prevention, recognition, and management of communicable diseases, until a total of forty-five hours has been completed, unless the staff member holds an associate or higher degree in child development or early childhood education from an accredited college, university, or technical college, or any type of educator license designated as appropriate for teaching in an associate teaching position in a preschool setting issued by the state board of education pursuant to section 3319.22 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.55.  (A) A school district, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency operating a preschool program shall house the program in buildings that meet the following requirements:
(1) The building is operated by the district, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency and has been approved by the division of industrial compliance in the department of commerce or a certified municipal, township, or county building department for the purpose of operating a program for preschool children. Any such structure shall be constructed, equipped, repaired, altered, and maintained in accordance with applicable provisions of Chapters 3781. and 3791. and with rules adopted by the board of building standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code for the safety and sanitation of structures erected for this purpose.
(2) The building is in compliance with fire and safety laws and regulations as evidenced by reports of annual school fire and safety inspections as conducted by appropriate local authorities.
(3) The school is in compliance with rules established by the state board of education regarding school food services.
(4) The facility includes not less than thirty-five square feet of indoor space for each child in the program. Safe play space, including both indoor and outdoor play space, totaling not less than sixty square feet for each child using the space at any one time, shall be regularly available and scheduled for use.
(5) First aid facilities and space for temporary placement or isolation of injured or ill children are provided.
(B) Each school district, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency that operates, or proposes to operate, a preschool program shall submit a building plan including all information specified by the state board of education to the board not later than the first day of September of the school year in which the program is to be initiated. The board shall determine whether the buildings meet the requirements of this section and section 3301.53 of the Revised Code, and notify the superintendent of its determination. If the board determines, on the basis of the building plan or any other information, that the buildings do not meet those requirements, it shall cause the buildings to be inspected by the department of education. The department shall make a report to the superintendent specifying any aspects of the building that are not in compliance with the requirements of this section and section 3301.53 of the Revised Code and the time period that will be allowed the district, county MR/DD board, or school, grantee, or agency to meet the requirements.
Sec. 3301.57.  (A) For the purpose of improving programs, facilities, and implementation of the standards promulgated by the state board of education under section 3301.53 of the Revised Code, the state department of education shall provide consultation and technical assistance to school districts, county MR/DD boards, and eligible nonpublic schools, head start grantees, and head start delegate agencies operating preschool programs or school child programs, and inservice training to preschool staff members, school child program staff members, and nonteaching employees.
(B) The department and the school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency shall jointly monitor each preschool program and each school child program.
If the program receives any grant or other funding from the state or federal government, the department annually shall monitor all reports on attendance, financial support, and expenditures according to provisions for use of the funds.
(C) The department of job and family services and the department of education shall enter into a contract pursuant to which the department of education inspects preschool programs and school child programs in accordance with sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code, the rules adopted under those sections, and any applicable procedures in Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code and investigates any complaints filed pursuant to those sections or rules. The contract shall require the department of job and family services to pay the department of education for conducting the inspections and investigations an amount equal to the amount that the department of job and family services would expend conducting the same number of inspections and investigations with its employees under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code.
(D) The department of education, at least twice during every twelve-month period of operation of a preschool program or a licensed school child program, shall inspect the program and provide a written inspection report to the superintendent of the school district, county MR/DD board, eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency. At least one inspection shall be unannounced, and all inspections may be unannounced. No person shall interfere with any inspection conducted pursuant to this division or to the rules adopted pursuant to sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code.
Upon receipt of any complaint that a preschool program or a licensed school child program is out of compliance with the requirements in sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code or the rules adopted under those sections, the department shall investigate and may inspect the program.
(E)(D) If a preschool program or a licensed school child program is determined to be out of compliance with the requirements of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code or the rules adopted under those sections, the department of education shall notify the appropriate superintendent, county MR/DD board, eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency in writing regarding the nature of the violation, what must be done to correct the violation, and by what date the correction must be made. If the correction is not made by the date established by the department, it may commence action under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to close the program or to revoke the license of the program. If a program does not comply with an order to cease operation issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the department shall notify the attorney general, the prosecuting attorney of the county in which the program is located, or the city attorney, village solicitor, or other chief legal officer of the municipal corporation in which the program is located that the program is operating in violation of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code or the rules adopted under those sections and in violation of an order to cease operation issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the notification, the attorney general, prosecuting attorney, city attorney, village solicitor, or other chief legal officer shall file a complaint in the court of common pleas of the county in which the program is located requesting the court to issue an order enjoining the program from operating. The court shall grant the requested injunctive relief upon a showing that the program named in the complaint is operating in violation of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code or the rules adopted under those sections and in violation of an order to cease operation issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(F)(E) The department of education shall prepare an annual report on inspections conducted under this section. The report shall include the number of inspections conducted, the number and types of violations found, and the steps taken to address the violations. The department shall file the report with the governor, the president and minority leader of the senate, and the speaker and minority leader of the house of representatives on or before the first day of January of each year, beginning in 1999.
Sec. 3301.58.  (A) The department of education is responsible for the licensing of preschool programs and school child programs and for the enforcement of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and of any rules adopted under those sections. No school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency shall operate, establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a preschool program without a license issued under this section. A school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school may obtain a license under this section for a school child program. The school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency shall post the current license for each preschool program and licensed school child program it operates, establishes, manages, conducts, or maintains in a conspicuous place in the preschool program or licensed school child program that is accessible to parents, custodians, or guardians and employees and staff members of the program at all times when the program is in operation.
(B) Any school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency that desires to operate, establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a preschool program shall apply to the department of education for a license on a form that the department shall prescribe by rule. Any school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school that desires to obtain a license for a school child program shall apply to the department for a license on a form that the department shall prescribe by rule. The department shall provide at no charge to each applicant for a license under this section a copy of the requirements under sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections. The department shall mail application forms for the renewal of a license at least one hundred twenty days prior to the date of the expiration of the license, and the application for renewal of a license shall be filed with the department at least sixty days before the date of the expiration of the existing license. The department may establish application fees by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, and all applicants for a license shall pay any fee established by the department at the time of making an application for a license. All fees collected pursuant to this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.
(C) Upon the filing of an application for a license, the department of education shall investigate and inspect the preschool program or school child program to determine the license capacity for each age category of children of the program and to determine whether the program complies with sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections. When, after investigation and inspection, the department of education is satisfied that sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections are complied with by the applicant, the department of education shall issue the program a provisional license as soon as practicable in the form and manner prescribed by the rules of the department. The provisional license shall be valid for six months from the date of issuance unless revoked.
(D) The department of education shall investigate and inspect a preschool program or school child program that has been issued a provisional license at least once during operation under the provisional license. If, after the investigation and inspection, the department of education determines that the requirements of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections are met by the provisional licensee, the department of education shall issue a license that is effective for two years from the date of the issuance of the provisional license.
(E) Upon the filing of an application for the renewal of a license by a preschool program or school child program, the department of education shall investigate and inspect the preschool program or school child program. If the department of education determines that the requirements of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections are met by the applicant, the department of education shall renew the license for two years from the date of the expiration date of the previous license.
(F) The license or provisional license shall state the name of the school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate agency that operates the preschool program or school child program and the license capacity of the program. The license shall include any other information required by section 5104.03 of the Revised Code for the license of a child day-care center.
(G) The department of education may revoke the license of any preschool program or school child program that is not in compliance with the requirements of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections.
(H) If the department of education revokes a license or refuses to renew a license to a program, the department shall not issue a license to the program within two years from the date of the revocation or refusal. All actions of the department with respect to licensing preschool programs and school child programs shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.80.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio SchoolNet commission as an independent agency office within the department of education. The commission office shall administer programs to provide financial and other assistance to school districts and other educational institutions for the acquisition and utilization of educational technology.
The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of the state performing essential governmental functions of the state.
(B)(1) The commission shall consist of eleven members, seven of whom are voting members. Of the voting members, one shall be appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and one shall be appointed by the president of the senate. The members appointed by the speaker of the house and the president of the senate shall not be members of the general assembly. The state superintendent of public instruction or a designee of the superintendent, the director of budget and management or a designee of the director, the director of administrative services or a designee of the director, the chairperson of the public utilities commission or a designee of the chairperson, and the director of the Ohio educational telecommunications network commission or a designee of the director shall serve on the commission as ex officio voting members. Of the nonvoting members, two shall be members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house and two shall be members of the senate appointed by the president of the senate. The members appointed from each house shall not be members of the same political party. The commission shall appoint officers from among its members.
(2) The members shall serve without compensation. The voting members appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the senate shall be reimbursed, pursuant to office of budget and management guidelines, for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of official duties.
(3) The terms of office for the members appointed by the speaker of the house and the president of the senate shall be for two years, with each term ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that it succeeds, except that the voting members so appointed may be removed at anytime by their respective appointing authority. The members appointed by the speaker of the house and the president of the senate may be reappointed. Any member appointed from the house of representatives or senate who ceases to be a member of the legislative house from which the member was appointed shall cease to be a member of the commission. Vacancies among appointed members shall be filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term for which a predecessor was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that term. The members appointed by the speaker of the house and the president of the senate shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of that member's term until a successor takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.
(C)(1) The commission office shall be under the supervision of an executive director who shall be appointed by the commission. The executive director shall serve at the pleasure of the commission and superintendent of public instruction, who shall direct commission office employees in the administration of all programs for the provision of financial and other assistance to school districts and other educational institutions for the acquisition and utilization of educational technology.
(2) The employees of the Ohio SchoolNet commission office shall be placed in the unclassified service. The commission shall fix the compensation of the executive director. The executive director superintendent shall employ and fix the compensation for such employees as necessary to facilitate the activities and purposes of the commission. The employees shall serve at the pleasure of the executive director superintendent.
(3) The employees of the Ohio SchoolNet commission office shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code.
(D)(C) The Ohio SchoolNet commission office shall do all of the following:
(1) Make grants to institutions and other organizations as prescribed by the general assembly for the provision of technical assistance, professional development, and other support services to enable school districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, and other educational institutions to utilize educational technology;
(2) Contract with the department of education, state institutions of higher education, private nonprofit institutions of higher education holding certificates of authorization under section 1713.02 of the Revised Code, and such other public or private entities as the executive director superintendent deems necessary for the administration and implementation of the programs under administered by the commission's jurisdiction office;
(3) Establish a reporting system to which school districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, and other educational institutions receiving financial assistance pursuant to this section for the acquisition of educational technology report information as to the manner in which such assistance was expended, the manner in which the equipment or services purchased with the assistance is being utilized, the results or outcome of this utilization, and other information as may be required by the commission office;
(4) Establish necessary guidelines governing purchasing and procurement by participants in programs administered by the commission office that facilitate the timely and effective implementation of such programs;
(5) Take into consideration the efficiency and cost savings of statewide procurement prior to allocating and releasing funds for any programs under its administration.
(E)(1) The executive director shall implement policies and directives issued by the Ohio SchoolNet commission.
(2)(D) The Ohio SchoolNet commission office may establish a systems support network to facilitate the timely implementation of the programs, projects, or activities for which it provides assistance.
(3)(E) Chapters 123., 124., 125., and 153., and sections 9.331, 9.332, and 9.333 of the Revised Code do not apply to contracts, programs, projects, or activities of the Ohio SchoolNet commission office.
Sec. 3301.801. (A) The Ohio SchoolNet commission department of education shall create and maintain a clearinghouse for classroom teachers, including any classroom teachers employed by community schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, to easily obtain lesson plans and materials and other practical resources for use in classroom teaching. The commission department shall develop a method of obtaining submissions, from classroom teachers and others, of such plans, materials, and other resources that have been used in the classroom and that can be readily used and implemented by classroom teachers in their regular teaching activities. The commission department also shall develop methods of informing classroom teachers of both the availability of such plans, materials, and other resources, and of the opportunity to submit such plans, materials, and other resources and other classroom teaching ideas to the clearinghouse.
The department of education shall regularly identify research-based practices concerned with scheduling and allotting instructional time and submit include such practices to the commission for inclusion in the clearinghouse.
The commission department shall periodically report to the speaker and minority leader of the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of the senate, and the chairpersons and ranking minority members of the education committees of the senate and the house of representatives regarding the clearinghouse and make recommendations for changes in state law or administrative rules that may facilitate the usefulness of the clearinghouse.
(B) Not later than one year after the effective date of this amendment September 11, 2001, the department of education shall identify research studies on academic intervention and prevention practices that have been successful in improving the academic performance of students from different ethnic and socioeconomic groups, develop an annotated bibliography of such studies, and provide that bibliography to the Ohio SchoolNet commission. The commission shall promptly make the bibliography available to school districts as a part of the clearinghouse established under this section.
Sec. 3313.979.  Each scholarship or grant to be used for payments to a registered private school or to an approved tutorial assistance provider is payable to the parents of the student entitled to the scholarship or grant. Each scholarship to be used for payments to a public school in an adjacent school district is payable to the school district of attendance by the superintendent of public instruction. Each grant to be used for payments to an approved tutorial assistance provider is payable to the approved tutorial assistance provider.
(A)(1) By the fifteenth day of each month of the school year that any scholarship students are enrolled in a registered private school, the chief administrator of that school shall notify the state superintendent of:
(a) The number of students who were reported to the school district as having been admitted by that private school pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code and who were still enrolled in the private school as of the first day of such month, and the numbers of such students who qualify for seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship amount;
(b) The number of students who were reported to the school district as having been admitted by another private school pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code and since the date of admission have transferred to the school providing the notification under division (A)(1) of this section, and the numbers of such students who qualify for seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.
(2) From time to time, the state superintendent shall make a payment to the parent of each student entitled to a scholarship. Each payment shall include for each student reported under division (A)(1) of this section, a portion of seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the scholarship amount specified in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code. This amount shall be proportionately reduced in the case of any such student who is not enrolled in a registered private school for the entire school year.
(3) The first payment under this division shall be made by the last day of November and shall equal one-third of seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the estimated total amount that will be due to the parent for the school year pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section.
(B) The state superintendent, on behalf of the parents of a scholarship student enrolled in a public school in an adjacent school district pursuant to section 3327.06 of the Revised Code, shall make the tuition payments required by that section to the school district admitting the student, except that, notwithstanding sections 3323.13, 3323.14, and 3327.06 of the Revised Code, the total payments in any school year shall not exceed seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the scholarship amount provided in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code.
(C) Whenever an approved provider provides tutorial assistance to a student, the state superintendent shall pay the parent approved provider for such costs upon receipt of a statement from the parent specifying the services provided and the costs of the services, which statement shall be signed by the provider and verified by the chief administrator having supervisory control over the tutoring site. The total payments to any parent approved provider under this division for all provider services to any individual student in any school year shall not exceed seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the grant amount provided in division (C)(3) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3314.074. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply only to the extent permitted under Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code.
(A) If any community school established under this chapter permanently closes and ceases its operation as a community school, the assets of that school shall be distributed first to the retirement funds of employees of the school, employees of the school, and private creditors who are owed compensation and then any remaining funds shall be paid to the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.
(B) If a community school closes and ceases to operate as a community school and the school has received computer hardware or software from the Ohio SchoolNet commission department of education, such hardware or software shall be returned to the commission department, and the commission department shall redistribute the hardware and software, to the extent such redistribution is possible, to school districts in conformance with the provisions of the programs operated and administered by the commission department.
(C) If the assets of the school are insufficient to pay all persons or entities to whom compensation is owed, the prioritization of the distribution of the assets to individual persons or entities within each class of payees may be determined by decree of a court in accordance with this section and Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3314.083. If the department of education pays a joint vocational school district under division (G)(4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special education and related services to a handicapped student who is enrolled in a community school, as calculated under division (G)(2) of that section, the department shall deduct the amount of that payment from the amount calculated for payment to the community school under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3316.08.  During a school district's fiscal emergency period, the auditor of state shall determine annually, or at any other time upon request of the financial planning and supervision commission, whether the school district will incur an operating deficit. If the auditor of state determines that a school district will incur an operating deficit, the auditor of state shall certify that determination to the superintendent of public instruction, the financial planning and supervision commission, and the board of education of the school district. Upon receiving the auditor of state's certification, the board of education or and the commission each shall adopt consider adopting a resolution to submit a ballot question proposing the levy of a tax under section 5705.194 or 5705.21 or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code. After the board of education and the commission consider adopting a resolution for the levy of such a tax, the board of education and commission each shall adopt a resolution that explains the decision to propose or not propose such a levy. Except as otherwise provided in this division, the tax shall be levied in the manner prescribed for a tax levied under section 5705.194 or 5705.21 or under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code. The If the board of education or commission decides that a tax shall should be levied, the tax shall be levied for the purpose of paying current operating expenses of the school district. The question shall propose that the tax be levied at the a rate required to produce annual revenue sufficient to eliminate the operating deficit as certified by the auditor of state and to repay outstanding loans or other obligations incurred by the board of education for the purpose of reducing or eliminating operating deficits generate an amount that would produce a positive fiscal year end cash balance not later than the fifth year of the district's current five-year forecast submitted under section 5705.391 of the Revised Code, as determined by the financial planning and supervision commission in consultation with the district treasurer. The rate of a tax levied under section 5705.194 or 5705.21 of the Revised Code shall be determined by the county auditor, and the rate of a tax levied under section 5748.02 or 5748.08 of the Revised Code shall be determined by the tax commissioner, upon the request of the commission. The commission shall determine the election at which the question of the tax shall appear on the ballot, and the board of education or commission shall submit a copy of its resolution to the board of elections not later than seventy-five days prior to the day of that election. The board of elections conducting the election shall certify the results of the election to the board of education and to the financial planning and supervision commission.
Sec. 3317.012.  (A)(1) The general assembly, having analyzed school district expenditure and cost data for fiscal year 1999, performed the calculation described in division (B) of this section, adjusted the results for inflation, and added the amounts described in division (A)(2) of this section, hereby determines that the base cost of an adequate education per pupil for the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2001, is $4,814. For the five two following fiscal years, the base cost per pupil for each of those years, reflecting an annual rate of inflation of two and eight-tenths per cent, is $4,949 for fiscal year 2003, and $5,088 for fiscal year 2004, $5,230 for fiscal year 2005, $5,376 for fiscal year 2006, and $5,527 for fiscal year 2007.
(2) The base cost per pupil amounts specified in division (A)(1) of this section include amounts to reflect the cost to school districts of increasing the minimum number of high school academic units required for graduation beginning September 15, 2001, under section 3313.603 of the Revised Code. Analysis of fiscal year 1999 data revealed that the school districts meeting the requirements of division (B) of this section on average required high school students to complete a minimum of nineteen and eight-tenths units to graduate. The general assembly determines that the cost of funding the additional two-tenths unit required by section 3313.603 of the Revised Code is $12 per pupil in fiscal year 2002. This amount was added after the calculation described in division (B) of this section and the adjustment for inflation from fiscal year 1999 to fiscal year 2002. It is this total amount, the calculated base cost plus the supplement to pay for the additional partial unit, that constitutes the base cost amount specified in division (A)(1) of this section for fiscal year 2002 and that is inflated to produce the base cost amounts for fiscal years 2003 through 2007 2004.
(B) In determining the base cost stated in division (A) of this section, capital and debt costs, costs paid for by federal funds, and costs covered by funds provided for disadvantaged pupil impact aid and transportation were excluded, as were the effects on the districts' state funds of the application of the cost-of-doing-business factors, assuming a seven and one-half per cent variance.
The base cost for fiscal year 1999 was calculated as the unweighted average cost per student, on a school district basis, of educating students who were not receiving vocational education or services pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and who were enrolled in a city, exempted village, or local school district that in fiscal year 1999 met all of the following criteria:
(1) The district met at least twenty of the following twenty-seven performance indicators:
(a) A ninety per cent or higher graduation rate;
(b) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under former division (A)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(c) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders proficient on the reading test prescribed under former division (A)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(d) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders proficient on the writing test prescribed under former division (A)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(e) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders proficient on the citizenship test prescribed under former division (A)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(f) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders proficient on the science test prescribed under former division (A)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(g) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(h) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders proficient on the reading test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(i) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders proficient on the writing test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(j) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders proficient on the citizenship test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(k) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders proficient on the science test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(l) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(m) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders proficient on the reading test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(n) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders proficient on the writing test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(o) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders proficient on the citizenship test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(p) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders proficient on the science test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(q) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(r) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders proficient on the reading test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(s) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders proficient on the writing test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(t) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders proficient on the citizenship test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(u) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders proficient on the science test prescribed under Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(v) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(w) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient on the reading test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(x) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient on the writing test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(y) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient on the citizenship test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(z) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient on the science test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(aa) An attendance rate for the year of at least ninety-three per cent as defined in section 3302.01 of the Revised Code.
In determining whether a school district met any of the performance standards specified in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (aa) of this section, the general assembly used a rounding procedure previously recommended by the department of education. It is the same rounding procedure the general assembly used in 1998 to determine whether a district had met the standards of former divisions (B)(1)(a) to (r) of this section for purposes of constructing the previous model based on fiscal year 1996 data.
(2) The district was not among the five per cent of all districts with the highest income, nor among the five per cent of all districts with the lowest income.
(3) The district was not among the five per cent of all districts with the highest valuation per pupil, nor among the five per cent of all districts with the lowest valuation per pupil.
This model for calculating the base cost of an adequate education is expenditure-based. The general assembly recognizes that increases in state funding to school districts since fiscal year 1996, the fiscal year upon which the general assembly based its model for calculating state funding to school districts for fiscal years 1999 through 2001, has increased school district base cost expenditures for fiscal year 1999, the fiscal year upon which the general assembly based its model for calculating state funding for fiscal years 2002 through 2007 2004. In the case of school districts included in the fiscal year 1999 model that also had met the fiscal year 1996 performance criteria of former division (B)(1) of this section, the increased state funding may have driven the districts' expenditures beyond the expenditures that were actually needed to maintain their educational programs at the level necessary to maintain their ability to meet the fiscal year 1999 performance criteria of current division (B)(1) of this section. The general assembly has determined to control for this effect by stipulating in the later model that the fiscal year 1999 base cost expenditures of the districts that also met the performance criteria of former division (B)(1) of this section equals their base cost expenditures per pupil for fiscal year 1996, inflated to fiscal year 1999 using an annual rate of inflation of two and eight-tenths per cent. However, if this inflated amount exceeded the district's actual fiscal year 1999 base cost expenditures per pupil, the district's actual fiscal year 1999 base cost expenditures per pupil were used in the calculation. For districts in the 1999 model that did not also meet the performance criteria of former division (B)(1) of this section, the actual 1999 base cost per pupil expenditures were used in the calculation of the average district per pupil costs of the model districts.
(C) In July of 2005, and in July of every six years thereafter, the speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the senate shall each appoint three members to a committee to reexamine the cost of an adequate education. No more than two members from any political party shall represent each house. The director of budget and management and the superintendent of public instruction shall serve as nonvoting ex officio members of the committee.
The committee shall select a rational methodology for calculating the costs of an adequate education system for the ensuing six-year period, and shall report the methodology and the resulting costs to the general assembly. In performing its function, the committee is not bound by any method used by previous general assemblies to examine and calculate costs and instead may utilize any rational method it deems suitable and reasonable given the educational needs and requirements of the state at that time.
The methodology for determining the cost of an adequate education system shall take into account the basic educational costs that all districts incur in educating regular students, the unique needs of special categories of students, and significant special conditions encountered by certain classifications of school districts.
The committee also shall redetermine, for purposes of updating the parity aid calculation under section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code, the average number of effective operating mills that school districts in the seventieth to ninetieth percentiles of valuations per pupil collect above the revenues required to finance their attributed local shares of the calculated cost of an adequate education.
Any committee appointed pursuant to this section shall make its report to the office of budget and management and the general assembly within one year of its appointment so that the information is available for use by the office and the general assembly in preparing the next biennial appropriations act.
(D)(1) For purposes of this division, an "update year" is the first fiscal year for which the per pupil base cost of an adequate education is in effect after being recalculated by the general assembly. The first update year is fiscal year 2002. The second update year is fiscal year 2008.
(2) The general assembly shall recalculate the per pupil base cost of an adequate education every six years after considering the recommendations of the committee appointed under division (C) of this section. At the time of the recalculation, for each of the five fiscal years following the update year, the general assembly shall adjust the base cost recalculated for the update year using an annual rate of inflation that the general assembly determines appropriate.
(3) The general assembly shall include, in the act appropriating state funds for education programs for a fiscal biennium that begins with an update year, a statement of its determination of the total state share percentage of base cost and parity aid funding for the update year.
(4) During its biennial budget deliberations, the general assembly shall determine the total state share percentage of base cost and parity aid funding for each fiscal year of the upcoming biennium. This determination shall be based on the latest projections and data provided by the department of education under division (D)(6) of this section prior to the enactment of education appropriations for the upcoming biennium. If, based on those latest projections and data, the general assembly determines that the total state share percentage for either or both nonupdate fiscal years varies more than two and one-half percentage points more or less than the total state share percentage for the most recent update year, as previously stated by the general assembly under division (D)(3) of this section, the general assembly shall determine and enact a method that it considers appropriate to restrict the estimated variance for each year to within two and one-half percentage points. The general assembly's methods may include, but are not required to include and need not be limited to, reexamining the rate of millage charged off as the local share of base cost funding under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code. Regardless of any changes in charge-off millage rates in years between update years, however, the charge-off millage rate for update years shall be twenty-three mills, unless the general assembly determines that a different millage rate is more appropriate to share the total calculated base cost between the state and school districts.
(5) The total state share percentage of base cost and parity aid funding for any fiscal year is calculated as follows:
[(Total state base cost + total state parity aid funding) - statewide charge-off amount] / (Total state base cost + total state parity aid funding)
Where:
(a) The total state base cost equals the sum of the base costs for all school districts for the fiscal year.
(b) The base cost for each school district equals:
formula amount X cost-of-doing-business factor X
the greater of formula ADM or
three-year average formula ADM
(c) The total state parity aid funding equals the sum of the amounts paid to all school districts for the fiscal year under section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code.
(d) The statewide charge-off amount equals the sum of the charge-off amounts for all school districts.
(e) The charge-off amount for each school district is the amount calculated as its local share of base cost funding and deducted from the total calculated base cost to determine the amount of its state payment under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code. The charge-off amount for each school district in fiscal year 2002 is the product of twenty-three mills multiplied by the district's recognized valuation as adjusted, if applicable, under division (A)(2) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code. If however, in any fiscal year, including fiscal year 2002, a school district's calculated charge-off amount exceeds its base cost calculated as described in division (D)(5)(b) of this section, the district's charge-off amount shall be deemed to equal its calculated base cost.
(6) Whenever requested by the chairperson of the standing committee of the house or representatives or the senate having primary jurisdiction over appropriations, the legislative budget officer, or the director of budget and management, the department of education shall report its latest projections for total base cost, total parity aid funding, and the statewide charge-off amount, as those terms are defined in division (D)(5) of this section, for each year of the upcoming fiscal biennium, and all data it used to make the projections.
Sec. 3317.013.  This section does not apply to handicapped preschool students.
Analysis of special education cost data has resulted in a finding that the average special education additional cost per pupil, including the costs of related services, can be expressed as a multiple of the base cost per pupil calculated under section 3317.012 of the Revised Code. The multiples for the following categories of special education programs, as these programs are defined for purposes of Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, and adjusted as provided in this section, are as follows:
(A) A multiple of 0.2892 for students whose primary or only identified handicap is a speech and language handicap, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;
(B) A multiple of 0.3691 for students identified as specific learning disabled or developmentally handicapped, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or other health handicapped-minor;
(C) A multiple of 1.7695 for students identified as hearing handicapped, vision impaired, or severe behavior handicapped, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;
(D) A multiple of 2.3646 for students identified as orthopedically handicapped, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code or other health handicapped - major;
(E) A multiple of 3.1129 for students identified as multihandicapped, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;
(F) A multiple of 4.7342 for students identified as autistic, having traumatic brain injuries, or as both visually and hearing disabled, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.
In fiscal year 2002 2004, the multiples specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section shall be adjusted by multiplying them by 0.825. In fiscal year 2003, the multiples specified in those divisions shall be adjusted by multiplying them by 0.875 for purposes of calculating the state and local shares of special education and related services additional weighted funding, the department of education shall determine a percentage with which it shall adjust the multiples specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section so that the adjusted multiples generate state funding equal to the amount appropriated for the state share of special education and related services additional weighted funding. The department shall certify the percentage to the office of budget and management not later than July 30, 2003. The department may adjust the percentage in effect during fiscal year 2004 if updated data indicate that that percentage will generate state share funding that is greater than or less than the amount appropriated for it. The department shall notify the office of budget and management each time it adjusts the percentage and provide the office with the data justifying the adjustment.
In fiscal year 2004, not less than one hundred per cent of the unadjusted average special education additional cost per pupil, represented by the unadjusted multiples of the base cost per pupil specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section, shall be funded through a combination of the state and local shares of special education and related services additional weighted funding as calculated under this chapter and federal special education funds passed through to city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational school districts. Not later than May 30, 2004, the department shall submit to the office of budget and management a report that specifies for each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational school district the fiscal year 2004 allocation of the state and local shares of special education and related services additional weighted funding and federal special education funds passed through to the district.
Sec. 3317.0213.  No money shall be distributed under this section after fiscal year 2005 2004.
(A) As used in this section:
(1) "ADM" for any school district means:
(a) In fiscal year 1999, the FY 1998 ADM;
(b) In fiscal years 2000 through 2005 2004, the formula ADM reported for the previous fiscal year.
(2) "Average taxable value" means the average of the amounts certified for a district in the second, third, and fourth preceding fiscal years under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Valuation per pupil" for a district means:
(a) In fiscal year 1999, the district's average taxable value, divided by the district's FY 1998 ADM;
(b) In a fiscal year that occurs after fiscal year 1999, the district's average taxable value, divided by the district's formula ADM for the preceding fiscal year.
(4) "Threshold valuation" means:
(a) In fiscal year 1999, the adjusted valuation per pupil of the school district with the two hundred twenty-ninth lowest adjusted valuation per pupil in the state, according to data available at the time of the computation under division (B) of this section;
(b) In fiscal year 2000, the adjusted valuation per pupil of the district with the one hundred ninety-sixth lowest such valuation in the state;
(c) In fiscal year 2001, the adjusted valuation per pupil of the district with the one hundred sixty-third lowest such valuation in the state;
(d) In fiscal years 2002 through 2005 2004, the adjusted valuation per pupil of the district with the one-hundred-eighteenth lowest such valuation in the state.
(5) "Adjusted valuation per pupil" for a district means an amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
The district's valuation per pupil -
($30,000 X (one minus the
district's income factor))
(6) "Millage rate" means .012 in fiscal year 1999, .011 in fiscal year 2000, .010 in fiscal year 2001, and .009 in fiscal years 2002 through 2005 2004.
(7) "Payment percentage" equals 100% prior to fiscal year 2003, 75% in fiscal year 2003, and 50% in fiscal year 2004, 25% in fiscal year 2005, and zero after fiscal year 2005.
(B) Beginning in fiscal year 1993, during August of each fiscal year, the department of education shall distribute to each school district meeting the requirements of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code whose adjusted valuation per pupil is less than the threshold valuation, an amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
(The threshold valuation -
the district's adjusted valuation per pupil) X
millage rate X ADM X the payment percentage
Sec. 3317.0217.  The department of education shall annually compute and pay state parity aid to school districts, as follows:
(A) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school district, which equals the following sum:
(1) Two-thirds times the quotient of (a) the district's recognized valuation divided by (b) its formula ADM; plus
(2) One-third times the quotient of (a) the average of the total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's residents for the three years most recently reported under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (b) its formula ADM.
(B) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.
(C) Compute the per pupil state parity aid funding for each school district in accordance with the following formula:
Payment percentage X (threshold local wealth
per pupil - the district's local
wealth per pupil) X 0.0095
Where:
(1) "Payment percentage," for purposes of division (C) of this section, equals 20% in fiscal year 2002, 40% in fiscal year 2003, and 60% in fiscal year 2004, 80% in fiscal year 2005, and 100% after fiscal year 2005.
(2) Nine and one-half mills (0.0095) is the general assembly's determination of the average number of effective operating mills that districts in the seventieth to ninetieth percentiles of valuations per pupil collected in fiscal year 2001 above the revenues required to finance their attributed local shares of the calculated cost of an adequate education. This was determined by (a) adding the district revenues from operating property tax levies and income tax levies, (b) subtracting from that total the sum of (i) twenty-three mills times adjusted recognized valuation plus (ii) the attributed local shares of special education, transportation, and vocational education funding as described in divisions (F)(1) to (3) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, and (c) converting the result to an effective operating property tax rate.
(3) The "threshold local wealth per pupil" is the local wealth per pupil of the school district with the four-hundred-ninetieth lowest local wealth per pupil.
If the result of the calculation for a school district under division (C) of this section is less than zero, the district's per pupil parity aid shall be zero.
(D) Compute the per pupil alternative parity aid for each school district that has a combination of an income factor of 1.0 or less, a DPIA index of 1.0 or greater, and a cost-of-doing-business factor of 1.0375 or greater, in accordance with the following formula:
Payment percentage X $60,000 X
(1 - income factor) X 4/15 X 0.023
Where:
(1) "DPIA index" has the same meaning as in section 3317.029 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Payment percentage," for purposes of division (D) of this section, equals 50% in fiscal year 2002 and 100% after fiscal year 2002.
(E) Pay each district that has a combination of an income factor 1.0 or less, a DPIA index of 1.0 or greater, and a cost-of-doing-business factor of 1.0375 or greater, the greater of the following:
(1) The product of the district's per pupil parity aid calculated under division (C) of this section times its formula ADM;
(2) The product of its per pupil alternative parity aid calculated under division (D) of this section times its formula ADM.
(F) Pay every other district the product of its per pupil parity aid calculated under division (C) of this section times its formula ADM.
Every six years, the general assembly shall redetermine, after considering the report of the committee appointed under section 3317.012 of the Revised Code, the average number of effective operating mills that districts in the seventieth to ninetieth percentiles of valuations per pupil collect above the revenues required to finance their attributed local shares of the cost of an adequate education.
Sec. 3317.022.  (A)(1) The department of education shall compute and distribute state base cost funding to each school district for the fiscal year in accordance with the following formula, making any adjustment required by division (A)(2) of this section and using the information obtained under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the calendar year in which the fiscal year begins.
Compute the following for each eligible district:
[cost-of-doing-business factor X
the formula amount X (the greater of formula ADM
or three-year average formula ADM)] -
(.023 X recognized valuation)
If the difference obtained is a negative number, the district's computation shall be zero.
(2)(a) For each school district for which the tax exempt value of the district equals or exceeds twenty-five per cent of the potential value of the district, the department of education shall calculate the difference between the district's tax exempt value and twenty-five per cent of the district's potential value.
(b) For each school district to which division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies, the department shall adjust the recognized valuation used in the calculation under division (A)(1) of this section by subtracting from it the amount calculated under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
(B) As used in this section:
(1) The "total special education weight" for a district means the sum of the following amounts:
(a) The district's category one special education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(b) The district's category two special education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(c) The district's category three special education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(d) The district's category four special education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(e) The district's category five special education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(f) The district's category six special education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.
(2) "State share percentage" means the percentage calculated for a district as follows:
(a) Calculate the state base cost funding amount for the district for the fiscal year under division (A) of this section. If the district would not receive any state base cost funding for that year under that division, the district's state share percentage is zero.
(b) If the district would receive state base cost funding under that division, divide that amount by an amount equal to the following:
Cost-of-doing-business factor X
the formula amount X (the greater of formula
ADM or three-year average formula ADM)
The resultant number is the district's state share percentage.
(3) "Related services" includes:
(a) Child study, special education supervisors and coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical development services, occupational or physical therapy, teacher assistants for handicapped children whose handicaps are described in division (B) of section 3317.013 or division (F)(3) of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, behavioral intervention, interpreter services, work study, nursing services, and specialized integrative services as those terms are defined by the department;
(b) Speech and language services provided to any student with a handicap, including any student whose primary or only handicap is a speech and language handicap;
(c) Any related service not specifically covered by other state funds but specified in federal law, including but not limited to, audiology and school psychological services;
(d) Any service included in units funded under former division (O)(1) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code;
(e) Any other related service needed by handicapped children in accordance with their individualized education plans.
(4) The "total vocational education weight" for a district means the sum of the following amounts:
(a) The district's category one vocational education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;
(b) The district's category two vocational education ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state special education and related services additional weighted costs funds to each school district in accordance with the following formula:
The district's state share percentage
X the formula amount for the year
for which the aid is calculated
X the district's total special education weight
(2) The attributed local share of special education and related services additional weighted costs equals:
(1 - the district's state share percentage) X
the district's total special education weight X
the formula amount
(3)(a) The department shall compute and pay in accordance with this division additional state aid to school districts for students in categories two through six special education ADM. If a district's costs for the fiscal year for a student in its categories two through six special education ADM exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student, the district may submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the district an amount equal to the sum of the following:
(i) One-half of the district's costs for the student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;
(ii) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by the district's state share percentage.
(b) For purposes of division (C)(3)(a) of this section, the threshold catastrophic cost for serving a student equals:
(i) For a student in the school district's category two, three, four, or five special education ADM, twenty-five thousand dollars in fiscal year 2002 and twenty-five thousand seven hundred dollars in fiscal year years 2003 and 2004;
(ii) For a student in the district's category six special education ADM, thirty thousand dollars in fiscal year 2002 and thirty thousand eight hundred forty dollars in fiscal year years 2003 and 2004.
The threshold catastrophic costs for fiscal year 2003 represent a two and eight-tenths per cent inflationary increase over fiscal year 2002.
(c) The district shall only report under division (C)(3)(a) of this section, and the department shall only pay for, the costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to the student in accordance with the student's individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student may not be included in the amount.
(5)(4)(a) As used in this division, the "personnel allowance" means thirty thousand dollars in fiscal years 2002 and, 2003, and 2004.
(b) For the provision of speech services to students, including students who do not have individualized education programs prepared for them under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, and for no other purpose, the department of education shall pay each school district an amount calculated under the following formula:
(formula ADM divided by 2000) X
the personnel allowance X the state share percentage
(5) In any fiscal year, a school district shall spend for purposes that the department designates as approved for special education and related services expenses at least the amount calculated as follows:
(cost-of-doing-business factor X
formula amount X the sum of categories
one through six special education ADM) +
(total special education weight X formula amount)
The purposes approved by the department for special education expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to, identification of handicapped children, compliance with state rules governing the education of handicapped children and prescribing the continuum of program options for handicapped children, and the portion of the school district's overall administrative and overhead costs that are attributable to the district's special education student population.
The department shall require school districts to report data annually to allow for monitoring compliance with division (C)(5) of this section. The department shall annually report to the governor and the general assembly the amount of money spent by each school district for special education and related services.
(D)(1) As used in this division:
(a) "Daily bus miles per student" equals the number of bus miles traveled per day, divided by transportation base.
(b) "Transportation base" equals total student count as defined in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, minus the number of students enrolled in preschool handicapped units, plus the number of nonpublic school students included in transportation ADM.
(c) "Transported student percentage" equals transportation ADM divided by transportation base.
(d) "Transportation cost per student" equals total operating costs for board-owned or contractor-operated school buses divided by transportation base.
(2) Analysis of student transportation cost data has resulted in a finding that an average efficient transportation use cost per student can be calculated by means of a regression formula that has as its two independent variables the number of daily bus miles per student and the transported student percentage. For fiscal year 1998 transportation cost data, the average efficient transportation use cost per student is expressed as follows:
51.79027 + (139.62626 X daily bus miles per student) +
(116.25573 X transported student percentage)
The department of education shall annually determine the average efficient transportation use cost per student in accordance with the principles stated in division (D)(2) of this section, updating the intercept and regression coefficients of the regression formula modeled in this division, based on an annual statewide analysis of each school district's daily bus miles per student, transported student percentage, and transportation cost per student data. The department shall conduct the annual update using data, including daily bus miles per student, transported student percentage, and transportation cost per student data, from the prior fiscal year. The department shall notify the office of budget and management of such update by the fifteenth day of February of each year.
(3) In addition to funds paid under divisions (A), (C), and (E) of this section, each district with a transported student percentage greater than zero shall receive a payment equal to a percentage of the product of the district's transportation base from the prior fiscal year times the annually updated average efficient transportation use cost per student, times an inflation factor of two and eight tenths per cent to account for the one-year difference between the data used in updating the formula and calculating the payment and the year in which the payment is made. The percentage shall be the following percentage of that product specified for the corresponding fiscal year:
FISCAL YEAR PERCENTAGE
2000 52.5%
2001 55%
2002 57.5%
2003 and thereafter The greater of 60% or the district's state share percentage

The payments made under division (D)(3) of this section each year shall be calculated based on all of the same prior year's data used to update the formula.
(4) In addition to funds paid under divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section, a school district shall receive a rough road subsidy if both of the following apply:
(a) Its county rough road percentage is higher than the statewide rough road percentage, as those terms are defined in division (D)(5) of this section;
(b) Its district student density is lower than the statewide student density, as those terms are defined in that division.
(5) The rough road subsidy paid to each district meeting the qualifications of division (D)(4) of this section shall be calculated in accordance with the following formula:
(per rough mile subsidy X total rough road miles) X
density multiplier
where:
(a) "Per rough mile subsidy" equals the amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
0.75 - {0.75 X [(maximum rough road percentage -
county rough road percentage)/(maximum rough road percentage -
statewide rough road percentage)]}
(i) "Maximum rough road percentage" means the highest county rough road percentage in the state.
(ii) "County rough road percentage" equals the percentage of the mileage of state, municipal, county, and township roads that is rated by the department of transportation as type A, B, C, E2, or F in the county in which the school district is located or, if the district is located in more than one county, the county to which it is assigned for purposes of determining its cost-of-doing-business factor.
(iii) "Statewide rough road percentage" means the percentage of the statewide total mileage of state, municipal, county, and township roads that is rated as type A, B, C, E2, or F by the department of transportation.
(b) "Total rough road miles" means a school district's total bus miles traveled in one year times its county rough road percentage.
(c) "Density multiplier" means a figure calculated in accordance with the following formula:
1 - [(minimum student density - district student
density)/(minimum student density -
statewide student density)]
(i) "Minimum student density" means the lowest district student density in the state.
(ii) "District student density" means a school district's transportation base divided by the number of square miles in the district.
(iii) "Statewide student density" means the sum of the transportation bases for all school districts divided by the sum of the square miles in all school districts.
(6) In addition to funds paid under divisions (D)(2) to (5) of this section, each district shall receive in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education a payment for students transported by means other than board-owned or contractor-operated buses and whose transportation is not funded under division (J) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. The rules shall include provisions for school district reporting of such students.
(E)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state vocational education additional weighted costs funds to each school district in accordance with the following formula:
state share percentage X
the formula amount X
total vocational education weight
In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds under division (E)(1) of this section shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the department designates as approved for vocational education expenses.
(2) The department shall compute for each school district state funds for vocational education associated services in accordance with the following formula:
state share percentage X .05 X
the formula amount X the sum of categories one and two
vocational education ADM
In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds under division (E)(2) of this section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (L) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the department designates as approved for vocational education associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other vocational education services, vocational evaluation, and other purposes designated by the department. The department may deny payment under division (E)(2) of this section to any district that the department determines is not operating those services or is using funds paid under division (E)(2) of this section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (L) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.
(F) Beginning in fiscal year 2003, the actual local share in any fiscal year for the combination of special education and related services additional weighted costs funding calculated under division (C)(1) of this section, transportation funding calculated under divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section, and vocational education and associated services additional weighted costs funding calculated under divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section shall not exceed for any school district the product of three mills times the district's recognized valuation. Beginning in fiscal year 2003, the department annually shall pay each school district as an excess cost supplement any amount by which the sum of the district's attributed local shares for that funding exceeds that product. For purposes of calculating the excess cost supplement:
(1) The attributed local share for special education and related services additional weighted costs funding is the amount specified in division (C)(2) of this section.
(2) The attributed local share of transportation funding equals the difference of the total amount calculated for the district using the formula developed under division (D)(2) of this section minus the actual amount paid to the district after applying the percentage specified in division (D)(3) of this section.
(3) The attributed local share of vocational education and associated services additional weighted costs funding is the amount determined as follows:
(1 - state share percentage) X
[(total vocational education weight X the formula amount) +
the payment under division (E)(2) of this section]
Sec. 3317.023.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, the amounts required to be paid to a district under this chapter shall be adjusted by the amount of the computations made under divisions (B) to (L)(M) of this section.
As used in this section:
(1) "Classroom teacher" means a licensed employee who provides direct instruction to pupils, excluding teachers funded from money paid to the district from federal sources; educational service personnel; and vocational and special education teachers.
(2) "Educational service personnel" shall not include such specialists funded from money paid to the district from federal sources or assigned full-time to vocational or special education students and classes and may only include those persons employed in the eight specialist areas in a pattern approved by the department of education under guidelines established by the state board of education.
(3) "Annual salary" means the annual base salary stated in the state minimum salary schedule for the performance of the teacher's regular teaching duties that the teacher earns for services rendered for the first full week of October of the fiscal year for which the adjustment is made under division (C) of this section. It shall not include any salary payments for supplemental teachers contracts.
(4) "Regular student population" means the formula ADM plus the number of students reported as enrolled in the district pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3313.981 of the Revised Code; minus the number of students reported under division (A)(2) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code; minus the FTE of students reported under division (B)(5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of that section who are enrolled in a vocational education class or receiving special education; and minus one-fourth of the students enrolled concurrently in a joint vocational school district.
(5) "State share percentage" has the same meaning as in section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.
(6) "VEPD" means a school district or group of school districts designated by the department of education as being responsible for the planning for and provision of vocational education services to students within the district or group.
(7) "Lead district" means a school district, including a joint vocational school district, designated by the department as a VEPD, or designated to provide primary vocational education leadership within a VEPD composed of a group of districts.
(B) If the district employs less than one full-time equivalent classroom teacher for each twenty-five pupils in the regular student population in any school district, deduct the sum of the amounts obtained from the following computations:
(1) Divide the number of the district's full-time equivalent classroom teachers employed by one twenty-fifth;
(2) Subtract the quotient in (1) from the district's regular student population;
(3) Multiply the difference in (2) by seven hundred fifty-two dollars.
(C) If a positive amount, add one-half of the amount obtained by multiplying the number of full-time equivalent classroom teachers by:
(1) The mean annual salary of all full-time equivalent classroom teachers employed by the district at their respective training and experience levels minus;
(2) The mean annual salary of all such teachers at their respective levels in all school districts receiving payments under this section.
The number of full-time equivalent classroom teachers used in this computation shall not exceed one twenty-fifth of the district's regular student population. In calculating the district's mean salary under this division, those full-time equivalent classroom teachers with the highest training level shall be counted first, those with the next highest training level second, and so on, in descending order. Within the respective training levels, teachers with the highest years of service shall be counted first, the next highest years of service second, and so on, in descending order.
(D) This division does not apply to a school district that has entered into an agreement under division (A) of section 3313.42 of the Revised Code. Deduct the amount obtained from the following computations if the district employs fewer than five full-time equivalent educational service personnel, including elementary school art, music, and physical education teachers, counselors, librarians, visiting teachers, school social workers, and school nurses for each one thousand pupils in the regular student population:
(1) Divide the number of full-time equivalent educational service personnel employed by the district by five one-thousandths;
(2) Subtract the quotient in (1) from the district's regular student population;
(3) Multiply the difference in (2) by ninety-four dollars.
(E) If a local school district, or a city or exempted village school district to which a governing board of an educational service center provides services pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code, deduct the amount of the payment required for the reimbursement of the governing board under section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.
(F)(1) If the district is required to pay to or entitled to receive tuition from another school district under division (C)(2) or (3) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, or if the superintendent of public instruction is required to determine the correct amount of tuition and make a deduction or credit under section 3317.08 of the Revised Code, deduct and credit such amounts as provided in division (I) of section 3313.64 or section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.
(2) For each child for whom the district is responsible for tuition or payment under division (A)(1) of section 3317.082 or section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, deduct the amount of tuition or payment for which the district is responsible.
(G) If the district has been certified by the superintendent of public instruction under section 3313.90 of the Revised Code as not in compliance with the requirements of that section, deduct an amount equal to ten per cent of the amount computed for the district under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.
(H) If the district has received a loan from a commercial lending institution for which payments are made by the superintendent of public instruction pursuant to division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, deduct an amount equal to such payments.
(I)(1) If the district is a party to an agreement entered into under division (D), (E), or (F) of section 3311.06 or division (B) of section 3311.24 of the Revised Code and is obligated to make payments to another district under such an agreement, deduct an amount equal to such payments if the district school board notifies the department in writing that it wishes to have such payments deducted.
(2) If the district is entitled to receive payments from another district that has notified the department to deduct such payments under division (I)(1) of this section, add the amount of such payments.
(J) If the district is required to pay an amount of funds to a cooperative education district pursuant to a provision described by division (B)(4) of section 3311.52 or division (B)(8) of section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, deduct such amounts as provided under that provision and credit those amounts to the cooperative education district for payment to the district under division (B)(1) of section 3317.19 of the Revised Code.
(K)(1) If a district is educating a student entitled to attend school in another district pursuant to a shared education contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement other than an agreement entered into pursuant to section 3313.842 of the Revised Code, credit to that educating district on an FTE basis both of the following:
(a) An amount equal to the formula amount times the cost of doing business factor of the school district where the student is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code;
(b) An amount equal to the formula amount times the state share percentage times any multiple applicable to the student pursuant to section 3317.013 or 3317.014 of the Revised Code.
(2) Deduct any amount credited pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section from amounts paid to the school district in which the student is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.
(3) If the district is required by a shared education contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement to make payments to an educational service center, deduct the amounts from payments to the district and add them to the amounts paid to the service center pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.
(L)(1) If a district, including a joint vocational school district, is a lead district of a VEPD, credit to that district the amounts calculated for all the school districts within that VEPD pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.
(2) Deduct from each appropriate district that is not a lead district, the amount attributable to that district that is credited to a lead district under division (L)(1) of this section.
(M) If the department pays a joint vocational school district under division (G)(4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special education and related services to a handicapped student, as calculated under division (G)(2) of that section, the department shall deduct the amount of that payment from the city, local, or exempted village school district that is responsible as specified in that section for the excess costs.
Sec. 3317.024.  In addition to the moneys paid to eligible school districts pursuant to section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, moneys appropriated for the education programs in divisions (A) to (H), (J) to (L), (O), (P), and (R) of this section shall be distributed to school districts meeting the requirements of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code; in the case of divisions (J) and (P) of this section, to educational service centers as provided in section 3317.11 of the Revised Code; in the case of divisions (E), (M), and (N) of this section, to county MR/DD boards; in the case of division (R) of this section, to joint vocational school districts; in the case of division (K) of this section, to cooperative education school districts; and in the case of division (Q) of this section, to the institutions defined under section 3317.082 of the Revised Code providing elementary or secondary education programs to children other than children receiving special education under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code. The following shall be distributed monthly, quarterly, or annually as may be determined by the state board of education:
(A) A per pupil amount to each school district that establishes a summer school remediation program that complies with rules of the state board of education.
(B) An amount for each island school district and each joint state school district for the operation of each high school and each elementary school maintained within such district and for capital improvements for such schools. Such amounts shall be determined on the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education.
(C) An amount for each school district operating classes for children of migrant workers who are unable to be in attendance in an Ohio school during the entire regular school year. The amounts shall be determined on the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education, except that payment shall be made only for subjects regularly offered by the school district providing the classes.
(D) An amount for each school district with guidance, testing, and counseling programs approved by the state board of education. The amount shall be determined on the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education.
(E) An amount for the emergency purchase of school buses as provided for in section 3317.07 of the Revised Code;
(F) An amount for each school district required to pay tuition for a child in an institution maintained by the department of youth services pursuant to section 3317.082 of the Revised Code, provided the child was not included in the calculation of the district's average daily membership for the preceding school year.
(G) In fiscal year 2000 only, an amount to each school district for supplemental salary allowances for each licensed employee except those licensees serving as superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, or assistant principals, whose term of service in any year is extended beyond the term of service of regular classroom teachers, as described in section 3301.0725 of the Revised Code;
(H) An amount for adult basic literacy education for each district participating in programs approved by the state board of education. The amount shall be determined on the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education.
(I) Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, but only until June 30, 1999, to each city, local, and exempted village school district, an amount for conducting driver education courses at high schools for which the state board of education prescribes minimum standards and to joint vocational and cooperative education school districts and educational service centers, an amount for conducting driver education courses to pupils enrolled in a high school for which the state board prescribes minimum standards. No payments shall be made under this division after June 30, 1999.
(J) An amount for the approved cost of transporting developmentally handicapped pupils whom it is impossible or impractical to transport by regular school bus in the course of regular route transportation provided by the district or service center. No district or service center is eligible to receive a payment under this division for the cost of transporting any pupil whom it transports by regular school bus and who is included in the district's transportation ADM. The state board of education shall establish standards and guidelines for use by the department of education in determining the approved cost of such transportation for each district or service center.
(K) An amount to each school district, including each cooperative education school district, pursuant to section 3313.81 of the Revised Code to assist in providing free lunches to needy children and an amount to assist needy school districts in purchasing necessary equipment for food preparation. The amounts shall be determined on the basis of rules adopted by the state board of education.
(L) An amount to each school district, for each pupil attending a chartered nonpublic elementary or high school within the district. The amount shall equal the amount appropriated for the implementation of section 3317.06 of the Revised Code divided by the average daily membership in grades kindergarten through twelve in nonpublic elementary and high schools within the state as determined during the first full week in October of each school year.
(M) An amount for each county MR/DD board, distributed on the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education, for the approved cost of transportation required for children attending special education programs operated by the county MR/DD board under section 3323.09 of the Revised Code;
(N) An amount for each county MR/DD board, distributed on the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education, for supportive home services for preschool children;
(O) An amount for each school district that establishes a mentor teacher program that complies with rules of the state board of education. No school district shall be required to establish or maintain such a program in any year unless sufficient funds are appropriated to cover the district's total costs for the program.
(P) An amount to each school district or educational service center for the total number of gifted units approved pursuant to section 3317.05 of the Revised Code. The amount for each such unit shall be the sum of the minimum salary for the teacher of the unit, calculated on the basis of the teacher's training level and years of experience pursuant to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of section 3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to the effective date of this amendment July 1, 2001, plus fifteen per cent of that minimum salary amount, plus two thousand six hundred seventy-eight dollars.
(Q) An amount to each institution defined under section 3317.082 of the Revised Code providing elementary or secondary education to children other than children receiving special education under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code. This amount for any institution in any fiscal year shall equal the total of all tuition amounts required to be paid to the institution under division (A)(1) of section 3317.082 of the Revised Code.
(R) A grant to each school district and joint vocational school district that operates a "graduation, reality, and dual-role skills" (GRADS) program for pregnant and parenting students that is approved by the department. The amount of the payment shall be the district's state share percentage, as defined in section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of the Revised Code, times the GRADS personnel allowance times the full-time-equivalent number of GRADS teachers approved by the department. The GRADS personnel allowance is $46,260 $47,555 in fiscal years 2002 and 2003 year 2004.
The state board of education or any other board of education or governing board may provide for any resident of a district or educational service center territory any educational service for which funds are made available to the board by the United States under the authority of public law, whether such funds come directly or indirectly from the United States or any agency or department thereof or through the state or any agency, department, or political subdivision thereof.
Sec. 3317.029.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "DPIA percentage" means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004, the quotient obtained by dividing the five-year average number of children ages five to seventeen residing in the school district and living in a family receiving assistance under the Ohio works first program or an antecedent program known as TANF or ADC, as certified or adjusted under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code, by the district's three-year average formula ADM.
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the unduplicated number of children ages five to seventeen residing in the school district and living in a family that has family income not exceeding the federal poverty guidelines and that receives family assistance, as certified or adjusted under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code, divided by the district's three-year average formula ADM.
(2) "Family assistance" means assistance received under one of the following:
(a) The Ohio works first program;
(b) The food stamp program;
(c) The medical assistance program, including the healthy start program, established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;
(d) The children's health insurance program part I established under section 5101.50 of the Revised Code or, prior to fiscal year 2000, an executive order issued under section 107.17 of the Revised Code;
(e) The disability financial assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(f) The disability medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
(3) "Statewide DPIA percentage" means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004, the five-year average of the total number of children ages five to seventeen years residing in the state and receiving assistance under the Ohio works first program or an antecedent program known as TANF or ADC, divided by the sum of the three-year average formula ADMs for all school districts in the state.
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the total unduplicated number of children ages five to seventeen residing in the state and living in a family that has family income not exceeding the federal poverty guidelines and that receives family assistance, divided by the sum of the three-year average formula ADMs for all school districts in the state.
(4) "DPIA index" means the quotient obtained by dividing the school district's DPIA percentage by the statewide DPIA percentage.
(5) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.
(6) "DPIA student count" means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004, the five-year average number of children ages five to seventeen residing in the school district and living in a family receiving assistance under the Ohio works first program or an antecedent program known as TANF or ADC, as certified under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code;
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the unduplicated number of children ages five to seventeen residing in the school district and living in a family that has family income not exceeding the federal poverty guidelines and that receives family assistance, as certified or adjusted under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code.
(7) "Kindergarten ADM" means the number of students reported under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as enrolled in kindergarten.
(8) "Kindergarten through third grade ADM" means the amount calculated as follows:
(a) Multiply the kindergarten ADM by the sum of one plus the all-day kindergarten percentage;
(b) Add the number of students in grades one through three;
(c) Subtract from the sum calculated under division (A)(6)(b) of this section the number of special education students in grades kindergarten through three.
(9) "Statewide average teacher salary" means forty-two thousand four hundred sixty-nine dollars in fiscal year 2002, and forty-three forty-four thousand six eight hundred fifty-eight eighty dollars in fiscal year 2003 2004, which includes an amount for the value of fringe benefits.
(10) "All-day kindergarten" means a kindergarten class that is in session five days per week for not less than the same number of clock hours each day as for pupils in grades one through six.
(11) "All-day kindergarten percentage" means the percentage of a district's actual total number of students enrolled in kindergarten who are enrolled in all-day kindergarten.
(12) "Buildings with the highest concentration of need" means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004, the school buildings in a district with percentages of students in grades kindergarten through three receiving assistance under Ohio works first at least as high as the district-wide percentage of students receiving such assistance.
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the school buildings in a district with percentages of students in grades kindergarten through three receiving family assistance at least as high as the district-wide percentage of students receiving family assistance.
(c) If, in any fiscal year, the information provided by the department of job and family services under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code is insufficient to determine the Ohio works first or family assistance percentage in each building, "buildings with the highest concentration of need" has the meaning given in rules that the department of education shall adopt. The rules shall base the definition of "buildings with the highest concentration of need" on family income of students in grades kindergarten through three in a manner that, to the extent possible with available data, approximates the intent of this division and division (G) of this section to designate buildings where the Ohio works first or family assistance percentage in those grades equals or exceeds the district-wide Ohio works first or family assistance percentage.
(B) In addition to the amounts required to be paid to a school district under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, a school district shall receive the greater of the amount the district received in fiscal year 1998 pursuant to division (B) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code as it existed at that time or the sum of the computations made under divisions (C) to (E) of this section.
(C) A supplemental payment that may be utilized for measures related to safety and security and for remediation or similar programs, calculated as follows:
(1) If the DPIA index of the school district is greater than or equal to thirty-five-hundredths, but less than one, an amount obtained by multiplying the district's DPIA student count by two hundred thirty dollars;
(2) If the DPIA index of the school district is greater than or equal to one, an amount obtained by multiplying the DPIA index by two hundred thirty dollars and multiplying that product by the district's DPIA student count.
Except as otherwise provided in division (F) of this section, beginning with the school year that starts July 1, 2002, each school district annually shall use at least twenty per cent of the funds calculated for the district under this division for intervention services required by section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.
(D) A payment for all-day kindergarten if the DPIA index of the school district is greater than or equal to one or if the district's three-year average formula ADM exceeded seventeen thousand five hundred, calculated by multiplying the all-day kindergarten percentage by the kindergarten ADM and multiplying that product by the formula amount.
(E) A class-size reduction payment based on calculating the number of new teachers necessary to achieve a lower student-teacher ratio, as follows:
(1) Determine or calculate a formula number of teachers per one thousand students based on the DPIA index of the school district as follows:
(a) If the DPIA index of the school district is less than six-tenths, the formula number of teachers is 43.478, which is the number of teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher ratio of twenty-three to one;
(b) If the DPIA index of the school district is greater than or equal to six-tenths, but less than two and one-half, the formula number of teachers is calculated as follows:
43.478 + {[(DPIA index-0.6)/ 1.9] X 23.188}
Where 43.478 is the number of teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher ratio of twenty-three to one; 1.9 is the interval from a DPIA index of six-tenths to a DPIA index of two and one-half; and 23.188 is the difference in the number of teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher ratio of fifteen to one and the number of teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher ratio of twenty-three to one.
(c) If the DPIA index of the school district is greater than or equal to two and one-half, the formula number of teachers is 66.667, which is the number of teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher ratio of fifteen to one.
(2) Multiply the formula number of teachers determined or calculated in division (E)(1) of this section by the kindergarten through third grade ADM for the district and divide that product by one thousand;
(3) Calculate the number of new teachers as follows:
(a) Multiply the kindergarten through third grade ADM by 43.478, which is the number of teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher ratio of twenty-three to one, and divide that product by one thousand;
(b) Subtract the quotient obtained in division (E)(3)(a) of this section from the product in division (E)(2) of this section.
(4) Multiply the greater of the difference obtained under division (E)(3) of this section or zero by the statewide average teachers salary.
(F) This division applies only to school districts whose DPIA index is one or greater.
(1) Each school district subject to this division shall first utilize funds received under this section so that, when combined with other funds of the district, sufficient funds exist to provide all-day kindergarten to at least the number of children in the district's all-day kindergarten percentage.
(2) Up to an amount equal to the district's DPIA index multiplied by its DPIA student count multiplied by two hundred thirty dollars of the money distributed under this section may be utilized for one or both of the following:
(a) Programs designed to ensure that schools are free of drugs and violence and have a disciplined environment conducive to learning;
(b) Remediation for students who have failed or are in danger of failing any of the tests administered pursuant to section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.
Beginning with the school year that starts on July 1, 2002, each school district shall use at least twenty per cent of the funds set aside for the purposes of divisions (F)(2)(a) and (b) of this section to provide intervention services required by section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.
(3) Except as otherwise required by division (G) or permitted under division (K) of this section, all other funds distributed under this section to districts subject to this division shall be utilized for the purpose of the third grade guarantee. The third grade guarantee consists of increasing the amount of instructional attention received per pupil in kindergarten through third grade, either by reducing the ratio of students to instructional personnel or by increasing the amount of instruction and curriculum-related activities by extending the length of the school day or the school year.
School districts may implement a reduction of the ratio of students to instructional personnel through any or all of the following methods:
(a) Reducing the number of students in a classroom taught by a single teacher;
(b) Employing full-time educational aides or educational paraprofessionals issued a permit or license under section 3319.088 of the Revised Code;
(c) Instituting a team-teaching method that will result in a lower student-teacher ratio in a classroom.
Districts may extend the school day either by increasing the amount of time allocated for each class, increasing the number of classes provided per day, offering optional academic-related after-school programs, providing curriculum-related extra curricular activities, or establishing tutoring or remedial services for students who have demonstrated an educational need. In accordance with section 3319.089 of the Revised Code, a district extending the school day pursuant to this division may utilize a participant of the work experience program who has a child enrolled in a public school in that district and who is fulfilling the work requirements of that program by volunteering or working in that public school. If the work experience program participant is compensated, the school district may use the funds distributed under this section for all or part of the compensation.
Districts may extend the school year either through adding regular days of instruction to the school calendar or by providing summer programs.
(G) Each district subject to division (F) of this section shall not expend any funds received under division (E) of this section in any school buildings that are not buildings with the highest concentration of need, unless there is a ratio of instructional personnel to students of no more than fifteen to one in each kindergarten and first grade class in all buildings with the highest concentration of need. This division does not require that the funds used in buildings with the highest concentration of need be spent solely to reduce the ratio of instructional personnel to students in kindergarten and first grade. A school district may spend the funds in those buildings in any manner permitted by division (F)(3) of this section, but may not spend the money in other buildings unless the fifteen-to-one ratio required by this division is attained.
(H)(1) By the first day of August of each fiscal year, each school district wishing to receive any funds under division (D) of this section shall submit to the department of education an estimate of its all-day kindergarten percentage. Each district shall update its estimate throughout the fiscal year in the form and manner required by the department, and the department shall adjust payments under this section to reflect the updates.
(2) Annually by the end of December, the department of education, utilizing data from the information system established under section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code and after consultation with the legislative office of education oversight, shall determine for each school district subject to division (F) of this section whether in the preceding fiscal year the district's ratio of instructional personnel to students and its number of kindergarten students receiving all-day kindergarten appear reasonable, given the amounts of money the district received for that fiscal year pursuant to divisions (D) and (E) of this section. If the department is unable to verify from the data available that students are receiving reasonable amounts of instructional attention and all-day kindergarten, given the funds the district has received under this section and that class-size reduction funds are being used in school buildings with the highest concentration of need as required by division (G) of this section, the department shall conduct a more intensive investigation to ensure that funds have been expended as required by this section. The department shall file an annual report of its findings under this division with the chairpersons of the committees in each house of the general assembly dealing with finance and education.
(I) Any school district with a DPIA index less than one and a three-year average formula ADM exceeding seventeen thousand five hundred shall first utilize funds received under this section so that, when combined with other funds of the district, sufficient funds exist to provide all-day kindergarten to at least the number of children in the district's all-day kindergarten percentage. Such a district shall expend at least seventy per cent of the remaining funds received under this section, and any other district with a DPIA index less than one shall expend at least seventy per cent of all funds received under this section, for any of the following purposes:
(1) The purchase of technology for instructional purposes;
(2) All-day kindergarten;
(3) Reduction of class sizes;
(4) Summer school remediation;
(5) Dropout prevention programs;
(6) Guaranteeing that all third graders are ready to progress to more advanced work;
(7) Summer education and work programs;
(8) Adolescent pregnancy programs;
(9) Head start or preschool programs;
(10) Reading improvement programs described by the department of education;
(11) Programs designed to ensure that schools are free of drugs and violence and have a disciplined environment conducive to learning;
(12) Furnishing, free of charge, materials used in courses of instruction, except for the necessary textbooks or electronic textbooks required to be furnished without charge pursuant to section 3329.06 of the Revised Code, to pupils living in families participating in Ohio works first in accordance with section 3313.642 of the Revised Code;
(13) School breakfasts provided pursuant to section 3313.813 of the Revised Code.
Each district shall submit to the department, in such format and at such time as the department shall specify, a report on the programs for which it expended funds under this division.
(J) If at any time the superintendent of public instruction determines that a school district receiving funds under division (D) of this section has enrolled less than the all-day kindergarten percentage reported for that fiscal year, the superintendent shall withhold from the funds otherwise due the district under this section a proportional amount as determined by the difference in the certified all-day kindergarten percentage and the percentage actually enrolled in all-day kindergarten.
The superintendent shall also withhold an appropriate amount of funds otherwise due a district for any other misuse of funds not in accordance with this section.
(K)(1) A district may use a portion of the funds calculated for it under division (D) of this section to modify or purchase classroom space to provide all-day kindergarten, if both of the following conditions are met:
(a) The district certifies to the department, in a manner acceptable to the department, that it has a shortage of space for providing all-day kindergarten.
(b) The district provides all-day kindergarten to the number of children in the all-day kindergarten percentage it certified under this section.
(2) A district may use a portion of the funds described in division (F)(3) of this section to modify or purchase classroom space to enable it to further reduce class size in grades kindergarten through two with a goal of attaining class sizes of fifteen students per licensed teacher. To do so, the district must certify its need for additional space to the department, in a manner satisfactory to the department.
Sec. 3317.03.  Notwithstanding divisions (A)(1), (B)(1), and (C) of this section, any student enrolled in kindergarten more than half time shall be reported as one-half student under this section.
(A) The superintendent of each city and exempted village school district and of each educational service center shall, for the schools under the superintendent's supervision, certify to the state board of education on or before the fifteenth day of October in each year for the first full school week in October the formula ADM, which shall consist of the average daily membership during such week of the sum of the following:
(1) On an FTE basis, the number of students in grades kindergarten through twelve receiving any educational services from the district, except that the following categories of students shall not be included in the determination:
(a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;
(b) Adjacent or other district students enrolled in the district under an open enrollment policy pursuant to section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;
(c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who are entitled to attend school in another district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code;
(d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code.
(2) On an FTE basis, the number of students entitled to attend school in the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, but receiving educational services in grades kindergarten through twelve from one or more of the following entities:
(a) A community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community school;
(b) An alternative school pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or (b) of this section;
(c) A college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code, except when the student is enrolled in the college while also enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code;
(d) An adjacent or other school district under an open enrollment policy adopted pursuant to section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;
(e) An educational service center or cooperative education district;
(f) Another school district under a cooperative education agreement, compact, or contract.
(3) One-fourth of the number of students enrolled in a joint vocational school district or under a vocational education compact, excluding any students entitled to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code who are enrolled in another school district through an open enrollment policy as reported under division (A)(2)(d) of this section and then enroll in a joint vocational school district or under a vocational education compact;
(4) The number of handicapped children, other than handicapped preschool children, entitled to attend school in the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code who are placed with a county MR/DD board, minus the number of such children placed with a county MR/DD board in fiscal year 1998. If this calculation produces a negative number, the number reported under division (A)(4) of this section shall be zero.
(B) To enable the department of education to obtain the data needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this chapter, in addition to the formula ADM, each superintendent shall report separately the following student counts:
(1) The total average daily membership in regular day classes included in the report under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section for kindergarten, and each of grades one through twelve in schools under the superintendent's supervision;
(2) The number of all handicapped preschool children enrolled as of the first day of December in classes in the district that are eligible for approval by the state board of education under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code and the number of those classes, which shall be reported not later than the fifteenth day of December, in accordance with rules adopted under that section;
(3) The number of children entitled to attend school in the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code who are participating in a pilot project scholarship program established under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, are enrolled in a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code, except when the student is enrolled in the college while also enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, are enrolled in an adjacent or other school district under section 3313.98 of the Revised Code, are enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community school, or are participating in a program operated by a county MR/DD board or a state institution;
(4) The number of pupils enrolled in joint vocational schools;
(5) The average daily membership of handicapped children reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving special education services for the category one handicap described in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(6) The average daily membership of handicapped children reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving special education services for category two handicaps described in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(7) The average daily membership of handicapped children reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving special education services for category three handicaps described in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(8) The average daily membership of handicapped children reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving special education services for category four handicaps described in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(9) The average daily membership of handicapped children reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving special education services for the category five handicap described in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(10) The average daily membership of handicapped children reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving special education services for category six handicaps described in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(11) The average daily membership of pupils reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category one vocational education programs or classes, described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by the school district or by another district, other than a joint vocational school district, or by an educational service center;
(12) The average daily membership of pupils reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category two vocational education programs or services, described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by the school district or another school district, other than a joint vocational school district, or by an educational service center;
(13) The average number of children transported by the school district on board-owned or contractor-owned and -operated buses, reported in accordance with rules adopted by the department of education;
(14)(a) The number of children, other than handicapped preschool children, the district placed with a county MR/DD board in fiscal year 1998;
(b) The number of handicapped children, other than handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board in the current fiscal year to receive special education services for the category one handicap described in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(c) The number of handicapped children, other than handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board in the current fiscal year to receive special education services for category two handicaps described in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(d) The number of handicapped children, other than handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board in the current fiscal year to receive special education services for category three handicaps described in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(e) The number of handicapped children, other than handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board in the current fiscal year to receive special education services for category four handicaps described in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(f) The number of handicapped children, other than handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board in the current fiscal year to receive special education services for the category five handicap described in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(g) The number of handicapped children, other than handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board in the current fiscal year to receive special education services for category six handicaps described in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section for kindergarten students, the average daily membership in divisions (B)(1) to (12) of this section shall be based upon the number of full-time equivalent students. The state board of education shall adopt rules defining full-time equivalent students and for determining the average daily membership therefrom for the purposes of divisions (A), (B), and (D) of this section.
(2) A student enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code shall be counted in the formula ADM and, if applicable, the category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM of the school district in which the student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code for the same proportion of the school year that the student is counted in the enrollment of the community school for purposes of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.
(3) No child shall be counted as more than a total of one child in the sum of the average daily memberships of a school district under division (A), divisions (B)(1) to (12), or division (D) of this section, except as follows:
(a) A child with a handicap described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code may be counted both in formula ADM and in category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM and, if applicable, in category one or two vocational education ADM. As provided in division (C) of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, such a child shall be counted in category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM in the same proportion that the child is counted in formula ADM.
(b) A child enrolled in vocational education programs or classes described in section 3317.014 of the Revised Code may be counted both in formula ADM and category one or two vocational education ADM and, if applicable, in category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM. Such a child shall be counted in category one or two vocational education ADM in the same proportion as the percentage of time that the child spends in the vocational education programs or classes.
(4) Based on the information reported under this section, the department of education shall determine the total student count, as defined in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, for each school district.
(D)(1) The superintendent of each joint vocational school district shall certify to the superintendent of public instruction on or before the fifteenth day of October in each year for the first full school week in October the formula ADM, which, except as otherwise provided in this division, shall consist of the average daily membership during such week, on an FTE basis, of the number of students receiving any educational services from the district, including students enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code who are attending the joint vocational district under an agreement between the district board of education and the governing authority of the community school and are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted village school district whose territory is part of the territory of the joint vocational district.
The following categories of students shall not be included in the determination made under division (D)(1) of this section:
(a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;
(b) Adjacent or other district joint vocational students enrolled in the district under an open enrollment policy pursuant to section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;
(c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted village school district whose territory is not part of the territory of the joint vocational district;
(d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code.
(2) To enable the department of education to obtain the data needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this chapter, in addition to the formula ADM, each superintendent shall report separately the average daily membership included in the report under division (D)(1) of this section for each of the following categories of students:
(a) Students enrolled in each grade included in the joint vocational district schools;
(b) Handicapped children receiving special education services for the category one handicap described in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(c) Handicapped children receiving special education services for the category two handicaps described in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(d) Handicapped children receiving special education services for category three handicaps described in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(e) Handicapped children receiving special education services for category four handicaps described in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(f) Handicapped children receiving special education services for the category five handicap described in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(g) Handicapped children receiving special education services for category six handicaps described in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(h) Students receiving category one vocational education services, described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;
(i) Students receiving category two vocational education services, described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.
The superintendent of each joint vocational school district shall also indicate the city, local, or exempted village school district in which each joint vocational district pupil is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.
(E) In each school of each city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, and cooperative education school district there shall be maintained a record of school membership, which record shall accurately show, for each day the school is in session, the actual membership enrolled in regular day classes. For the purpose of determining average daily membership, the membership figure of any school shall not include any pupils except those pupils described by division (A) of this section. The record of membership for each school shall be maintained in such manner that no pupil shall be counted as in membership prior to the actual date of entry in the school and also in such manner that where for any cause a pupil permanently withdraws from the school that pupil shall not be counted as in membership from and after the date of such withdrawal. There shall not be included in the membership of any school any of the following:
(1) Any pupil who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a public high school;
(2) Any pupil who is not a resident of the state;
(3) Any pupil who was enrolled in the schools of the district during the previous school year when tests were administered under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one or more of the tests required by that section and was not excused pursuant to division (C)(1) of that section;
(4) Any pupil who has attained the age of twenty-two years, except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the armed forces and who apply for reenrollment in the public school system of their residence not later than four years after termination of war or their honorable discharge.
If, however, any veteran described by division (E)(4) of this section elects to enroll in special courses organized for veterans for whom tuition is paid under the provisions of federal laws, or otherwise, that veteran shall not be included in average daily membership.
Notwithstanding division (E)(3) of this section, the membership of any school may include a pupil who did not take a test required by section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code if the superintendent of public instruction grants a waiver from the requirement to take the test to the specific pupil. The superintendent may grant such a waiver only for good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education.
Except as provided in divisions (B)(2) and (F) of this section, the average daily membership figure of any local, city, exempted village, or joint vocational school district shall be determined by dividing the figure representing the sum of the number of pupils enrolled during each day the school of attendance is actually open for instruction during the first full school week in October by the total number of days the school was actually open for instruction during that week. For purposes of state funding, "enrolled" persons are only those pupils who are attending school, those who have attended school during the current school year and are absent for authorized reasons, and those handicapped children currently receiving home instruction.
The average daily membership figure of any cooperative education school district shall be determined in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education.
(F)(1) If the formula ADM for the first full school week in February is at least three per cent greater than that certified for the first full school week in the preceding October, the superintendent of schools of any city, exempted village, or joint vocational school district or educational service center shall certify such increase to the superintendent of public instruction. Such certification shall be submitted no later than the fifteenth day of February. For the balance of the fiscal year, beginning with the February payments, the superintendent of public instruction shall use the increased formula ADM in calculating or recalculating the amounts to be allocated in accordance with section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of the Revised Code. In no event shall the superintendent use an increased membership certified to the superintendent after the fifteenth day of February.
(2) If on the first school day of April the total number of classes or units for handicapped preschool children that are eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code exceeds the number of units that have been approved for the year under that division, the superintendent of schools of any city, exempted village, or cooperative education school district or educational service center shall make the certifications required by this section for that day. If the state board of education department determines additional units can be approved for the fiscal year within any limitations set forth in the acts appropriating moneys for the funding of such units, the board department shall approve additional units for the fiscal year on the basis of such average daily membership. For each unit so approved, the department of education shall pay an amount computed in the manner prescribed in section 3317.052 or 3317.19 and section 3317.053 of the Revised Code.
(3) If a student attending a community school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code is not included in the formula ADM certified for the first full school week of October for the school district in which the student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall adjust the formula ADM of that school district to include the community school student in accordance with division (C)(2) of this section, and shall recalculate the school district's payments under this chapter for the entire fiscal year on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. This requirement applies regardless of whether the student was enrolled, as defined in division (E) of this section, in the community school during the first full school week in October.
(G)(1)(a) The superintendent of an institution operating a special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the Revised Code shall, for the programs under such superintendent's supervision, certify to the state board of education the average daily membership of all handicapped children in classes or programs approved annually by the state board department of education, in the manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction.
(b) The superintendent of an institution with vocational education units approved under division (A) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code shall, for the units under the superintendent's supervision, certify to the state board of education the average daily membership in those units, in the manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction.
(2) The superintendent of each county MR/DD board that maintains special education classes under section 3317.20 of the Revised Code or units approved by the state board of education pursuant to section 3317.05 of the Revised Code shall do both of the following:
(a) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by the board, the average daily membership in classes under section 3317.20 of the Revised Code for each school district that has placed children in the classes;
(b) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by the board, the number of all handicapped preschool children enrolled as of the first day of December in classes eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code, and the number of those classes.
(3)(a) If on the first school day of April the number of classes or units maintained for handicapped preschool children by the county MR/DD board that are eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code is greater than the number of units approved for the year under that division, the superintendent shall make the certification required by this section for that day.
(b) If the state board department determines that additional classes or units can be approved for the fiscal year within any limitations set forth in the acts appropriating moneys for the funding of the classes and units described in division (G)(3)(a) of this section, the board department shall approve and fund additional units for the fiscal year on the basis of such average daily membership. For each unit so approved, the department of education shall pay an amount computed in the manner prescribed in sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the Revised Code.
(H) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, when any city, local, or exempted village school district provides instruction for a nonresident pupil whose attendance is unauthorized attendance as defined in section 3327.06 of the Revised Code, that pupil's membership shall not be included in that district's membership figure used in the calculation of that district's formula ADM or included in the determination of any unit approved for the district under section 3317.05 of the Revised Code. The reporting official shall report separately the average daily membership of all pupils whose attendance in the district is unauthorized attendance, and the membership of each such pupil shall be credited to the school district in which the pupil is entitled to attend school under division (B) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code as determined by the department of education.
(I)(1) A city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district admitting a scholarship student of a pilot project district pursuant to division (C) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code may count such student in its average daily membership.
(2) In any year for which funds are appropriated for pilot project scholarship programs, a school district implementing a state-sponsored pilot project scholarship program that year pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code may count in average daily membership:
(a) All children residing in the district and utilizing a scholarship to attend kindergarten in any alternative school, as defined in section 3313.974 of the Revised Code;
(b) All children who were enrolled in the district in the preceding year who are utilizing a scholarship to attend any such alternative school.
(J) The superintendent of each cooperative education school district shall certify to the superintendent of public instruction, in a manner prescribed by the state board of education, the applicable average daily memberships for all students in the cooperative education district, also indicating the city, local, or exempted village district where each pupil is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.032.  (A) Each city, local, exempted village, and cooperative education school district, each educational service center, each county MR/DD board, and each institution operating a special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the Revised Code shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by the state board of education, maintain a record of district membership of both of the following:
(1) All handicapped preschool children in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code;
(2) All handicapped preschool children who are not in units approved by the state board under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code but who are otherwise served by a special education program.
(B) The superintendent of each district, board, or institution subject to division (A) of this section shall certify to the state board of education, in accordance with procedures adopted by that board, membership figures of all handicapped preschool children whose membership is maintained under division (A)(2) of this section. The figures certified under this division shall be used in the determination of the ADM used to compute funds for educational service center governing boards under division (B) of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.05.  (A) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the Revised Code, the state board department of education shall determine for each institution, by the last day of January of each year and based on information certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the number of vocational education units or fractions of units approved by the state board department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the state board of education. As used in this division, "institution" means an institution operated by a department specified in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code and that provides vocational education programs under the supervision of the division of vocational education of the department of education that meet the standards and rules for these programs, including licensure of professional staff involved in the programs, as established by the state board of education.
(B) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the state board department shall determine, based on information certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day of January of each year for each educational service center, for each school district, including each cooperative education school district, for each institution eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, and for each county MR/DD board: the number of classes operated by the school district, service center, institution, or county MR/DD board for handicapped preschool children, or fraction thereof, including in the case of a district or service center that is a funding agent, classes taught by a licensed teacher employed by that district or service center under section 3313.841 of the Revised Code, approved annually by the state board department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the state board.
(C) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the state board department shall determine, based on information certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day of January of each year for each school district, including each cooperative education school district, for each institution eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, and for each county MR/DD board: the number of preschool handicapped related services units for child study, occupational, physical, or speech and hearing therapy, special education supervisors, and special education coordinators approved annually by the state board department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the state board.
(D) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the Revised Code, the state board department shall determine, based on information certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day of January of each year for each institution eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code:
(1) The number of classes operated by an institution for handicapped children other than handicapped preschool children, or fraction thereof, approved annually by the state board department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the state board;
(2) The number of related services units for children other than handicapped preschool children for child study, occupational, physical, or speech and hearing therapy, special education supervisors, and special education coordinators approved annually by the state board department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the state board.
(E) All of the arithmetical calculations made under this section shall be carried to the second decimal place. The total number of units for school districts, service centers, and institutions approved annually by the state board under this section shall not exceed the number of units included in the state board's estimate of cost for these units and appropriations made for them by the general assembly.
In the case of units described in division (D)(1) of this section operated by institutions eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, the state board department shall approve only units for persons who are under age twenty-two on the first day of the academic year, but not less than six years of age on the thirtieth day of September of that year, except that such a unit may include one or more children who are under six years of age on the thirtieth day of September if such children have been admitted to the unit pursuant to rules of the state board. In the case of handicapped preschool units described in division (B) of this section operated by county MR/DD boards and institutions eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, the state board department shall approve only preschool units for children who are under age six but not less than age three on the thirtieth first day of September December of the academic year, except that such a unit may include one or more children who are under age three or are age six or over on the thirtieth first day of September December, as reported under division (B)(2) or (G)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, if such children have been admitted to the unit pursuant to rules of the state board of education. The number of units for county MR/DD boards and institutions eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code approved by the state board under this section shall not exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made for such purposes by the general assembly.
No unit shall be approved under divisions (B) to (D) of this section unless a plan has been submitted and approved under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.
(F) The department shall approve units or fractions thereof for gifted children on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the state board.
Sec. 3317.06.  Moneys paid to school districts under division (L) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code shall be used for the following independent and fully severable purposes:
(A) To purchase such secular textbooks or electronic textbooks as have been approved by the superintendent of public instruction for use in public schools in the state and to loan such textbooks or electronic textbooks to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their parents and to hire clerical personnel to administer such lending program. Such loans shall be based upon individual requests submitted by such nonpublic school pupils or parents. Such requests shall be submitted to the school district in which the nonpublic school is located. Such individual requests for the loan of textbooks or electronic textbooks shall, for administrative convenience, be submitted by the nonpublic school pupil or the pupil's parent to the nonpublic school, which shall prepare and submit collective summaries of the individual requests to the school district. As used in this section:
(1) "Textbook" means any book or book substitute that a pupil uses as a consumable or nonconsumable text, text substitute, or text supplement in a particular class or program in the school the pupil regularly attends.
(2) "Electronic textbook" means computer software, interactive videodisc, magnetic media, CD-ROM, computer courseware, local and remote computer assisted instruction, on-line service, electronic medium, or other means of conveying information to the student or otherwise contributing to the learning process through electronic means.
(B) To provide speech and hearing diagnostic services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such service shall be provided in the nonpublic school attended by the pupil receiving the service.
(C) To provide physician, nursing, dental, and optometric services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended by the nonpublic school pupil receiving the service.
(D) To provide diagnostic psychological services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended by the pupil receiving the service.
(E) To provide therapeutic psychological and speech and hearing services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school is located.
(F) To provide guidance and counseling services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school is located.
(G) To provide remedial services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school is located.
(H) To supply for use by pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district such standardized tests and scoring services as are in use in the public schools of the state;
(I) To provide programs for children who attend nonpublic schools within the district and are handicapped children as defined in division (A) of section 3323.01 of the Revised Code or gifted children. Such programs shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such programs are provided in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school is located.
(J) To hire clerical personnel to assist in the administration of programs pursuant to divisions (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to hire supervisory personnel to supervise the providing of services and textbooks pursuant to this section.
(K) To purchase or lease any secular, neutral, and nonideological computer software (including site-licensing), prerecorded video laserdiscs, digital video on demand (DVD), compact discs, and video cassette cartridges, wide area connectivity and related technology as it relates to internet access, mathematics or science equipment and materials, instructional materials, and school library materials that are in general use in the public schools of the state and loan such items to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the lending program. Only such items that are incapable of diversion to religious use and that are susceptible of loan to individual pupils and are furnished for the use of individual pupils shall be purchased and loaned under this division. As used in this section, "instructional materials" means prepared learning materials that are secular, neutral, and nonideological in character and are of benefit to the instruction of school children, and may include educational resources and services developed by the Ohio schoolnet commission department of education.
(L) To purchase or lease instructional equipment, including computer hardware and related equipment in general use in the public schools of the state, for use by pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district and to loan such items to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the lending program.
(M) To purchase mobile units to be used for the provision of services pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to pay for necessary repairs and operating costs associated with these units.
Clerical and supervisory personnel hired pursuant to division (J) of this section shall perform their services in the public schools, in nonpublic schools, public centers, or mobile units where the services are provided to the nonpublic school pupil, except that such personnel may accompany pupils to and from the service sites when necessary to ensure the safety of the children receiving the services.
All services provided pursuant to this section may be provided under contract with educational service centers, the department of health, city or general health districts, or private agencies whose personnel are properly licensed by an appropriate state board or agency.
Transportation of pupils provided pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section shall be provided by the school district from its general funds and not from moneys paid to it under division (L) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code unless a special transportation request is submitted by the parent of the child receiving service pursuant to such divisions. If such an application is presented to the school district, it may pay for the transportation from moneys paid to it under division (L) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.
No school district shall provide health or remedial services to nonpublic school pupils as authorized by this section unless such services are available to pupils attending the public schools within the district.
Materials, equipment, computer hardware or software, textbooks, electronic textbooks, and health and remedial services provided for the benefit of nonpublic school pupils pursuant to this section and the admission of pupils to such nonpublic schools shall be provided without distinction as to race, creed, color, or national origin of such pupils or of their teachers.
No school district shall provide services, materials, or equipment that contain religious content for use in religious courses, devotional exercises, religious training, or any other religious activity.
As used in this section, "parent" includes a person standing in loco parentis to a child.
Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, payments shall be made under this section to any city, local, or exempted village school district within which is located one or more nonpublic elementary or high schools and any payments made to school districts under division (L) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code for purposes of this section may be disbursed without submission to and approval of the controlling board.
The allocation of payments for materials, equipment, textbooks, electronic textbooks, health services, and remedial services to city, local, and exempted village school districts shall be on the basis of the state board of education's estimated annual average daily membership in nonpublic elementary and high schools located in the district.
Payments made to city, local, and exempted village school districts under this section shall be equal to specific appropriations made for the purpose. All interest earned by a school district on such payments shall be used by the district for the same purposes and in the same manner as the payments may be used.
The department of education shall adopt guidelines and procedures under which such programs and services shall be provided, under which districts shall be reimbursed for administrative costs incurred in providing such programs and services, and under which any unexpended balance of the amounts appropriated by the general assembly to implement this section may be transferred to the auxiliary services personnel unemployment compensation fund established pursuant to section 4141.47 of the Revised Code. The department shall also adopt guidelines and procedures limiting the purchase and loan of the items described in division (K) of this section to items that are in general use in the public schools of the state, that are incapable of diversion to religious use, and that are susceptible to individual use rather than classroom use. Within thirty days after the end of each biennium, each board of education shall remit to the department all moneys paid to it under division (L) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code and any interest earned on those moneys that are not required to pay expenses incurred under this section during the biennium for which the money was appropriated and during which the interest was earned. If a board of education subsequently determines that the remittal of moneys leaves the board with insufficient money to pay all valid expenses incurred under this section during the biennium for which the remitted money was appropriated, the board may apply to the department of education for a refund of money, not to exceed the amount of the insufficiency. If the department determines the expenses were lawfully incurred and would have been lawful expenditures of the refunded money, it shall certify its determination and the amount of the refund to be made to the director of job and family services who shall make a refund as provided in section 4141.47 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.064.  (A) There is hereby established in the state treasury the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement and repair reimbursement fund. By the thirtieth day of January of each odd-numbered year, the director of job and family services and the superintendent of public instruction shall determine the amount of any excess moneys in the auxiliary services personnel unemployment compensation fund not reasonably necessary for the purposes of section 4141.47 of the Revised Code, and shall certify such amount to the director of budget and management for transfer to the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement and repair reimbursement fund. If the director of job and family services and the superintendent disagree on such amount, the director of budget and management shall determine the amount to be transferred.
(B) Moneys in the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement and repair reimbursement fund shall be used for the relocation or for the replacement and repair of mobile units used to provide the services specified in division (E), (F), (G), or (I) of section 3317.06 of the Revised Code. The state board of education shall adopt guidelines and procedures for replacement, repair, and relocation of mobile units and the procedures under which a school district may apply to receive moneys with which to repair or replace or relocate such units.
(C) School districts may apply to the department for moneys from the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement and repair reimbursement fund for payment of incentives for early retirement and severance for school district personnel assigned to provide services authorized by section 3317.06 of the Revised Code at chartered nonpublic schools. The portion of the cost of any early retirement or severance incentive for any employee that is paid using money from the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement and repair reimbursement fund shall not exceed the percentage of such employee's total service credit that the employee spent providing services to chartered nonpublic school students under section 3317.06 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.07.  The state board of education shall establish rules for the purpose of distributing subsidies for the purchase of school buses under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.
No school bus subsidy payments shall be paid to any district unless such district can demonstrate that pupils residing more than one mile from the school could not be transported without such additional aid.
The amount paid to a county MR/DD board for buses purchased for transportation of children in special education programs operated by the board shall be one hundred per cent of the board's net cost.
The amount paid to a school district for buses purchased for transportation of handicapped and nonpublic school pupils shall be one hundred per cent of the school district's net cost.
The state board of education shall adopt a formula to determine the amount of payments that shall be distributed to school districts to purchase school buses for pupils other than handicapped or nonpublic school pupils.
If any district or MR/DD board obtains bus services for pupil transportation pursuant to a contract, such district or board may use payments received under this section to defray the costs of contracting for bus services in lieu of for purchasing buses.
If the department of education determines that a county MR/DD board no longer needs a school bus because the board no longer transports children to a special education program operated by the board, or if the department determines that a school district no longer needs a school bus to transport pupils to a particular nonpublic school or special education program, the department may reassign a bus that was funded with payments provided pursuant to this section for the purpose of transporting such pupils. The department may reassign a bus to a county MR/DD board or school district that transports children to a special education program designated in the children's individualized education plans, or to a school district that transports pupils to a nonpublic school, and needs an additional school bus.
Sec. 3317.10.  (A) On or before the first day of March of each year, the department of job and family services shall certify to the state board of education the unduplicated number of children ages five through seventeen residing in each school district and living in a family that, during the preceding October, had family income not exceeding the federal poverty guidelines as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code and participated in one of the following:
(1) Ohio works first;
(2) The food stamp program;
(3) The medical assistance program, including the healthy start program, established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;
(4) The children's health insurance program part I established under section 5101.50 of the Revised Code;
(5) The disability financial assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(6) The disability medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
The department of job and family services shall certify this information according to the school district of residence for each child. Except as provided under division (B) of this section, the number of children so certified in any year shall be used by the department of education in calculating the distribution of moneys for the ensuing fiscal year as provided in section 3317.029 of the Revised Code.
(B) Upon the transfer of part of the territory of one school district to the territory of one or more other school districts, the department of education may adjust the number of children certified under division (A) of this section for any district gaining or losing territory in such a transfer in order to take into account the effect of the transfer on the number of such children who reside in the district. Within sixty days of receipt of a request for information from the department of education, the department of job and family services shall provide any information the department of education determines is necessary to make such adjustments. The department of education may use the adjusted number for any district for the applicable fiscal year, in lieu of the number certified for the district for that fiscal year under division (A) of this section, in the calculation of the distribution of moneys provided in section 3317.029 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.11.  (A) Annually, on or before a date designated by the state board of education, each educational service center governing board shall prepare a budget of operating expenses for the ensuing year for the service center on forms prepared and furnished by the state board of education and shall certify the budget to the state board of education, together with such other information as the board may require. Such budget shall consist of two parts. Part (A) shall include the cost of the salaries, employers retirement contributions, and travel expenses of supervisory teachers approved by the state board of education. The amount derived from the calculation for such units in part (A) of the governing board budget shall be the sum of:
(1) The sum of the minimum salaries calculated, pursuant to section 3317.13 of the Revised Code, for each approved licensed employee of the governing board;
(2) An additional salary allowance proportional to the length of the extended term of service not to exceed three months for each supervisory and child study teacher whose term of service in any year is extended beyond the terms of service of regular classroom teachers;
(3) An allowance equal to fifteen per cent of the amount computed under division (A)(1) of this section;
(4) An allowance for necessary travel expenses, for each of the personnel approved in part (A) of the budget, limited to two hundred twenty-three dollars and sixteen cents per month, or two thousand six hundred seventy-eight dollars per year per person employed, whichever is the lesser.
Part (B) shall include the cost of all other lawful expenditures of the governing board. The state board of education shall review such budget and may approve, increase, or decrease such budget.
The governing board shall be reimbursed by the state board of education from state funds for the cost of part (A) of the budget. The governing board shall be reimbursed by the state board of education, from state funds for the cost of part (B) of the approved budget that is in excess of six dollars and fifty cents times the service center ADM. If the governing board provides services to city or exempted village school districts pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code, the governing board shall be reimbursed from state funds for the cost of part (B) of the budget that is in excess of six dollars and fifty cents times the sum of the service center ADM and the client ADMs of the city or exempted village districts to which such services are provided. The cost of part (B) not in excess of six dollars and fifty cents times the number of such ADM shall be apportioned by the state board of education among the local school districts in the territory of the service center, or among all districts to which the governing board provides services, on the basis of the total number of pupils in each school district.
If part (B) of the budget is in excess of that approved by the state board of education, the excess cost shall be apportioned by the state board of education among the local school districts in the territory of the service center on the basis of the total number of such pupils in each such school district, provided that a majority of the boards of education of such local school districts approve such apportionment. The state board of education shall initiate and supervise the procedure by which the local boards shall approve or disapprove such apportionment.
The amounts so apportioned shall be certified to the treasurers of the various school districts. In the case of each district such amount shall be deducted by the state board of education from funds allocated to the district pursuant to division (E) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.
The state board of education shall certify to the director of budget and management for payment the total of the deductions, whereupon the amount shall be paid to the governing board of each service center, to be deposited to the credit of a separate fund, hereby created, to be known as the educational service center governing board fund.
An educational service center may provide special education to students in its local districts or in client districts. A service center is eligible for funding under division (J) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code and eligible for state subsidies for the purchase of school buses under section 3317.07 of the Revised Code. Special education units for gifted children may be operated by a governing board. Vocational education may be provided by a governing board. A governing board may conduct driver education for pupils enrolled in a high school in accordance with Chapter 4508. of the Revised Code.
Every local school district shall be provided supervisory services by its governing board as approved by the state board of education. A city or exempted village school district shall be considered to be provided supervisory services by a governing board if it has entered into an agreement for the governing board to provide any services under section 3313.843 of the Revised Code. Supervisory services shall not exceed one supervisory teacher for the first fifty classroom teachers employed in all districts that are provided supervisory services calculated under section 3317.023 of the Revised Code and one supervisory teacher for every additional one hundred such classroom teachers so calculated. Reimbursement for such supervisory services shall be a deduction by the state board of education from the payment to the school district pursuant to division (E) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code. Deductions for all supervisory services and extended services for supervisory and child study shall be apportioned among local school districts within the territory of the service center and any city or exempted village districts that have entered into agreements with a service center pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code by the state board of education on the basis of the total number of pupils in each school district, except that where such services are provided to districts other than local school districts within the service center territory and city or exempted village districts having agreements with the service center, such charges shall be apportioned among all participating districts on the basis of the total number of pupils in each school district. All deductions from state funding to school districts required for reimbursement of governing boards by division (E) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code shall be made from the total of the payment computed for the district under this chapter, after making any other adjustments in that payment required by law.
(B)(1) In addition to the payments made under division (A) of this section, except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this section, the department of education shall pay each governing board thirty-seven dollars times the sum of the service center ADM and the sum of the client ADMs of all its client districts in fiscal years 2002 and, 2003, and 2004.
(2) In addition to other payments under this section, the department shall pay each educational service center the amounts due to it from school districts pursuant to contracts, compacts, or agreements under which the service center furnishes services to the districts or their students. In order to receive payment under this division, an educational service center shall furnish either a copy of the applicable contract, compact, or agreement clearly indicating the amounts of the payments, or a written statement of the payments owed signed by the superintendent or treasurer of the responsible school district.
The amounts paid to service centers under division (B)(2) of this section shall be deducted from payments to school districts pursuant to division (K)(2) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.
(C) Each multicounty service center shall receive a payment each fiscal year equal to forty dollars and fifty-two cents times the sum of the service center ADM and the client ADMs of all its client districts.
(D) Each city, exempted village, local, joint vocational, or cooperative education school district shall pay to the governing board of an educational service center any amounts agreed to for each child enrolled in the district who receives special education and related services or vocational education from the educational service center.
(E) As used in this section:
(1) "Service center ADM" means the total of each of the following for all local school districts within the limits of an educational service center's territory:
(a) The formula ADM;
(b) The kindergarten average daily membership included in the formula ADM;
(c) Three-quarters of the number of students reported under division (B)(4) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code;
(d) The average daily membership of handicapped preschool children reported under division (B)(2) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code;
(e) The number of preschool students certified under division (B) of section 3317.032 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Client ADM" means the total of each number described under divisions (E)(1)(a) to (e) of this section for a client district.
(3) "Client district" means a city or exempted village school district that has entered into an agreement to receive services from a service center pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Multicounty service center" means a service center that includes territory that formerly was included in the territory of at least three former service centers or county school districts, which former centers or districts engaged in one or more mergers pursuant to section 3311.053 of the Revised Code to form the present center.
Sec. 3317.16.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "State share percentage" means the percentage calculated for a joint vocational school district as follows:
(a) Calculate the state base cost funding amount for the district under division (B) of this section. If the district would not receive any base cost funding for that year under that division, the district's state share percentage is zero.
(b) If the district would receive base cost funding under that division, divide that base cost amount by an amount equal to the following:
cost-of-doing-business factor X
the formula amount X
the greater of formula ADM or
three-year average formula ADM
The resultant number is the district's state share percentage.
(2) The "total special education weight" for a joint vocational school district shall be calculated in the same manner as prescribed in division (B)(1) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.
(3) The "total vocational education weight" for a joint vocational school district shall be calculated in the same manner as prescribed in division (B)(4) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.
(4) The "total recognized valuation" of a joint vocational school district shall be determined by adding the recognized valuations of all its constituent school districts for the applicable fiscal year.
(5) "Resident district" means the city, local, or exempted village school district in which a student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Community school" means a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.
(B) The department of education shall compute and distribute state base cost funding to each joint vocational school district for the fiscal year in accordance with the following formula:
(cost-of-doing-business factor X
formula amount X the greater of formula
ADM or three-year average formula ADM) -
(.0005 X total recognized valuation)
If the difference obtained under this division is a negative number, the district's computation shall be zero.
(C)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state vocational education additional weighted costs funds to each joint vocational school district in accordance with the following formula:
state share percentage X formula amount X
total vocational education weight
(2) The department shall compute for each joint vocational school district state funds for vocational education associated services costs in accordance with the following formula:
state share percentage X .05 X
the formula amount X the sum of
categories one and two vocational
education ADM
In any fiscal year, a joint vocational school district receiving funds under division (C)(2) of this section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (L) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the department designates as approved for vocational education associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other vocational education services, vocational evaluation, and other purposes designated by the department. The department may deny payment under division (C)(2) of this section to any district that the department determines is not operating those services or is using funds paid under division (C)(2) of this section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (L) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.
(D)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state special education and related services additional weighted costs funds to each joint vocational school district in accordance with the following formula:
state share percentage X formula amount X
total special education weight
(2)(a) As used in this division, the "personnel allowance" means thirty thousand dollars in fiscal years 2002 and, 2003, and 2004.
(b) For the provision of speech services to students, including students who do not have individualized education programs prepared for them under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, and for no other purpose, the department shall pay each joint vocational school district an amount calculated under the following formula:
(formula ADM divided by 2000) X the personnel
allowance X state share percentage
(3) In any fiscal year, a joint vocational school district shall spend for purposes that the department designates as approved for special education and related services expenses at least the amount calculated as follows:
(cost-of-doing-business factor X formula amount
X the sum of categories one through
six special education ADM) +
(total special education weight X
formula amount)
The purposes approved by the department for special education expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to, compliance with state rules governing the education of handicapped children, providing services identified in a student's individualized education program as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, and the portion of the district's overall administrative and overhead costs that are attributable to the district's special education student population.
The department shall require joint vocational school districts to report data annually to allow for monitoring compliance with division (D)(3) of this section. The department shall annually report to the governor and the general assembly the amount of money spent by each joint vocational school district for special education and related services.
(E)(2)(1) If a joint vocational school district's costs for a fiscal year for a student in its categories one two through six special education ADM exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student, as specified in division (C)(3)(b) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, the district may submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of all of its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the district an amount equal to the sum of the following:
(a) One-half of the district's costs for the student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;
(b) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by the district's state share percentage.
(2) The district shall only report under division (E)(1) of this section, and the department shall only pay for, the costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to the student in accordance with the student's individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student may not be included in the amount.
(F) Each fiscal year, the department shall pay each joint vocational school district an amount for adult technical and vocational education and specialized consultants.
(G)(1) A joint vocational school district's local share of special education and related services additional weighted costs equals:
(1 - state share percentage) X
Total special education weight X
the formula amount
(2) For each handicapped student receiving special education and related services under an individualized education program, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, at a joint vocational district, the resident district or, if the student is enrolled in a community school, the community school shall be responsible for the amount of any costs of providing those special education and related services to that student that exceed the sum of the amount calculated for those services attributable to that student under divisions (B), (D), (E), and (G)(1) of this section.
Those excess costs shall be calculated by subtracting the sum of the following from the actual cost to provide special education and related services to the student:
(a) The product of the formula amount times the cost-of-doing-business factor;
(b) The product of the formula amount times the applicable multiple specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(c) Any funds paid under division (E) of this section for the student;
(d) Any other funds received by the joint vocational school district under this chapter to provide special education and related services to the student, not including the amount calculated under division (G)(2) of this section.
(3) The board of education of the joint vocational school district shall report the excess costs calculated under division (G)(2) of this section to the department of education.
(4) The department shall pay the amount of excess cost calculated under division (G)(2) of this section to the joint vocational school district and shall deduct that amount as provided in division (G)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, as applicable:
(a) If the student is not enrolled in a community school, the department shall deduct the amount from the account of the student's resident district pursuant to division (M) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.
(b) If the student is enrolled in a community school, the department shall deduct the amount from the account of the community school pursuant to section 3314.083 of the Revised Code.
(H) In any fiscal year, if the total of all payments made to a joint vocational school district under divisions (B) to (D) of this section and division (R) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code is less than the amount that district received in fiscal year 1999 under the version of this section in effect that year, plus the amount that district received under the version of section 3317.162 of the Revised Code in effect that year and minus the amounts received that year for driver education and adult education, the department shall pay the district an additional amount equal to the difference between those two amounts.
Sec. 3317.50.  The Ohio schoolnet telecommunity education fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of certain excess local exchange telephone company contributions transferred from the reserve fund of the Ohio telecommunications advisory board pursuant to an agreement between the public utilities commission of Ohio and the Ohio department of education. The fund shall be used to finance technology grants to state-chartered elementary and secondary schools. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.
Sec. 3317.51.  (A) The distance learning fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys paid to the Ohio SchoolNet commission department of education by any telephone company as a part of a settlement agreement between such company and the public utilities commission in fiscal year 1995 in part to establish distance learning throughout the state. The authority department shall administer the fund and expend moneys from it to finance technology grants to eligible schools chartered by the state board of education to establish distance learning in those schools. Chartered schools are eligible for funds if they are within the service area of the telephone company. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.
(B) For purposes of this section, "distance learning" means the creation of a learning environment involving a school setting and at least one other location outside of the school which allows for information available at one site to be accessed at the other through the use of such educational applications as one-way or two-way transmission of data, voice, and video, singularly or in appropriate combinations.
Sec. 3319.22.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt rules establishing the standards and requirements for obtaining temporary, associate, provisional, and professional educator licenses of any categories, types, and levels the board elects to provide. However, no educator license shall be required for teaching children two years old or younger.
(B) Any rules the state board of education adopts, amends, or rescinds for educator licenses under this section, division (D) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, or any other law shall be adopted, amended, or rescinded under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code except as follows:
(1) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, the effective date of any rules, or amendment or rescission of any rules, shall not be as prescribed in division (D) of section 119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code. Instead, the effective date shall be the date prescribed by section 3319.23 of the Revised Code.
(2) Notwithstanding the authority to adopt, amend, or rescind emergency rules in division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code, this authority shall not apply to the state board of education with regard to rules for educator licenses.
(C)(1) The rules adopted under this section establishing standards requiring additional coursework for the renewal of any educator license shall require a school district and a chartered nonpublic school to establish local professional development committees. In a nonpublic school, the chief administrative officer shall establish the committees in any manner acceptable to such officer. The committees established under this division shall determine whether coursework that a district or chartered nonpublic school teacher proposes to complete meets the requirement of the rules. The rules shall establish a procedure by which a teacher may appeal the decision of a local professional development committee.
(2) In any school district in which there is no exclusive representative established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, the professional development committees shall be established as described in division (C)(2) of this section.
Not later than the effective date of the rules adopted under this section, the board of education of each school district shall establish the structure for one or more local professional development committees to be operated by such school district. The committee structure so established by a district board shall remain in effect unless within thirty days prior to an anniversary of the date upon which the current committee structure was established, the board provides notice to all affected district employees that the committee structure is to be modified. Professional development committees may have a district-level or building-level scope of operations, and may be established with regard to particular grade or age levels for which an educator license is designated.
Each professional development committee shall consist of at least three classroom teachers employed by the district, one principal employed by the district, and one other employee of the district appointed by the district superintendent. For committees with a building-level scope, the teacher and principal members shall be assigned to that building, and the teacher members shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers assigned to that building. For committees with a district-level scope, the teacher members shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers of the district, and the principal member shall be elected by a majority vote of the principals of the district, unless there are two or fewer principals employed by the district, in which case the one or two principals employed shall serve on the committee. If a committee has a particular grade or age level scope, the teacher members shall be licensed to teach such grade or age levels, and shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers holding such a license and the principal shall be elected by all principals serving in buildings where any such teachers serve. The district superintendent shall appoint a replacement to fill any vacancy that occurs on a professional development committee, except in the case of vacancies among the elected classroom teacher members, which shall be filled by vote of the remaining members of the committee so selected.
Terms of office on professional development committees shall be prescribed by the district board establishing the committees. The conduct of elections for members of professional development committees shall be prescribed by the district board establishing the committees. A professional development committee may include additional members, except that the majority of members on each such committee shall be classroom teachers employed by the district. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term for which a predecessor was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that term.
The initial meeting of any professional development committee, upon election and appointment of all committee members, shall be called by a member designated by the district superintendent. At this initial meeting, the committee shall select a chairperson and such other officers the committee deems necessary, and shall adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings. Thereafter, the committee shall meet at the call of the chairperson or upon the filing of a petition with the district superintendent signed by a majority of the committee members calling for the committee to meet.
(3) In the case of a school district in which an exclusive representative has been established pursuant to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, professional development committees shall be established in accordance with any collective bargaining agreement in effect in the district that includes provisions for such committees.
If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a different method for the selection of teacher members of the committees, the exclusive representative of the district's teachers shall select the teacher members.
If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a different structure for the committees, the board of education of the school district shall establish the structure, including the number of committees and the number of teacher and administrative members on each committee; the specific administrative members to be part of each committee; whether the scope of the committees will be district levels, building levels, or by type of grade or age levels for which educator licenses are designated; the lengths of terms for members; the manner of filling vacancies on the committees; and the frequency and time and place of meetings. However, in all cases, except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, there shall be a majority of teacher members of any professional development committee, there shall be at least five total members of any professional development committee, and the exclusive representative shall designate replacement members in the case of vacancies among teacher members, unless the collective bargaining agreement specifies a different method of selecting such replacements.
(4) Whenever an administrator's coursework plan is being discussed or voted upon, the local professional development committee shall, at the request of one of its administrative members, cause a majority of the committee to consist of administrative members by reducing the number of teacher members voting on the plan.
(D)(1) The department of education, educational service centers, county boards of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, regional professional development centers, special education regional resource centers, college and university departments of education, head start programs, the Ohio SchoolNet commission, and the Ohio education computer network may establish local professional development committees to determine whether the coursework proposed by their employees who are licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code meet the requirements of the rules adopted under this section. They may establish local professional development committees on their own or in collaboration with a school district or other agency having authority to establish them.
Local professional development committees established by county boards of mental retardation and developmental disabilities shall be structured in a manner comparable to the structures prescribed for school districts in divisions (C)(2) and (3) of this section, as shall the committees established by any other entity specified in division (D)(1) of this section that provides educational services by employing or contracting for services of classroom teachers licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code. All other entities specified in division (D)(1) of this section shall structure their committees in accordance with guidelines which shall be issued by the state board.
(2) Any public agency that is not specified in division (D)(1) of this section but provides educational services and employs or contracts for services of classroom teachers licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code may establish a local professional development committee, subject to the approval of the department of education. The committee shall be structured in accordance with guidelines issued by the state board.
Sec. 3319.235.  (A) The standards for the preparation of teachers adopted under section 3319.23 of the Revised Code shall require any institution that provides a course of study for the training of teachers to ensure that graduates of such course of study are skilled at integrating educational technology in the instruction of children, as evidenced by the graduate having either demonstrated proficiency in such skills in a manner prescribed by the department of education or completed a course that includes training in such skills.
(B) The Ohio SchoolNet commission, established pursuant to section 3301.80 of the Revised Code, department shall establish model professional development programs to assist teachers who completed their teacher preparation prior to the effective date of division (A) of this section to become skilled at integrating educational technology in the instruction of children. The commission department shall provide technical assistance to school districts wishing to establish such programs.
Sec. 3323.16.  No unit for deaf children shall be disapproved for funding under division (B) or (D)(1) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code on the basis of the methods of instruction used in educational programs in the school district or institution to teach deaf children to communicate, and no preference in approving units for funding shall be given by the state board for teaching deaf children by the oral, manual, total communication, or other method of instruction.
Sec. 3332.04.  The state board of career colleges and schools may appoint an executive director and such other staff as may be required for the performance of the board's duties and provide necessary facilities. In selecting an executive director, the board shall appoint an individual with a background or experience in the regulation of commerce, business, or education. The board may also arrange for services and facilities to be provided by the state board of education and the Ohio board of regents. All receipts of the board shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue occupational licensing and regulatory fund.
Sec. 3333.12.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Eligible student" means an undergraduate student who is:
(a) An Ohio resident;
(b) Enrolled in either of the following:
(i) An accredited institution of higher education in this state that meets the requirements of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and is state-assisted, is nonprofit and has a certificate of authorization from the Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, has a certificate of registration from the state board of career colleges and schools and program authorization to award an associate or bachelor's degree, or is a private institution exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code. Students who attend an institution that holds a certificate of registration shall be enrolled in a program leading to an associate or bachelor's degree for which associate or bachelor's degree program the institution has program authorization issued under section 3332.05 of the Revised Code.
(ii) A technical education program of at least two years duration sponsored by a private institution of higher education in this state that meets the requirements of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
(c) Enrolled as a full-time student or enrolled as a less than full-time student for the term expected to be the student's final term of enrollment and is enrolled for the number of credit hours necessary to complete the requirements of the program in which the student is enrolled.
(2) "Gross income" includes all taxable and nontaxable income of the parents, the student, and the student's spouse, except income derived from an Ohio academic scholarship, income earned by the student between the last day of the spring term and the first day of the fall term, and other income exclusions designated by the board. Gross income may be verified to the board by the institution in which the student is enrolled using the federal financial aid eligibility verification process or by other means satisfactory to the board.
(3) "Resident," "full-time student," "dependent," "financially independent," and "accredited" shall be defined by rules adopted by the board.
(B) The Ohio board of regents shall establish and administer an instructional grant program and may adopt rules to carry out this section. The general assembly shall support the instructional grant program by such sums and in such manner as it may provide, but the board may also receive funds from other sources to support the program. If the amounts available for support of the program are inadequate to provide grants to all eligible students, preference in the payment of grants shall be given in terms of income, beginning with the lowest income category of gross income and proceeding upward by category to the highest gross income category.
An instructional grant shall be paid to an eligible student through the institution in which the student is enrolled, except that no instructional grant shall be paid to any person serving a term of imprisonment. Applications for such grants shall be made as prescribed by the board, and such applications may be made in conjunction with and upon the basis of information provided in conjunction with student assistance programs funded by agencies of the United States government or from financial resources of the institution of higher education. The institution shall certify that the student applicant meets the requirements set forth in divisions (A)(1)(b) and (c) of this section. Instructional grants shall be provided to an eligible student only as long as the student is making appropriate progress toward a nursing diploma or an associate or bachelor's degree. No student shall be eligible to receive a grant for more than ten semesters, fifteen quarters, or the equivalent of five academic years. A grant made to an eligible student on the basis of less than full-time enrollment shall be based on the number of credit hours for which the student is enrolled and shall be computed in accordance with a formula adopted by the board. No student shall receive more than one grant on the basis of less than full-time enrollment.
An instructional grant shall not exceed the total instructional and general charges of the institution.
(C) The tables in this division prescribe the maximum grant amounts covering two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable portion of one academic year. Grant amounts for additional terms in the same academic year shall be determined under division (D) of this section.
For a full-time student who is a dependent and enrolled in a nonprofit educational institution that is not a state-assisted institution and that has a certificate of authorization issued pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, the amount of the instructional grant for two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable portion of the academic year shall be determined in accordance with the following table:
Private Institution
Table of Grants
Maximum Grant $5,466
Gross Income Number of Dependents

1 2 3 4 5 or more

$0 - $15,000 $5,466 $5,466 $5,466 $5,466 $5,466
$15,001 - $16,000 4,920 5,466 5,466 5,466 5,466
$16,001 - $17,000 4,362 4,920 5,466 5,466 5,466
$17,001 - $18,000 3,828 4,362 4,920 5,466 5,466
$18,001 - $19,000 3,288 3,828 4,362 4,920 5,466
$19,001 - $22,000 2,736 3,288 3,828 4,362 4,920
$22,001 - $25,000 2,178 2,736 3,288 3,828 4,362
$25,001 - $28,000 1,626 2,178 2,736 3,288 3,828
$28,001 - $31,000 1,344 1,626 2,178 2,736 3,288
$31,001 - $32,000 1,080 1,344 1,626 2,178 2,736
$32,001 - $33,000 984 1,080 1,344 1,626 2,178
$33,001 - $34,000 888 984 1,080 1,344 1,626
$34,001 - $35,000 444 888 984 1,080 1,344
$35,001 - $36,000 -- 444 888 984 1,080
$36,001 - $37,000 -- -- 444 888 984
$37,001 - $38,000 -- -- -- 444 888
$38,001 - $39,000 -- -- -- -- 444

For a full-time student who is financially independent and enrolled in a nonprofit educational institution that is not a state-assisted institution and that has a certificate of authorization issued pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, the amount of the instructional grant for two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable portion of the academic year shall be determined in accordance with the following table:
Private Institution
Table of Grants
Maximum Grant $5,466
Gross Income Number of Dependents

0 1 2 3 4 5 or more

$0 - $4,800 $5,466 $5,466 $5,466 $5,466 $5,466 $5,466
$4,801 - $5,300 4,920 5,466 5,466 5,466 5,466 5,466
$5,301 - $5,800 4,362 4,920 5,466 5,466 5,466 5,466
5,196
$5,801 - $6,300 3,828 4,362 4,920 5,466 5,466 5,466
4,914 5,196
$6,301 - $6,800 3,288 3,828 4,362 4,920 5,466 5,466
4,650 4,914 5,196
$6,801 - $7,300 2,736 3,288 3,828 4,362 4,920 5,466
4,380 4,650 4,914 5,196
$7,301 - $8,300 2,178 2,736 3,288 3,828 4,362 4,920
4,104 4,380 4,650 4,914 5,196
$8,301 - $9,300 1,626 2,178 2,736 3,288 3,828 4,362
3,822 4,104 4,380 4,650 4,914
$9,301 - $10,300 1,344 1,626 2,178 2,736 3,288 3,828
3,546 3,822 4,104 4,380 4,650
$10,301 - $11,800 1,080 1,344 1,626 2,178 2,736 3,288
3,408 3,546 3,822 4,104 4,380
$11,801 - $13,300 984 1,080 1,344 1,626 2,178 2,736
3,276 3,408 3,546 3,822 4,104
$13,301 - $14,800 888 984 1,080 1,344 1,626 2,178
3,228 3,276 3,408 3,546 3,822
$14,801 - $16,300 444 888 984 1,080 1,344 1,626
2,904 3,228 3,276 3,408 3,546
$16,301 - $19,300 -- 444 888 984 1,080 1,344
2,136 2,628 2,952 3,276 3,408
$19,301 - $22,300 -- -- 444 888 984 1,080
1,368 1,866 2,358 2,676 3,000
$22,301 - $25,300 -- -- -- 444 888 984
1,092 1,368 1,866 2,358 2,676
$25,301 - $30,300 -- -- -- -- 444 888
816 1,092 1,368 1,866 2,358
$30,301 - $35,300 -- -- -- -- -- 444
492 540 672 816 1,314

For a full-time student who is a dependent and enrolled in an educational institution that holds a certificate of registration from the state board of career colleges and schools or a private institution exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code, the amount of the instructional grant for two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable portion of the academic year shall be determined in accordance with the following table:
Career Institution
Table of Grants
Maximum Grant $4,632
Gross Income Number of Dependents

1 2 3 4 5 or more

$0 - $15,000 $4,632 $4,632 $4,632 $4,632 $4,632
$15,001 - $16,000 4,182 4,632 4,632 4,632 4,632
$16,001 - $17,000 3,684 4,182 4,632 4,632 4,632
$17,001 - $18,000 3,222 3,684 4,182 4,632 4,632
$18,001 - $19,000 2,790 3,222 3,684 4,182 4,632
$19,001 - $22,000 2,292 2,790 3,222 3,684 4,182
$22,001 - $25,000 1,854 2,292 2,790 3,222 3,684
$25,001 - $28,000 1,416 1,854 2,292 2,790 3,222
$28,001 - $31,000 1,134 1,416 1,854 2,292 2,790
$31,001 - $32,000 906 1,134 1,416 1,854 2,292
$32,001 - $33,000 852 906 1,134 1,416 1,854
$33,001 - $34,000 750 852 906 1,134 1,416
$34,001 - $35,000 372 750 852 906 1,134
$35,001 - $36,000 -- 372 750 852 906
$36,001 - $37,000 -- -- 372 750 852
$37,001 - $38,000 -- -- -- 372 750
$38,001 - $39,000 -- -- -- -- 372

For a full-time student who is financially independent and enrolled in an educational institution that holds a certificate of registration from the state board of career colleges and schools or a private institution exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code, the amount of the instructional grant for two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable portion of the academic year shall be determined in accordance with the following table:
Career Institution
Table of Grants
Maximum Grant $4,632
Gross Income Number of Dependents

0 1 2 3 4 5 or more

$0 - $4,800 $4,632 $4,632 $4,632 $4,632 $4,632 $4,632
$4,801 - $5,300 4,182 4,632 4,632 4,632 4,632 4,632
$5,301 - $5,800 3,684 4,182 4,632 4,632 4,632 4,632
4,410
$5,801 - $6,300 3,222 3,684 4,182 4,632 4,632 4,632
4,158 4,410
$6,301 - $6,800 2,790 3,222 3,684 4,182 4,632 4,632
3,930 4,158 4,410
$6,801 - $7,300 2,292 2,790 3,222 3,684 4,182 4,632
3,714 3,930 4,158 4,410
$7,301 - $8,300 1,854 2,292 2,790 3,222 3,684 4,182
3,462 3,714 3,930 4,158 4,410
$8,301 - $9,300 1,416 1,854 2,292 2,790 3,222 3,684
3,246 3,462 3,714 3,930 4,158
$9,301 - $10,300 1,134 1,416 1,854 2,292 2,790 3,222
3,024 3,246 3,462 3,714 3,930
$10,301 - $11,800 906 1,134 1,416 1,854 2,292 2,790
2,886 3,024 3,246 3,462 3,714
$11,801 - $13,300 852 906 1,134 1,416 1,854 2,292
2,772 2,886 3,024 3,246 3,462
$13,301 - $14,800 750 852 906 1,134 1,416 1,854
2,742 2,772 2,886 3,024 3,246
$14,801 - $16,300 372 750 852 906 1,134 1,416
2,466 2,742 2,772 2,886 3,024
$16,301 - $19,300 -- 372 750 852 906 1,134
1,800 2,220 2,520 2,772 2,886
$19,301 - $22,300 -- -- 372 750 852 906
1,146 1,584 1,986 2,268 2,544
$22,301 - $25,300 -- -- -- 372 750 852
930 1,146 1,584 1,986 2,268
$25,301 - $30,300 -- -- -- -- 372 750
708 930 1,146 1,584 1,986
$30,301 - $35,300 -- -- -- -- -- 372
426 456 570 708 1,116

For a full-time student who is a dependent and enrolled in a state-assisted educational institution, the amount of the instructional grant for two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable portion of the academic year shall be determined in accordance with the following table:
Public Institution
Table of Grants
Maximum Grant $2,190
Gross Income Number of Dependents

1 2 3 4 5 or more

$0 - $15,000 $2,190 $2,190 $2,190 $2,190 $2,190
$15,001 - $16,000 1,974 2,190 2,190 2,190 2,190
$16,001 - $17,000 1,740 1,974 2,190 2,190 2,190
$17,001 - $18,000 1,542 1,740 1,974 2,190 2,190
$18,001 - $19,000 1,320 1,542 1,740 1,974 2,190
$19,001 - $22,000 1,080 1,320 1,542 1,740 1,974
$22,001 - $25,000 864 1,080 1,320 1,542 1,740
$25,001 - $28,000 648 864 1,080 1,320 1,542
$28,001 - $31,000 522 648 864 1,080 1,320
$31,001 - $32,000 420 522 648 864 1,080
$32,001 - $33,000 384 420 522 648 864
$33,001 - $34,000 354 384 420 522 648
$34,001 - $35,000 174 354 384 420 522
$35,001 - $36,000 -- 174 354 384 420
$36,001 - $37,000 -- -- 174 354 384
$37,001 - $38,000 -- -- -- 174 354
$38,001 - $39,000 -- -- -- -- 174

For a full-time student who is financially independent and enrolled in a state-assisted educational institution, the amount of the instructional grant for two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable portion of the academic year shall be determined in accordance with the following table:
Public Institution
Table of Grants
Maximum Grant $2,190
Gross Income Number of Dependents

0 1 2 3 4 5 or more

$0 - $4,800 $2,190 $2,190 $2,190 $2,190 $2,190 $2,190
$4,801 - $5,300 1,974 2,190 2,190 2,190 2,190 2,190
$5,301 - $5,800 1,740 1,974 2,190 2,190 2,190 2,190
2,082
$5,801 - $6,300 1,542 1,740 1,974 2,190 2,190 2,190
1,968 2,082
$6,301 - $6,800 1,320 1,542 1,740 1,974 2,190 2,190
1,866 1,968 2,082
$6,801 - $7,300 1,080 1,320 1,542 1,740 1,974 2,190
1,758 1,866 1,968 2,082
$7,301 - $8,300 864 1,080 1,320 1,542 1,740 1,974
1,638 1,758 1,866 1,968 2,082
$8,301 - $9,300 648 864 1,080 1,320 1,542 1,740
1,530 1,638 1,758 1,866 1,968
$9,301 - $10,300 522 648 864 1,080 1,320 1,542
1,422 1,530 1,638 1,758 1,866
$10,301 - $11,800 420 522 648 864 1,080 1,320
1,356 1,422 1,530 1,638 1,758
$11,801 - $13,300 384 420 522 648 864 1,080
1,308 1,356 1,422 1,530 1,638
$13,301 - $14,800 354 384 420 522 648 864
1,290 1,308 1,356 1,422 1,530
$14,801 - $16,300 174 354 384 420 522 648
1,164 1,290 1,308 1,356 1,422
$16,301 - $19,300 -- 174 354 384 420 522
858 1,050 1,182 1,308 1,356
$19,301 - $22,300 -- -- 174 354 384 420
540 750 948 1,062 1,200
$22,301 - $25,300 -- -- -- 174 354 384
432 540 750 948 1,062
$25,301 - $30,300 -- -- -- -- 174 354
324 432 540 750 948
$30,301 - $35,300 -- -- -- -- -- 174
192 210 264 324 522

(D) For a full-time student enrolled in an eligible institution for a semester or quarter in addition to the portion of the academic year covered by a grant determined under division (C) of this section, the maximum grant amount shall be a percentage of the maximum prescribed in the applicable table of that division. The maximum grant for a fourth quarter shall be one-third of the maximum amount prescribed under that division. The maximum grant for a third semester shall be one-half of the maximum amount prescribed under that division.
(E) No grant shall be made to any student in a course of study in theology, religion, or other field of preparation for a religious profession unless such course of study leads to an accredited bachelor of arts, bachelor of science, associate of arts, or associate of science degree.
(F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, no grant shall be made to any student for enrollment during a fiscal year in an institution with a cohort default rate determined by the United States secretary of education pursuant to the "Higher Education Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 1278, 1408, 20 U.S.C.A. 1085, as amended, as of the fifteenth day of June preceding the fiscal year, equal to or greater than thirty per cent for each of the preceding two fiscal years.
(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply to the following:
(a) Any student enrolled in an institution that under the federal law appeals its loss of eligibility for federal financial aid and the United States secretary of education determines its cohort default rate after recalculation is lower than the rate specified in division (F)(1) of this section or the secretary determines due to mitigating circumstances the institution may continue to participate in federal financial aid programs. The board shall adopt rules requiring institutions to provide information regarding an appeal to the board.
(b) Any student who has previously received a grant under this section who meets all other requirements of this section.
(3) The board shall adopt rules for the notification of all institutions whose students will be ineligible to participate in the grant program pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section.
(4) A student's attendance at an institution whose students lose eligibility for grants under division (F)(1) of this section shall not affect that student's eligibility to receive a grant when enrolled in another institution.
(G) Institutions of higher education that enroll students receiving instructional grants under this section shall report to the board all students who have received instructional grants but are no longer eligible for all or part of such grants and shall refund any moneys due the state within thirty days after the beginning of the quarter or term immediately following the quarter or term in which the student was no longer eligible to receive all or part of the student's grant. There shall be an interest charge of one per cent per month on all moneys due and payable after such thirty-day period. The board shall immediately notify the office of budget and management and the legislative service commission of all refunds so received.
Sec. 3383.01.  As used in this chapter:
(A) "Arts" means any of the following:
(1) Visual, musical, dramatic, graphic, design, and other arts, including, but not limited to, architecture, dance, literature, motion pictures, music, painting, photography, sculpture, and theater, and the provision of training or education in these arts;
(2) The presentation or making available, in museums or other indoor or outdoor facilities, of principles of science and their development, use, or application in business, industry, or commerce or of the history, heritage, development, presentation, and uses of the arts described in division (A)(1) of this section and of transportation;
(3) The preservation, presentation, or making available of features of archaeological, architectural, environmental, or historical interest or significance in a state historical facility or a local historical facility.
(B) "Arts organization" means either of the following:
(1) A governmental agency or Ohio nonprofit corporation that provides programs or activities in areas directly concerned with the arts;
(2) A regional arts and cultural district as defined in section 3381.01 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Arts project" means all or any portion of an Ohio arts facility for which the general assembly has specifically authorized the spending of money, or made an appropriation, pursuant to division (D)(3) or (E) of section 3383.07 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Cooperative contract" means a contract between the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission and an arts organization providing the terms and conditions of the cooperative use of an Ohio arts facility.
(E) "Costs of operation" means amounts required to manage an Ohio arts facility that are incurred following the completion of construction of its arts project, provided that both of the following apply:
(1) Those amounts either:
(a) Have been committed to a fund dedicated to that purpose;
(b) Equal the principal of any endowment fund, the income from which is dedicated to that purpose.
(2) The commission and the arts organization have executed an agreement with respect to either of those funds.
(F) "General building services" means general building services for an Ohio arts facility or an Ohio sports facility, including, but not limited to, general custodial care, security, maintenance, repair, painting, decoration, cleaning, utilities, fire safety, grounds and site maintenance and upkeep, and plumbing.
(G) "Governmental agency" means a state agency, a state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education, a municipal corporation, county, township, or school district, a port authority created under Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, any other political subdivision or special district in this state established by or pursuant to law, or any combination of these entities; except where otherwise indicated, the United States or any department, division, or agency of the United States, or any agency, commission, or authority established pursuant to an interstate compact or agreement.
(H) "Local contributions" means the value of an asset provided by or on behalf of an arts organization from sources other than the state, the value and nature of which shall be approved by the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission, in its sole discretion. "Local contributions" may include the value of the site where an arts project is to be constructed. All "local contributions," except a contribution attributable to such a site, shall be for the costs of construction of an arts project or the costs of operation of an arts facility.
(I) "Local historical facility" means a site or facility, other than a state historical facility, of archaeological, architectural, environmental, or historical interest or significance, or a facility, including a storage facility, appurtenant to the operations of such a site or facility, that is owned by an arts organization, provided the facility meets the requirements of division (K)(2)(b) of this section, is managed by or pursuant to a contract with the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission, and is used for or in connection with the activities of the commission, including the presentation or making available of arts to the public.
(J) "Manage," "operate," or "management" means the provision of, or the exercise of control over the provision of, activities:
(1) Relating to the arts for an Ohio arts facility, including as applicable, but not limited to, providing for displays, exhibitions, specimens, and models; booking of artists, performances, or presentations; scheduling; and hiring or contracting for directors, curators, technical and scientific staff, ushers, stage managers, and others directly related to the arts activities in the facility; but not including general building services;
(2) Relating to sports and athletic events for an Ohio sports facility, including as applicable, but not limited to, providing for booking of athletes, teams, and events; scheduling; and hiring or contracting for staff, ushers, managers, and others directly related to the sports and athletic events in the facility; but not including general building services.
(K) "Ohio arts facility" means any of the following:
(1) The three theaters located in the state office tower at 77 South High street in Columbus;
(2) Any capital facility in this state to which both of the following apply:
(a) The construction of an arts project related to the facility was authorized or funded by the general assembly pursuant to division (D)(3) of section 3383.07 of the Revised Code and proceeds of state bonds are used for costs of the arts project.
(b) The facility is managed directly by, or is subject to a cooperative or management contract with, the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission, and is used for or in connection with the activities of the commission, including the presentation or making available of arts to the public and the provision of training or education in the arts. A cooperative or management contract shall be for a term not less than the time remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of any state bonds issued to pay the costs of the arts project, as determined by the director of budget and management and certified by the director to the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission and to the Ohio building authority.
(3) A state historical facility or a local historical facility.
(L) "State agency" means the state or any of its branches, officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, divisions, or other units or agencies.
(M) "Construction" includes acquisition, including acquisition by lease-purchase, demolition, reconstruction, alteration, renovation, remodeling, enlargement, improvement, site improvements, and related equipping and furnishing.
(N) "State historical facility" means a site or facility of archaeological, architectural, environmental, or historical interest or significance, or a facility, including a storage facility, appurtenant to the operations of such a site or facility, that is owned by or is located on real property owned by the state or by an arts organization, so long as the real property of the arts organization is contiguous to state-owned real property that is in the care, custody, and control of an arts organization, and that is managed directly by or is subject to a cooperative or management contract with the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission and is used for or in connection with the activities of the commission, including the presentation or making available of arts to the public.
(O) "Ohio sports facility" means all or a portion of a stadium, arena, or other capital facility in this state, a primary purpose of which is to provide a site or venue for the presentation to the public of events of one or more major or minor league professional athletic or sports teams that are associated with the state or with a city or region of the state, which facility is owned by or is located on real property owned by the state or a governmental agency, and including all parking facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary facilities, equipment, furnishings, and real and personal property and interests and rights therein, that may be appropriate for or used for or in connection with the facility or its operation, for capital costs of which state funds are spent pursuant to this chapter. A facility constructed as an Ohio sports facility may be both an Ohio arts facility and an Ohio sports facility.
Sec. 3383.07.  (A) The department of administrative services shall provide for the construction of an arts project in conformity with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, except as follows:
(1) For an arts project that has an estimated construction cost, excluding the cost of acquisition, of twenty-five million dollars or more, and that is financed by the Ohio building authority, construction services may be provided by the authority if the authority determines it should provide those services.
(2) For an arts project other than a state historical facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the state by the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission, or by a governmental agency or an arts organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the Ohio arts facility, as determined by the commission. Construction services to be provided by a governmental agency or an arts organization shall be specified in an agreement between the commission and the governmental agency or arts organization. The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 123.151 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.
(3) For an arts project that is a state historical facility, construction services may be provided by the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission or by an arts organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as determined by the commission. The construction services to be provided by the arts organization shall be specified in an agreement between the commission and the arts organization. That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the Revised Code.
(B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by the Ohio building authority, construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission. Any construction services to be provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall be specified in an agreement between the commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 123.151 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.
(C) General building services for an Ohio arts facility shall be provided by the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission or by an arts organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as determined by the commission, except that the Ohio building authority may elect to provide those services for Ohio arts facilities financed with proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of management and general building services shall be paid by the arts organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between the commission and the arts organization, except that the state may pay for general building services for state-owned arts facilities constructed on state-owned land.
General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management of the facility, all as determined by the commission. Any general building services to be provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between the commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 123.151 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.
(D) This division does not apply to a state historical facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be spent on the construction of any arts project under this chapter unless, with respect to the arts project and to the Ohio arts facility related to the project, all of the following apply:
(1) The Ohio arts and sports facilities commission has determined that there is a need for the arts project and the Ohio arts facility related to the project in the region of the state in which the Ohio arts facility is located or for which the facility is proposed.
(2) The commission has determined that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the arts project, the arts organization has made provision satisfactory to the commission, in its sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the arts project.
(3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the construction of the arts project, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the construction of the arts project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the arts project does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the arts project.
(E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be spent on the construction of any state historical facility under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the construction of the arts project related to the facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the construction of the arts project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the arts project does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the arts project.
(F) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with respect to that facility, all of the following apply:
(1) The Ohio arts and sports facilities commission has determined that there is a need for the facility in the region of the state for which the facility is proposed to provide the function of an Ohio sports facility as provided for in this chapter.
(2) As an indication of substantial local support for the facility, the commission has received a financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the commission, for a contribution amounting to not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, from sources other than the state.
(3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.
(4) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio sports facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the public at the facility, extending for a period of not less than the greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed from proceeds of those bonds as determined using the guidelines for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as determined by the director of budget and management and certified by the director to the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission and to the Ohio building authority.
Sec. 3501.18.  (A) The board of elections may divide a political subdivision, within its jurisdiction, into precincts and, establish, define, divide, rearrange, and combine the several election precincts within its jurisdiction, and change the location of the polling place for each precinct when it is necessary to maintain the requirements as to the number of voters in a precinct and to provide for the convenience of the voters and the proper conduct of elections, provided that no. No change in the number of precincts or in precinct boundaries shall be made during the twenty-five days immediately preceding a primary or general election nor or between the first day of January and the day on which the members of county central committees are elected in the years in which those committees are elected. Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this section, each precinct shall contain a number of electors, not to exceed one thousand four hundred, that the board of elections determines to be a reasonable number after taking into consideration the type and amount of available equipment, prior voter turnout, the size and location of each selected polling place, available parking, availability of an adequate number of poll workers, and handicap accessibility and other accessibility to the polling place.
If the board changes the boundaries of a precinct after the filing of a local option election petition pursuant to sections 4301.32 to 4301.41, 4303.29, or 4305.14 of the Revised Code that calls for a local option election to be held in that precinct, the local option election shall be held in the area that constituted the precinct at the time the local option petition was filed, regardless of the change in the boundaries.
If the board changes the boundaries of a precinct in order to meet the requirements of division (B)(1) of this section in a manner that causes a member of a county central committee to no longer qualify as a representative of an election precinct in the county, of a ward of a city in the county, or of a township in the county, the member shall continue to represent the precinct, ward, or township for the remainder of the member's term, regardless of the change in boundaries.
In an emergency, the board may provide more than one polling place in a precinct. In order to provide for the convenience of the voters, the board may locate polling places for voting or registration outside the boundaries of precincts, provided that the nearest public school or public building shall be used if the board determines it to be available and suitable for use as a polling place. Except in an emergency, no change in the number or location of the polling places in a precinct shall be made during the twenty-five days immediately preceding a primary or general election.
Electors who have failed to respond within thirty days to any confirmation notice shall not be counted in determining the size of any precinct under this section.
(B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) or (3) of this section, not later than August 1, 2000, the a board of elections shall determine all precinct boundaries using geographical units used by the United States department of commerce, bureau of the census, in reporting the decennial census of Ohio.
(2) When any part of the boundary of a precinct also forms a part of the boundary of a legislative district and the precinct boundary cannot be determined by August 1, 2000, using the geographical units described in division (B)(1) of this section without making that part of the precinct boundary that also forms part of the legislative district boundary different from that legislative district boundary, the board of elections may determine the boundary of that precinct using the geographical units described in division (B)(1) of this section not later than April 1, 2002. As used in this division, legislative district means a district determined under Article XI of the Ohio Constitution.
(3) The board of elections may apply to the secretary of state for a waiver from the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section when it is not feasible to comply with that requirement because of unusual physical boundaries or residential development practices that would cause unusual hardship for voters. The board shall identify the affected precincts and census units, explain the reason for the waiver request, and include a map illustrating where the census units will be split because of the requested waiver. If the secretary of state approves the waiver and so notifies the board of elections in writing, the board may change a precinct boundary as necessary under this section, notwithstanding the requirement in division (B)(1) of this section.
(C) The board of elections may apply to the secretary of state for a waiver from the requirement of division (A) of this section regarding the number of electors in a precinct when the use of geographical units used by the United States department of commerce, bureau of the census, will cause a precinct to contain more than one thousand four hundred electors. The board shall identify the affected precincts and census units, explain the reason for the waiver request, and include a map illustrating where census units will be split because of the requested waiver. If the secretary of state approves the waiver and so notifies the board of elections in writing, the board may change a precinct boundary as necessary to meet the requirements of division (B)(1) of this section.
Sec. 3501.30. (A) The board of elections shall provide for each polling place the necessary ballot boxes, official ballots, cards of instructions, registration forms, pollbooks, or poll lists, tally sheets, forms on which to make summary statements, writing implements, paper, and all other supplies necessary for casting and counting the ballots and recording the results of the voting at such the polling place. Such The pollbooks or poll lists shall have certificates appropriately printed thereon on them for the signatures of all the precinct officials, by which they shall certify that, to the best of their knowledge and belief, said the pollbooks or poll lists correctly show the names of all electors who voted in such the polling place at the election indicated therein in the pollbook or poll list.
A All of the following shall be included among the supplies provided to each polling place:
(1) A large map of each appropriate precinct shall be included among the supplies to each polling place, which shall be displayed prominently to assist persons who desire to register or vote on election day. Each map shall show all streets within the precinct and contain identifying symbols of the precinct in bold print.
Such supplies shall also include a (2) Any materials, postings, or instructions required to comply with state or federal laws;
(3) A flag of the United States approximately two and one-half feet in length along the top, which shall be displayed outside the entrance to the polling place during the time it is open for voting. Two;
(4) Two or more small flags of the United States approximately fifteen inches in length along the top shall be provided and, which shall be placed at a distance of one hundred feet from the polling place on the thoroughfares or walkways leading to the polling place, to mark the distance within which persons other than election officials, witnesses, challengers, police officers, and electors waiting to mark, marking, or casting their ballots shall not loiter, congregate, or engage in any kind of election campaigning. Where small flags cannot reasonably be placed one hundred feet from the polling place, the presiding election judge shall place the flags as near to one hundred feet from the entrance to the polling place as is physically possible. Police officers and all election officials shall see that this prohibition against loitering and congregating is enforced. When
When the period of time during which the polling place is open for voting expires, all of said the flags described in this division shall be taken into the polling place, and shall be returned to the board together with all other election materials and supplies required to be delivered to such the board.
(B) The board of elections shall follow the instructions and advisories of the secretary of state in the production and use of polling place supplies.
Sec. 3505.08. (A) Ballots shall be provided by the board of elections for all general and special elections. Such The ballots shall be printed with black ink on No. 2 white book paper fifty pounds in weight per ream assuming such ream to consist of five hundred sheets of such paper twenty-five by thirty-eight inches in size. Each ballot shall have attached at the top two stubs, each of the width of the ballot and not less than one-half inch in length, except that, if the board of elections has an alternate method to account for the ballots that the secretary of state has authorized, each ballot may have only one stub that shall be the width of the ballot and not less than one-half inch in length. In the case of ballots with two stubs, the stubs shall be separated from the ballot and from each other by perforated lines. The top stub shall be known as Stub B and shall have printed on its face "Stub B." The other stub shall be known as Stub A and shall have printed on its face "Stub A." Each stub shall also have printed on its face "Consecutive Number .........." Each
Each ballot of each kind of ballot provided for use in each precinct shall be numbered consecutively beginning with number 1 by printing such number upon both of the stubs attached thereto to the ballot. On ballots bearing the names of candidates, each candidate's name shall be printed in twelve point boldface upper case type in an enclosed rectangular space, and an enclosed blank rectangular space shall be provided at the left thereof of the candidate's name. The name of the political party of a candidate nominated at a primary election or certified by a party committee shall be printed in ten point lightface upper and lower case type and shall be separated by a two point blank space. The name of each candidate shall be indented one space within such the enclosed rectangular space, and the name of the political party shall be indented two spaces within such the enclosed rectangular space. The
The title of each office on such the ballots shall be printed in twelve point boldface upper and lower case type in a separate enclosed rectangular space. A four point rule shall separate the name of a candidate or a group of candidates for the same office from the title of the office next appearing below on the ballot, and; a two point rule shall separate the title of the office from the names of candidates; and a one point rule shall separate names of candidates. Headings shall be printed in display Roman type. When the names of several candidates are grouped together as candidates for the same office, there shall be printed on such the ballots immediately below the title of such the office and within the separate rectangular space in which such the title is printed "Vote for not more than ........," in six point boldface upper and lower case filling the blank space with that number which will indicate the number of persons who may be lawfully elected to such the office.
Columns on ballots shall be separated from each other by a heavy vertical border or solid line at least one-eighth of an inch wide, and a similar vertical border or line shall enclose the left and right side of ballots, and ballots. Ballots shall be trimmed along the sides close to such lines.
The ballots provided for by this section shall be comprised of four kinds of ballots designated as follows: (A) office type ballot; (B) nonpartisan ballot; (C) questions and issues ballot; (D) and presidential ballot.
On the back of each office type ballot shall be printed "Official Office Type Ballot;" on the back of each nonpartisan ballot shall be printed "Official Nonpartisan Ballot;" on the back of each questions and issues ballot shall be printed "Official Questions and Issues Ballot;" and on the back of each presidential ballot shall be printed "Official Presidential Ballot." On the back of every ballot also shall be printed the date of the election at which the ballot is used and the facsimile signatures of the members of the board of the county in which the ballot is used. For the purpose of identifying the kind of ballot, the back of every ballot may be numbered in such the order as the board shall determine. Such The numbers shall be printed in not less than thirty-six point type above the words "Official Office Type Ballot," "Official Nonpartisan Ballot," "Official Questions and Issues Ballot," or "Official Presidential Ballot," as the case may be. Ballot boxes bearing corresponding numbers shall be furnished for each precinct in which the above-described numbered ballots are used.
On the back of every ballot used, there shall be a solid black line printed opposite the blank rectangular space that is used to mark the choice of the voter. This line shall be printed wide enough so that the mark in the blank rectangular space will not be visible from the back side of the ballot.
Sample ballots may be printed by the board of elections for all general elections. Such The ballots shall be printed on colored paper, and "Sample Ballot" shall be plainly printed in boldface type on the face of each ballot. In counties of less than one hundred thousand population, the board may print not more than five hundred sample ballots; in all other counties, it may print not more than one thousand sample ballots. Such The sample ballots shall not be distributed by a political party or a candidate, nor shall a political party or candidate cause their title or name to be imprinted thereon on sample ballots.
(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, in approving the form of an official ballot, the secretary of state may authorize the use of fonts, type face settings, and ballot formats other than those prescribed in that division.
Sec. 3517.092.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Appointing authority" has the same meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "State elected officer" means any person appointed or elected to a state elective office.
(3) "State elective office" means any of the offices of governor, lieutenant governor, secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, attorney general, member of the state board of education, member of the general assembly, and justice and chief justice of the supreme court.
(4) "County elected officer" means any person appointed or elected to a county elective office.
(5) "County elective office" means any of the offices of county auditor, county treasurer, clerk of the court of common pleas, sheriff, county recorder, county engineer, county commissioner, prosecuting attorney, and coroner.
(6) "Contribution" includes a contribution to any political party, campaign committee, political action committee, political contributing entity, or legislative campaign fund.
(B) No state elected officer, no campaign committee of such an officer, and no other person or entity shall knowingly solicit or accept a contribution on behalf of that officer or that officer's campaign committee from any of the following:
(1) A state employee whose appointing authority is the state elected officer;
(2) A state employee whose appointing authority is authorized or required by law to be appointed by the state elected officer;
(3) A state employee who functions in or is employed in or by the same public agency, department, division, or office as the state elected officer.
(C) No candidate for a state elective office, no campaign committee of such a candidate, and no other person or entity shall knowingly solicit or accept a contribution on behalf of that candidate or that candidate's campaign committee from any of the following:
(1) A state employee at the time of the solicitation, whose appointing authority will be the candidate, if elected;
(2) A state employee at the time of the solicitation, whose appointing authority will be appointed by the candidate, if elected, as authorized or required by law;
(3) A state employee at the time of the solicitation, who will function in or be employed in or by the same public agency, department, division, or office as the candidate, if elected.
(D) No county elected officer, no campaign committee of such an officer, and no other person or entity shall knowingly solicit a contribution on behalf of that officer or that officer's campaign committee from any of the following:
(1) A county employee whose appointing authority is the county elected officer;
(2) A county employee whose appointing authority is authorized or required by law to be appointed by the county elected officer;
(3) A county employee who functions in or is employed in or by the same public agency, department, division, or office as the county elected officer.
(E) No candidate for a county elective office, no campaign committee of such a candidate, and no other person or entity shall knowingly solicit a contribution on behalf of that candidate or that candidate's campaign committee from any of the following:
(1) A county employee at the time of the solicitation, whose appointing authority will be the candidate, if elected;
(2) A county employee at the time of the solicitation, whose appointing authority will be appointed by the candidate, if elected, as authorized or required by law;
(3) A county employee at the time of the solicitation, who will function in or be employed in or by the same public agency, department, division, or office as the candidate, if elected.
(F)(1) No public employee shall solicit a contribution from any person while the public employee is performing the public employee's official duties or in those areas of a public building where official business is transacted or conducted.
(2) No person shall solicit a contribution from any public employee while the public employee is performing the public employee's official duties or is in those areas of a public building where official business is transacted or conducted.
(3) As used in division (F) of this section, "public employee" does not include any person holding an elective office.
(G) The prohibitions in divisions (B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) of this section are in addition to the prohibitions in sections 124.57, 1553.09, 3304.22, and 4503.032 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.021.  (A) The public health council shall adopt, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, such rules as are necessary to carry out sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 3701.0210 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, rules to establish the following:
(1) Medical and financial eligibility requirements for the program for medically handicapped children;
(2) Eligibility requirements for providers of services for medically handicapped children;
(3) Procedures to be followed by the department of health in disqualifying providers for violating requirements adopted under division (A)(2) of this section;
(4) Procedures to be used by the department regarding application for diagnostic services under division (B) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code and payment for those services under division (E) of that section;
(5) Standards for the provision of service coordination by the department of health and city and general health districts;
(6) Procedures for the department to use to determine the amount to be paid annually by each county for services for medically handicapped children and to allow counties to retain funds under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code;
(7) Financial eligibility requirements for services for Ohio residents twenty-one years of age or older who have cystic fibrosis;
(8) Criteria for payment of approved providers who provide services for medically handicapped children;
(9) Criteria for the department to use in determining whether the payment of health insurance premiums of participants in the program for medically handicapped children is cost-effective;
(10) Procedures for appeal of denials of applications under divisions (A) and (D) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, disqualification of providers, and amounts paid for services;
(11) Terms of appointment for members of the medically handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 3701.025 of the Revised Code;
(12) Eligibility requirements for the hemophilia program, including income and hardship requirements.
(B) The department of health shall develop a manual of operational procedures and guidelines for the program for medically handicapped children to implement sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 3701.0210 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.022.  As used in sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 3701.0210 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Medically handicapped child" means an Ohio resident under twenty-one years of age who suffers primarily from an organic disease, defect, or a congenital or acquired physically handicapping and associated condition that may hinder the achievement of normal growth and development.
(B) "Provider" means a health professional, hospital, medical equipment supplier, and any individual, group, or agency that is approved by the department of health pursuant to division (C) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code and that provides or intends to provide goods or services to a child who is eligible for the program for medically handicapped children.
(C) "Service coordination" means case management services provided to medically handicapped children that promote effective and efficient organization and utilization of public and private resources and ensure that care rendered is family-centered, community-based, and coordinated.
(D)(1) "Third party" means any person or government entity other than the following:
(a) A medically handicapped child participating in the program for medically handicapped children or the child's parent or guardian;
(b) The department or any program administered by the department, including the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," Title V of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 701, as amended;
(c) The "caring program for children" operated by the nonprofit community mutual insurance corporation.
(2) "Third party" includes all of the following:
(a) Any trust established to benefit a medically handicapped child participating in the program or the child's family or guardians, if the trust was established after the date the medically handicapped child applied to participate in the program;
(b) That portion of a trust designated to pay for the medical and ancillary care of a medically handicapped child, if the trust was established on or before the date the medically handicapped child applied to participate in the program;
(c) The program awarding reparations to victims of crime established under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code.
(E) "Third-party benefits" means any and all benefits paid by a third party to or on behalf of a medically handicapped child participating in the program or the child's parent or guardian for goods or services that are authorized by the department pursuant to division (B) or (D) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code.
(F) "Hemophilia program" means the hemophilia program the department of health is required to establish and administer under section 3701.029 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.029. Subject to available funds, the department of health shall establish and administer a hemophilia program to provide payment of health insurance premiums for Ohio residents who meet all of the following requirements:
(A) Have been diagnosed with hemophilia or a related bleeding disorder;
(B) Are at least twenty-one years of age;
(C) Meet the eligibility requirements established by rules adopted under division (A)(12) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.145 3701.0210 The director of health medically handicapped children's medical advisory council shall establish appoint a hemophilia advisory council subcommittee to advise the director and the department of health and council on all matters pertaining to the care and treatment of persons with hemophilia. The council subcommittee shall consist of not fewer than nineteen fifteen members, each of whom shall be appointed by the director to terms of four years. The members of the council subcommittee shall elect a chairperson from among the appointed membership to serve a term of two years. Members of the council subcommittee shall serve without compensation, except that they may be reimbursed for travel expenses to and from meetings of the council subcommittee.
Members shall be appointed to represent all geographic areas of this state. Not fewer than five members of the council subcommittee shall be persons with hemophilia or family members of persons with hemophilia. Not fewer than five members shall be providers of health care services to persons with hemophilia. Not fewer than five members shall be experts in fields of importance to treatment of persons with hemophilia, including experts in infectious diseases, insurance, and law.
The council shall submit to the director of health, the governor, and the general assembly, a report no later than the thirtieth day of September of each year summarizing the current status and needs of persons in this state with hemophilia and of family members of persons with hemophilia.
Notwithstanding section 101.83 of the Revised Code, that section does not apply to the medically handicapped children's medical advisory council hemophilia advisory subcommittee, and the subcommittee shall not expire under that section.
Sec. 3701.141.  (A) There is hereby created in the department of health the office of women's health initiatives program, consisting of the chief of the office and an administrative assistant. To the extent of available funds, other positions determined necessary and relevant by the director of health may be added. The administrative assistant and all other employees assigned to the office shall report to the chief and the chief to the director or the deputy specified by the director.
(B) To the extent funds are available, the office of women's health initiatives program shall:
(1) Identify, review, and assist the director in the coordination of programs and resources the department of health is committing to women's health concerns, including the department's women's and infants' program activities;
(2) Advocate for women's health by requesting that the department conduct, sponsor, encourage, or fund research; establish additional programs regarding women's health concerns as needed; and monitor the research and program efforts;
(3) Collect, classify, and store relevant research conducted by the department or other entities, and provide, unless otherwise prohibited by law, interested persons access to research results;
(4) Generate Apply for grant activities opportunities.
(C) Prior to the director's report to the governor on the department's biennial budget request, the office of women's health initiatives shall submit in writing to the director of health a biennial report of recommended programs, projects, and research to address critical issues in women's health.
Sec. 3702.31.  (A) The quality monitoring and inspection fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The director of health shall use the fund to administer and enforce this section and sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, and 3702.32 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to those sections. The director shall deposit in the fund any moneys collected pursuant to this section or section 3702.32 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.
(B) The director of health shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing fees for both of the following:
(1) Initial and renewal license applications submitted under section 3702.30 of the Revised Code. The fees established under division (B)(1) of this section shall not exceed the actual and necessary costs of performing the activities described in division (A) of this section.
(2) Inspections conducted under section 3702.15 or 3702.30 of the Revised Code. The fees established under division (B)(2) of this section shall not exceed the actual and necessary costs incurred during an inspection, including any indirect costs incurred by the department for staff, salary, or other administrative costs. The director of health shall provide to each health care facility or provider inspected pursuant to section 3702.15 or 3702.30 of the Revised Code a written statement of the fee. The statement shall itemize and total the costs incurred. Within fifteen days after receiving a statement from the director, the facility or provider shall forward the total amount of the fee to the director.
(3) The fees described in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section shall meet both of the following requirements:
(a) For each service described in section 3702.11 of the Revised Code, the fee shall not exceed one thousand two seven hundred fifty dollars annually, except that the total fees charged to a health care provider under this section shall not exceed five thousand dollars annually.
(b) The fee shall exclude any costs reimbursable by the United States health care financing administration as part of the certification process for the medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the medicaid program established under Title XIX of that act.
(4) The director shall not establish a fee for any service for which a licensure or inspection fee is paid by the health care provider to a state agency for the same or similar licensure or inspection.
Sec. 3702.63.  As specified in former Section 11 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 405 of the 124th general assembly, all of the following apply:
(A) The removal of former divisions (E) and (F) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code by Sections 1 and 2 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly does not release the holders of certificates of need issued under those divisions from complying with any conditions on which the granting of the certificates of need was based, including the requirement of former division (E)(6) of that section that the holders not enter into provider agreements under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, for at least ten years following initial licensure of the long-term care facilities for which the certificates were granted.
(B) The repeal of section 3702.55 of the Revised Code by Section 2 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly does not release the holders of certificates of need issued under that section from complying with any conditions on which the granting of the certificates of need was based, other than the requirement of division (A)(6) of that section that the holders not seek certification under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act" for beds recategorized under the certificates. That repeal also does not eliminate the requirement that the director of health revoke the licensure of the beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code if a person to which their ownership is transferred fails, as required by division (A)(6) of the repealed section, to file within ten days after the transfer a sworn statement not to seek certification under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" for beds recategorized under the certificates of need.
(C) The repeal of section 3702.56 of the Revised Code by Section 2 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly does not release the holders of certificates of need issued under that section from complying with any conditions on which the granting of the certificates of need was based.
Sec. 3702.68.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, this section applies to the review of certificate of need applications during the period beginning July 1, 1993, and ending June 30, 2003 2005.
(B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, the director of health shall neither grant nor deny any application for a certificate of need submitted prior to July 1, 1993, if the application was for any of the following and the director had not issued a written decision concerning the application prior to that date:
(a) Approval of beds in a new health care facility or an increase of beds in an existing health care facility, if the beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;
(b) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county nursing home as defined in section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or an increase of beds in an existing county home or existing county nursing home, if the beds are proposed to be certified as skilled nursing facility beds under Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;
(c) Recategorization of hospital beds as described in section 3702.522 of the Revised Code, an increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds or skilled nursing facility beds, or a recategorization of hospital beds that would result in an increase of beds registered pursuant to that section as long-term care beds or skilled nursing facility beds.
On July 1, 1993, the director shall return each such application to the applicant and, notwithstanding section 3702.52 of the Revised Code regarding the uses of the certificate of need fund, shall refund to the applicant the application fee paid under that section. Applications returned under division (B)(1) of this section may be resubmitted in accordance with section 3702.52 of the Revised Code no sooner than July 1, 2003 2005.
(2) The director shall continue to review and shall issue a decision regarding any application submitted prior to July 1, 1993, to increase beds for either of the purposes described in division (B)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the proposed increase in beds is attributable solely to a replacement or relocation of existing beds within the same county. The director shall authorize under such an application no additional beds beyond those being replaced or relocated.
(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the director, during the period beginning July 1, 1993, and ending June 30, 2003 2005, shall not accept for review under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code any application for a certificate of need for any of the purposes described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.
(2) The director shall accept for review any application for either of the purposes described in division (B)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the proposed increase in beds is attributable solely to a replacement or relocation of existing beds within the same county. The director shall authorize under such an application no additional beds beyond those being replaced or relocated. The director also shall accept for review any application that seeks certificate of need approval for existing beds located in an infirmary that is operated exclusively by a religious order, provides care exclusively to members of religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of their vows within the orders as if related, and was providing care exclusively to members of such a religious order on January 1, 1994.
(D) The director shall issue a decision regarding any case remanded by a court as the result of a decision issued by the director prior to July 1, 1993, to grant, deny, or withdraw a certificate of need for any of the purposes described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.
(E) The director shall not project the need for beds listed in division (B)(1) of this section for the period beginning July 1, 1993, and ending June 30, 2003 2005.
This section is an interim section effective until July 1, 2003 2005.
Sec. 3702.74.  (A) A primary care physician who has signed a letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code, the director of health, and the Ohio board of regents may enter into a contract for the physician's participation in the physician loan repayment program. A lending institution may also be a party to the contract.
(B) The contract shall include all of the following obligations:
(1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary care services in the health resource shortage area identified in the letter of intent for at least two years or one year per twenty thousand dollars of repayment agreed to under division (B)(3) of this section, whichever is greater;
(2) When providing primary care services in the health resource shortage area, the primary care physician agrees to do all of the following:
(a) Provide primary care services for a minimum of forty hours per week;
(b) Provide primary care services without regard to a patient's ability to pay;
(c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the department of job and family services for participation in the medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and enter into a contract with the department to provide primary care services to recipients of the medical assistance program;
(d) Meet the conditions established by the department of job and family services for participation in the disability assistance medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code and enter into a contract with the department to provide primary care services to recipients of disability medical assistance.
(3) The Ohio board of regents agrees, as provided in section 3702.75 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care physician performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by the primary care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the Revised Code;
(4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the board the following as damages if the physician fails to complete the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section:
(a) If the failure occurs during the first two years of the service obligation, three times the total amount the board has agreed to repay under division (B)(3) of this section;
(b) If the failure occurs after the first two years of the service obligation, three times the amount the board is still obligated to repay under division (B)(3) of this section.
(C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by the parties, including an assignment to the Ohio board of regents of the physician's duty to pay the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by the physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the Revised Code. If the board assumes the physician's duty to pay a loan, the contract shall set forth the total amount of principal and interest to be paid, an amortization schedule, and the amount of each payment to be made under the schedule.
Sec. 3705.23.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the director of health, the state registrar, or a local registrar, on receipt of a signed application and the fee specified in section 3705.24 of the Revised Code, shall issue a certified copy of a vital record, or of a part of a vital record, in the director's or registrar's custody to any applicant, unless the vital record has ceased to be a public record pursuant to section 3705.09, 3705.11, 3705.12, or 3705.15 of the Revised Code. The certified copy shall show the date the vital record was registered by the local registrar.
(2) A certified copy of a vital record may be made by a mechanical, electronic, or other reproduction process. It shall be certified as a true copy by the director, state registrar, or local registrar who has custody of the record and shall include the date of issuance, the name of the issuing officer, the signature of the officer or an authorized facsimile of the signature, and the seal of the issuing office.
(3) A certified copy of a vital record or of any part of a vital record, issued in accordance with this section, shall be considered for all purposes the same as the original and shall be prima-facie evidence of the facts stated in it in all courts and places.
(4)(a) Information contained in the "information for medical and health use only" section of a birth record shall not be included as part of a certified copy of the birth record unless the information specifically is requested by the individual to whose birth the record attests, either of the individual's parents or the individual's guardian, a lineal descendant, or an official of the federal or state government or of a political subdivision of the state charged by law with detecting or prosecuting crime.
(b) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(a) of this section, neither the office of vital statistics nor a local registrar shall disclose information contained in the "information for medical and health use only" section of a birth record unless a court, for good cause shown, orders disclosure of the information or the state registrar specifically authorizes release of the information for statistical or research purposes under conditions the state registrar, subject to the approval of the director of health, shall establish by rule.
(B)(1) Unless the applicant specifically requests a certified copy, the director, the state registrar, or a local registrar, on receipt of a signed application for a birth record and the fee specified in section 3705.24 of the Revised Code, may issue a certification of birth, and the certification of birth shall contain at least the name, sex, date of birth, registration date, and place of birth of the person to whose birth the record attests and shall attest that the person's birth has been registered. A certification of birth shall be prima-facie evidence of the facts stated in it in all courts and places.
(2) The director or the state registrar, on the receipt of a signed application for an heirloom certification of birth and the fee specified in section 3705.24 of the Revised Code, may issue an heirloom certification of birth. The director shall prescribe by rule guidelines for the form of an heirloom certification of birth, and the guidelines shall require the heirloom certification of birth to contain at least the name, sex, date of birth, registration date, and place of birth of the person to whose birth the record attests and to attest that the person's birth has been registered. An heirloom certification of birth shall be prima-facie evidence of the facts stated in it in all courts and places.
(C) On evidence that a birth certificate was registered through misrepresentation or fraud, the state registrar may withhold the issuance of a certified copy of the birth record or a certification of birth until a court makes a determination that no misrepresentation or fraud occurred.
(D) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(b) of this section, the state registrar and a local registrar, on request, shall provide uncertified copies of vital records in accordance with section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3705.24.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this division or division (G) of this section, the fee for a certified copy of a vital record or for a certification of birth shall be seven dollars plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in section 3705.241 of the Revised Code, the fee for a certified copy of a vital record or for a certification of birth issued by the office of vital statistics shall be an amount prescribed by the public health council plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. The fee for a certified copy of a vital record or for a certification of birth issued by a health district shall be an amount prescribed in accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. No certified copy of a vital record or certification of birth shall be issued without payment of the fee unless otherwise specified by statute.
For a special search of the files and records to determine a date or place contained in a record on file, the office of vital statistics shall charge a fee of three dollars for each hour or fractional part of an hour required for the search.
(B)(1) The public health council shall, in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, adopt rules prescribing fees for the following services provided by the state office of vital statistics:
(a) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section:
(i) A certified copy of a vital record or a certification of birth;
(ii) A search by the office of vital statistics of its files and records pursuant to a request for information, regardless of whether a copy of a record is provided;
(iii) A copy of a record provided pursuant to a request;
(b) Replacement of a birth certificate following an adoption, legitimation, paternity determination or acknowledgement, or court order;
(c) Filing of a delayed registration of a vital record;
(d) Amendment of a vital record that is requested later than one year after the filing date of the vital record;
(e) Any other documents or services for which the public health council considers the charging of a fee appropriate.
(2) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1)(a) of this section shall not be less than seven dollars.
(3) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1) of this section shall be collected in addition to any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.
(4) Fees prescribed under division (A) of this section shall not apply to certifications issued under division (H) of this section or copies provided under section 3705.241 of the Revised Code.
(B) In addition to the fees prescribed under division (A) of this section or section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, the office of vital statistics or the board of health of a city or general health district shall charge a five-dollar fee for each certified copy of a vital record and each certification of birth. This fee shall be deposited in the general operations fund created under section 3701.83 of the Revised Code and be used solely toward the modernization and automation of the system of vital records in this state. A board of health shall forward all fees collected under this division to the department of health not later than thirty days after the end of each calendar quarter.
(C) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(H) of this section, and except as provided in section 3705.241 of the Revised Code, fees collected by the director of health under sections 3705.01 to 3705.29 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created by section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. Money Except as provided in division (B) of this section, money generated by the fees shall be used only for administration and enforcement of this chapter and the rules adopted under it. Amounts submitted to the department of health for copies of vital records or services in excess of the fees imposed by this section shall be dealt with as follows:
(1) An overpayment of two dollars or less shall be retained by the department and deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created by section 3701.83 of the Revised Code.
(2) An overpayment in excess of two dollars shall be returned to the person who made the overpayment.
(C)(D) If a local registrar is a salaried employee of a city or a general health district, any fees the local registrar receives pursuant to section 3705.23 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the general fund of the city or the health fund of the general health district.
Each local registrar of vital statistics, or each health district where the local registrar is a salaried employee of the district, shall be entitled to a fee for each birth, fetal death, death, or military service certificate properly and completely made out and registered with the local registrar or district and correctly copied and forwarded to the office of vital statistics in accordance with the population of the primary registration district at the last federal census. The fee for each birth, fetal death, death, or military service certificate shall be:
(1) In primary registration districts of over two hundred fifty thousand, twenty cents;
(2) In primary registration districts of over one hundred twenty-five thousand and less than two hundred fifty thousand, sixty cents;
(3) In primary registration districts of over fifty thousand and less than one hundred twenty-five thousand, eighty cents;
(4) In primary registration districts of less than fifty thousand, one dollar.
(D)(E) The director of health shall annually certify to the county treasurers of the several counties the number of birth, fetal death, death, and military service certificates registered from their respective counties with the names of the local registrars and the amounts due each registrar and health district at the rates fixed in this section. Such amounts shall be paid by the treasurer of the county in which the registration districts are located. No fees shall be charged or collected by registrars except as provided by this chapter and section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.
(E)(F) A probate judge shall be paid a fee of fifteen cents for each certified abstract of marriage prepared and forwarded by the probate judge to the department of health pursuant to section 3705.21 of the Revised Code. The fee shall be in addition to the fee paid for a marriage license and shall be paid by the applicants for the license.
(F)(G) The clerk of a court of common pleas shall be paid a fee of one dollar for each certificate of divorce, dissolution, and annulment of marriage prepared and forwarded by the clerk to the department pursuant to section 3705.21 of the Revised Code. The fee for the certified abstract of divorce, dissolution, or annulment of marriage shall be added to the court costs allowed in these cases.
(G)(H) The fee for an heirloom certification of birth issued pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3705.23 of the Revised Code shall be an amount prescribed by rule by the director of health plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. In setting the amount of the fee, the director shall establish a surcharge in addition to an amount necessary to offset the expense of processing heirloom certifications of birth. The fee prescribed by the director of health pursuant to this division shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the heirloom certification of birth fund which is hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used by the office of vital statistics to offset the expense of processing heirloom certifications of birth. However, the money collected for the surcharge, subject to the approval of the controlling board, shall be used for the purposes specified by the family and children first council pursuant to section 121.37 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3709.09.  (A) The board of health of a city or general health district may, by rule, establish a uniform system of fees to pay the costs of any services provided by the board. Fees
The fee for issuance of a certified copy of a vital record or a certification of birth shall not be less than the fee prescribed for the same service under division (A)(1) of section 3705.24 of the Revised Code and shall include the fees required by division (B) of section 3705.24 and section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.
Fees for services provided by the board for purposes specified in sections 3701.344, 3711.05, 3730.03, 3733.04, 3733.25, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code shall be established in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. The district advisory council, in the case of a general health district, and the legislative authority of the city, in the case of a city health district, may disapprove any fee established by the board of health under this division, and any such fee, as disapproved, shall not be charged by the board of health.
(B) The public health council shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code that establish fee categories and uniform methodologies for use in calculating the costs of services provided for purposes specified in sections 3701.344, 3711.05, 3730.03, 3733.04, 3733.25, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the public health council shall consider recommendations it receives from advisory boards established either by statute or the director of health for entities subject to the fees.
(C) At least thirty days prior to establishing a fee for a service provided by the board for a purpose specified in section 3701.344, 3711.05, 3730.03, 3733.04, 3733.25, or 3749.04 of the Revised Code, a board of health shall notify any entity that would be affected by the proposed fee of the amount of the proposed fee.
Sec. 3710.05.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, no person shall engage in any asbestos hazard abatement activities in this state unless licensed or certified pursuant to this chapter.
(B) To apply for licensure as an asbestos abatement contractor or certification as an asbestos hazard abatement specialist, an asbestos hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos hazard abatement project designer, or an asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technician, a person shall do all of the following:
(1) Submit a completed application to the department of health, on a form provided by the department;
(2) Pay the requisite fee as provided in division (D) of this section;
(3) Submit any other information the public health council by rule requires.
(C) The application form for a business entity or public entity applying for an asbestos hazard abatement contractor's license shall include all of the following:
(1) A description of the protective clothing and respirators that the public entity will use to comply with rules adopted by the public health council and that the business entity will use to comply with requirements of the United States occupational safety and health administration;
(2) A description of procedures the business entity or public entity will use for the selection, utilization, handling, removal, and disposal of clothing to prevent contamination or recontamination of the environment and to protect the public health from the hazards associated with exposure to asbestos;
(3) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site that the business entity or public entity might use during the year;
(4) A description of the site decontamination procedures that the business entity or public entity will use;
(5) A description of the asbestos hazard abatement procedures that the business entity or public entity will use;
(6) A description of the procedures that the business entity or public entity will use for handling waste containing asbestos;
(7) A description of the air-monitoring procedures that the business entity or public entity will use to prevent contamination or recontamination of the environment and to protect the public health from the hazards of exposure to asbestos;
(8) A description of the final clean-up procedures that the business entity or public entity will use;
(9) A list of all partners, owners, and officers of the business entity along with their social security numbers;
(10) The federal tax identification number of the business entity or the public entity.
(D) The fees to be charged to each public entity and business entity and their employees and agents for licensure, certification, approval, and renewal of licenses, certifications, and approvals granted under this chapter, subject to division (A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code, are:
(1) Five Seven hundred fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement contractors;
(2) One Two hundred twenty-five dollars for asbestos hazard abatement project designers;
(3) Twenty-five Fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement workers;
(4) One Two hundred twenty-five dollars for asbestos hazard abatement specialists;
(5) One Two hundred twenty-five dollars for asbestos hazard evaluation specialists; and
(6) Seven Nine hundred fifty dollars for approval or renewal of asbestos hazard training providers.
(E) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no business entity which engages in asbestos hazard abatement activities solely at its own place of business is required to be licensed as an asbestos hazard abatement contractor provided that the business entity is required to and does comply with all applicable standards of the United States environmental protection agency and the United States occupational safety and health administration and provided further that all persons employed by the business entity on the activity meet the requirements of this chapter.
Sec. 3711.021.  For the purposes of this chapter, a maternity hospital or lying-in hospital includes a limited maternity unit, which is a unit in a hospital that contains no other maternity unit, in which care is provided during all or part of the maternity cycle and newborns receive care in a private room serving all antepartum, labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum, and nursery needs.
The director of health may charge a maternity hospital or lying-in hospital seeking an initial or renewal license under this chapter a fee not exceeding the following:
(A) Three Four thousand eight hundred fifty forty-two dollars for a hospital in which not less than two thousand births occurred the previous calendar year;
(B) Three thousand three five hundred fifty seventeen dollars for a hospital in which not more than one thousand nine hundred ninety-nine and not less than one thousand births occurred the previous calendar year;
(C) Two thousand eight nine hundred fifty ninety-two dollars for a hospital in which not more than nine hundred ninety-nine and not less than six hundred fifty births occurred the previous calendar year;
(D) Two thousand three four hundred fifty sixty-seven dollars for a hospital in which not more than six hundred forty-nine and not less than four hundred fifty births occurred the previous calendar year;
(E) One thousand eight nine hundred fifty forty-two dollars for a hospital in which not more than four hundred forty-nine births and not less than one hundred births occurred the previous calendar year;
(F) One thousand three four hundred fifty seventeen dollars for a hospital in which not more than ninety-nine births occurred the previous calendar year.
The director shall deposit all fees collected under this section into the general operations fund created under section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. Money generated by the fees shall be used only for administration and enforcement of this chapter and rules adopted under it.
Sec. 3721.02. (A) The director of health shall license homes and establish procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its residential care facility license. The director may delegate the director's authority and duties under this chapter to any division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.
(B) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing home pursuant to this chapter and as an adult care facility pursuant to Chapter 3722. of the Revised Code if the director determines that the part or unit to be licensed as a nursing home can be maintained separate and discrete from the part or unit to be licensed as an adult care facility.
(C) In determining the number of residents in a home for the purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group unless one of the following is the case:
(1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.
(2) The home is both a nursing home and an adult care facility. In that case, all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an adult care facility shall be considered as another group.
(3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care services from the home, in which case the individuals in the separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in determining the number of residents in the home if the separate and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic building code established by the board of building standards under Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part or unit meets the requirements of this division.
(D) The director of health shall charge an application fee and an annual renewal licensing and inspection fee of one hundred five dollars for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed capacity. All fees collected by the director for the issuance or renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.
(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is conducted under this section, including any statement of deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an action by the department of health under this chapter or is an action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.
(2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this section from being used in a criminal investigation or prosecution.
Sec. 3721.19.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Home" and "residential care facility" have the same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;
(2) "Sponsor" and "residents' rights advocate" have the same meanings as in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.
A home licensed under this chapter that is not a party to a provider agreement, as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code, shall provide each prospective resident, before admission, with the following information, orally and in a separate written notice on which is printed in a conspicuous manner: "This home is not a participant in the medical assistance program administered by the Ohio department of job and family services. Consequently, you may be discharged from this home if you are unable to pay for the services provided by this home."
If the prospective resident has a sponsor whose identity is made known to the home, the home shall also inform the sponsor, before admission of the resident, of the home's status relative to the medical assistance program. Written acknowledgement of the receipt of the information shall be provided by the resident and, if the prospective resident has a sponsor who has been identified to the home, by the sponsor. The written acknowledgement shall be made part of the resident's record by the home.
No home shall terminate its status as a provider under the medical assistance program unless it has complied with section 5111.24 of the Revised Code and, at least ninety days prior to such termination, provided written notice to the department of job and family services and residents of the home and their sponsors of such action. This requirement shall not apply in cases where the department of job and family services terminates a home's provider agreement or provider status.
(B) A home licensed under this chapter as a residential care facility shall provide notice to each prospective resident or the individual's sponsor of the services offered by the facility and the types of skilled nursing care that the facility may provide. A residential care facility that, pursuant to section 3721.012 of the Revised Code, has a policy of entering into risk agreements with residents or their sponsors shall provide each prospective resident or the individual's sponsor a written explanation of the policy and the provisions that may be contained in a risk agreement. At the time the information is provided, the facility shall obtain a statement signed by the individual receiving the information acknowledging that the individual received the information. The facility shall maintain on file the individual's signed statement.
(C) A resident has a cause of action against a home for breach of any duty imposed by this section. The action may be commenced by the resident, or on the resident's behalf by the resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, by the filing of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in which the home is located, or in the court of common pleas of Franklin county.
If the court finds that a breach of any duty imposed by this section has occurred, the court shall enjoin the home from discharging the resident from the home until arrangements satisfactory to the court are made for the orderly transfer of the resident to another mode of health care including, but not limited to, another home, and may award the resident and a person or public agency that brings an action on behalf of a resident reasonable attorney's fees. If a home discharges a resident to whom or to whose sponsor information concerning its status relative to the medical assistance program was not provided as required under this section, the court shall grant any appropriate relief including, but not limited to, actual damages, reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.
Sec. 3721.56.  (A) Thirty and three-tenths per cent of all payments and penalties paid by nursing homes and hospitals under sections 3721.53 and 3721.54 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2002, twenty-three and twenty-six-hundredths per cent of such payments and penalties paid for fiscal years 2003 through 2005, and all such payments and penalties paid for subsequent fiscal years, shall be deposited into the "home and community-based services for the aged fund," which is hereby created in the state treasury. The departments of job and family services and aging shall use the moneys in the fund to fund the following in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.58 of the Revised Code:
(1) The medical assistance medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;
(2) The PASSPORT program established under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;
(3) The residential state supplement program established under section 173.35 of the Revised Code.
(B) Sixty-nine and seven-tenths per cent of all payments and penalties paid by nursing homes and hospitals under sections 3721.53 and 3721.54 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2002, and seventy-six and seventy-four-hundredths per cent of such payments and penalties paid for fiscal years 2003 through 2005, shall be deposited into the nursing facility stabilization fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. The department of job and family services shall use the money in the fund in the manner provided by Am. Sub. H.B. 94 and Am. Sub. S.B. 261 of the 124th general assembly to make payments to nursing facilities under the medicaid program.
Sec. 3721.561. Any money remaining in the nursing facility stabilization fund created under section 3721.56 of the Revised Code after payments specified in division (B) of that section are made for fiscal years 2002 through 2005 shall be retained in the fund. Any interest or other investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be credited to the fund and used to make payments in accordance with division (B) of section 3721.56 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3722.15.  (A) The following may enter an adult care facility at any time:
(1) Employees designated by the director of health;
(2) Employees designated by the director of aging;
(3) Employees designated by the attorney general;
(4) Employees designated by a county department of job and family services to implement sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 5101.70 of the Revised Code on behalf of a county department of job and family services or designated agency, as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code;
(5) Persons employed pursuant to division (M) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code in the long-term care facilities ombudsperson program;
(6) Employees of the department of mental health designated by the director of mental health;
(7) Employees of a mental health agency, if the agency has a client residing in the facility;
(8) Employees of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, when authorized by section 340.05 of the Revised Code or if an individual receiving mental health services provided by the board pursuant to division (A)(8)(b) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code or a mental health agency under contract with the board resides in the facility.
These employees shall be afforded access to all records of the facility, including records pertaining to residents, and may copy the records. Neither these employees nor the director of health shall release, without consent, any information obtained from the records of an adult care facility that reasonably would tend to identify a specific resident of the facility, except as ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction.
(B) The following persons may enter any adult care facility during reasonable hours:
(1) A resident's sponsor;
(2) Residents' rights advocates;
(3) A resident's attorney;
(4) A minister, priest, rabbi, or other person ministering to a resident's religious needs;
(5) A physician or other person providing health care services to a resident;
(6) Employees authorized by county departments of job and family services and local boards of health or health departments to enter adult care facilities;
(7) A prospective resident and prospective resident's sponsor.
(C) The manager of an adult care facility may require a person seeking to enter the facility to present identification sufficient to identify the person as an authorized person under this section.
Sec. 3722.16.  (A) No person shall:
(1) Operate an adult care facility unless the facility is validly licensed by the director of health under section 3722.04 of the Revised Code;
(2) Admit to an adult care facility more residents than the number authorized in the facility's license;
(3) Admit a resident to an adult care facility after the director has issued an order pursuant to section 3722.07 of the Revised Code suspending admissions to the facility. Violation of division (A)(3) of this section is cause for revocation of the facility's license.
(4) Interfere with any authorized inspection of an adult care facility conducted pursuant to section 3722.02 or 3722.04 of the Revised Code;
(5) Violate any of the provisions of this chapter or any of the rules adopted pursuant to it.
(B) No adult care facility shall provide, or admit or retain any resident in need of, skilled nursing care unless all of the following are the case:
(1) The care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period by one or more of the following:
(a) A home health agency certified under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:
(b) A hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code;
(c) A nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and owned and operated by the same person and located on the same site as the adult care facility;
(d) A mental health agency or, pursuant to division (A)(8)(b) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.
(2) The staff of the home health agency, hospice care program, nursing home, mental health agency, or board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services does not train facility staff to provide the skilled nursing care;
(3) The individual to whom the skilled nursing care is provided is suffering from a short-term illness;
(4) If the skilled nursing care is to be provided by the nursing staff of a nursing home, all of the following are the case:
(a) The adult care facility evaluates the individual receiving the skilled nursing care at least once every seven days to determine whether the individual should be transferred to a nursing home;
(b) The adult care facility meets at all times staffing requirements established by rules adopted under section 3722.10 of the Revised Code;
(c) The nursing home does not include the cost of providing skilled nursing care to the adult care facility residents in a cost report filed under section 5111.26 5111.23 of the Revised Code;
(d) The nursing home meets at all times the nursing home licensure staffing ratios established by rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;
(e) The nursing home staff providing skilled nursing care to adult care facility residents are registered nurses or licensed practical nurses licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and meet the personnel qualifications for nursing home staff established by rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;
(f) The skilled nursing care is provided in accordance with rules established for nursing homes under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;
(g) The nursing home meets the skilled nursing care needs of the adult care facility residents;
(h) Using the nursing home's nursing staff does not prevent the nursing home or adult care facility from meeting the needs of the nursing home and adult care facility residents in a quality and timely manner.
Notwithstanding section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, an adult care facility in which residents receive skilled nursing care as described in division (B) of this section is not a nursing home. No adult care facility shall provide skilled nursing care.
(C) A home health agency or hospice care program that provides skilled nursing care pursuant to division (B) of this section may not be associated with the adult care facility unless the facility is part of a home for the aged as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised Code or the adult care facility is owned and operated by the same person and located on the same site as a nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code that is associated with the home health agency or hospice care program. In addition, the following requirements shall be met:
(1) The adult care facility shall evaluate the individual receiving the skilled nursing care not less than once every seven days to determine whether the individual should be transferred to a nursing home;
(2) If the costs of providing the skilled nursing care are included in a cost report filed pursuant to section 5111.26 5111.23 of the Revised Code by the nursing home that is part of the same home for the aged, the home health agency or hospice care program shall not seek reimbursement for the care under the medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.
(D)(1) No person knowingly shall place or recommend placement of any person in an adult care facility that is operating without a license.
(2) No employee of a unit of local or state government, board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, mental health agency, or PASSPORT administrative agency shall place or recommend placement of any person in an adult care facility if the employee knows that the facility cannot meet the needs of the potential resident.
(3) No person who has reason to believe that an adult care facility is operating without a license shall fail to report this information to the director of health.
(E) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the public health council shall adopt rules that define a short-term illness for purposes of division (B)(3) of this section and specify, consistent with rules pertaining to home health care adopted by the director of job and family services under the medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, what constitutes a part-time, intermittent basis for purposes of division (B)(1) of this section.
Sec. 3727.17.  Each hospital shall provide a staff person to do all of the following:
(A) Meet with each unmarried mother who gave birth in or en route to the hospital within twenty-four hours after the birth or before the mother is released from the hospital;
(B) Attempt to meet with the father of the unmarried mother's child if possible;
(C) Explain to the unmarried mother and the father, if the father is present, the benefit to the child of establishing a parent and child relationship between the father and the child and the various proper procedures for establishing a parent and child relationship;
(D) Present to the unmarried mother and, if possible, the father, the pamphlet or statement regarding the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent prepared by the department of job and family services pursuant to section 3111.32 of the Revised Code;
(E) Provide the unmarried mother, and if possible the father, all forms and statements necessary to voluntarily establish a parent and child relationship, including the acknowledgment of paternity form prepared by the department of job and family services pursuant to section 3111.31 of the Revised Code;
(F) Explain to the mother and father the availability of immediate genetic testing at the hospital to establish the parent and child relationship and that the test is at no cost to the mother or father;
(G) Upon both the mother's and father's request, help the mother and father complete any specific form or statement necessary to establish a parent and child relationship;
(G)(H) Present to an unmarried mother who is not a recipient of medicaid or a participant in Ohio works first an application for Title IV-D services;
(H)(I) Mail the voluntary acknowledgment of paternity, no later than ten days after it is completed, to the office of child support in the department of job and family services.
Each hospital shall provide a notary public to notarize an acknowledgment of paternity signed by the mother and father. If a hospital knows or determines that a man is presumed under section 3111.03 of the Revised Code to be the father of the child described in this section and that the presumed father is not the man who signed or is attempting to sign an acknowledgment with respect to the child, the hospital shall take no further action with regard to the acknowledgment and shall not mail the acknowledgment pursuant to this section.
A hospital may contract with a person or government entity to fulfill its responsibilities under this section and sections 3111.71 to 3111.74 of the Revised Code. Services provided by a hospital under this section or pursuant to a contract under sections 3111.71 and 3111.77 of the Revised Code do not constitute the practice of law. A hospital shall not be subject to criminal or civil liability for any damage or injury alleged to result from services provided pursuant to this section or sections 3111.71 to 3111.74 of the Revised Code unless the hospital acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.
Sec. 3733.43.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this division, prior to the fifteenth day of April in each year, every person who intends to operate an agricultural labor camp shall make application to the licensor for a license to operate such camp, effective for the calendar year in which it is issued. The licensor may accept an application on or after the fifteenth day of April. The license fees specified in this division shall be submitted to the licensor with the application for a license. No agricultural labor camp shall be operated in this state without a license. Any person operating an agricultural labor camp without a current and valid agricultural labor camp license is not excepted from compliance with sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code by holding a valid and current hotel license. Each person proposing to open an agricultural labor camp shall submit with the application for a license any plans required by any rule adopted under section 3733.42 of the Revised Code. The annual license fee is twenty seventy-five dollars, unless the application for a license is made on or after the fifteenth day of April, in which case the annual license fee is forty one hundred dollars. An additional fee of three ten dollars per housing unit per year shall be assessed to defray the costs of enforcing sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code, unless the application for a license is made on or after the fifteenth day of April, in which case an additional fee of six fifteen dollars per housing unit shall be assessed. All fees collected under this division shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code and shall be used for the administration and enforcement of sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code and rules adopted thereunder.
(B) Any license under this section may be denied, suspended, or revoked by the licensor for violation of sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code or the rules adopted thereunder. Unless there is an immediate serious public health hazard, no denial, suspension, or revocation of a license shall be made effective until the person operating the agricultural labor camp has been given notice in writing of the specific violations and a reasonable time to make corrections. When the licensor determines that an immediate serious public health hazard exists, he the licensor shall issue an order denying or suspending the license without a prior hearing.
(C) All proceedings under this section are subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code except as provided in section 3733.431 of the Revised Code.
(D) Every occupant of an agricultural labor camp shall keep that part of the dwelling unit, and premises thereof, that he the occupant occupies and controls in a clean and sanitary condition.
Sec. 3733.45.  (A) The licensor shall inspect all agricultural labor camps and shall require compliance with sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder prior to the issuance of a license. Upon receipt of a complaint from the migrant agricultural ombudsman ombudsperson or upon the basis of a licensor's own information that an agricultural labor camp is operating without a license, the licensor shall inspect the camp. If the camp is operating without a license, the licensor shall require the camp to comply with sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. No license shall be issued unless results of water supply tests indicate that the water supply meets required standards or if any violations exist concerning sanitation, drainage, or habitability of housing units.
(B) The licensor shall, upon issuance of each license, distribute posters containing the toll-free telephone number of the migrant agricultural ombudsman ombudsperson established in section 3733.49 of the Revised Code and information in English and Spanish describing the purpose of the ombudsman's ombudsperson's office, as provided in that section. The licensor shall provide at least two posters to the licensee, one for his the licensee's personal use and at least one that shall be posted in a conspicuous place within the camp.
(C) The licensor may, upon proper identification to the operator or his the operator's agent, enter on any property or into any structure at any reasonable time for the purpose of making inspections required by this section.
The licensor shall make at least one inspection prior to licensing, and at least two inspections during occupancy of the camps, at least one of which shall be an unannounced evening inspection conducted after five p.m. The licensor shall determine and record housing unit occupancy during each evening inspection. The licensor shall make such other inspections as he the licensor considers necessary to enforce sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code adequately.
(D) Any plans submitted to the licensor shall be in compliance with rules adopted pursuant to section 3733.42 of the Revised Code and shall be approved or disapproved within thirty days after they are filed.
(E) All designees of the licensor who conduct inspections in the evening in accordance with this section shall speak both English and Spanish fluently. At least one member of the permanent staff assigned to conduct inspections in accordance with this section shall speak both English and Spanish fluently.
(F) The licensor shall issue an annual report that shall accurately reflect the results of that year's inspections, including, but not limited to, numbers of pre- and post-occupancy inspections, number of violations found, and action taken in regard to violations. The report shall also include an assessment of any problems found in that year and proposed solutions for them.
Sec. 3734.02.  (A) The director of environmental protection, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and may amend, suspend, or rescind rules having uniform application throughout the state governing solid waste facilities and the inspections of and issuance of permits and licenses for all solid waste facilities in order to ensure that the facilities will be located, maintained, and operated, and will undergo closure and post-closure care, in a sanitary manner so as not to create a nuisance, cause or contribute to water pollution, create a health hazard, or violate 40 C.F.R. 257.3-2 or 40 C.F.R. 257.3-8, as amended. The rules may include, without limitation, financial assurance requirements for closure and post-closure care and corrective action and requirements for taking corrective action in the event of the surface or subsurface discharge or migration of explosive gases or leachate from a solid waste facility, or of ground water contamination resulting from the transfer or disposal of solid wastes at a facility, beyond the boundaries of any area within a facility that is operating or is undergoing closure or post-closure care where solid wastes were disposed of or are being disposed of. The rules shall not concern or relate to personnel policies, salaries, wages, fringe benefits, or other conditions of employment of employees of persons owning or operating solid waste facilities. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and may amend, suspend, or rescind rules governing the issuance, modification, revocation, suspension, or denial of variances from the director's solid waste rules, including, without limitation, rules adopted under this chapter governing the management of scrap tires.
Variances shall be issued, modified, revoked, suspended, or rescinded in accordance with this division, rules adopted under it, and Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. The director may order the person to whom a variance is issued to take such action within such time as the director may determine to be appropriate and reasonable to prevent the creation of a nuisance or a hazard to the public health or safety or the environment. Applications for variances shall contain such detail plans, specifications, and information regarding objectives, procedures, controls, and other pertinent data as the director may require. The director shall grant a variance only if the applicant demonstrates to the director's satisfaction that construction and operation of the solid waste facility in the manner allowed by the variance and any terms or conditions imposed as part of the variance will not create a nuisance or a hazard to the public health or safety or the environment. In granting any variance, the director shall state the specific provision or provisions whose terms are to be varied and also shall state specific terms or conditions imposed upon the applicant in place of the provision or provisions. The director may hold a public hearing on an application for a variance or renewal of a variance at a location in the county where the operations that are the subject of the application for the variance are conducted. The director shall give not less than twenty days' notice of the hearing to the applicant by certified mail and shall publish at least one notice of the hearing in a newspaper with general circulation in the county where the hearing is to be held. The director shall make available for public inspection at the principal office of the environmental protection agency a current list of pending applications for variances and a current schedule of pending variance hearings. The director shall make a complete stenographic record of testimony and other evidence submitted at the hearing. Within ten days after the hearing, the director shall make a written determination to issue, renew, or deny the variance and shall enter the determination and the basis for it into the record of the hearing. The director shall issue, renew, or deny an application for a variance or renewal of a variance within six months of the date upon which the director receives a complete application with all pertinent information and data required. No variance shall be issued, revoked, modified, or denied until the director has considered the relative interests of the applicant, other persons and property affected by the variance, and the general public. Any variance granted under this division shall be for a period specified by the director and may be renewed from time to time on such terms and for such periods as the director determines to be appropriate. No application shall be denied and no variance shall be revoked or modified without a written order stating the findings upon which the denial, revocation, or modification is based. A copy of the order shall be sent to the applicant or variance holder by certified mail.
(B) The director shall prescribe and furnish the forms necessary to administer and enforce this chapter. The director may cooperate with and enter into agreements with other state, local, or federal agencies to carry out the purposes of this chapter. The director may exercise all incidental powers necessary to carry out the purposes of this chapter.
The director may use moneys in the infectious waste management fund created in section 3734.021 of the Revised Code exclusively for administering and enforcing the provisions of this chapter governing the management of infectious wastes. Of each registration and renewal fee collected under rules adopted under division (A)(2)(a) of section 3734.021 or under section 3734.022 of the Revised Code, the director, within forty-five days of its receipt, shall remit from the fund one-half of the fee received to the board of health of the health district in which the registered premises is located, or, in the instance of an infectious wastes transporter, to the board of health of the health district in which the transporter's principal place of business is located. However, if the board of health having jurisdiction over a registrant's premises or principal place of business is not on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code, the director shall not make that payment to the board of health.
(C) Except as provided in this division and divisions (N)(2) and (3) of this section, no person shall establish a new solid waste facility or infectious waste treatment facility, or modify an existing solid waste facility or infectious waste treatment facility, without submitting an application for a permit with accompanying detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and method of operation and receiving a permit issued by the director, except that no permit shall be required under this division to install or operate a solid waste facility for sewage sludge treatment or disposal when the treatment or disposal is authorized by a current permit issued under Chapter 3704. or 6111. of the Revised Code.
No person shall continue to operate a solid waste facility for which the director has denied a permit for which an application was required under division (A)(3) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, or for which the director has disapproved plans and specifications required to be filed by an order issued under division (A)(5) of that section, after the date prescribed for commencement of closure of the facility in the order issued under division (A)(6) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code denying the permit application or approval.
On and after the effective date of the rules adopted under division (A) of this section and division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code governing solid waste transfer facilities, no person shall establish a new, or modify an existing, solid waste transfer facility without first submitting an application for a permit with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and its method of operation to the director and receiving a permit issued by the director.
No person shall establish a new compost facility or continue to operate an existing compost facility that accepts exclusively source separated yard wastes without submitting a completed registration for the facility to the director in accordance with rules adopted under divisions (A) and (N)(3) of this section.
This division does not apply to an infectious waste treatment facility that meets any of the following conditions:
(1) Is owned or operated by the generator of the wastes and exclusively treats, by methods, techniques, and practices established by rules adopted under division (C)(1) or (3) of section 3734.021 of the Revised Code, wastes that are generated at any premises owned or operated by that generator regardless of whether the wastes are generated on the premises where the generator's treatment facility is located or, if the generator is a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, infectious wastes that are described in division (A)(1)(g), (h), or (i) of section 3734.021 of the Revised Code;
(2) Holds a license or renewal of a license to operate a crematory facility issued under Chapter 4717. and a permit issued under Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code;
(3) Treats or disposes of dead animals or parts thereof, or the blood of animals, and is subject to any of the following:
(a) Inspection under the "Federal Meat Inspection Act," 81 Stat. 584 (1967), 21 U.S.C.A. 603, as amended;
(b) Chapter 918. of the Revised Code;
(c) Chapter 953. of the Revised Code.
(D) Neither this chapter nor any rules adopted under it apply to single-family residential premises; to infectious wastes generated by individuals for purposes of their own care or treatment that are disposed of with solid wastes from the individual's residence; to the temporary storage of solid wastes, other than scrap tires, prior to their collection for disposal; to the storage of one hundred or fewer scrap tires unless they are stored in such a manner that, in the judgment of the director or the board of health of the health district in which the scrap tires are stored, the storage causes a nuisance, a hazard to public health or safety, or a fire hazard; or to the collection of solid wastes, other than scrap tires, by a political subdivision or a person holding a franchise or license from a political subdivision of the state; to composting, as defined in section 1511.01 of the Revised Code, conducted in accordance with section 1511.022 of the Revised Code; or to any person who is licensed to transport raw rendering material to a compost facility pursuant to section 953.23 of the Revised Code.
(E)(1) As used in this division and section 3734.18 of the Revised Code:
(a) "On-site facility" means a facility that stores, treats, or disposes of hazardous waste that is generated on the premises of the facility.
(b) "Off-site facility" means a facility that stores, treats, or disposes of hazardous waste that is generated off the premises of the facility and includes such a facility that is also an on-site facility.
(c) "Satellite facility" means any of the following:
(i) An on-site facility that also receives hazardous waste from other premises owned by the same person who generates the waste on the facility premises;
(ii) An off-site facility operated so that all of the hazardous waste it receives is generated on one or more premises owned by the person who owns the facility;
(iii) An on-site facility that also receives hazardous waste that is transported uninterruptedly and directly to the facility through a pipeline from a generator who is not the owner of the facility.
(2) Except as provided in division (E)(3) of this section, no person shall establish or operate a hazardous waste facility, or use a solid waste facility for the storage, treatment, or disposal of any hazardous waste, without a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit from the hazardous waste facility board issued in accordance with section 3734.05 of the Revised Code and subject to the payment of an application fee not to exceed one thousand five hundred dollars, payable upon application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit and upon application for a renewal permit issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, to be credited to the hazardous waste facility management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code. The term of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit shall not exceed five years.
In addition to the application fee, there is hereby levied an annual permit fee to be paid by the permit holder upon the anniversaries of the date of issuance of the hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit and of any subsequent renewal permits and to be credited to the hazardous waste facility management fund. Annual permit fees totaling forty thousand dollars or more for any one facility may be paid on a quarterly basis with the first quarterly payment each year being due on the anniversary of the date of issuance of the hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit and of any subsequent renewal permits. The annual permit fee shall be determined for each permit holder by the director in accordance with the following schedule:
TYPE OF BASIC
MANAGEMENT UNIT TYPE OF FACILITY FEE
Storage facility using:
Containers On-site, off-site, and
satellite $ 500
Tanks On-site, off-site, and
satellite 500
Waste pile On-site, off-site, and
satellite 3,000
Surface impoundment On-site and satellite 8,000
Off-site 10,000
Disposal facility using:
Deep well injection On-site and satellite 15,000
Off-site 25,000
Landfill On-site and satellite 25,000
Off-site 40,000
Land application On-site and satellite 2,500
Off-site 5,000
Surface impoundment On-site and satellite 10,000
Off-site 20,000
Treatment facility using:
Tanks On-site, off-site, and
satellite 700
Surface impoundment On-site and satellite 8,000
Off-site 10,000
Incinerator On-site and satellite 5,000
Off-site 10,000
Other forms
of treatment On-site, off-site, and
satellite 1,000

In determining the annual permit fee required by this section, the director shall not require additional payments for multiple units of the same method of storage, treatment, or disposal or for individual units that are used for both storage and treatment. A facility using more than one method of storage, treatment, or disposal shall pay the permit fee indicated by the schedule for each such method.
The director shall not require the payment of that portion of an annual permit fee of any permit holder that would apply to a hazardous waste management unit for which a permit has been issued, but for which construction has not yet commenced. Once construction has commenced, the director shall require the payment of a part of the appropriate fee indicated by the schedule that bears the same relationship to the total fee that the number of days remaining until the next anniversary date at which payment of the annual permit fee is due bears to three hundred sixty-five.
The director, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapters 119. and 3745. of the Revised Code, shall prescribe procedures for collecting the annual permit fee established by this division and may prescribe other requirements necessary to carry out this division.
(3) The prohibition against establishing or operating a hazardous waste facility without a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit from the board does not apply to either of the following:
(a) A facility that is operating in accordance with a permit renewal issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, a revision issued under division (I) of that section as it existed prior to August 20, 1996, or a modification issued by the director under division (I) of that section on and after August 20, 1996;
(b) Except as provided in division (J) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, a facility that will operate or is operating in accordance with a permit by rule, or that is not subject to permit requirements, under rules adopted by the director. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director shall adopt, and subsequently may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules for the purposes of division (E)(3)(b) of this section. Any rules so adopted shall be consistent with and equivalent to regulations pertaining to interim status adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
If a modification is requested or proposed for a facility described in division (E)(3)(a) or (b) of this section, division (I)(8)(7) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code applies.
(F) No person shall store, treat, or dispose of hazardous waste identified or listed under this chapter and rules adopted under it, regardless of whether generated on or off the premises where the waste is stored, treated, or disposed of, or transport or cause to be transported any hazardous waste identified or listed under this chapter and rules adopted under it to any other premises, except at or to any of the following:
(1) A hazardous waste facility operating under a permit issued in accordance with this chapter;
(2) A facility in another state operating under a license or permit issued in accordance with the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended;
(3) A facility in another nation operating in accordance with the laws of that nation;
(4) A facility holding a permit issued pursuant to Title I of the "Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972," 86 Stat. 1052, 33 U.S.C.A. 1401, as amended;
(5) A hazardous waste facility as described in division (E)(3)(a) or (b) of this section.
(G) The director, by order, may exempt any person generating, collecting, storing, treating, disposing of, or transporting solid wastes or hazardous waste, or processing solid wastes that consist of scrap tires, in such quantities or under such circumstances that, in the determination of the director, are unlikely to adversely affect the public health or safety or the environment from any requirement to obtain a registration certificate, permit, or license or comply with the manifest system or other requirements of this chapter. Such an exemption shall be consistent with and equivalent to any regulations adopted by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
(H) No person shall engage in filling, grading, excavating, building, drilling, or mining on land where a hazardous waste facility, or a solid waste facility, was operated without prior authorization from the director, who shall establish the procedure for granting such authorization by rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
A public utility that has main or distribution lines above or below the land surface located on an easement or right-of-way across land where a solid waste facility was operated may engage in any such activity within the easement or right-of-way without prior authorization from the director for purposes of performing emergency repair or emergency replacement of its lines; of the poles, towers, foundations, or other structures supporting or sustaining any such lines; or of the appurtenances to those structures, necessary to restore or maintain existing public utility service. A public utility may enter upon any such easement or right-of-way without prior authorization from the director for purposes of performing necessary or routine maintenance of those portions of its existing lines; of the existing poles, towers, foundations, or other structures sustaining or supporting its lines; or of the appurtenances to any such supporting or sustaining structure, located on or above the land surface on any such easement or right-of-way. Within twenty-four hours after commencing any such emergency repair, replacement, or maintenance work, the public utility shall notify the director or the director's authorized representative of those activities and shall provide such information regarding those activities as the director or the director's representative may request. Upon completion of the emergency repair, replacement, or maintenance activities, the public utility shall restore any land of the solid waste facility disturbed by those activities to the condition existing prior to the commencement of those activities.
(I) No owner or operator of a hazardous waste facility, in the operation of the facility, shall cause, permit, or allow the emission therefrom of any particulate matter, dust, fumes, gas, mist, smoke, vapor, or odorous substance that, in the opinion of the director, unreasonably interferes with the comfortable enjoyment of life or property by persons living or working in the vicinity of the facility, or that is injurious to public health. Any such action is hereby declared to be a public nuisance.
(J) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, in the event the director finds an imminent and substantial danger to public health or safety or the environment that creates an emergency situation requiring the immediate treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste, the director may issue a temporary emergency permit to allow the treatment, storage, or disposal of the hazardous waste at a facility that is not otherwise authorized by a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit to treat, store, or dispose of the waste. The emergency permit shall not exceed ninety days in duration and shall not be renewed. The director shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the issuance, modification, revocation, and denial of emergency permits.
(K) No owner or operator of a sanitary landfill shall knowingly accept for disposal, or dispose of, any infectious wastes, other than those subject to division (A)(1)(c) of section 3734.021 of the Revised Code, that have not been treated to render them noninfectious. For the purposes of this division, certification by the owner or operator of the treatment facility where the wastes were treated on the shipping paper required by rules adopted under division (D)(2) of that section creates a rebuttable presumption that the wastes have been so treated.
(L) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules having uniform application throughout the state establishing a training and certification program that shall be required for employees of boards of health who are responsible for enforcing the solid waste and infectious waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under them and for persons who are responsible for the operation of solid waste facilities or infectious waste treatment facilities. The rules shall provide all of the following, without limitation:
(1) The program shall be administered by the director and shall consist of a course on new solid waste and infectious waste technologies, enforcement procedures, and rules;
(2) The course shall be offered on an annual basis;
(3) Those persons who are required to take the course under division (L) of this section shall do so triennially;
(4) Persons who successfully complete the course shall be certified by the director;
(5) Certification shall be required for all employees of boards of health who are responsible for enforcing the solid waste or infectious waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under them and for all persons who are responsible for the operation of solid waste facilities or infectious waste treatment facilities;
(6)(a) All employees of a board of health who, on the effective date of the rules adopted under this division, are responsible for enforcing the solid waste or infectious waste provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under them shall complete the course and be certified by the director not later than January 1, 1995;
(b) All employees of a board of health who, after the effective date of the rules adopted under division (L) of this section, become responsible for enforcing the solid waste or infectious waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under them and who do not hold a current and valid certification from the director at that time shall complete the course and be certified by the director within two years after becoming responsible for performing those activities.
No person shall fail to obtain the certification required under this division.
(M) The director shall not issue a permit under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code to establish a solid waste facility, or to modify a solid waste facility operating on December 21, 1988, in a manner that expands the disposal capacity or geographic area covered by the facility, that is or is to be located within the boundaries of a state park established or dedicated under Chapter 1541. of the Revised Code, a state park purchase area established under section 1541.02 of the Revised Code, any unit of the national park system, or any property that lies within the boundaries of a national park or recreation area, but that has not been acquired or is not administered by the secretary of the United States department of the interior, located in this state, or any candidate area located in this state and identified for potential inclusion in the national park system in the edition of the "national park system plan" submitted under paragraph (b) of section 8 of "The Act of August 18, 1970," 84 Stat. 825, 16 U.S.C.A. 1a-5, as amended, current at the time of filing of the application for the permit, unless the facility or proposed facility is or is to be used exclusively for the disposal of solid wastes generated within the park or recreation area and the director determines that the facility or proposed facility will not degrade any of the natural or cultural resources of the park or recreation area. The director shall not issue a variance under division (A) of this section and rules adopted under it, or issue an exemption order under division (G) of this section, that would authorize any such establishment or expansion of a solid waste facility within the boundaries of any such park or recreation area, state park purchase area, or candidate area, other than a solid waste facility exclusively for the disposal of solid wastes generated within the park or recreation area when the director determines that the facility will not degrade any of the natural or cultural resources of the park or recreation area.
(N)(1) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section, other than those governing variances, do not apply to scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery facilities. Those facilities are subject to and governed by rules adopted under sections 3734.70 to 3734.73 of the Revised Code, as applicable.
(2) Division (C) of this section does not apply to scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery facilities. The establishment and modification of those facilities are subject to sections 3734.75 to 3734.78 and section 3734.81 of the Revised Code, as applicable.
(3) The director may adopt, amend, suspend, or rescind rules under division (A) of this section creating an alternative system for authorizing the establishment, operation, or modification of a solid waste compost facility in lieu of the requirement that a person seeking to establish, operate, or modify a solid waste compost facility apply for and receive a permit under division (C) of this section and section 3734.05 of the Revised Code and a license under division (A)(1) of that section. The rules may include requirements governing, without limitation, the classification of solid waste compost facilities, the submittal of operating records for solid waste compost facilities, and the creation of a registration or notification system in lieu of the issuance of permits and licenses for solid waste compost facilities. The rules shall specify the applicability of divisions (A)(1), (2)(a), (3), and (4) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code to a solid waste compost facility.
Sec. 3734.05.  (A)(1) Except as provided in divisions (A)(4), (8), and (9) of this section, no person shall operate or maintain a solid waste facility without a license issued under this division by the board of health of the health district in which the facility is located or by the director of environmental protection when the health district in which the facility is located is not on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code.
During the month of December, but before the first day of January of the next year, every person proposing to continue to operate an existing solid waste facility shall procure a license under this division to operate the facility for that year from the board of health of the health district in which the facility is located or, if the health district is not on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code, from the director. The application for such a license shall be submitted to the board of health or to the director, as appropriate, on or before the last day of September of the year preceding that for which the license is sought. In addition to the application fee prescribed in division (A)(2) of this section, a person who submits an application after that date shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the application fee for each week that the application is late. Late payment fees accompanying an application submitted to the board of health shall be credited to the special fund of the health district created in division (B) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code, and late payment fees accompanying an application submitted to the director shall be credited to the general revenue fund. A person who has received a license, upon sale or disposition of a solid waste facility, and upon consent of the board of health and the director, may have the license transferred to another person. The board of health or the director may include such terms and conditions in a license or revision to a license as are appropriate to ensure compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it. The terms and conditions may establish the authorized maximum daily waste receipts for the facility. Limitations on maximum daily waste receipts shall be specified in cubic yards of volume for the purpose of regulating the design, construction, and operation of solid waste facilities. Terms and conditions included in a license or revision to a license by a board of health shall be consistent with, and pertain only to the subjects addressed in, the rules adopted under division (A) of section 3734.02 and division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.
(2)(a) Except as provided in divisions (A)(2)(b), (8), and (9) of this section, each person proposing to open a new solid waste facility or to modify an existing solid waste facility shall submit an application for a permit with accompanying detail plans and specifications to the environmental protection agency for required approval under the rules adopted by the director pursuant to division (A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and applicable rules adopted under division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code at least two hundred seventy days before proposed operation of the facility and shall concurrently make application for the issuance of a license under division (A)(1) of this section with the board of health of the health district in which the proposed facility is to be located.
(b) On and after the effective date of the rules adopted under division (A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code governing solid waste transfer facilities, each person proposing to open a new solid waste transfer facility or to modify an existing solid waste transfer facility shall submit an application for a permit with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and its method of operation to the environmental protection agency for required approval under those rules at least two hundred seventy days before commencing proposed operation of the facility and concurrently shall make application for the issuance of a license under division (A)(1) of this section with the board of health of the health district in which the facility is located or proposed.
(c) Each application for a permit under division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of four hundred dollars that shall be credited to the general revenue fund. Each application for an annual license under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred dollars. If the application for an annual license is submitted to a board of health on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code, the application fee shall be credited to the special fund of the health district created in division (B) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code. If the application for an annual license is submitted to the director, the application fee shall be credited to the general revenue fund. If a permit or license is issued, the amount of the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the permit fee due under division (Q) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code or the amount of the license fee due under division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code.
(d) As used in divisions (A)(2)(d), (e), and (f) of this section, "modify" means any of the following:
(i) Any increase of more than ten per cent in the total capacity of a solid waste facility;
(ii) Any expansion of the limits of solid waste placement at a solid waste facility;
(iii) Any increase in the depth of excavation at a solid waste facility;
(iv) Any change in the technique of waste receipt or type of waste received at a solid waste facility that may endanger human health, as determined by the director by rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Not later than thirty-five days after submitting an application under division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section for a permit to open a new or modify an existing solid waste facility, the applicant, in conjunction with an officer or employee of the environmental protection agency, shall hold a public meeting on the application within the county in which the new or modified solid waste facility is or is proposed to be located or within a contiguous county. Not less than thirty days before holding the public meeting on the application, the applicant shall publish notice of the meeting in each newspaper of general circulation that is published in the county in which the facility is or is proposed to be located. If no newspaper of general circulation is published in the county, the applicant shall publish the notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. The notice shall contain the date, time, and location of the public meeting and a general description of the proposed new or modified facility. Not later than five days after publishing the notice, the applicant shall send by certified mail a copy of the notice and the date the notice was published to the director and the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, township, and county, and to the chief executive officer of each municipal corporation, in which the facility is or is proposed to be located. At the public meeting, the applicant shall provide information and describe the application and respond to comments or questions concerning the application, and the officer or employee of the agency shall describe the permit application process. At the public meeting, any person may submit written or oral comments on or objections to the application. Not more than thirty days after the public meeting, the applicant shall provide the director with a copy of a transcript of the full meeting, copies of any exhibits, displays, or other materials presented by the applicant at the meeting, and the original copy of any written comments submitted at the meeting.
(e) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(f) of this section, prior to taking an action, other than a proposed or final denial, upon an application submitted under division (A)(2)(a) of this section for a permit to open a new or modify an existing solid waste facility, the director shall hold a public information session and a public hearing on the application within the county in which the new or modified solid waste facility is or is proposed to be located or within a contiguous county. If the application is for a permit to open a new solid waste facility, the director shall hold the hearing not less than fourteen days after the information session. If the application is for a permit to modify an existing solid waste facility, the director may hold both the information session and the hearing on the same day unless any individual affected by the application requests in writing that the information session and the hearing not be held on the same day, in which case the director shall hold the hearing not less than fourteen days after the information session. The director shall publish notice of the public information session or public hearing not less than thirty days before holding the information session or hearing, as applicable. The notice shall be published in each newspaper of general circulation that is published in the county in which the facility is or is proposed to be located. If no newspaper of general circulation is published in the county, the director shall publish the notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. The notice shall contain the date, time, and location of the information session or hearing, as applicable, and a general description of the proposed new or modified facility. At the public information session, an officer or employee of the environmental protection agency shall describe the status of the permit application and be available to respond to comments or questions concerning the application. At the public hearing, any person may submit written or oral comments on or objections to the approval of the application. The applicant, or a representative of the applicant who has knowledge of the location, construction, and operation of the facility, shall attend the information session and public hearing to respond to comments or questions concerning the facility directed to the applicant or representative by the officer or employee of the environmental protection agency presiding at the information session and hearing.
(f) The solid waste management policy committee of a county or joint solid waste management district may adopt a resolution requesting expeditious consideration of a specific application submitted under division (A)(2)(a) of this section for a permit to modify an existing solid waste facility within the district. The resolution shall make the finding that expedited consideration of the application without the public information session and public hearing under division (A)(2)(e) of this section is in the public interest and will not endanger human health, as determined by the director by rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Upon receiving such a resolution, the director, at the director's discretion, may issue a final action upon the application without holding a public information session or public hearing pursuant to division (A)(2)(e) of this section.
(3) Except as provided in division (A)(10) of this section, and unless the owner or operator of any solid waste facility, other than a solid waste transfer facility or a compost facility that accepts exclusively source separated yard wastes, that commenced operation on or before July 1, 1968, has obtained an exemption from the requirements of division (A)(3) of this section in accordance with division (G) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, the owner or operator shall submit to the director an application for a permit with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and its method of operation for approval under rules adopted under division (A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and applicable rules adopted under division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code in accordance with the following schedule:
(a) Not later than September 24, 1988, if the facility is located in the city of Garfield Heights or Parma in Cuyahoga county;
(b) Not later than December 24, 1988, if the facility is located in Delaware, Greene, Guernsey, Hamilton, Madison, Mahoning, Ottawa, or Vinton county;
(c) Not later than March 24, 1989, if the facility is located in Champaign, Clinton, Columbiana, Huron, Paulding, Stark, or Washington county, or is located in the city of Brooklyn or Cuyahoga Heights in Cuyahoga county;
(d) Not later than June 24, 1989, if the facility is located in Adams, Auglaize, Coshocton, Darke, Harrison, Lorain, Lucas, or Summit county or is located in Cuyahoga county outside the cities of Garfield Heights, Parma, Brooklyn, and Cuyahoga Heights;
(e) Not later than September 24, 1989, if the facility is located in Butler, Carroll, Erie, Lake, Portage, Putnam, or Ross county;
(f) Not later than December 24, 1989, if the facility is located in a county not listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of this section;
(g) Notwithstanding divisions (A)(3)(a) to (f) of this section, not later than December 31, 1990, if the facility is a solid waste facility owned by a generator of solid wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a premises where the wastes are generated and if the facility disposes of more than one hundred thousand tons of solid wastes per year, provided that any such facility shall be subject to division (A)(5) of this section.
(4) Except as provided in divisions (A)(8), (9), and (10) of this section, unless the owner or operator of any solid waste facility for which a permit was issued after July 1, 1968, but before January 1, 1980, has obtained an exemption from the requirements of division (A)(4) of this section under division (G) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, the owner or operator shall submit to the director an application for a permit with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and its method of operation for approval under those rules.
(5) The director may issue an order in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code to the owner or operator of a solid waste facility requiring the person to submit to the director updated engineering detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and its method of operation for approval under rules adopted under division (A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and applicable rules adopted under division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code if, in the director's judgment, conditions at the facility constitute a substantial threat to public health or safety or are causing or contributing to or threatening to cause or contribute to air or water pollution or soil contamination. Any person who receives such an order shall submit the updated engineering detail plans, specifications, and information to the director within one hundred eighty days after the effective date of the order.
(6) The director shall act upon an application submitted under division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and any updated engineering plans, specifications, and information submitted under division (A)(5) of this section within one hundred eighty days after receiving them. If the director denies any such permit application, the order denying the application or disapproving the plans shall include the requirements that the owner or operator submit a plan for closure and post-closure care of the facility to the director for approval within six months after issuance of the order, cease accepting solid wastes for disposal or transfer at the facility, and commence closure of the facility not later than one year after issuance of the order. If the director determines that closure of the facility within that one-year period would result in the unavailability of sufficient solid waste management facility capacity within the county or joint solid waste management district in which the facility is located to dispose of or transfer the solid waste generated within the district, the director in the order of denial or disapproval may postpone commencement of closure of the facility for such period of time as the director finds necessary for the board of county commissioners or directors of the district to secure access to or for there to be constructed within the district sufficient solid waste management facility capacity to meet the needs of the district, provided that the director shall certify in the director's order that postponing the date for commencement of closure will not endanger ground water or any property surrounding the facility, allow methane gas migration to occur, or cause or contribute to any other type of environmental damage.
If an emergency need for disposal capacity that may affect public health and safety exists as a result of closure of a facility under division (A)(6) of this section, the director may issue an order designating another solid waste facility to accept the wastes that would have been disposed of at the facility to be closed.
(7) If the director determines that standards more stringent than those applicable in rules adopted under division (A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, or standards pertaining to subjects not specifically addressed by those rules, are necessary to ensure that a solid waste facility constructed at the proposed location will not cause a nuisance, cause or contribute to water pollution, or endanger public health or safety, the director may issue a permit for the facility with such terms and conditions as the director finds necessary to protect public health and safety and the environment. If a permit is issued, the director shall state in the order issuing it the specific findings supporting each such term or condition.
(8) Divisions (A)(1), (2)(a), (3), and (4) of this section do not apply to a solid waste compost facility that accepts exclusively source separated yard wastes and that is registered under division (C) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code or, unless otherwise provided in rules adopted under division (N)(3) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, to a solid waste compost facility if the director has adopted rules establishing an alternative system for authorizing the establishment, operation, or modification of a solid waste compost facility under that division.
(9) Divisions (A)(1) to (7) of this section do not apply to scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery facilities. The approval of plans and specifications, as applicable, and the issuance of registration certificates, permits, and licenses for those facilities are subject to sections 3734.75 to 3734.78 of the Revised Code, as applicable, and section 3734.81 of the Revised Code.
(10) Divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section do not apply to a solid waste incinerator that was placed into operation on or before October 12, 1994, and that is not authorized to accept and treat infectious wastes pursuant to division (B) of this section.
(B)(1) Each person who is engaged in the business of treating infectious wastes for profit at a treatment facility located off the premises where the wastes are generated that is in operation on August 10, 1988, and who proposes to continue operating the facility shall submit to the board of health of the health district in which the facility is located an application for a license to operate the facility.
Thereafter, no person shall operate or maintain an infectious waste treatment facility without a license issued by the board of health of the health district in which the facility is located or by the director when the health district in which the facility is located is not on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code.
(2)(a) During the month of December, but before the first day of January of the next year, every person proposing to continue to operate an existing infectious waste treatment facility shall procure a license to operate the facility for that year from the board of health of the health district in which the facility is located or, if the health district is not on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code, from the director. The application for such a license shall be submitted to the board of health or to the director, as appropriate, on or before the last day of September of the year preceding that for which the license is sought. In addition to the application fee prescribed in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, a person who submits an application after that date shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the application fee for each week that the application is late. Late payment fees accompanying an application submitted to the board of health shall be credited to the special infectious waste fund of the health district created in division (C) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code, and late payment fees accompanying an application submitted to the director shall be credited to the general revenue fund. A person who has received a license, upon sale or disposition of an infectious waste treatment facility and upon consent of the board of health and the director, may have the license transferred to another person. The board of health or the director may include such terms and conditions in a license or revision to a license as are appropriate to ensure compliance with the infectious waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under them.
(b) Each person proposing to open a new infectious waste treatment facility or to modify an existing infectious waste treatment facility shall submit an application for a permit with accompanying detail plans and specifications to the environmental protection agency for required approval under the rules adopted by the director pursuant to section 3734.021 of the Revised Code two hundred seventy days before proposed operation of the facility and concurrently shall make application for a license with the board of health of the health district in which the facility is or is proposed to be located. Not later than ninety days after receiving a completed application under division (B)(2)(b) of this section for a permit to open a new infectious waste treatment facility or modify an existing infectious waste treatment facility to expand its treatment capacity, or receiving a completed application under division (A)(2)(a) of this section for a permit to open a new solid waste incineration facility, or modify an existing solid waste incineration facility to also treat infectious wastes or to increase its infectious waste treatment capacity, that pertains to a facility for which a notation authorizing infectious waste treatment is included or proposed to be included in the solid waste incineration facility's license pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section, the director shall hold a public hearing on the application within the county in which the new or modified infectious waste or solid waste facility is or is proposed to be located or within a contiguous county. Not less than thirty days before holding the public hearing on the application, the director shall publish notice of the hearing in each newspaper that has general circulation and that is published in the county in which the facility is or is proposed to be located. If there is no newspaper that has general circulation and that is published in the county, the director shall publish the notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. The notice shall contain the date, time, and location of the public hearing and a general description of the proposed new or modified facility. At the public hearing, any person may submit written or oral comments on or objections to the approval or disapproval of the application. The applicant, or a representative of the applicant who has knowledge of the location, construction, and operation of the facility, shall attend the public hearing to respond to comments or questions concerning the facility directed to the applicant or representative by the officer or employee of the environmental protection agency presiding at the hearing.
(c) Each application for a permit under division (B)(2)(b) of this section shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of four hundred dollars that shall be credited to the general revenue fund. Each application for an annual license under division (B)(2)(a) of this section shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred dollars. If the application for an annual license is submitted to a board of health on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code, the application fee shall be credited to the special infectious waste fund of the health district created in division (C) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code. If the application for an annual license is submitted to the director, the application fee shall be credited to the general revenue fund. If a permit or license is issued, the amount of the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the permit fee due under division (Q) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code or the amount of the license fee due under division (C) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code.
(d) The owner or operator of any infectious waste treatment facility that commenced operation on or before July 1, 1968, shall submit to the director an application for a permit with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and its method of operation for approval under rules adopted under section 3734.021 of the Revised Code in accordance with the following schedule:
(i) Not later than December 24, 1988, if the facility is located in Delaware, Greene, Guernsey, Hamilton, Madison, Mahoning, Ottawa, or Vinton county;
(ii) Not later than March 24, 1989, if the facility is located in Champaign, Clinton, Columbiana, Huron, Paulding, Stark, or Washington county, or is located in the city of Brooklyn, Cuyahoga Heights, or Parma in Cuyahoga county;
(iii) Not later than June 24, 1989, if the facility is located in Adams, Auglaize, Coshocton, Darke, Harrison, Lorain, Lucas, or Summit county or is located in Cuyahoga county outside the cities of Brooklyn, Cuyahoga Heights, and Parma;
(iv) Not later than September 24, 1989, if the facility is located in Butler, Carroll, Erie, Lake, Portage, Putnam, or Ross county;
(v) Not later than December 24, 1989, if the facility is located in a county not listed in divisions (B)(2)(d)(i) to (iv) of this section.
The owner or operator of an infectious waste treatment facility required to submit a permit application under division (B)(2)(d) of this section is not required to pay any permit application fee under division (B)(2)(c) of this section, or permit fee under division (Q) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code, with respect thereto unless the owner or operator also proposes to modify the facility.
(e) The director may issue an order in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code to the owner or operator of an infectious waste treatment facility requiring the person to submit to the director updated engineering detail plans, specifications, and information regarding the facility and its method of operation for approval under rules adopted under section 3734.021 of the Revised Code if, in the director's judgment, conditions at the facility constitute a substantial threat to public health or safety or are causing or contributing to or threatening to cause or contribute to air or water pollution or soil contamination. Any person who receives such an order shall submit the updated engineering detail plans, specifications, and information to the director within one hundred eighty days after the effective date of the order.
(f) The director shall act upon an application submitted under division (B)(2)(d) of this section and any updated engineering plans, specifications, and information submitted under division (B)(2)(e) of this section within one hundred eighty days after receiving them. If the director denies any such permit application or disapproves any such updated engineering plans, specifications, and information, the director shall include in the order denying the application or disapproving the plans the requirement that the owner or operator cease accepting infectious wastes for treatment at the facility.
(3) Division (B) of this section does not apply to an infectious waste treatment facility that meets any of the following conditions:
(a) Is owned or operated by the generator of the wastes and exclusively treats, by methods, techniques, and practices established by rules adopted under division (C)(1) or (3) of section 3734.021 of the Revised Code, wastes that are generated at any premises owned or operated by that generator regardless of whether the wastes are generated on the same premises where the generator's treatment facility is located or, if the generator is a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, infectious wastes that are described in division (A)(1)(g), (h), or (i) of section 3734.021 of the Revised Code;
(b) Holds a license or renewal of a license to operate a crematory facility issued under Chapter 4717. and a permit issued under Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code;
(c) Treats or disposes of dead animals or parts thereof, or the blood of animals, and is subject to any of the following:
(i) Inspection under the "Federal Meat Inspection Act," 81 Stat. 584 (1967), 21 U.S.C.A. 603, as amended;
(ii) Chapter 918. of the Revised Code;
(iii) Chapter 953. of the Revised Code.
Nothing in division (B) of this section requires a facility that holds a license issued under division (A) of this section as a solid waste facility and that also treats infectious wastes by the same method, technique, or process to obtain a license under division (B) of this section as an infectious waste treatment facility. However, the solid waste facility license for the facility shall include the notation that the facility also treats infectious wastes.
On and after the effective date of the amendments to the rules adopted under division (C)(2) of section 3734.021 of the Revised Code that are required by Section 6 of Substitute House Bill No. 98 of the 120th General Assembly, the director shall not issue a permit to open a new solid waste incineration facility unless the proposed facility complies with the requirements for the location of new infectious waste incineration facilities established in the required amendments to those rules.
(C) Except for a facility or activity described in division (E)(3) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, a person who proposes to establish or operate a hazardous waste facility shall submit an a complete application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit and accompanying detail plans, specifications, and such information as the director may require to the environmental protection agency, except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, at least one hundred eighty days before the proposed beginning of operation of the facility. The applicant shall notify by certified mail the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, township, and county in which the facility is proposed to be located of the submission of the application within ten days after the submission or at such earlier time as the director may establish by rule. If the application is for a proposed new hazardous waste disposal or thermal treatment facility, the applicant also shall give actual notice of the general design and purpose of the facility to the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, township, and county in which the facility is proposed to be located at least ninety days before the permit application is submitted to the environmental protection agency.
In accordance with rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, prior to the submission of a complete application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, the applicant shall hold at least one meeting in the township or municipal corporation in which the facility is proposed to be located, whichever is geographically closer to the proposed location of the facility. The meeting shall be open to the public and shall be held to inform the community of the proposed hazardous waste management activities and to solicit questions from the community concerning the activities.
(D)(1) There is hereby created the hazardous waste facility board, composed of the director of environmental protection who shall serve as chairperson, the director of natural resources, and the chairperson of the Ohio water development authority, or their respective designees, and one chemical engineer and one geologist who each shall be employed by a state university as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code. The chemical engineer and geologist each shall be appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, for a term of two years. The chemical engineer and geologist each shall receive as compensation five thousand dollars per year, plus expenses necessarily incurred in the performance of their duties.
The board shall not issue any final order without the consent of at least three members.
(2) The hazardous waste facility board shall do both of the following:
(a) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt rules governing procedure to be followed in hearings before the board;
(b) Except as provided in section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, approve or disapprove applications for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit for new facilities and applications for modifications to existing permits for which the board has jurisdiction as provided in division (I)(3) of this section.
(3) Except as provided in section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, upon receipt of the completed application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit and a preliminary determination by the staff of the environmental protection agency that the application appears to comply with agency rules and to meet the performance standards set forth in divisions (D), (I), and (J) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, the director shall transmit the application to the board, which shall do all of the following:
(a) Promptly fix a date for a public hearing on the application, not fewer than sixty nor more than ninety days after receipt of the completed application. At the public hearing, any person may submit written or oral comments or objections to the approval or disapproval of the application. A representative of the applicant who has knowledge of the location, construction, operation, closure, and post-closure care, if applicable, of the facility shall attend the public hearing in order to respond to comments or questions concerning the facility directed to the representative by the presiding officer.
(b) Give public notice of the date of the public hearing and a summary of the application in a newspaper having general circulation in the county in which the facility is proposed to be located. The notice shall contain, at a minimum, the date, time, and location of the public hearing and shall include the location and street address of, or the nearest intersection to, the proposed facility, a description of the proposed facility, and the location where copies of the application, a short statement by the applicant of the anticipated environmental impact of the facility, and a map of the facility are available for inspection.
(c) Promptly fix a date for an adjudication hearing, not fewer than ninety nor more than one hundred twenty days after receipt of the completed application, at which hearing the board shall hear and decide all disputed issues between the parties respecting the approval or disapproval of the application.
(4) The parties to any adjudication hearing before the board upon a completed application shall be the following:
(a) The applicant;
(b) The staff of the environmental protection agency;
(c) The board of county commissioners of the county, the board of township trustees of the township, and the chief executive officer of the municipal corporation in which the facility is proposed to be located;
(d) Any other person who would be aggrieved or adversely affected by the proposed facility and who files a petition to intervene in the adjudication hearing not later than thirty days after the date of publication of the notice required in division (D)(3)(b) of this section if the petition is granted by the board for good cause shown. The board may allow intervention by other aggrieved or adversely affected persons up to fifteen days prior to the date of the adjudication hearing for good cause shown when the intervention would not be unduly burdensome to or cause a delay in the permitting process.
(5) The hazardous waste facility board shall conduct any adjudication hearing upon disputed issues in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and the rules of the board governing the procedure of such hearings. Each party may call and examine witnesses and submit other evidence respecting the disputed issues presented by an application. A written record shall be made of the hearing and of all testimony and evidence submitted to the board upon receipt of a complete application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (C) of this section, the director shall consider the application and accompanying information to determine whether the application complies with agency rules and the requirements of division (D)(2) of this section. After making a determination, the director shall issue either a draft permit or a notice of intent to deny the permit. The director, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code or with rules adopted to implement Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code, shall provide public notice of the application and the draft permit or the notice of intent to deny the permit, provide an opportunity for public comments, and, if significant interest is shown, schedule a public meeting in the county in which the facility is proposed to be located and give public notice of the date, time, and location of the public meeting in a newspaper of general circulation in that county.
(6)(2) The board director shall not approve an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit or an application for a modification under division (I)(3) of this section unless it the director finds and determines as follows:
(a) The nature and volume of the waste to be treated, stored, or disposed of at the facility;
(b) That the facility complies with the director's hazardous waste standards adopted pursuant to section 3734.12 of the Revised Code;
(c) That the facility represents the minimum adverse environmental impact, considering the state of available technology and the nature and economics of various alternatives, and other pertinent considerations;
(d) That the facility represents the minimum risk of all of the following:
(i) Contamination of ground and surface waters;
(ii) Fires or explosions from treatment, storage, or disposal methods;
(iii) Accident (ii) Release of hazardous waste during transportation of hazardous waste to or from the facility;
(iv) Impact (iii) Adverse impact on the public health and safety;
(v) Air pollution;
(vi) Soil contamination.
(e) That the facility will comply with this chapter and Chapters 3704., 3734., and 6111. of the Revised Code and all rules and standards adopted under those chapters them;
(f) That if the owner of the facility, the operator of the facility, or any other person in a position with the facility from which the person may influence the installation and operation of the facility has been involved in any prior activity involving transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste, that person has a history of compliance with this chapter and Chapters 3704., 3734., and 6111. of the Revised Code and all rules and standards adopted under those chapters them, the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, and all regulations adopted under it, and similar laws and rules of other states if any such prior operation was located in another state that demonstrates sufficient reliability, expertise, and competency to operate a hazardous waste facility under the applicable provisions of this chapter and Chapters 3704., 3734., and 6111. of the Revised Code, the applicable rules and standards adopted under those chapters them, and terms and conditions of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, given the potential for harm to the public health and safety and the environment that could result from the irresponsible operation of the facility;. For off-site facilities, as defined in section 3734.41 of the Revised Code, the director may use the investigative reports of the attorney general prepared pursuant to section 3734.42 of the Revised Code as a basis for making a finding and determination under division (D)(2)(f) of this section.
(g) That the active areas within a new hazardous waste facility where acute hazardous waste as listed in 40 C.F.R. 261.33 (e), as amended, or organic waste that is toxic and is listed under 40 C.F.R. 261, as amended, is being stored, treated, or disposed of and where the aggregate of the storage design capacity and the disposal design capacity of all hazardous waste in those areas is greater than two hundred fifty thousand gallons, are not located or operated within any of the following:
(i) Two thousand feet of any residence, school, hospital, jail, or prison;
(ii) Any naturally occurring wetland;
(iii) Any flood hazard area if the applicant cannot show that the facility will be designed, constructed, operated, and maintained to prevent washout by a one-hundred-year flood or that procedures will be in effect to remove the waste before flood waters can reach it.
Division (D)(6)(2)(g) of this section does not apply to the facility of any applicant who demonstrates to the board director that the limitations specified in that division are not necessary because of the nature or volume of the waste and the manner of management applied, the facility will impose no substantial danger to the health and safety of persons occupying the structures listed in division (D)(6)(2)(g)(i) of this section, and the facility is to be located or operated in an area where the proposed hazardous waste activities will not be incompatible with existing land uses in the area.
(h) That the facility will not be located within the boundaries of a state park established or dedicated under Chapter 1541. of the Revised Code, a state park purchase area established under section 1541.02 of the Revised Code, any unit of the national park system, or any property that lies within the boundaries of a national park or recreation area, but that has not been acquired or is not administered by the secretary of the United States department of the interior, located in this state, or any candidate area located in this state identified for potential inclusion in the national park system in the edition of the "national park system plan" submitted under paragraph (b) of section 8 of "The Act of August 18, 1970," 84 Stat. 825, 16 U.S.C.A. 1a-5, as amended, current at the time of filing of the application for the permit, unless the facility will be used exclusively for the storage of hazardous waste generated within the park or recreation area in conjunction with the operation of the park or recreation area. Division (D)(6)(2)(h) of this section does not apply to the facility of any applicant for modification of a permit unless the modification application proposes to increase the land area included in the facility or to increase the quantity of hazardous waste that will be treated, stored, or disposed of at the facility.
In rendering a decision upon an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, the board shall issue a written order and opinion, which shall include the specific findings of fact and conclusions of law that support the board's approval or disapproval of the application.
(3) Not later than one hundred eighty days after the end of the public comment period, the director, without prior hearing, shall issue or deny the permit in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. If the board director approves an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, as a part of its written order, it the director shall issue the permit, upon such terms and conditions as the board director finds are necessary to ensure the construction and operation of the hazardous waste facility in accordance with the standards of this section.
(7) Any party adversely affected by an order of the hazardous waste facility board may appeal the order and decision of the board to the court of appeals of Franklin county. An appellant shall file with the board a notice of appeal, which shall designate the order appealed from. A copy of the notice also shall be filed by the appellant with the court, and a copy shall be sent by certified mail to each party to the adjudication hearing before the board. Such notices shall be filed and mailed within thirty days after the date upon which the appellant received notice from the board by certified mail of the making of the order appealed from. No appeal bond shall be required to make an appeal effective.
The filing of a notice of appeal shall not operate automatically as a suspension of the order of the board. If it appears to the court that an unjust hardship to the appellant will result from the execution of the board's order pending determination of the appeal, the court may grant a suspension of the order and fix its terms.
Within twenty days after receipt of the notice of appeal, the board shall prepare and file in the court the complete record of proceedings out of which the appeal arises, including any transcript of the testimony and any other evidence that has been submitted before the board. The expense of preparing and transcribing the record shall be taxed as a part of the costs of the appeal. The appellant, other than the state or a political subdivision, an agency of either, or any officer of the appellant acting in the officer's representative capacity, shall provide security for costs satisfactory to the court considering the respective interests of the parties and the public interest. Upon demand by a party, the board shall furnish, at the cost of the party requesting it, a copy of the record. If the complete record is not filed within the time provided for in this section, any party may apply to the court to have the case docketed, and the court shall order the record filed.
In hearing the appeal, the court is confined to the record as certified to it by the board. The court may grant a request for the admission of additional evidence when satisfied that the additional evidence is newly discovered and could not with reasonable diligence have been ascertained prior to the hearing before the board.
The court shall affirm the order complained of in the appeal if it finds, upon consideration of the entire record and such additional evidence as the court has admitted, that the order is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is in accordance with law. In the absence of such findings, it shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order or make such other ruling as is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is in accordance with law. The judgment of the court shall be final and conclusive unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may be taken by any party to the appeal pursuant to the Rules of Practice of the Supreme Court and, to the extent not in conflict with those rules, Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code.
(E)(1) Upon receipt of a completed application, the board shall issue a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit for a hazardous waste facility subject to the requirements of divisions (D)(6) and (7) of this section and all applicable federal regulations if the facility for which the permit is requested satisfies all of the following:
(a) Was in operation immediately prior to October 9, 1980;
(b) Was in substantial compliance with applicable statutes and rules in effect immediately prior to October 9, 1980, as determined by the director;
(c) Demonstrates to the board that its operations after October 9, 1980, comply with applicable performance standards adopted by the director pursuant to division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code;
(d) Submits a completed application for a permit under division (C) of this section within six months after October 9, 1980.
The board shall act on the application within twelve months after October 9, 1980.
(2) A hazardous waste facility that was in operation immediately prior to October 9, 1980, may continue to operate after that date if it does all of the following:
(a) Complies with performance standards adopted by the director pursuant to division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code;
(b) Submits a completed application for a hazardous waste installation and operation permit under division (C) of this section within six months after October 9, 1980;
(c) Obtains the permit under division (D) of this section within twelve months after October 9, 1980.
(3) No political subdivision of this state shall require any additional zoning or other approval, consent, permit, certificate, or condition for the construction or operation of a hazardous waste facility authorized by a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit issued pursuant to this chapter, nor shall any political subdivision adopt or enforce any law, ordinance, or rule that in any way alters, impairs, or limits the authority granted in the permit.
(4) After the issuance of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit by the board, each hazardous waste facility shall be subject to the rules and supervision of the director during the period of its operation, closure, and post-closure care, if applicable.
(F) Upon approval of the board in accordance with divisions (D) and (E) of this section, the board The director may issue a single hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit to a person who operates two or more adjoining facilities where hazardous waste is stored, treated, or disposed of if the application includes detail plans, specifications, and information on all facilities. For the purposes of this section, "adjoining" means sharing a common boundary, separated only by a public road, or in such proximity that the director determines that the issuance of a single permit will not create a hazard to the public health or safety or the environment.
(G) No person shall falsify or fail to keep or submit any plans, specifications, data, reports, records, manifests, or other information required to be kept or submitted to the director or to the hazardous waste facility board by this chapter or the rules adopted under it.
(H)(1) Each person who holds an installation and operation permit issued under this section and who wishes to obtain a permit renewal shall submit a completed application for an installation and operation permit renewal and any necessary accompanying general plans, detail plans, specifications, and such information as the director may require to the director no later than one hundred eighty days prior to the expiration date of the existing permit or upon a later date prior to the expiration of the existing permit if the permittee can demonstrate good cause for the late submittal. The director shall consider the application and accompanying information, inspection reports of the facility, results of performance tests, a report regarding the facility's compliance or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of its permit and rules adopted by the director under this chapter, and such other information as is relevant to the operation of the facility and shall issue a draft renewal permit or a notice of intent to deny the renewal permit. The director, in accordance with rules adopted under this section or with rules adopted to implement Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code, shall give public notice of the application and draft renewal permit or notice of intent to deny the renewal permit, provide for the opportunity for public comments within a specified time period, schedule a public meeting in the county in which the facility is located if significant interest is shown, and give public notice of the public meeting.
(2) Within sixty days after the public meeting or close of the public comment period, the director, without prior hearing, shall issue or deny the renewal permit in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. The director shall not issue a renewal permit unless the director determines that the facility under the existing permit has a history of compliance with this chapter, rules adopted under it, the existing permit, or orders entered to enforce such requirements that demonstrates sufficient reliability, expertise, and competency to operate the facility henceforth under this chapter, rules adopted under it, and the renewal permit. If the director approves an application for a renewal permit, the director shall issue the permit subject to the payment of the annual permit fee required under division (E) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and upon such terms and conditions as the director finds are reasonable to ensure that continued operation, maintenance, closure, and post-closure care of the hazardous waste facility are in accordance with the rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.
(3) An installation and operation permit renewal application submitted to the director that also contains or would constitute an application for a modification shall be acted upon by the director in accordance with division (I) of this section in the same manner as an application for a modification. In approving or disapproving the renewal portion of a permit renewal application containing an application for a modification, the director shall apply the criteria established under division (H)(2) of this section.
(4) An application for renewal or modification of a permit that does not contain an application for a modification as described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section shall not be subject to division (D)(2) of this section.
(I)(1) As used in this section, "modification" means a change or alteration to a hazardous waste facility or its operations that is inconsistent with or not authorized by its existing permit or authorization to operate. Modifications shall be classified as Class 1, 2, or 3 modifications in accordance with rules adopted under division (K) of this section. Modifications classified as Class 3 modifications, in accordance with rules adopted under that division, shall be further classified by the director as either Class 3 modifications that are to be approved or disapproved by the hazardous waste facility board as described in director under divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section or as Class 3 modifications that are to be approved or disapproved by the director under division (I)(5) of this section. Not later than thirty days after receiving a request for a modification under division (I)(4) of this section that is not listed in Appendix I to 40 C.F.R. 270.42 or in rules adopted under division (K) of this section, the director shall classify the modification and shall notify the owner or operator of the facility requesting the modification of the classification. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, any modification that involves the transfer of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit to a new owner or operator shall be classified as a Class 3 modification.
(2) Except as provided in section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit may be modified at the request of the director or upon the written request of the permittee only if any of the following applies:
(a) The permittee desires to accomplish alterations, additions, or deletions to the permitted facility or to undertake alterations, additions, deletions, or activities that are inconsistent with or not authorized by the existing permit;
(b) New information or data justify permit conditions in addition to or different from those in the existing permit;
(c) The standards, criteria, or rules upon which the existing permit is based have been changed by new, amended, or rescinded standards, criteria, or rules, or by judicial decision after the existing permit was issued, and the change justifies permit conditions in addition to or different from those in the existing permit;
(d) The permittee proposes to transfer the permit to another person.
(3) The director has jurisdiction to shall approve or disapprove applications an application for Class 1 modifications, Class 2 modifications, and Class 3 modifications not otherwise described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section. The hazardous waste facility board has jurisdiction to approve or disapprove applications for any a modification in accordance with division (D)(2) of this section and rules adopted under division (K) of this section for all of the following categories of Class 3 modifications:
(a) Authority to conduct treatment, storage, or disposal at a site, location, or tract of land that has not been authorized for the proposed category of treatment, storage, or disposal activity by the facility's permit;
(b) Modification or addition of a hazardous waste management unit, as defined in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, that results in an increase in a facility's storage capacity of more than twenty-five per cent over the capacity authorized by the facility's permit, an increase in a facility's treatment rate of more than twenty-five per cent over the rate so authorized, or an increase in a facility's disposal capacity over the capacity so authorized. The authorized disposal capacity for a facility shall be calculated from the approved design plans for the disposal units at that facility. In no case during a five-year period shall a facility's storage capacity or treatment rate be modified to increase by more than twenty-five per cent in the aggregate without board the director's approval in accordance with division (D)(2) of this section. Notwithstanding any provision of division (I) of this section to the contrary, a request for modification of a facility's annual total waste receipt limit shall be classified and approved or disapproved by the director under division (I)(5) of this section.
(c) Authority to add any of the following categories of regulated activities not previously authorized at a facility by the facility's permit: storage at a facility not previously authorized to store hazardous waste, treatment at a facility not previously authorized to treat hazardous waste, or disposal at a facility not previously authorized to dispose of hazardous waste; or authority to add a category of hazardous waste management unit not previously authorized at the facility by the facility's permit. Notwithstanding any provision of division (I) of this section to the contrary, a request for authority to add or to modify an activity or a hazardous waste management unit for the purposes of performing a corrective action shall be classified and approved or disapproved by the director under division (I)(5) of this section.
(d) Authority to treat, store, or dispose of waste types listed or characterized as reactive or explosive, in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, or any acute hazardous waste listed in 40 C.F.R. 261.33(e), as amended, at a facility not previously authorized to treat, store, or dispose of those types of wastes by the facility's permit unless the requested authority is limited to wastes that no longer exhibit characteristics meeting the criteria for listing or characterization as reactive or explosive wastes, or for listing as acute hazardous waste, but still are required to carry those waste codes as established in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code because of the requirements established in 40 C.F.R. 261(a) and (e), as amended, that is, the "mixture," "derived-from," or "contained-in" regulations.
(4) A written request for a modification from the permittee shall be submitted to the director and shall contain such information as is necessary to support the request. The director shall transmit to the board requests for Class 3 modifications described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section within two hundred forty days after receiving the requests. Requests for modifications shall be acted upon by the director or the board, as appropriate, in accordance with this section and rules adopted under it.
(5) Class 1 modification applications that require prior approval of the director, as determined in accordance with rules adopted under division (K) of this section, Class 2 modification applications, and Class 3 modification applications that are not described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section shall be approved or disapproved by the director in accordance with rules adopted under division (K) of this section. The board of county commissioners of the county, the board of township trustees of the township, and the city manager or mayor of the municipal corporation in which a hazardous waste facility is located shall receive notification of any application for a modification for that facility and shall be considered as interested persons with respect to the director's consideration of the application.
For those modification applications for a transfer of a permit to a new owner or operator of a facility, the director also shall determine that, if the transferee owner or operator has been involved in any prior activity involving the transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste, the transferee owner or operator has a history of compliance with this chapter and Chapters 3704. and 6111. of the Revised Code and all rules and standards adopted under them, the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, and all regulations adopted under it, and similar laws and rules of another state if the transferee owner or operator owns or operates a facility in that state, that demonstrates sufficient reliability, expertise, and competency to operate a hazardous waste facility under this chapter and Chapters 3704. and 6111. of the Revised Code, all rules and standards adopted under them, and terms and conditions of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, given the potential for harm to the public health and safety and the environment that could result from the irresponsible operation of the facility. A permit may be transferred to a new owner or operator only pursuant to a Class 3 permit modification.
As used in division (I)(5) of this section:
(a) "Owner" means the person who owns a majority or controlling interest in a facility.
(b) "Operator" means the person who is responsible for the overall operation of a facility.
The director shall approve or disapprove an application for a Class 1 modification that requires the director's approval within sixty days after receiving the request for modification. The director shall approve or disapprove an application for a Class 2 modification within three hundred days after receiving the request for modification. The director shall approve or disapprove an application for a Class 3 modification that is not described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section within three hundred sixty-five days after receiving the request for modification.
(6) The approval or disapproval by the director of a Class 1 modification application is not a final action that is appealable under Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. The approval or disapproval by the director of a Class 2 modification or a Class 3 modification that is not described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section is a final action that is appealable under that chapter. In approving or disapproving a request for a modification, the director shall consider all comments pertaining to the request that are received during the public comment period and the public meetings. The administrative record for appeal of a final action by the director in approving or disapproving a request for a modification shall include all comments received during the public comment period relating to the request for modification, written materials submitted at the public meetings relating to the request, and any other documents related to the director's action.
(7) The hazardous waste facility board shall approve or disapprove an application for a Class 3 modification transmitted to it under division (I)(4) of this section, or that portion of a permit renewal application that constitutes a Class 3 modification application so transmitted, of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit in accordance with division (D) of this section. No other request for a modification shall be subject to division (D)(6) of this section. No aspect of a permitted facility or its operations that is not being modified as described in division (I)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section shall be subject to review by the board under division (D) of this section.
(8) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a change or alteration to a hazardous waste facility described in division (E)(3)(a) or (b) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, or its operations, is a modification for the purposes of this section. An application for a modification at such a facility shall be submitted, classified, and approved or disapproved in accordance with divisions (I)(1) to (7)(6) of this section in the same manner as a modification to a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit.
(J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, an owner or operator of a hazardous waste facility that is operating in accordance with a permit by rule under rules adopted by the director under division (E)(3)(b) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code shall submit either a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit application for the facility or a modification application, whichever is required under division (J)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, within one hundred eighty days after the director has requested the application or upon a later date if the owner or operator demonstrates to the director good cause for the late submittal.
(a) If the owner or operator does not have a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit for any hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal activities at the facility, the owner or operator shall submit an application for such a permit to the director for the activities authorized by the permit by rule. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the director shall approve or disapprove the application for the permit in accordance with the procedures governing the approval or disapproval of permit renewals under division (H) of this section.
(b) If the owner or operator has a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit for hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal activities at the facility other than those authorized by the permit by rule, the owner or operator shall submit to the director a request for modification in accordance with division (I) of this section. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the director shall approve or disapprove the modification application in accordance with rules adopted under division (K)(I)(5) of this section.
(2) The owner or operator of a boiler or industrial furnace that is conducting thermal treatment activities in accordance with a permit by rule under rules adopted by the director under division (E)(3)(b) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code shall submit a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit application if the owner or operator does not have such a permit for any hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal activities at the facility or, if the owner or operator has such a permit for hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal activities at the facility other than thermal treatment activities authorized by the permit by rule, a modification application to add those activities authorized by the permit by rule, whichever is applicable, within one hundred eighty days after the director has requested the submission of the application or upon a later date if the owner or operator demonstrates to the director good cause for the late submittal. The application shall be accompanied by information necessary to support the request. The hazardous waste facility board director shall approve or disapprove the an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit in accordance with division (D) of this section and approve or disapprove an application for a modification in accordance with division (I)(3) of this section, except that the board director shall not disapprove an application for the thermal treatment activities on the basis of the criteria set forth in division (D)(6)(2)(g) or (h) of this section.
(3) As used in division (J) of this section:
(a) "Modification application" means a request for a modification submitted in accordance with division (I) of this section.
(b) "Thermal treatment," "boiler," and "industrial furnace" have the same meanings as in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.
(K) The director shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code in order to implement divisions (H) and (I) of this section. Except when in actual conflict with this section, rules governing the classification of and procedures for the modification of hazardous waste facility installation and operation permits shall be substantively and procedurally identical to the regulations governing hazardous waste facility permitting and permit modifications adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended.
Sec. 3734.12.  The director of environmental protection shall adopt and may amend, suspend, and rescind rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, which shall be consistent with and equivalent to the regulations adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, except for rules adopted under divisions (D) and (F) of this section governing solid waste facilities and except as otherwise provided in this chapter, doing all of the following:
(A) Adopting the criteria and procedures established under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, for identifying hazardous waste. The director shall prepare, revise when appropriate, and publish a list of substances or categories of substances identified to be hazardous using the criteria specified in 40 C.F.R. 261, as amended, which shall be composed of at least those substances identified as hazardous pursuant to section 3001(B) of that act. The director shall not list any waste that the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency delisted or excluded by an amendment to the federal regulations, any waste that the administrator declined to list by publishing a denial of a rulemaking petition or by withdrawal of a proposed listing in the United States federal register after May 18, 1980, or any waste oil or polychlorinated biphenyl not listed by the administrator.
(B) Establishing standards for generators of hazardous waste necessary to protect human health or safety or the environment in accordance with this chapter, including, but not limited to, requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Record-keeping practices that accurately identify the quantities of hazardous waste generated, the constituents that are significant in quantity or in potential harm to human health or safety or the environment, and the disposition of the waste;
(2) Labeling of containers used for storage, transportation, or disposal of hazardous waste to identify the waste accurately;
(3) Use of appropriate containers for hazardous waste;
(4) Providing information on the general chemical composition of hazardous waste to persons transporting, treating, storing, or disposing of the waste;
(5) A manifest system requiring a manifest consistent with that prescribed under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2795, 42 U.S.C.A. 6901, as amended, requiring a manifest for any hazardous waste transported off the premises where generated and assuring that all hazardous waste that is transported off the premises where generated is designated for treatment, storage, or disposal in facilities for which a permit has been issued or in the other facilities specified in division (F) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;
(6) Submission of such reports to the director as the director determines necessary;
(7) Establishment of quality control and testing procedures that ensure compliance with the rules adopted under this section;
(8) Obtainment of a United States environmental protection agency identification number.
(C) Establishing standards for transporters of hazardous waste necessary to protect human health or safety or the environment in accordance with this chapter, including, but not limited to, requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Record-keeping concerning hazardous waste transported, including source and delivery points;
(2) Submission of such reports to the director as the director determines necessary;
(3) Transportation of only properly labeled waste;
(4) Compliance with the manifest system required by division (B) of this section;
(5) Transportation of hazardous waste only to the treatment, storage, or disposal facility that the shipper designates on the manifest to be a facility holding a permit or another facility specified in division (F) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;
(6) Contingency plans to minimize unanticipated damage from transportation of hazardous waste;
(7) Financial responsibility, including, but not limited to, provisions requiring a financial mechanism to cover the costs of spill cleanup and liability for sudden accidental occurrences that result in damage to persons, property, or the environment;
(8) Obtainment of a United States environmental protection agency identification number.
In the case of any hazardous waste that is subject to the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 (1975), 49 U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended, the rules shall be consistent with that act and regulations adopted under it.
(D) Establishing performance standards for owners and operators of hazardous waste facilities and owners and operators of solid waste facilities, necessary to protect human health or safety or the environment in accordance with this chapter, including, but not limited to, requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Maintaining records of all hazardous waste that is treated, stored, or disposed of and of the manner in which the waste was treated, stored, or disposed of or records of all solid wastes transferred or disposed of and of the manner in which the wastes were disposed of;
(2) Submission of such reports to the director as the director determines necessary;
(3) Reporting, monitoring, inspection, and, except with respect to solid waste facilities, compliance with the manifest system referred to in division (B) of this section;
(4) Treatment, storage, or disposal of all hazardous waste received by methods, techniques, and practices approved by the director and disposal or transfer of all solid wastes received by methods, techniques, and practices approved by the director;
(5) Location, design, and construction of hazardous waste facilities and location, design, and construction of solid waste facilities;
(6) Contingency plans for effective action to minimize unanticipated damage from treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste and the disposal or transfer of solid wastes;
(7) Ownership, continuity of operation, training for personnel, and financial responsibility, including the filing of closure and post-closure financial assurance, if applicable. No private entity shall be precluded by reason of these requirements from the ownership or operation of facilities providing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal services if the entity can provide assurances of financial responsibility and continuity of operation consistent with the degree and duration of risks associated with the treatment, storage, or disposal of specified hazardous waste.
(8) Closure and post-closure care of a hazardous waste facility where hazardous waste will no longer be treated, stored, or disposed of and of a solid waste facility where solid wastes will no longer be disposed of or transferred;
(9) Establishment of quality control and testing procedures that ensure compliance with the rules adopted under this section;
(10) Obtainment of a United States environmental protection agency identification number for each hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility;
(11) Trial burns and land treatment demonstrations.
The rules adopted under divisions (D) and (F) of this section pertaining to solid waste facilities do not apply to scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery facilities. Those facilities are subject to and governed by rules adopted under sections 3734.70 to 3734.73 of the Revised Code, as applicable.
(E) Governing the issuance, modification, revocation, suspension, withdrawal, and denial of installation and operation permits, draft permits, and transportation certificates of registration;
(F) Specifying information required to be included in applications for hazardous waste facility installation and operation permits and solid waste permits, including, but not limited to, detail plans, specifications, and information respecting all of the following:
(1) The composition, quantities, and concentrations of hazardous waste and solid wastes to be stored, treated, transported, or disposed of and such other information as the director may require regarding the method of operation;
(2) The facility to which the waste will be transported or where it will be stored, treated, or disposed of;
(3) The closure and post-closure care of a facility where hazardous waste will no longer be treated, stored, or disposed of and of a solid waste facility where solid wastes will no longer be disposed of or transferred.
(G) Establishing procedures ensuring that all information entitled to protection as trade secrets disclosed to the director or the director's authorized representative is not disclosed without the consent of the owner, except that such information may be disclosed, upon request, to authorized representatives of the United States environmental protection agency, or as required by law. As used in this section, "trade secrets" means any formula, plan, pattern, process, tool, mechanism, compound, procedure, production date, or compilation of information that is not patented, that is known only to certain individuals within a commercial concern who are using it to fabricate, produce, or compound an article, trade, or service having commercial value, and that gives its user an opportunity to obtain a business advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.
(H) Prohibiting the disposal of specified hazardous wastes in this state if the director has determined both of the following:
(1) The potential impacts on human health or safety or the environment are such that disposal of those wastes should not be allowed;.
(2) A technically feasible and environmentally sound alternative is reasonably available, either within or outside this state, for processing, recycling, fixation of, neutralization of, or other treatment of those wastes. Such reasonable availability shall not be determined without a consideration of the costs to the generator of implementing the alternatives.
The director shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules to specify hazardous wastes that shall not be disposed of in accordance with this division. Nothing in this division, either prior to or after adoption of those rules, shall preclude the director or the hazardous waste facility board created in section 3734.05 of the Revised Code from prohibiting the disposal of specified hazardous wastes at particular facilities under the terms or conditions of a permit or preclude the director from prohibiting that disposal by order.
(I)(1)(a) Governing the following that may be more stringent than the regulations adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, when the director determines that such more stringent rules are reasonable in order to protect human health or safety or the environment:
(i) Specific wastes that the director determines, because of their physical, chemical, or biological characteristics, are so extremely hazardous that the storage, treatment, or disposal of the wastes in compliance with those regulations would present an imminent danger to human health or safety or the environment;
(ii) The use of only properly designed, operated, and approved transfer facilities;
(iii) Preventing illegitimate activities relating to the reuse, recycling, or reclaiming of hazardous waste, including record-keeping, reporting, and manifest requirements.
(b) In adopting such more stringent rules, the director shall give consideration to and base the rules on evidence concerning factors including, but not limited to, the following insofar as pertinent:
(i) Geography of the state;
(ii) Geology of the state;
(iii) Hydrogeology of the state;
(iv) Climate of the state;
(v) Engineering and technical feasibility;
(vi) Availability of alternative technologies or methods of storage, treatment, or disposal.
(2) The director may require from generators and transporters of hazardous waste and from owners or operators of treatment, storage, or disposal facilities, the submission of reports in addition to those required under regulations adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, to the extent that such reports contain information that the generator, transporter, or facility owner or operator is required to obtain in order to comply with the regulations adopted by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, or to the extent that such reports are required by the director to meet the requirements of division (B)(7), (D)(9), or (H) of this section or section 3734.121 of the Revised Code.
(J) Governing the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste in, and the permitting, design, construction, operation, monitoring, inspection, closure, and post-closure care of, hazardous waste underground injection wells, surface impoundments, waste piles other than those composed of materials removed from the ground as part of coal or mineral extraction or cleaning processes, land treatment facilities, thermal treatment facilities, and landfills that may be more stringent than the regulations adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, whenever the director reasonably determines that federal regulations will not adequately protect the public health or safety or the environment of this state with respect to the subject matter of the more stringent rules. Such more stringent rules shall be developed to achieve a degree of protection, as determined by the director, consistent with the degree of hazard potentially posed by the various wastes or categories of wastes to be treated, stored, or disposed of and the types of facilities at which they are to be treated, stored, or disposed of. In adopting such more stringent rules, the director shall give consideration to and base the rules on evidence concerning factors including, but not limited to, the following insofar as pertinent:
(1) Geography of the state;
(2) Geology of the state;
(3) Hydrogeology of the state;
(4) Climate of the state;
(5) Engineering and technical feasibility;
(6) Availability of alternative technologies or methods of storage, treatment, or disposal.
(K) Establishing performance standards and other requirements necessary to protect public health and the environment from hazards associated with used oil, including, without limitation, standards and requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Material that is subject to regulation as used oil;
(2) Generation of used oil;
(3) Used oil collection centers and aggregation points;
(4) Transportation of used oil;
(5) Processing and re-refining of used oil;
(6) Burning of used oil;
(7) Marketing of used oil;
(8) Disposal of used oil;
(9) Use of used oil as a dust suppressant.
Sec. 3734.123.  (A) As used in this section and section 3734.124 of the Revised Code, "commercial hazardous waste incinerator" means an enclosed device that treats hazardous waste by means of controlled flame combustion and that accepts for treatment hazardous waste that is generated off the premises on which the device is located by any person other than the one who owns or operates the device or one who controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the person who owns or operates the device. "Commercial hazardous waste incinerator" does not include any "boiler" or "industrial furnace" as those terms are defined in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.
(B) Not sooner than three years after April 15, 1993, and triennially thereafter, the director of environmental protection shall prepare, publish, and issue as a final action an assessment of commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity in this state. However, after the issuance as a final action of a determination under division (A) of section 3734.124 of the Revised Code that terminates the restrictions established in division (C) of this section, the director shall cease preparing, publishing, and issuing the periodic assessments required under this division. The assessment shall determine the amount of commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity needed to manage the hazardous waste expected to be generated in this state and imported into this state for incineration at commercial hazardous waste incinerators during the next succeeding twenty calendar years. The assessment shall include at least all of the following:
(1) A determination of the aggregate treatment capacity authorized at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located in this state;
(2) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that is being treated at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located in this state and projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that will be treated at those facilities;
(3) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste generated outside this state that is being treated at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located in this state and projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated outside this state that will be treated at those facilities;
(4) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that is being treated at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located outside this state, and projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that will be treated at those facilities;
(5) The amount of commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity that the director reasonably anticipates will be needed during the first three years of the planning period to treat hazardous waste generated from the remediation of sites in this state that are on the national priority list required under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as amended; as a result of corrective actions implemented under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended; and as a result of clean-up activities conducted at sites listed on the master sites list prepared by the environmental protection agency;
(6) Based upon available data, provided that the data are reliable and are compatible with the data base of the environmental protection agency, an identification of any hazardous waste first listed as a hazardous waste in regulations adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, on or after April 15, 1993, and of any hazardous waste that has been proposed for such listing by publication of a notice in the federal register on or before December 1 of the year immediately preceding the triennial assessment;
(7) An analysis of other factors that may result in capacity changes over the period addressed by the assessment.
(C) Except as otherwise provided in section 3734.124 of the Revised Code, none of the following shall occur on or after April 15, 1993:
(1) The director shall not do any of the following:
(a) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, as applicable, transmit to the hazardous waste facility board created in that section any application for a Issue any hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (D) of section 3745.05 of the Revised Code for the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or any request for a modification, as described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, of an existing commercial hazardous waste incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it, for which the staff of the environmental protection agency has made a preliminary determination as to whether the application or request appears to comply with the rules and standards set forth under divisions (D), (I), and (J) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code;
(b) Issue issue any modified hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (I)(5) of that section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that would authorize an increase in either the treatment capacity of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it;
(c)(b) Issue any permit pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, division (J) of section 6111.03 of the Revised Code, or the solid waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under those provisions, that is necessary for the establishment, modification, or operation of any appurtenant facility or equipment that is necessary for the operation of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or the modification of such an existing incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it. Upon determining that an application for any permit pertains to the establishment, modification, or operation of any appurtenant facility or equipment, the director shall cease reviewing the application and return the application and accompanying materials to the applicant along with a written notice that division (C)(1)(c)(b) of this section precludes the director from reviewing and acting upon the application.
(d)(c) Issue any exemption order under division (G) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code exempting the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator; the modification of an existing facility to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it; or the establishment, modification, or operation of any facility or equipment appurtenant to a new or modified commercial hazardous waste incinerator, from divisions (C)(1)(a), or (b), or (c) or (C)(2) or (3) of this section.
(2) The staff of the environmental protection agency shall not take any action under division (D)(3) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code to review, or to make a preliminary determination of compliance with the rules and standards set forth in divisions (D), (I), and (J) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code regarding, any If the director determines that an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit submitted under division (D)(3) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that pertains to the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or any a request for a modification of an existing incinerator submitted under division (I)(4) of that section to modify an existing incinerator pertains to an increase of either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it. Upon determining that an application or request submitted under those divisions pertains to the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator or the modification of an existing incinerator, the staff of the agency director shall cease reviewing the application or request and shall return it and the accompanying materials to the applicant along with a written notice that division (C)(2) of this section precludes the staff from reviewing or making any preliminary determination of compliance regarding review of the application or request.
(3) The hazardous waste facility board created in section 3734.05 of the Revised Code shall not do either of the following:
(a) Approve any application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, or issue any permit, under divisions (D) and (F) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that authorizes the establishment and operation of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator;
(b) Approve any request to modify an existing commercial hazardous waste incinerator under divisions (D) and (I)(7) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that authorizes an increase in either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it.
Sec. 3734.124.  (A) Promptly after issuing a periodic assessment under division (B) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, the director of environmental protection shall make a determination as to whether it is necessary or appropriate to continue the restrictions established in division (C) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code during the period of time between the issuance of the assessment and the issuance of the next succeeding periodic assessment or as to whether it is necessary or appropriate to terminate the restrictions. The director shall consider all of the following when making a determination under this division:
(1) The findings of the assessment;
(2) The findings of an evaluation conducted by the director, in consultation with the chairperson of the state emergency response commission created in section 3750.02 of the Revised Code, regarding the capability of this state to respond to the types and frequencies of releases of hazardous waste that are likely to occur at commercial hazardous waste incinerators;
(3) The effect that a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator may have on ambient air quality in this state;
(4) The findings of a review of relevant information regarding the impacts of commercial hazardous waste incinerators on human health and the environment, such as health studies and risk assessments;
(5) The findings of a review of the operational records of commercial hazardous waste incinerators operating in this state;
(6) The findings of any review of relevant information concerning the following:
(a) The cost of and access to commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity;
(b) The length of time and the regulatory review process necessary to fully permit a commercial hazardous waste incinerator;
(c) Access to long-term capital investment to fund the building of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator in this state;
(d) Efforts by generators of hazardous waste accepted by commercial hazardous waste incinerators to reduce the amount of hazardous waste that they generate.
(7) Regulatory and legislative concerns that may include, without limitation, the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of 40 C.F.R. 271.4, as they existed on April 15, 1993.
If, after considering all of the information and concerns that the director is required to consider under divisions (A)(1) to (7) of this section, the director determines that it is necessary or appropriate to terminate the restrictions established in division (C) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code in order to protect human health or safety or the environment, the director shall issue as a final action a written determination to that effect. If the director determines that it is necessary or appropriate for those purposes to continue the restrictions until the issuance of the next succeeding periodic assessment under division (B) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, the director shall issue as a final action a written determination to that effect. After the issuance as a final action of a determination under this division that it is necessary or appropriate to terminate the restrictions established in division (C) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, the director shall cease making the periodic determinations required under this division.
(B) Beginning three years after April 15, 1993, but only on and after the date of issuance as final actions of an assessment under division (B) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code and a determination under division (A) of this section that it is necessary or appropriate to terminate the restrictions established in division (C) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, any of the following may occur:
(1) The the director may do any of the following:
(a) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, as applicable, transmit to the hazardous waste facility board created in that section an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit that pertains to the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or a request for a modification, as described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it, for which the staff of the environmental protection agency has made a preliminary determination as to whether the application or request appears to comply with the rules and standards set forth under divisions (D), (I), and (K) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code;
(b) To the extent otherwise authorized in division (I)(5) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, issue a modified hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under that division that authorizes an increase in either the treatment capacity of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it;
(c)(1) To the extent otherwise authorized thereunder, issue any permit pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, division (J) of section 6111.03 of the Revised Code, or the solid waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under those provisions, that is necessary for the establishment, modification, or operation of any appurtenant facility or equipment that is necessary for the operation of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or for the modification of an existing incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it;
(d)(2) To the extent otherwise authorized in division (G) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, issue an order exempting the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator; the modification of an existing incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it; or the establishment, modification, or operation of any facility or equipment appurtenant to a new or modified commercial hazardous waste incinerator, from division (C)(1)(a), or (b), or (c) or (C)(2) or (3) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code.
(2) The staff of the environmental protection agency may do both of the following:
(a) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, review an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit to establish a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator or a request to modify an existing incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it;
(b) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, make a preliminary determination as to whether an application for a hazardous waste facility permit to install and operate a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator or a request to modify an existing incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it appears to comply with the rules and performance standards set forth under divisions (D), (I), and (J) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.
(3) The hazardous waste facility board may do both of the following:
(a) Approve or disapprove an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, and issue a permit, under divisions division (D) and (F) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code for a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator;
(b) Under divisions (D) and (I)(7) of that section, approve (4) Approve or disapprove under division (I) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code a request to modify the permit of an existing commercial hazardous waste incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it.
Sec. 3734.18.  (A) There are hereby levied fees on the disposal of hazardous waste to be collected according to the following schedule at each disposal facility to which the hazardous waste facility board has issued a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit or the director of environmental protection has issued a renewal of a permit pursuant to section 3734.05 of the Revised Code has been issued under this chapter:
(1) For disposal facilities that are off-site facilities as defined in division (E) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, fees shall be levied at the rate of four dollars and fifty cents per ton for hazardous waste disposed of by deep well injection and nine dollars per ton for hazardous waste disposed of by land application or landfilling. The owner or operator of the facility, as a trustee for the state, shall collect the fees and forward them to the director in accordance with rules adopted under this section.
(2) For disposal facilities that are on-site or satellite facilities, as defined in division (E) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, fees shall be levied at the rate of two dollars per ton for hazardous waste disposed of by deep well injection and four dollars per ton for hazardous waste disposed of by land application or landfilling. The maximum annual disposal fee for an on-site disposal facility that disposes of one hundred thousand tons or less of hazardous waste in a year is twenty-five thousand dollars. The maximum annual disposal fee for an on-site facility that disposes of more than one hundred thousand tons of hazardous waste in a year by land application or landfilling is fifty thousand dollars, and the maximum annual fee for an on-site facility that disposes of more than one hundred thousand tons of hazardous waste in a year by deep well injection is one hundred thousand dollars. The maximum annual disposal fee for a satellite facility that disposes of one hundred thousand tons or less of hazardous waste in a year is thirty-seven thousand five hundred dollars, and the maximum annual disposal fee for a satellite facility that disposes of more than one hundred thousand tons of hazardous waste in a year is seventy-five thousand dollars, except that a satellite facility defined under division (E)(3)(b) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code that receives hazardous waste from a single generation site is subject to the same maximum annual disposal fees as an on-site disposal facility. The owner or operator shall pay the fee to the director each year upon the anniversary of the date of issuance of the owner's or operator's installation and operation permit during the term of that permit and any renewal permit issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code. If payment is late, the owner or operator shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the fee for each month that it is late.
(B) There are hereby levied fees at the rate of two dollars per ton on hazardous waste that is treated at treatment facilities that are not on-site or satellite facilities, as defined in division (E) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, to which the hazardous waste facility board has issued a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit or the director renewal of a permit has been issued a renewal permit under this chapter, or that are not subject to the hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit requirements under rules adopted by the director.
(C) There are hereby levied additional fees on the treatment and disposal of hazardous waste at the rate of ten per cent of the applicable fees prescribed in division (A) or (B) of this section for the purposes of paying the costs of municipal corporations and counties for conducting reviews of applications for hazardous waste facility installation and operation permits for proposed new or modified hazardous waste landfills within their boundaries, emergency response actions with respect to releases of hazardous waste from hazardous waste facilities within their boundaries, monitoring the operation of such hazardous waste facilities, and local waste management planning programs. The owner or operator of a facility located within a municipal corporation, as a trustee for the municipal corporation, shall collect the fees levied by this division and forward them to the treasurer of the municipal corporation or such officer as, by virtue of the charter, has the duties of the treasurer in accordance with rules adopted under this section. The owner or operator of a facility located in an unincorporated area, as a trustee of the county in which the facility is located, shall collect the fees levied by this division and forward them to the county treasurer of that county in accordance with rules adopted under this section. The owner or operator shall pay the fees levied by this division to the treasurer or such other officer of the municipal corporation or to the county treasurer each year upon the anniversary of the date of issuance of the owner's or operator's installation and operation permit during the term of that permit and any renewal permit issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code. If payment is late, the owner or operator shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the fee for each month that the payment is late.
Moneys received by a municipal corporation under this division shall be paid into a special fund of the municipal corporation and used exclusively for the purposes of conducting reviews of applications for hazardous waste facility installation and operation permits for new or modified hazardous waste landfills located or proposed within the municipal corporation, conducting emergency response actions with respect to releases of hazardous waste from facilities located within the municipal corporation, monitoring operation of such hazardous waste facilities, and conducting waste management planning programs within the municipal corporation through employees of the municipal corporation or pursuant to contracts entered into with persons or political subdivisions. Moneys received by a board of county commissioners under this division shall be paid into a special fund of the county and used exclusively for those purposes within the unincorporated area of the county through employees of the county or pursuant to contracts entered into with persons or political subdivisions.
(D) As used in this section, "treatment" or "treated" does not include any method, technique, or process designed to recover energy or material resources from the waste or to render the waste amenable for recovery. The fees levied by division (B) of this section do not apply to hazardous waste that is treated and disposed of on the same premises or by the same person.
(E) The director, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapters 119. and 3745. of the Revised Code, shall prescribe any dates not specified in this section and procedures for collecting and forwarding the fees prescribed by this section and may prescribe other requirements that are necessary to carry out this section.
The director shall deposit the moneys collected under divisions (A) and (B) of this section into one or more minority banks, as "minority bank" is defined in division (F)(1) of section 135.04 of the Revised Code, to the credit of the hazardous waste facility management fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, except that the director shall deposit to the credit of the underground injection control fund created in section 6111.046 of the Revised Code moneys in excess of fifty thousand dollars that are collected during a fiscal year under division (A)(2) of this section from the fee levied on the disposal of hazardous waste by deep well injection at an on-site disposal facility that disposes of more than one hundred thousand tons of hazardous waste in a year.
The environmental protection agency and the hazardous waste facility board may use moneys in the hazardous waste facility management fund for administration of the hazardous waste program established under this chapter and, in accordance with this section, may request approval by the controlling board for that use on an annual basis. In addition, the agency may use and pledge moneys in that fund for repayment of and for interest on any loans made by the Ohio water development authority to the agency for the hazardous waste program established under this chapter without the necessity of requesting approval by the controlling board, which use and pledge shall have priority over any other use of the moneys in the fund.
Until September 28, 1996, the director also may use moneys in the fund to pay the start-up costs of administering Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code.
If moneys in the fund that the agency uses in accordance with this chapter are reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the United States government, the grants or other moneys shall be placed in the fund.
Before the agency makes any expenditure from the fund other than for repayment of and interest on any loan made by the Ohio water development authority to the agency in accordance with this section, the controlling board shall approve the expenditure.
Sec. 3734.28.  All moneys collected under sections 3734.122, 3734.13, 3734.20, 3734.22, 3734.24, and 3734.26 of the Revised Code and natural resource damages collected by the state under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as amended, shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste clean-up fund, which is hereby created. The environmental protection agency shall use the moneys in the fund for the purposes set forth in division (D) of section 3734.122, sections 3734.19, 3734.20, 3734.21, 3734.23, 3734.25, 3734.26, and 3734.27, and, through June 30, 2003 October 15, 2005, divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3745.12 and Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code, including any related enforcement expenses. In addition, the agency shall use the moneys in the fund to pay the state's long-term operation and maintenance costs or matching share for actions taken under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," as amended. If those moneys are reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the United States or any other person, the moneys shall be placed in the fund and not in the general revenue fund.
Sec. 3734.42.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(2) of this section, every applicant for a permit other than a permit modification or renewal shall file a disclosure statement, on a form developed by the attorney general, with the director of environmental protection and the attorney general at the same time the applicant files an application for a permit other than a permit modification or renewal with the director.
(2) Any individual required to be listed in the disclosure statement shall be fingerprinted for identification and investigation purposes in accordance with procedures established by the attorney general. An individual required to be fingerprinted under this section shall not be required to be fingerprinted more than once under this section.
(3) The attorney general, within one hundred eighty days after receipt of the disclosure statement from an applicant for a permit, shall prepare and transmit to the director an investigative report on the applicant, based in part upon the disclosure statement, except that this deadline may be extended for a reasonable period of time, for good cause, by the director or the attorney general. In preparing this report, the attorney general may request and receive criminal history information from the federal bureau of investigation and any other law enforcement agency or organization. The attorney general may provide such confidentiality regarding the information received from a law enforcement agency as may be imposed by that agency as a condition for providing that information to the attorney general.
(4) The review of the application by the director or the hazardous waste facility board shall include a review of the disclosure statement and investigative report.
(B) All applicants and permittees shall provide any assistance or information requested by the director or the attorney general and shall cooperate in any inquiry or investigation conducted by the attorney general and any inquiry, investigation, or hearing conducted by the director or the hazardous waste facility board. If, upon issuance of a formal request to answer any inquiry or produce information, evidence, or testimony, any applicant or permittee, any officer, director, or partner of any business concern, or any key employee of the applicant or permittee refuses to comply, the permit of the applicant or permittee may be denied or revoked by the director or the board.
(C) The attorney general may charge and collect such fees from applicants and permittees as are necessary to cover the costs of administering and enforcing the investigative procedures authorized in sections 3734.41 to 3734.47 of the Revised Code. The attorney general shall transmit moneys collected under this division to the treasurer of state to be credited to the solid and hazardous waste background investigations fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be used solely for paying the attorney general's costs of administering and enforcing the investigative procedures authorized in sections 3734.41 to 3734.47 of the Revised Code.
(D) Annually on the anniversary date of the submission to the director by the attorney general of the investigative report for a specific facility, or annually on another date assigned by the attorney general, the appropriate applicant, permittee, or prospective owner shall submit to the attorney general, on a form provided by the attorney general, any and all information required to be included in a disclosure statement that has changed or been added in the immediately preceding year. If, in the immediately preceding year, there have been no changes in or additions to the information required to be included in a disclosure statement, the appropriate applicant, permittee, or prospective owner shall submit to the attorney general an affidavit stating that there have been no changes in or additions to that information during that time period.
Notwithstanding the requirement for an annual submission of information, the following information shall be submitted within the periods specified:
(1) Information required to be included in the disclosure statement for any new officer, director, partner, or key employee, to be submitted within ninety days from the addition of the officer, director, partner, or key employee;
(2) Information required to be included in a disclosure statement for any new business concern, to be submitted within ninety days from the addition of the new business concern;
(3) Information regarding any new criminal conviction, to be submitted within ninety days from the judgment entry of conviction.
The failure to provide such information may constitute the basis for the revocation or denial of renewal of any permit or license issued in accordance with this chapter, provided that prior to any such denial or revocation, the director shall notify the applicant or permittee of the director's intention to do so and give the applicant or permittee fourteen days from the date of the notice to explain why the information was not provided. The director shall consider this information when determining whether to revoke or deny the permit or license.
Nothing in this division affects the rights of the director or the attorney general granted under sections 3734.40 to 3734.47 of the Revised Code to request information from a person at any other time.
(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(2) of this section, every permittee who is not otherwise required to file a disclosure statement shall file a disclosure statement within five years after June 24, 1988, pursuant to a schedule for submissions of disclosure statements developed by the attorney general. The schedule shall provide all permittees and holders of a license with at least one hundred eighty days' notice prior to the date upon which the statement is to be submitted. All other terms of the schedule shall be established at the discretion of the attorney general and shall not be subject to judicial review.
(2) An applicant for a permit for an off-site solid waste facility that is a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility issued under section 3734.76, 3734.77, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, as applicable, shall file a disclosure statement within five years after October 29, 1993, pursuant to a schedule for submissions of disclosure statements developed by the attorney general. The schedule shall provide all such applicants with at least one hundred eighty days' notice prior to the date upon which the statement shall be submitted. All other terms of the schedule shall be established at the discretion of the attorney general and shall not be subject to judicial review.
Beginning five years after October 29, 1993, an applicant for such a permit shall file a disclosure statement in accordance with division (A)(1) of this section.
(3) When a permittee submits a disclosure statement at the time it submits an application for a renewal or modification of its permit, the attorney general shall remove the permittee from the submission schedule established pursuant to division (E)(1) or (2) of this section.
(4) After receiving a disclosure statement under division (E)(1) or (2) of this section, the attorney general shall prepare an investigative report and transmit it to the director. The director shall review the disclosure statement and investigative report to determine whether the statement or report contains information that if submitted with a permit application would require a denial of the permit pursuant to section 3734.44 of the Revised Code. If the director determines that the statement or report contains such information, the director may revoke any previously issued permit pursuant to section 3734.45 of the Revised Code, or the director shall deny any application for a renewal of a permit or license. When the renewal of the license is being performed by a board of health, the director shall instruct the board of health about those circumstances under which the renewal is required to be denied by this section.
(F)(1) Whenever there is a change in ownership of any off-site solid waste facility, including incinerators, any transfer facility, any off-site infectious waste treatment facility, or any off-site hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility, the prospective owner shall file a disclosure statement with the attorney general and the director at least one hundred eighty days prior to the proposed change in ownership. Upon receipt of the disclosure statement, the attorney general shall prepare an investigative report and transmit it to the director. The director shall review the disclosure statement and investigative report to determine whether the statement or report contains information that if submitted with a permit application would require a denial of the permit pursuant to section 3734.44 of the Revised Code. If the director determines that the statement or report contains such information, the director shall disapprove the change in ownership.
(2) If the parties to a change in ownership decide to proceed with the change prior to the action of the director on the disclosure statement and investigative report, the parties shall include in all contracts or other documents reflecting the change in ownership language expressly making the change in ownership subject to the approval of the director and expressly negating the change if it is disapproved by the director pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section.
(3) As used in this section, "change in ownership" includes any change in the names, other than those of officers, directors, partners, or key employees, contained in the disclosure statement.
Sec. 3734.44.  Notwithstanding the provisions of any law to the contrary, no permit or license shall be issued or renewed by the director of environmental protection, the hazardous waste facility board, or a board of health:
(A) Unless the director, the hazardous waste facility board, or the board of health finds that the applicant, in any prior performance record in the transportation, transfer, treatment, storage, or disposal of solid wastes, infectious wastes, or hazardous waste, has exhibited sufficient reliability, expertise, and competency to operate the solid waste, infectious waste, or hazardous waste facility, given the potential for harm to human health and the environment that could result from the irresponsible operation of the facility, or, if no prior record exists, that the applicant is likely to exhibit that reliability, expertise, and competence;
(B) If any individual or business concern required to be listed in the disclosure statement or shown to have a beneficial interest in the business of the applicant or the permittee, other than an equity interest or debt liability, by the investigation thereof, has been convicted of any of the following crimes under the laws of this state or equivalent laws of any other jurisdiction:
(1) Murder;
(2) Kidnapping;
(3) Gambling;
(4) Robbery;
(5) Bribery;
(6) Extortion;
(7) Criminal usury;
(8) Arson;
(9) Burglary;
(10) Theft and related crimes;
(11) Forgery and fraudulent practices;
(12) Fraud in the offering, sale, or purchase of securities;
(13) Alteration of motor vehicle identification numbers;
(14) Unlawful manufacture, purchase, use, or transfer of firearms;
(15) Unlawful possession or use of destructive devices or explosives;
(16) Violation of section 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.32, or 2925.37 or Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code, unless the violation is for possession of less than one hundred grams of marihuana, less than five grams of marihuana resin or extraction or preparation of marihuana resin, or less than one gram of marihuana resin in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form;
(17) Engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity under section 2923.32 of the Revised Code;
(18) Violation of criminal provisions of Chapter 1331. of the Revised Code;
(19) Any violation of the criminal provisions of any federal or state environmental protection laws, rules, or regulations that is committed knowingly or recklessly, as defined in section 2901.22 of the Revised Code;
(20) Violation of Chapter 2909. of the Revised Code;
(21) Any offense specified in Chapter 2921. of the Revised Code.
(C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, no applicant shall be denied the issuance or renewal of a permit or license on the basis of a conviction of any individual or business concern required to be listed in the disclosure statement or shown to have a beneficial interest in the business of the applicant or the permittee, other than an equity interest or debt liability, by the investigation thereof for any of the offenses enumerated in that division as disqualification criteria if that applicant has affirmatively demonstrated rehabilitation of the individual or business concern by a preponderance of the evidence. If any such individual was convicted of any of the offenses so enumerated that are felonies, a permit shall be denied unless five years have elapsed since the individual was fully discharged from imprisonment and parole for the offense, from a post-release control sanction imposed under section 2967.28 of the Revised Code for the offense, or imprisonment, probation, and parole for an offense that was committed prior to the effective date of this amendment. In determining whether an applicant has affirmatively demonstrated rehabilitation, the director, the hazardous waste facility board, or the board of health shall request a recommendation on the matter from the attorney general and shall consider and base the determination on the following factors:
(1) The nature and responsibilities of the position a convicted individual would hold;
(2) The nature and seriousness of the offense;
(3) The circumstances under which the offense occurred;
(4) The date of the offense;
(5) The age of the individual when the offense was committed;
(6) Whether the offense was an isolated or repeated incident;
(7) Any social conditions that may have contributed to the offense;
(8) Any evidence of rehabilitation, including good conduct in prison or in the community, counseling or psychiatric treatment received, acquisition of additional academic or vocational schooling, successful participation in correctional work release programs, or the recommendation of persons who have or have had the applicant under their supervision;
(9) In the instance of an applicant that is a business concern, rehabilitation shall be established if the applicant has implemented formal management controls to minimize and prevent the occurrence of violations and activities that will or may result in permit or license denial or revocation or if the applicant has formalized those controls as a result of a revocation or denial of a permit or license. Those controls may include, but are not limited to, instituting environmental auditing programs to help ensure the adequacy of internal systems to achieve, maintain, and monitor compliance with applicable environmental laws and standards or instituting an antitrust compliance auditing program to help ensure full compliance with applicable antitrust laws. The business concern shall prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the management controls are effective in preventing the violations that are the subject of concern.
(D) Unless the director, the hazardous waste facility board, or the board of health finds that the applicant has a history of compliance with environmental laws in this state and other jurisdictions and is presently in substantial compliance with, or on a legally enforceable schedule that will result in compliance with, environmental laws in this state and other jurisdictions.;
(E) With respect to the approval of a permit, if the director or the hazardous waste facility board determines that current prosecutions or pending charges in any jurisdiction for any of the offenses enumerated in division (B) of this section against any individual or business concern required to be listed in the disclosure statement or shown by the investigation to have a beneficial interest in the business of the applicant other than an equity interest or debt liability are of such magnitude that they prevent making the finding required under division (A) of this section, provided that at the request of the applicant or the individual or business concern charged, the director or the hazardous waste facility board shall defer decision upon the application during the pendency of the charge.
Sec. 3734.46.  Notwithstanding the disqualification of the applicant or permittee pursuant to this chapter, the director of environmental protection, hazardous waste facility board, or the board of health may issue or renew a permit or license if the applicant or permittee severs the interest of or affiliation with the individual or business concern that would otherwise cause that disqualification or may issue or renew a license on a temporary basis for a period not to exceed six months if the director or the board of health determines that the issuance or renewal of the permit or license is necessitated by the public interest.
Sec. 3734.57.  (A) For the purposes of paying the state's long-term operation costs or matching share for actions taken under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as amended; paying the costs of measures for proper clean-up of sites where polychlorinated biphenyls and substances, equipment, and devices containing or contaminated with polychlorinated biphenyls have been stored or disposed of; paying the costs of conducting surveys or investigations of solid waste facilities or other locations where it is believed that significant quantities of hazardous waste were disposed of and for conducting enforcement actions arising from the findings of such surveys or investigations; paying the costs of acquiring and cleaning up, or providing financial assistance for cleaning up, any hazardous waste facility or solid waste facility containing significant quantities of hazardous waste, that constitutes an imminent and substantial threat to public health or safety or the environment; and, from July 1, 2001 2003, through June 30, 2004 2006, for the purposes of paying the costs of administering and enforcing the laws pertaining to solid wastes, infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, including, without limitation, ground water evaluations related to solid wastes, infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, under this chapter and Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under them, and paying a share of the administrative costs of the environmental protection agency pursuant to section 3745.014 of the Revised Code, the following fees are hereby levied on the disposal of solid wastes in this state:
(1) One dollar per ton on and after July 1, 1993;
(2) An additional seventy-five cents one dollar per ton on and after July 1, 2001 2003, through June 30, 2004 2006.
The owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility shall collect the fees levied under this division as a trustee for the state and shall prepare and file with the director of environmental protection monthly returns indicating the total tonnage of solid wastes received for disposal at the gate of the facility and the total amount of the fees collected under this division. Not later than thirty days after the last day of the month to which such a return applies, the owner or operator shall mail to the director the return for that month together with the fees collected during that month as indicated on the return. The owner or operator may request an extension of not more than thirty days for filing the return and remitting the fees, provided that the owner or operator has submitted such a request in writing to the director together with a detailed description of why the extension is requested, the director has received the request not later than the day on which the return is required to be filed, and the director has approved the request. If the fees are not remitted within sixty days after the last day of the month during which they were collected, the owner or operator shall pay an additional fifty per cent of the amount of the fees for each month that they are late.
One-half of the moneys remitted to the director under division (A)(1) of this section shall be credited to the hazardous waste facility management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code, and one-half shall be credited to the hazardous waste clean-up fund created in section 3734.28 of the Revised Code. The moneys remitted to the director under division (A)(2) of this section shall be credited to the solid waste fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. The environmental protection agency shall use moneys in the solid waste fund only to pay the costs of administering and enforcing the laws pertaining to solid wastes, infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, including, without limitation, ground water evaluations related to solid wastes, infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, under this chapter and Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under them and to pay a share of the administrative costs of the environmental protection agency pursuant to section 3745.014 of the Revised Code.
The fees levied under this division and divisions (B) and (C) of this section are in addition to all other applicable fees and taxes and shall be added to any other fee or amount specified in a contract that is charged by the owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility or to any other fee or amount that is specified in a contract entered into on or after March 4, 1992, and that is charged by a transporter of solid wastes.
(B) For the purpose of preparing, revising, and implementing the solid waste management plan of the county or joint solid waste management district, including, without limitation, the development and implementation of solid waste recycling or reduction programs; providing financial assistance to boards of health within the district, if solid waste facilities are located within the district, for the enforcement of this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of permits, licenses, and variances issued under it, other than the hazardous waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of permits issued under those provisions; providing financial assistance to the county to defray the added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and of providing emergency and other public services resulting from the location and operation of a solid waste facility within the county under the district's approved solid waste management plan; paying the costs incurred by boards of health for collecting and analyzing water samples from public or private wells on lands adjacent to solid waste facilities that are contained in the approved or amended plan of the district; paying the costs of developing and implementing a program for the inspection of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of this state that are disposed of at solid waste facilities included in the district's approved solid waste management plan or amended plan; providing financial assistance to boards of health within the district for enforcing laws prohibiting open dumping; providing financial assistance to local law enforcement agencies within the district for enforcing laws and ordinances prohibiting littering; providing financial assistance to boards of health of health districts within the district that are on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code for the training and certification required for their employees responsible for solid waste enforcement by rules adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code; providing financial assistance to individual municipal corporations and townships within the district to defray their added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and of providing emergency and other public services resulting from the location and operation within their boundaries of a composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the board of county commissioners or directors of the district; and payment of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or ordered to be paid under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code and of any administrative costs incurred pursuant to that section, the solid waste management policy committee of a county or joint solid waste management district may levy fees upon the following activities:
(1) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located in the district of solid wastes generated within the district;
(2) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of the district, but inside this state;
(3) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of this state.
If any such fees are levied prior to January 1, 1994, fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section always shall be equal to one-half of the fees levied under division (B)(2) of this section, and fees levied under division (B)(3) of this section, which shall be in addition to fees levied under division (B)(2) of this section, always shall be equal to fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section, except as otherwise provided in this division. The solid waste management plan of the county or joint district approved under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised Code and any amendments to it, or the resolution adopted under this division, as appropriate, shall establish the rates of the fees levied under divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, if any, and shall specify whether the fees are levied on the basis of tons or cubic yards as the unit of measurement. Although the fees under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section are levied on the basis of tons as the unit of measurement, the solid waste management plan of the district and any amendments to it or the solid waste management policy committee in its resolution levying fees under this division may direct that the fees levied under those divisions be levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of measurement based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards per ton generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes if the fees under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section are being levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of measurement under the plan, amended plan, or resolution.
On and after January 1, 1994, the fee levied under division (B)(1) of this section shall be not less than one dollar per ton nor more than two dollars per ton, the fee levied under division (B)(2) of this section shall be not less than two dollars per ton nor more than four dollars per ton, and the fee levied under division (B)(3) of this section shall be not more than the fee levied under division (B)(1) of this section, except as otherwise provided in this division and notwithstanding any schedule of those fees established in the solid waste management plan of a county or joint district approved under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code or a resolution adopted and ratified under this division that is in effect on that date. If the fee that a district is levying under division (B)(1) of this section on that date under its approved plan or such a resolution is less than one dollar per ton, the fee shall be one dollar per ton on and after January 1, 1994, and if the fee that a district is so levying under that division exceeds two dollars per ton, the fee shall be two dollars per ton on and after that date. If the fee that a district is so levying under division (B)(2) of this section is less than two dollars per ton, the fee shall be two dollars per ton on and after that date, and if the fee that the district is so levying under that division exceeds four dollars per ton, the fee shall be four dollars per ton on and after that date. On that date, the fee levied by a district under division (B)(3) of this section shall be equal to the fee levied under division (B)(1) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in this division, the fees established by the operation of this amendment shall remain in effect until the district's resolution levying fees under this division is amended or repealed in accordance with this division to amend or abolish the schedule of fees, the schedule of fees is amended or abolished in an amended plan of the district approved under section 3734.521 or division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or the schedule of fees is amended or abolished through an amendment to the district's plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code; the notification of the amendment or abolishment of the fees has been given in accordance with this division; and collection of the amended fees so established commences, or collection of the fees ceases, in accordance with this division.
The solid waste management policy committee of a district levying fees under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section on October 29, 1993, under its solid waste management plan approved under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code or a resolution adopted and ratified under this division that are within the ranges of rates prescribed by this amendment, by adoption of a resolution not later than December 1, 1993, and without the necessity for ratification of the resolution under this division, may amend those fees within the prescribed ranges, provided that the estimated revenues from the amended fees will not substantially exceed the estimated revenues set forth in the district's budget for calendar year 1994. Not later than seven days after the adoption of such a resolution, the committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the fees of the adoption of the resolution and of the amount of the amended fees. Collection of the amended fees shall take effect on the first day of the first month following the month in which the notification is sent to the owner or operator. The fees established in such a resolution shall remain in effect until the district's resolution levying fees that was adopted and ratified under this division is amended or repealed, and the amendment or repeal of the resolution is ratified, in accordance with this division, to amend or abolish the fees, the schedule of fees is amended or abolished in an amended plan of the district approved under section 3734.521 or division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or the schedule of fees is amended or abolished through an amendment to the district's plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code; the notification of the amendment or abolishment of the fees has been given in accordance with this division; and collection of the amended fees so established commences, or collection of the fees ceases, in accordance with this division.
Prior to the approval of the solid waste management plan of the district under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, the solid waste management policy committee of a district may levy fees under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the proposed amount of the fees. Upon adopting the resolution, the committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of county commissioners of each county forming the district and to the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and township under the jurisdiction of the district and shall prepare and publish the resolution and a notice of the time and location where a public hearing on the fees will be held. Upon adopting the resolution, the committee shall deliver written notice of the adoption of the resolution; of the amount of the proposed fees; and of the date, time, and location of the public hearing to the director and to the fifty industrial, commercial, or institutional generators of solid wastes within the district that generate the largest quantities of solid wastes, as determined by the committee, and to their local trade associations. The committee shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators within the district and their local trade associations, but the nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular generator or local trade association does not invalidate the proceedings under this division. The publication shall occur at least thirty days before the hearing. After the hearing, the committee may make such revisions to the proposed fees as it considers appropriate and thereafter, by resolution, shall adopt the revised fee schedule. Upon adopting the revised fee schedule, the committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution doing so to the board of county commissioners of each county forming the district and to the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and township under the jurisdiction of the district. Within sixty days after the delivery of a copy of the resolution adopting the proposed revised fees by the policy committee, each such board and legislative authority, by ordinance or resolution, shall approve or disapprove the revised fees and deliver a copy of the ordinance or resolution to the committee. If any such board or legislative authority fails to adopt and deliver to the policy committee an ordinance or resolution approving or disapproving the revised fees within sixty days after the policy committee delivered its resolution adopting the proposed revised fees, it shall be conclusively presumed that the board or legislative authority has approved the proposed revised fees.
In the case of a county district or a joint district formed by two or three counties, the committee shall declare the proposed revised fees to be ratified as the fee schedule of the district upon determining that the board of county commissioners of each county forming the district has approved the proposed revised fees and that the legislative authorities of a combination of municipal corporations and townships with a combined population within the district comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the district have approved the proposed revised fees, provided that in the case of a county district, that combination shall include the municipal corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of the district, and provided further that in the case of a joint district formed by two or three counties, that combination shall include for each county forming the joint district the municipal corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of both the county in which the municipal corporation is located and the joint district. In the case of a joint district formed by four or more counties, the committee shall declare the proposed revised fees to be ratified as the fee schedule of the joint district upon determining that the boards of county commissioners of a majority of the counties forming the district have approved the proposed revised fees; that, in each of a majority of the counties forming the joint district, the proposed revised fees have been approved by the municipal corporation having the largest population within the county and the joint district; and that the legislative authorities of a combination of municipal corporations and townships with a combined population within the joint district comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the joint district have approved the proposed revised fees.
For the purposes of this division, only the population of the unincorporated area of a township shall be considered. For the purpose of determining the largest municipal corporation within each county under this division, a municipal corporation that is located in more than one solid waste management district, but that is under the jurisdiction of one county or joint solid waste management district in accordance with division (A) of section 3734.52 of the Revised Code shall be considered to be within the boundaries of the county in which a majority of the population of the municipal corporation resides.
The committee may amend the schedule of fees levied pursuant to a resolution or amended resolution adopted and ratified under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the proposed amount of the amended fees. The committee may abolish the fees levied pursuant to such a resolution or amended resolution by adopting a resolution proposing to repeal them. Upon adopting such a resolution, the committee shall proceed to obtain ratification of the resolution in accordance with this division.
Not later than fourteen days after declaring the fees or amended fees to be ratified under this division, the committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the fees of the ratification and the amount of the fees. Collection of any fees or amended fees ratified on or after March 24, 1992, shall commence on the first day of the second month following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
Not later than fourteen days after declaring the repeal of the district's schedule of fees to be ratified under this division, the committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each facility that is collecting the fees of the repeal. Collection of the fees shall cease on the first day of the second month following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an order approving a district's solid waste management plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code or amended plan under division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that establishes or amends a schedule of fees levied by the district, or the ratification of an amendment to the district's approved plan or amended plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that establishes or amends a schedule of fees, as appropriate, the committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the fees of the approval of the plan or amended plan, or the amendment to the plan, as appropriate, and the amount of the fees or amended fees. In the case of an initial or amended plan approved under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code in connection with a change in district composition, other than one involving the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, that establishes or amends a schedule of fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section by a district resulting from the change, the committee, within fourteen days after the change takes effect pursuant to division (G) of that section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the fees that the change has taken effect and of the amount of the fees or amended fees. Collection of any fees set forth in a plan or amended plan approved by the director on or after April 16, 1993, or an amendment of a plan or amended plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that is ratified on or after April 16, 1993, shall commence on the first day of the second month following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an order approving a district's plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code or amended plan under division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that abolishes the schedule of fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, or an amendment to the district's approved plan or amended plan abolishing the schedule of fees is ratified pursuant to division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, the committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each facility that is collecting the fees of the approval of the plan or amended plan, or the amendment of the plan or amended plan, as appropriate, and the abolishment of the fees. In the case of an initial or amended plan approved under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code in connection with a change in district composition, other than one involving the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, that abolishes the schedule of fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section by a district resulting from the change, the committee, within fourteen days after the change takes effect pursuant to division (G) of that section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the fees that the change has taken effect and of the abolishment of the fees. Collection of the fees shall cease on the first day of the second month following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the schedule of fees that a district is levying under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section pursuant to a resolution or amended resolution adopted and ratified under this division, the solid waste management plan of the district approved under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, an amended plan approved under division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or an amendment to the district's approved plan or amended plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, is amended by the adoption and ratification of an amendment to the resolution or amended resolution or an amendment of the district's approved plan or amended plan, the fees in effect immediately prior to the approval of the plan or the amendment of the resolution, amended resolution, plan, or amended plan, as appropriate, shall continue to be collected until collection of the amended fees commences pursuant to this division.
If, in the case of a change in district composition involving the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, forty-five days or more before the beginning of a calendar year, the policy committee of each of the districts resulting from the change that obtained the director's approval of an initial or amended plan in connection with the change, within fourteen days after the director's completion of the required actions, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the district's fees that the change is to take effect on the first day of January immediately following the issuance of the notice and of the amount of the fees or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan as so approved or, if appropriate, the abolishment of the district's fees by that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set forth in such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first day of January immediately following the issuance of the notice. If such an initial or amended plan abolishes a schedule of fees, collection of the fees shall cease on that first day of January.
If, in the case of a change in district composition involving the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, less than forty-five days before the beginning of a calendar year, the director, on behalf of each of the districts resulting from the change that obtained the director's approval of an initial or amended plan in connection with the change proceedings, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the district's fees that the change is to take effect on the first day of January immediately following the mailing of the notice and of the amount of the fees or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan as so approved or, if appropriate, the abolishment of the district's fees by that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set forth in such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first day of the second month following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator. If such an initial or amended plan abolishes a schedule of fees, collection of the fees shall cease on the first day of the second month following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
In the case of a change in district composition, the schedule of fees that the former districts that existed prior to the change were levying under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section pursuant to a resolution or amended resolution adopted and ratified under this division, the solid waste management plan of a former district approved under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised Code, an amended plan approved under section 3734.521 or division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or an amendment to a former district's approved plan or amended plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, and that were in effect on the date that the director completed the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of section 3734.521 of the Revised Code shall continue to be collected until the collection of the fees or amended fees of the districts resulting from the change is required to commence, or if an initial or amended plan of a resulting district abolishes a schedule of fees, collection of the fees is required to cease, under this division. Moneys so received from the collection of the fees of the former districts shall be divided among the resulting districts in accordance with division (B) of section 343.012 of the Revised Code and the agreements entered into under division (B) of section 343.01 of the Revised Code to establish the former and resulting districts and any amendments to those agreements.
For the purposes of the provisions of division (B) of this section establishing the times when newly established or amended fees levied by a district are required to commence and the collection of fees that have been amended or abolished is required to cease, "fees" or "schedule of fees" includes, in addition to fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, those levied under section 3734.573 or 3734.574 of the Revised Code.
(C) For the purposes of defraying the added costs to a municipal corporation or township of maintaining roads and other public facilities and of providing emergency and other public services, and compensating a municipal corporation or township for reductions in real property tax revenues due to reductions in real property valuations resulting from the location and operation of a solid waste disposal facility within the municipal corporation or township, a municipal corporation or township in which such a solid waste disposal facility is located may levy a fee of not more than twenty-five cents per ton on the disposal of solid wastes at a solid waste disposal facility located within the boundaries of the municipal corporation or township regardless of where the wastes were generated.
The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or township may levy fees under this division by enacting an ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the fees. Upon so doing the legislative authority shall mail a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the board of county commissioners or directors of the county or joint solid waste management district in which the municipal corporation or township is located or, if a regional solid waste management authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised Code, to the board of trustees of that regional authority, the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility in the municipal corporation or township that is required to collect the fee by the ordinance or resolution, and the director of environmental protection. Although the fees levied under this division are levied on the basis of tons as the unit of measurement, the legislative authority, in its ordinance or resolution levying the fees under this division, may direct that the fees be levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of measurement based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards per ton generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes.
Not later than five days after enacting an ordinance or adopting a resolution under this division, the legislative authority shall so notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the fee. Collection of any fee levied on or after March 24, 1992, shall commence on the first day of the second month following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
(D)(1) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section do not apply to the disposal of solid wastes that:
(a) Are disposed of at a facility owned by the generator of the wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a premises where the wastes are generated;
(b) Are disposed of at facilities that exclusively dispose of wastes that are generated from the combustion of coal, or from the combustion of primarily coal in combination with scrap tires, that is not combined in any way with garbage at one or more premises owned by the generator.
(2) Except as provided in section 3734.571 of the Revised Code, any fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section apply to solid wastes originating outside the boundaries of a county or joint district that are covered by an agreement for the joint use of solid waste facilities entered into under section 343.02 of the Revised Code by the board of county commissioners or board of directors of the county or joint district where the wastes are generated and disposed of.
(3) When solid wastes, other than solid wastes that consist of scrap tires, are burned in a disposal facility that is an incinerator or energy recovery facility, the fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash remaining after burning of the solid wastes and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the sanitary landfill where the ash is disposed of.
(4) When solid wastes are delivered to a solid waste transfer facility, the fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon the disposal of solid wastes transported off the premises of the transfer facility for disposal and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of.
(5) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section do not apply to sewage sludge that is generated by a waste water treatment facility holding a national pollutant discharge elimination system permit and that is disposed of through incineration, land application, or composting or at another resource recovery or disposal facility that is not a landfill.
(6) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section do not apply to solid wastes delivered to a solid waste composting facility for processing. When any unprocessed solid waste or compost product is transported off the premises of a composting facility and disposed of at a landfill, the fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be collected by the owner or operator of the landfill where the unprocessed waste or compost product is disposed of.
(7) When solid wastes that consist of scrap tires are processed at a scrap tire recovery facility, the fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash or other solid wastes remaining after the processing of the scrap tires and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility where the ash or other solid wastes are disposed of.
(E) The fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this section shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of as a trustee for the county or joint district and municipal corporation or township where the wastes are disposed of. Moneys from the fees levied under division (B) of this section shall be forwarded to the board of county commissioners or board of directors of the district in accordance with rules adopted under division (H) of this section. Moneys from the fees levied under division (C) of this section shall be forwarded to the treasurer or such other officer of the municipal corporation as, by virtue of the charter, has the duties of the treasurer or to the clerk of the township, as appropriate, in accordance with those rules.
(F) Moneys received by the treasurer or such other officer of the municipal corporation under division (E) of this section shall be paid into the general fund of the municipal corporation. Moneys received by the clerk of the township under that division shall be paid into the general fund of the township. The treasurer or such other officer of the municipal corporation or the clerk, as appropriate, shall maintain separate records of the moneys received from the fees levied under division (C) of this section.
(G) Moneys received by the board of county commissioners or board of directors under division (E) of this section or section 3734.571, 3734.572, 3734.573, or 3734.574 of the Revised Code shall be paid to the county treasurer, or other official acting in a similar capacity under a county charter, in a county district or to the county treasurer or other official designated by the board of directors in a joint district and kept in a separate and distinct fund to the credit of the district. If a regional solid waste management authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised Code, moneys received by the board of trustees of that regional authority under division (E) of this section shall be kept by the board in a separate and distinct fund to the credit of the district. Moneys in the special fund of the county or joint district arising from the fees levied under division (B) of this section and the fee levied under division (A) of section 3734.573 of the Revised Code shall be expended by the board of county commissioners or directors of the district in accordance with the district's solid waste management plan or amended plan approved under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code exclusively for the following purposes:
(1) Preparation of the solid waste management plan of the district under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, monitoring implementation of the plan, and conducting the periodic review and amendment of the plan required by section 3734.56 of the Revised Code by the solid waste management policy committee;
(2) Implementation of the approved solid waste management plan or amended plan of the district, including, without limitation, the development and implementation of solid waste recycling or reduction programs;
(3) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within the district, if solid waste facilities are located within the district, for enforcement of this chapter and rules, orders, and terms and conditions of permits, licenses, and variances adopted or issued under it, other than the hazardous waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of permits issued under those provisions;
(4) Providing financial assistance to each county within the district to defray the added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and of providing emergency and other public services resulting from the location and operation of a solid waste facility within the county under the district's approved solid waste management plan or amended plan;
(5) Pursuant to contracts entered into with boards of health within the district, if solid waste facilities contained in the district's approved plan or amended plan are located within the district, for paying the costs incurred by those boards of health for collecting and analyzing samples from public or private water wells on lands adjacent to those facilities;
(6) Developing and implementing a program for the inspection of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of this state that are disposed of at solid waste facilities included in the district's approved solid waste management plan or amended plan;
(7) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within the district for the enforcement of section 3734.03 of the Revised Code or to local law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction within the district for enforcing anti-littering laws and ordinances;
(8) Providing financial assistance to boards of health of health districts within the district that are on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code to defray the costs to the health districts for the participation of their employees responsible for enforcement of the solid waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of permits, licenses, and variances issued under those provisions in the training and certification program as required by rules adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;
(9) Providing financial assistance to individual municipal corporations and townships within the district to defray their added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and of providing emergency and other public services resulting from the location and operation within their boundaries of a composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the board of county commissioners or directors of the district;
(10) Payment of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or ordered to be paid under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code and of any administrative costs incurred pursuant to that section. In the case of a joint solid waste management district, if the board of county commissioners of one of the counties in the district is negotiating on behalf of affected communities, as defined in that section, in that county, the board shall obtain the approval of the board of directors of the district in order to expend moneys for administrative costs incurred.
Prior to the approval of the district's solid waste management plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, moneys in the special fund of the district arising from the fees shall be expended for those purposes in the manner prescribed by the solid waste management policy committee by resolution.
Notwithstanding division (G)(6) of this section as it existed prior to October 29, 1993, or any provision in a district's solid waste management plan prepared in accordance with division (B)(2)(e) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date, any moneys arising from the fees levied under division (B)(3) of this section prior to January 1, 1994, may be expended for any of the purposes authorized in divisions (G)(1) to (10) of this section.
(H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures for collecting and forwarding the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this section to the boards of county commissioners or directors of county or joint solid waste management districts and to the treasurers or other officers of municipal corporations or to the clerks of townships. The rules also shall prescribe the dates for forwarding the fees to the boards and officials and may prescribe any other requirements the director considers necessary or appropriate to implement and administer divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section. Collection of the fees levied under division (A)(1) of this section shall commence on July 1, 1993. Collection of the fees levied under division (A)(2) of this section shall commence on January 1, 1994.
Sec. 3735.67.  (A) The owner of real property located in a community reinvestment area and eligible for exemption from taxation under a resolution adopted pursuant to section 3735.66 of the Revised Code may file an application for an exemption from real property taxation of a percentage of the assessed valuation of a new structure or remodeling, completed after the effective date of the resolution adopted pursuant to section 3735.66 of the Revised Code, with the housing officer designated pursuant to section 3735.66 of the Revised Code for the community reinvestment area in which the property is located. If any part of the new structure or remodeling that would be exempted is of real property to be used for commercial or industrial purposes, the legislative authority and the owner of the property shall enter into a written agreement pursuant to section 3735.671 of the Revised Code prior to commencement of construction or remodeling; if such an agreement is subject to approval by the board of education of the school district within the territory of which the property is or will be located, the agreement shall not be formally approved by the legislative authority until the board of education approves the agreement in the manner prescribed by that section.
(B) The housing officer shall verify the construction of the new structure or the cost of the remodeling and the facts asserted in the application. The housing officer shall determine whether the construction or the cost of the remodeling meets the requirements for an exemption under this section. In cases involving a structure of historical or architectural significance, the housing officer shall not determine whether the remodeling meets the requirements for a tax exemption unless the appropriateness of the remodeling has been certified, in writing, by the society, association, agency, or legislative authority that has designated the structure or by any organization or person authorized, in writing, by such society, association, agency, or legislative authority to certify the appropriateness of the remodeling.
(C) If the construction or remodeling meets the requirements for exemption, the housing officer shall forward the application to the county auditor with a certification as to the division of this section under which the exemption is granted, and the period and percentage of the exemption as determined by the legislative authority pursuant to that division. If the construction or remodeling is of commercial or industrial property and the legislative authority is not required to certify a copy of a resolution under section 3735.671 of the Revised Code, the housing officer shall comply with the notice requirements prescribed under section 5709.83 of the Revised Code, unless the board has adopted a resolution under that section waiving its right to receive such a notice.
(D) The tax exemption shall first apply in the year the construction or remodeling would first be taxable but for this section. In the case of remodeling that qualifies for exemption, a percentage, not to exceed one hundred per cent, of the amount by which the remodeling increased the assessed value of the structure shall be exempted from real property taxation. In the case of construction of a structure that qualifies for exemption, a percentage, not to exceed one hundred per cent, of the assessed value of the structure shall be exempted from real property taxation. In either case, the percentage shall be the percentage set forth in the agreement if the structure or remodeling is to be used for commercial or industrial purposes, or the percentage set forth in the resolution describing the community reinvestment area if the structure or remodeling is to be used for residential purposes.
The construction of new structures and the remodeling of existing structures are hereby declared to be a public purpose for which exemptions from real property taxation may be granted for the following periods:
(1) For every dwelling containing not more than two family units located within the same community reinvestment area and upon which the cost of remodeling is at least two thousand five hundred dollars, a period to be determined by the legislative authority adopting the resolution describing the community reinvestment area where the dwelling is located, but not exceeding ten years;
(2) For every dwelling containing more than two units and commercial or industrial properties, located within the same community reinvestment area, upon which the cost of remodeling is at least five thousand dollars, a period to be determined by the legislative authority adopting the resolution, but not exceeding twelve years;
(3) For construction of every dwelling, and commercial or industrial structure located within the same community reinvestment area, a period to be determined by the legislative authority adopting the resolution, but not exceeding fifteen years.
(E) Any person, board, or officer authorized by section 5715.19 of the Revised Code to file complaints with the county board of revision may file a complaint with the housing officer challenging the continued exemption of any property granted an exemption under this section. A complaint against exemption shall be filed prior to the thirty-first day of December of the tax year for which taxation of the property is requested. The housing officer shall determine whether the property continues to meet the requirements for exemption and shall certify the housing officer's findings to the complainant. If the housing officer determines that the property does not meet the requirements for exemption, the housing officer shall notify the county auditor that the exemption no longer applies.
Sec. 3735.671.  (A) If construction or remodeling of commercial or industrial property is to be exempted from taxation pursuant to section 3735.67 of the Revised Code, the legislative authority and the owner of the property, prior to the commencement of construction or remodeling, shall enter into a written agreement, binding on both parties for a period of time that does not end prior to the end of the period of the exemption, that includes all of the information and statements prescribed by this section. Agreements may include terms not prescribed by this section, but such terms shall in no way derogate from the information and statements prescribed by this section.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) or (3) of this section, an agreement entered into under this section shall not be approved by the legislative authority unless the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village school district within the territory of which the property is or will be located approves the agreement. For the purpose of obtaining such approval, the legislative authority shall certify a copy of the agreement to the board of education not later than forty-five days prior to approving the agreement, excluding Saturday, Sunday, and a legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code. The board of education, by resolution adopted by a majority of the board, shall approve or disapprove the agreement and certify a copy of the resolution to the legislative authority not later than fourteen days prior to the date stipulated by the legislative authority as the date upon which approval of the agreement is to be formally considered by the legislative authority. The board of education may include in the resolution conditions under which the board would approve the agreement. The legislative authority may approve an agreement at any time after the board of education certifies its resolution approving the agreement to the legislative authority, or, if the board approves the agreement conditionally, at any time after the conditions are agreed to by the board and the legislative authority.
(2) Approval of an agreement by the board of education is not required under division (A)(1) of this section if, for each tax year the real property is exempted from taxation, the sum of the following quantities, as estimated at or prior to the time the agreement is formally approved by the legislative authority, equals or exceeds fifty per cent of the amount of taxes, as estimated at or prior to that time, that would have been charged and payable that year upon the real property had that property not been exempted from taxation:
(a) The amount of taxes charged and payable on any portion of the assessed valuation of the new structure or remodeling that will not be exempted from taxation under the agreement;
(b) The amount of taxes charged and payable on tangible personal property located on the premises of the new structure or of the structure to be remodeled under the agreement, whether payable by the owner of the structure or by a related member, as defined in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code without regard to division (B) of that section.
(c) The amount of any cash payment by the owner of the new structure or structure to be remodeled to the school district, the dollar value, as mutually agreed to be the owner and the board of education, of any property or services provided by the owner of the property to the school district, whether by gift, loan, or otherwise, and any payment by the legislative authority to the school district pursuant to section 5709.82 of the Revised Code.
The estimates of quantities used for purposes of division (A)(2) of this section shall be estimated by the legislative authority. The legislative authority shall certify to the board of education that the estimates have been made in good faith. Departures of the actual quantities from the estimates subsequent to approval of the agreement by the board of education do not invalidate the agreement.
(3) If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its right to approve agreements and the resolution remains in effect, approval of an agreement by the board is not required under this division. If a board of education has adopted a resolution allowing a legislative authority to deliver the notice required under this division fewer than forty-five business days prior to the legislative authority's execution of the agreement, the legislative authority shall deliver the notice to the board not later than the number of days prior to such execution as prescribed by the board in its resolution. If a board of education adopts a resolution waiving its right to approve agreements or shortening the notification period, the board shall certify a copy of the resolution to the legislative authority. If the board of education rescinds such a resolution, it shall certify notice of the rescission to the legislative authority.
(B) Each agreement shall include the following information:
(1) The names of all parties to the agreement;
(2) A description of the remodeling or construction, whether or not to be exempted from taxation, including existing or new structure size and cost thereof; the value of machinery, equipment, furniture, and fixtures, including an itemization of the value of machinery, equipment, furniture, and fixtures used at another location in this state prior to the agreement and relocated or to be relocated from that location to the property, and the value of machinery, equipment, furniture, and fixtures at the facility prior to the execution of the agreement; the value of inventory at the property, including an itemization of the value of inventory held at another location in this state prior to the agreement and relocated or to be relocated from that location to the property, and the value of inventory held at the property prior to the execution of the agreement;
(3) The scheduled starting and completion dates of remodeling or construction of real property or of investments made in machinery, equipment, furniture, fixtures, and inventory;
(4) Estimates of the number of employee positions to be created each year of the agreement and of the number of employee positions retained by the owner due to the remodeling or construction, itemized as to the number of full-time, part-time, permanent, and temporary positions;
(5) Estimates of the dollar amount of payroll attributable to the positions set forth in division (B)(4) of this section, similarly itemized;
(6) The number of employee positions, if any, at the property and at any other location in this state at the time the agreement is executed, itemized as to the number of full-time, part-time, permanent, and temporary positions.
(C) Each agreement shall set forth the following information and incorporate the following statements:
(1) A description of real property to be exempted from taxation under the agreement, the percentage of the assessed valuation of the real property exempted from taxation, and the period for which the exemption is granted, accompanied by the statement: "The exemption commences the first year for which the real property would first be taxable were that property not exempted from taxation. No exemption shall commence after .......... (insert date) nor extend beyond .......... (insert date)." The tax commissioner shall adopt rules prescribing the form the description of such property shall assume in order to ensure that the property to be exempted from taxation under the agreement is distinguishable from property that is not to be exempted under that agreement.
(2) ".......... (insert name of owner) shall pay such real property taxes as are not exempted under this agreement and are charged against such property and shall file all tax reports and returns as required by law. If .......... (insert name of owner) fails to pay such taxes or file such returns and reports, exemptions from taxation granted under this agreement are rescinded beginning with the year for which such taxes are charged or such reports or returns are required to be filed and thereafter."
(3) ".......... (insert name of owner) hereby certifies that at the time this agreement is executed, .......... (insert name of owner) does not owe any delinquent real or tangible personal property taxes to any taxing authority of the State of Ohio, and does not owe delinquent taxes for which .......... (insert name of owner) is liable under Chapter 5733., 5735., 5739., 5741., 5743., 5747., or 5753. of the Ohio Revised Code, or, if such delinquent taxes are owed, .......... (insert name of owner) currently is paying the delinquent taxes pursuant to an undertaking enforceable by the State of Ohio or an agent or instrumentality thereof, has filed a petition in bankruptcy under 11 U.S.C.A. 101, et seq., or such a petition has been filed against .......... (insert name of owner). For the purposes of this certification, delinquent taxes are taxes that remain unpaid on the latest day prescribed for payment without penalty under the chapter of the Revised Code governing payment of those taxes."
(4) ".......... (insert name of municipal corporation or county) shall perform such acts as are reasonably necessary or appropriate to effect, claim, reserve, and maintain exemptions from taxation granted under this agreement including, without limitation, joining in the execution of all documentation and providing any necessary certificates required in connection with such exemptions."
(5) "If for any reason .......... (insert name of municipal corporation or county) revokes the designation of the area, entitlements granted under this agreement shall continue for the number of years specified under this agreement, unless .......... (insert name of owner) materially fails to fulfill its obligations under this agreement and ................... (insert name of municipal corporation or county) terminates or modifies the exemptions from taxation pursuant to this agreement."
(6) "If .......... (insert name of owner) materially fails to fulfill its obligations under this agreement, or if .......... (insert name of municipal corporation or county) determines that the certification as to delinquent taxes required by this agreement is fraudulent, .......... (insert name of municipal corporation or county) may terminate or modify the exemptions from taxation granted under this agreement."
(7) ".......... (insert name of owner) shall provide to the proper tax incentive review council any information reasonably required by the council to evaluate the applicant's compliance with the agreement, including returns filed pursuant to section 5711.02 of the Ohio Revised Code if requested by the council."
(8) "This agreement is not transferable or assignable without the express, written approval of .......... (insert name of municipal corporation or county)."
(9) "Exemptions from taxation granted under this agreement shall be revoked if it is determined that ........... (insert name of owner), any successor to that person, or any related member (as those terms are defined in division (E) of section 3735.671 of the Ohio Revised Code) has violated the prohibition against entering into this agreement under division (E) of section 3735.671 or section 5709.62 or 5709.63 of the Ohio Revised Code prior to the time prescribed by that division or either of those sections."
(10) ".......... (insert name of owner) and ........... (insert name of municipal corporation or county) acknowledge that this agreement must be approved by formal action of the legislative authority of .......... (insert name of municipal corporation or county) as a condition for the agreement to take effect. This agreement takes effect upon such approval."
The statement described in division (C)(6) of this section may include the following statement, appended at the end of the statement: ", and may require the repayment of the amount of taxes that would have been payable had the property not been exempted from taxation under this agreement."
(D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an agreement entered into under this section shall require that the owner pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent of the amount of taxes exempted under the agreement or five hundred dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the incentives exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall be payable to the legislative authority once per year for each year the agreement is effective on the days and in the form specified in the agreement. Fees paid shall be deposited in a special fund created for such purpose by the legislative authority and shall be used by the legislative authority exclusively for the purpose of complying with section 3735.672 of the Revised Code and by the tax incentive review council created under section 5709.85 of the Revised Code exclusively for the purposes of performing the duties prescribed under that section. The legislative authority may waive or reduce the amount of the fee, but such waiver or reduction does not affect the obligations of the legislative authority or the tax incentive review council to comply with section 3735.672 or 5709.85 of the Revised Code.
(E) If any person that is party to an agreement granting an exemption from taxation discontinues operations at the structure to which that exemption applies prior to the expiration of the term of the agreement, that person, any successor to that person, and any related member shall not enter into an agreement under this section or section 5709.62, 5709.63, or 5709.632 of the Revised Code, and no legislative authority shall enter into such an agreement with such a person, successor, or related member, prior to the expiration of five years after the discontinuation of operations. As used in this division, "successor" means a person to which the assets or equity of another person has been transferred, which transfer resulted in the full or partial nonrecognition of gain or loss, or resulted in a carryover basis, both as determined by rule adopted by the tax commissioner. "Related member" has the same meaning as defined in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code without regard to division (B) of that section.
The director of development shall review all agreements submitted to the director under division (F) of this section for the purpose of enforcing this division. If the director determines there has been a violation of this division, the director shall notify the legislative authority of such violation, and the legislative authority immediately shall revoke the exemption granted under the agreement.
(F) When an agreement is entered into under this section, the legislative authority authorizing the agreement shall forward a copy of the agreement to the director of development and to the tax commissioner within fifteen days after the agreement is entered into.
Sec. 3737.81.  (A) There is hereby created the state fire commission consisting of ten members to be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. The fire marshal or his fire marshal's chief deputy, a representative designated by the department of public safety who has tenure in fire suppression, and a representative designated by the board of building standards shall be ex officio members. Of the initial appointments made to the commission, two shall be for a term ending one year after the effective date of this section November 1, 1978, two shall be for a term ending two years after that date, two shall be for a term ending three years after that date, two shall be for a term ending four years after that date, and two shall be for a term ending five years after that date. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the year as did the term which it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term for which he the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of his the member's term until his the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members shall be qualified by experience and training to deal with the matters that are the responsibility of the commission. Two members shall be members of paid fire services, one shall be a member of volunteer fire services, two shall be mayors, managers, or members of legislative authorities of municipalities, one shall represent commerce and industry, one shall be a representative of a fire insurance company domiciled in this state, one shall represent the flammable liquids industry, one shall represent the construction industry, and one shall represent the public. At no time shall more than six members be members of or associated with the same political party. Membership on the commission shall not constitute holding a public office and no person shall forfeit or otherwise vacate his the person's office or position of employment because of membership on the commission.
(B) The ex officio members may not vote, except that the fire marshal or his fire marshal's chief deputy may vote in case of a tie.
(C) Each member of the commission, other than ex officio members, shall be paid an amount equal to that payable under pay range 32 (S)(D) fixed pursuant to division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code, and his the member's actual and necessary expenses.
(D) The commission shall select a chairman chairperson and a vice-chairman vice-chairperson from among its members. No business may be transacted in the absence of a quorum. A quorum shall be at least six members, excluding ex officio members, and shall include either the chairman chairperson or vice-chairman vice-chairperson. The commission shall hold regular meetings at least once every two months and may meet at any other time at the call of the chairman chairperson.
(E) The fire marshal shall provide the commission with office space, meeting rooms, staff, and clerical assistance necessary for the commission to perform its duties.
Sec. 3745.04. (A) As used in this section, "any person" means any individual, any partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity, or any political subdivision, instrumentality, or agency of a state, whether or not the individual or legal entity is an applicant for or holder of a license, permit, or variance from the environmental protection agency or the division of mineral resources management in the department of natural resources, and includes any department, agency, or instrumentality of the federal government that is an applicant for or holder of a license, permit, or variance from the environmental protection agency or the division of mineral resources management.
As used in this section, "action" or "act" includes the adoption, modification, or repeal of a rule or standard, the issuance, modification, or revocation of any lawful order other than an emergency order, and the issuance, denial, modification, or revocation of a license, permit, lease, variance, or certificate, or the approval or disapproval of plans and specifications pursuant to law or rules adopted thereunder.
(B) Any person who was a party to a proceeding before the director of environmental protection or the chief of the division of mineral resources management, except as otherwise provided in section 1509.06 or 1509.08 of the Revised Code, may participate in an appeal to the environmental review appeals commission for an order vacating or modifying the action of the director or, a local board of health, or the chief or ordering the director or, board of health, or chief to perform an act. The environmental review appeals commission has exclusive original jurisdiction over any matter that may, under this section, be brought before it.
The person so appealing to the commission shall be known as appellant, and the director or the chief and any party to a proceeding substantially supporting the finding from which the appeal is taken shall be known as appellee, except that when an appeal involves a license to operate a disposal site or facility, the local board of health or the director of environmental protection, and any party to a proceeding substantially supporting the finding from which the appeal is taken, shall, as appropriate, be known as the appellee. Appellant and appellee shall be deemed to be parties to the appeal.
The appeal shall be in writing and shall set forth the action complained of and the grounds upon which the appeal is based.
The (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, an appeal shall be filed with the commission within thirty days after notice of the action. Notice of the filing of the appeal shall be filed with the appellee within three days after the appeal is filed with the commission.
The appeal shall be accompanied by a filing fee of sixty dollars, which the commission, in its discretion, may waive in cases of extreme hardship.
Within seven days after receipt of the notice of appeal, the director or local board of health shall prepare and certify to the commission a record of the proceedings out of which the appeal arises, including all documents and correspondence, and a transcript of all testimony.
Upon the filing of the appeal, the commission shall fix the time and place at which the hearing on the appeal will be held. The commission shall give the appellant and the appellee at least ten days' written notice thereof by certified mail. The commission shall hold the hearing within thirty days after the notice of appeal is filed. The commission may postpone or continue any hearing upon its own motion or upon application of the appellant or of the appellee.
The filing of an appeal does not automatically suspend or stay execution of the action appealed from. Upon application by the appellant, the commission may suspend or stay the execution pending immediate determination of the appeal without interruption by continuances, other than for unavoidable circumstances.
(D) If an appeal is of an action of the chief of the division of mineral resources management under Chapter 1513. or 1514. of the Revised Code, the procedures established in those chapters, as applicable, apply to the appeal in lieu of the procedures established in this section and sections 3745.05 and 3745.06 of the Revised Code.
(E) As used in this section and sections 3745.05 and 3745.06 of the Revised Code, "director of environmental protection" and "director" are deemed to include the director of agriculture and "environmental protection agency" is deemed to include the department of agriculture with respect to actions that are appealable to the commission under Chapter 903. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has been submitted to the director.
(B) Prior to January 1, 1994, each Each person who is issued a permit to operate, variance, or permit to install prior to July 1, 2003, pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees specified in the following schedule schedules:
(1) Fuel-Burning Equipment (boilers)
Input capacity (maximum) Permit Permit
(million British to to
thermal units per hour) operate Variance install

Greater than 0 or more, but $ 75 $225 $ 100 200
less than 10
10 or more, but less than 100  210  450   390 400
100 or more, but less than 300  270  675   585 800
300 or more, but less than 500  330  900   780   1500
500 or more, but less than 1000  500  975   1000   2500
1000 or more, but less than 5000   4000
5000 or more   6000

Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half of the applicable amount established in division (F)(1) of this section.
Any fuel-burning equipment using only natural gas, propane, liquefied petroleum gas, or number two or lighter fuel oil shall be assessed a fee one-half of that shown.
(2) Incinerators
Permit Permit
Input capacity to to
(pounds per hour) operate Variance install

0 to 50 100 $ 50 $225 $ 65 100
51 101 to 500  210 450   390 400
501 to 2000  270 675   585 750
2001 to 30,000 20,000  330 900   780   1000
more than 30,000 20,000  500 975   1000   2500

(3)(a) Process
Permit Permit
Process weight rate to to
(pounds per hour) operate Variance install

0 to 1000 $100 $225 $ 200
1001 to 5000  210  450   390 400
5001 to 10,000  270  675   585 600
10,001 to 50,000  330  900   780 800
more than 50,000  500  975   1000

In any process where process weight rate cannot be ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed.
(b) Notwithstanding division (B)(3)(a) of this section, any person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees established in division (B)(3)(c) of this section for a process used in any of the following industries, as identified by the applicable four-digit standard industrial classification code according to the Standard Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States office of management and budget in the executive office of the president, 1972, as revised:
1211 Bituminous coal and lignite mining;
1213 Bituminous coal and lignite mining services;
1411 Dimension stone;
1422 Crushed and broken limestone;
1427 Crushed and broken stone, not elsewhere classified;
1442 Construction sand and gravel;
1446 Industrial sand;
3281 Cut stone and stone products;
3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated.
(c) The fees established in the following schedule apply to the issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process listed in division (B)(3)(b) of this section:
Process weight rate Permit to
(pounds per hour) install

0 to 1000 $ 200
10,001 to 50,000   300
50,001 to 100,000   400
100,001 to 200,000   500
200,001 to 400,000   600
400,001 or more   700

(4) Storage tanks
Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit Permit
to to
operate Variance install

Less than 40,000 0 to 20,000 $150 $225 195 100
20,001 to 40,000 or more, but less
  than 100,000  210  450   390 150
100,000 or more, but less
  than 400,000  270  675   585
400,000 or more, but less
  than 40,001 to 100,000