Representative Calvert
A BILL
To amend sections
9.01, 9.83, 101.82, 102.02, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 117.45, 119.035, 121.04,
121.084, 122.011, 122.04, 122.08, 122.17, 122.25, 122.651, 122.658,
122.87, 122.88, 123.01, 124.03, 125.05, 125.15, 125.91, 125.92, 125.93, 125.95, 125.96,
125.98, 126.11, 127.16, 131.23, 131.35, 147.01, 147.37, 149.011, 149.33,
149.331, 149.332, 149.333, 149.34, 149.35, 153.65, 163.06, 164.27, 165.09, 173.14,
173.20, 173.21, 173.26, 173.55, 173.57, 175.03, 175.21, 175.22, 183.02,
183.28, 307.202, 307.86, 307.98, 307.981, 307.987, 311.17, 317.32, 319.302, 321.24, 323.01, 323.13, 323.152,
329.03, 329.04, 329.05, 329.051, 329.06, 340.03, 505.69, 715.013, 717.01,
718.01, 718.02, 718.03, 718.05, 901.17, 901.21, 902.11, 921.151, 927.69, 1309.109, 1321.21,
1333.99, 1501.04, 1502.02, 1503.011, 1503.05, 1503.99, 1509.06, 1509.08, 1513.02, 1513.07, 1513.13, 1513.131, 1513.14, 1513.16, 1514.021, 1514.071,
1514.09, 1514.10, 1519.05, 1521.06, 1521.063, 1531.26, 1533.08, 1533.10, 1533.101, 1533.11, 1533.111,
1533.112, 1533.12, 1533.13, 1533.151, 1533.19, 1533.23, 1533.301, 1533.32, 1533.35, 1533.40, 1533.54, 1533.631, 1533.632, 1533.71,
1533.82, 1561.31, 1561.35, 1561.351, 1561.51, 1563.13, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2101.16,
2117.06, 2117.25, 2151.3529, 2151.3530, 2151.83, 2151.84, 2305.234, 2329.66,
2505.13, 2715.041, 2715.045, 2716.13, 2743.02, 2915.01, 2921.13, 2925.44, 2933.43, 2935.01, 2949.091, 3111.04, 3111.72,
3119.01, 3123.952, 3125.12, 3125.25, 3301.33, 3301.52, 3301.53, 3301.54, 3301.55,
3301.57, 3301.58, 3301.80, 3301.801, 3313.979, 3314.074, 3316.08, 3317.012, 3317.013,
3317.022, 3317.023, 3317.024, 3317.029, 3317.0213, 3317.0217, 3317.03,
3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.064, 3317.07, 3317.10, 3317.11, 3317.16, 3317.50,
3317.51, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3323.16, 3332.04, 3333.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.18, 3501.30, 3505.08, 3517.092, 3701.021, 3701.022, 3701.141, 3701.145,
3702.31, 3702.68, 3702.74, 3705.23, 3705.24, 3709.09, 3710.05, 3711.021, 3721.02,
3721.19, 3721.56, 3722.15, 3722.16, 3727.17, 3733.43, 3733.45, 3734.02, 3734.05, 3734.12,
3734.123, 3734.124, 3734.18, 3734.28, 3734.42, 3734.44, 3734.46, 3734.57, 3735.67, 3735.671, 3737.81,
3745.04, 3745.11, 3745.14, 3745.40, 3746.13, 3747.16,
3748.07, 3748.13, 3770.07, 3770.10, 3770.99, 3773.33, 3773.43, 3781.19, 4104.01,
4104.02, 4104.04, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.15, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.20,
4104.41, 4104.44, 4104.45, 4104.46, 4105.17, 4112.15, 4115.03, 4117.02, 4117.10,
4117.14, 4123.27, 4123.41, 4141.04, 4141.09, 4141.23, 4301.12, 4301.30, 4301.42, 4301.43, 4303.02, 4303.021,
4303.03, 4303.04, 4303.05, 4303.06, 4303.07, 4303.08, 4303.09, 4303.10, 4303.11,
4303.12, 4303.121, 4303.13, 4303.14, 4303.141, 4303.15, 4303.151, 4303.16, 4303.17,
4303.171, 4303.18, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.183, 4303.184, 4303.19, 4303.20,
4303.201, 4303.202, 4303.203, 4303.204, 4303.21, 4303.22, 4303.23, 4303.231,
4305.01, 4503.06, 4505.06, 4509.60, 4511.75, 4707.071,
4707.072, 4707.10, 4709.12, 4717.07, 4717.09, 4719.01, 4723.06, 4723.08, 4723.082,
4725.44, 4725.45, 4725.48, 4725.50, 4725.51, 4725.52, 4725.57, 4731.65, 4731.71,
4734.15, 4736.12, 4741.17, 4743.05, 4747.05, 4747.06, 4747.07, 4747.10,
4751.06, 4751.07, 4759.08, 4771.22, 4779.08, 4779.17, 4779.18, 4903.24, 4905.79, 4905.91,
4919.79, 4931.45, 4931.47, 4931.48, 4973.17, 4981.01, 4981.03, 4981.031, 4981.032, 4981.033, 4981.04, 4981.06,
4981.07, 4981.08, 4981.09, 4981.091, 4981.10, 4981.11, 4981.12, 4981.13, 4981.131,
4981.14, 4981.15, 4981.16, 4981.17, 4981.18, 4981.19, 4981.20, 4981.21, 4981.22,
4981.23, 4981.25, 4981.26, 4981.28, 4981.29, 4981.30, 4981.31, 4981.32, 4981.33,
4981.34, 4981.35, 4981.361, 5101.11, 5101.14, 5101.141, 5101.142, 5101.144,
5101.145, 5101.146, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181,
5101.21, 5101.211, 5101.212, 5101.22, 5101.24, 5101.36, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.611, 5101.62, 5101.63, 5101.65, 5101.67, 5101.68, 5101.69, 5101.70, 5101.75,
5101.80, 5101.83, 5101.97, 5101.99, 5103.031, 5103.033, 5103.034, 5103.036, 5103.037, 5103.038, 5103.0312, 5103.0313, 5103.0314,
5103.0315, 5103.0316, 5103.154,
5104.01, 5104.011, 5104.02, 5104.30, 5104.32, 5104.42, 5107.02, 5107.30,
5107.37, 5107.40, 5107.60, 5108.01, 5108.03, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5108.09, 5108.10,
5111.019, 5111.0112, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022,
5111.03, 5111.06, 5111.111, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.20, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.22, 5111.231, 5111.25, 5111.252, 5111.26, 5111.263, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.34,
5111.85, 5111.87, 5111.872, 5111.94, 5111.99, 5112.03, 5112.08, 5112.17, 5112.31,
5112.99, 5115.01, 5115.02, 5115.03, 5115.04, 5115.05, 5115.07, 5115.10, 5115.11,
5115.13, 5115.15, 5115.20, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5123.01, 5123.051, 5123.19, 5123.61, 5123.801, 5126.042, 5126.12, 5126.31, 5139.36, 5139.87, 5153.16, 5153.163,
5153.60, 5153.69, 5153.72, 5153.78, 5310.15, 5501.03, 5502.13, 5519.01,
5703.054, 5703.19, 5705.19, 5707.03, 5709.01, 5709.20, 5709.21, 5709.22, 5709.25, 5709.26, 5709.27, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.64, 5709.67, 5709.84, 5711.02, 5711.13, 5711.22, 5711.27, 5711.33, 5713.07, 5713.08, 5713.081, 5713.082, 5715.27, 5715.39, 5717.02, 5717.03, 5719.07, 5725.01, 5725.14, 5725.25, 5725.26, 5727.01, 5727.06, 5727.111, 5727.15, 5727.24, 5727.25, 5727.26, 5727.27, 5727.28, 5727.30, 5727.32, 5727.33, 5727.38, 5727.56, 5728.04, 5728.99, 5733.01, 5733.04, 5733.042, 5733.05, 5733.051, 5733.056, 5733.057, 5733.059, 5733.06, 5733.065, 5733.066, 5733.069, 5733.09, 5733.18, 5733.22, 5733.33, 5733.39, 5733.40, 5733.45, 5733.98, 5735.05, 5735.14, 5735.15, 5735.19, 5735.23, 5735.26, 5735.291, 5735.30, 5735.99, 5739.01, 5739.011, 5739.02, 5739.03, 5739.071, 5739.12, 5739.17, 5739.33, 5741.01, 5741.02, 5743.02, 5743.32, 5745.01, 5745.02, 5745.04, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 5747.05, 5747.057, 5747.08, 5747.09, 5747.30, 5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 6101.09, 6109.21, 6111.044, 6111.06, 6115.09, 6301.05, and 6301.07; to amend, for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses, sections 3301.33 (3301.40), 3701.145 (3701.0210), 4104.46 (4104.48), 4981.01 (5507.01), 4981.03 (5507.03), 4981.031 (5507.031), 4981.032 (5507.032), 4981.033 (5507.033), 4981.04 (5507.04), 4981.05 (5507.05), 4981.06 (5507.06), 4981.07 (5507.07), 4981.08 (5507.08), 4981.09 (5507.09), 4981.091 (5507.091), 4981.10 (5507.10), 4981.11 (5507.11), 4981.12 (5507.12), 4981.13 (5507.13), 4981.131 (5507.131), 4981.14 (5507.14), 4981.15 (5507.15), 4981.16 (5507.16), 4981.17 (5507.17), 4981.18 (5507.18), 4981.19 (5507.19), 4981.20 (5507.20), 4981.21 (5507.21), 4981.22 (5507.22), 4981.23 (5507.23), 4981.25 (5507.25), 4981.26 (5507.26), 4981.28 (5507.28), 4981.29 (5507.29), 4981.30 (5507.30), 4981.31 (5507.31), 4981.32 (5507.32), 4981.33 (5507.33), 4981.34 (5507.34), 4981.35 (5507.35), 4981.36 (5507.36), 4981.361 (5507.361), 5101.211 (5101.212),
5101.212 (5101.213), 5108.06 (5108.04), 5108.07 (5108.05), 5111.08 (5111.071), 5111.16 (5111.08), 5111.25 (5111.27), 5111.252 (5123.199), 5111.26 (5111.23), 5111.263 (5111.30), 5111.29 (5111.31), 5111.30 (5111.224), 5111.31 (5111.222), 5111.32 (5111.223), 5111.33 (5111.29), 5115.02 (5115.04), 5115.04 (5115.02), 5115.07 (5115.06), 5115.13 (5115.07), and 5115.15 (5115.23); to enact new sections 718.11, 718.12, 3301.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.46, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5111.16, 5111.173, 5111.221, 5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.252, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.32, and 5733.052, and sections 122.90, 123.152, 123.153,
173.08, 305.28, 317.36, 319.63, 718.021, 718.031, 718.051, 718.111, 718.112, 927.701, 1503.50, 1503.51, 1503.52, 1503.53,
1503.54, 1503.55, 1503.56, 1503.57, 1503.58, 2113.041, 2117.061, 3123.97, 3301.31,
3301.34, 3301.35, 3301.36, 3301.37, 3314.083, 3701.029, 3702.63, 3721.561,
4104.47, 4115.17, 4115.18, 4115.19, 4115.20, 4707.24, 5101.1410, 5101.211, 5101.214, 5101.241, 5101.242, 5101.243, 5101.601, 5103.155,
5108.11, 5108.12, 5111.0113, 5111.025, 5111.172,
5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.176, 5111.177, 5111.206, 5111.211,
5111.253, 5111.254, 5111.256, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.267, 5111.268, 5111.269, 5111.2610, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.913, 5111.95,
5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5115.12, 5115.13, 5115.14, 5115.22, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38,
5123.851, 5703.491, 5703.56, 5703.58, 5703.80, 5709.201, 5709.211, 5709.212, 5709.23, 5709.24, 5717.011, 5733.044, 5733.55, 5733.56, 5733.57, 5735.053, 5741.25, 5745.042, and 5745.044;
and to repeal sections 122.12, 125.931, 125.932, 125.933, 125.934, 125.935, 131.38, 179.01, 179.02, 179.03, 179.04, 319.311, 718.11, 718.12, 1333.96, 1513.05, 1513.10, 1533.06, 1533.39, 1553.01, 1553.02, 1553.03, 1553.04, 1553.05, 1553.06, 1553.07, 1553.08, 1553.09, 1553.10, 1553.99, 3301.31, 3301.581, 3302.041, 3701.142, 3701.144, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4141.044, 4141.045, 5101.213, 5101.251, 5101.71, 5101.72, 5108.05, 5111.017, 5111.173, 5111.221, 5111.23, 5111.231, 5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.251, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.264, 5111.27, 5111.291, 5111.34, 5115.011, 5115.012, 5115.06, 5115.061, 5502.49, 5709.231, 5709.30, 5709.31, 5709.32, 5709.33, 5709.34, 5709.35, 5709.36, 5709.37, 5709.45, 5709.46, 5709.47, 5709.48, 5709.49, 5709.50, 5709.51, 5709.52, 5709.64, 5709.65, 5709.66, 5727.39, 5727.44, 5733.052, 5733.055, 5733.061, 5733.064, 5733.068, 5733.111, 5733.32, 5733.36, 5733.38, 5733.43, 5733.44, 5735.33, 5739.012, 5739.35, 5741.011, 5741.24, 5743.45, 5743.46, 5747.051, 5747.131, 5747.28, 5747.34, 5747.36, 5747.38, 5747.60, 6111.31, 6111.311, 6111.32, 6111.34, 6111.35, 6111.36, 6111.37, 6111.38, and 6111.39 of the Revised Code; to amend Section 14 of Am. Sub. S.B. 242 of the 124th General Assembly; to amend Section 3 of Am. Sub. H.B. 215 of the 122nd General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 3 of Am. Sub. H.B. 621 of the 122nd General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 27 of Sub H.B. 670 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to repeal section 63.37 of Am. Sub. H.B. 94 of the 124th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to repeal Section 129 of Am. Sub. H.B. 283 of the 123rd General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to repeal Section 3 of S.B. 238 of the 123rd General Assembly; and to repeal Section 11 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to levy taxes and provide for implementation of those levies, to make operating appropriations for the biennium beginning July 1, 2003, and ending June 30, 2005, and to provide authorization and conditions for the operation of state programs; to amend the version of section 921.22 of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect July 1, 2004, to continue the provisions of this act on and after that effective date; to amend the version of section 3332.04 of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect July 1, 2003; to amend the version of section 4511.75 of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2004; to amend the versions of sections 5739.03, 5739.12, and 5741.02 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect July 1, 2003, to continue certain provisions of this act on and after that date.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:
Section 1. That sections 9.01, 9.83, 101.82, 102.02, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 117.45, 119.035, 121.04,
121.084, 122.011, 122.04, 122.08, 122.17, 122.25, 122.651, 122.658,
122.87, 122.88, 123.01, 124.03, 125.05, 125.15, 125.91, 125.92, 125.93, 125.95, 125.96,
125.98, 126.11, 127.16, 131.23, 131.35, 147.01, 147.37, 149.011, 149.33,
149.331, 149.332, 149.333, 149.34, 149.35, 153.65, 163.06, 164.27, 165.09, 173.14,
173.20, 173.21, 173.26, 173.55, 173.57, 175.03, 175.21, 175.22, 183.02,
183.28, 307.202, 307.86, 307.98, 307.981, 307.987, 311.17, 317.32, 319.302, 321.24, 323.01, 323.13, 323.152,
329.03, 329.04, 329.05, 329.051, 329.06, 340.03, 505.69, 715.013, 717.01,
718.01, 718.02, 718.03, 718.05, 901.17, 901.21, 902.11, 921.151, 927.69, 1309.109, 1321.21,
1333.99, 1501.04, 1502.02, 1503.011, 1503.05, 1503.99, 1509.06, 1509.08, 1513.02, 1513.07, 1513.13, 1513.131, 1513.14, 1513.16, 1514.021, 1514.071,
1514.09, 1514.10, 1519.05, 1521.06, 1521.063, 1531.26, 1533.08, 1533.10, 1533.101, 1533.11, 1533.111,
1533.112, 1533.12, 1533.13, 1533.151, 1533.19, 1533.23, 1533.301, 1533.32, 1533.35, 1533.40, 1533.54, 1533.631, 1533.632, 1533.71,
1533.82, 1561.31, 1561.35, 1561.351, 1561.51, 1563.13, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2101.16,
2117.06, 2117.25, 2151.3529, 2151.3530, 2151.83, 2151.84, 2305.234, 2329.66,
2505.13, 2715.041, 2715.045, 2716.13, 2743.02, 2915.01, 2921.13, 2925.44, 2933.43, 2935.01, 2949.091, 3111.04, 3111.72,
3119.01, 3123.952, 3125.12, 3125.25, 3301.33, 3301.52, 3301.53, 3301.54, 3301.55,
3301.57, 3301.58, 3301.80, 3301.801, 3313.979, 3314.074, 3316.08, 3317.012, 3317.013,
3317.022, 3317.023, 3317.024, 3317.029, 3317.0213, 3317.0217, 3317.03,
3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.064, 3317.07, 3317.10, 3317.11, 3317.16, 3317.50,
3317.51, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3323.16, 3332.04, 3333.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.18, 3501.30, 3505.08, 3517.092, 3701.021, 3701.022, 3701.141, 3701.145,
3702.31, 3702.68, 3702.74, 3705.23, 3705.24, 3709.09, 3710.05, 3711.021, 3721.02,
3721.19, 3721.56, 3722.15, 3722.16, 3727.17, 3733.43, 3733.45, 3734.02, 3734.05, 3734.12,
3734.123, 3734.124, 3734.18, 3734.28, 3734.42, 3734.44, 3734.46, 3734.57, 3735.67, 3735.671, 3737.81,
3745.04, 3745.11, 3745.14, 3745.40, 3746.13, 3747.16,
3748.07, 3748.13, 3770.07, 3770.10, 3770.99, 3773.33, 3773.43, 3781.19, 4104.01,
4104.02, 4104.04, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.15, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.20,
4104.41, 4104.44, 4104.45, 4104.46, 4105.17, 4112.15, 4115.03, 4117.02, 4117.10,
4117.14, 4123.27, 4123.41, 4141.04, 4141.09, 4141.23, 4301.12, 4301.30, 4301.42, 4301.43, 4303.02, 4303.021,
4303.03, 4303.04, 4303.05, 4303.06, 4303.07, 4303.08, 4303.09, 4303.10, 4303.11,
4303.12, 4303.121, 4303.13, 4303.14, 4303.141, 4303.15, 4303.151, 4303.16, 4303.17,
4303.171, 4303.18, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.183, 4303.184, 4303.19, 4303.20,
4303.201, 4303.202, 4303.203, 4303.204, 4303.21, 4303.22, 4303.23, 4303.231,
4305.01, 4503.06, 4505.06, 4509.60, 4511.75, 4707.071,
4707.072, 4707.10, 4709.12, 4717.07, 4717.09, 4719.01, 4723.06, 4723.08, 4723.082,
4725.44, 4725.45, 4725.48, 4725.50, 4725.51, 4725.52, 4725.57, 4731.65, 4731.71,
4734.15, 4736.12, 4741.17, 4743.05, 4747.05, 4747.06, 4747.07, 4747.10,
4751.06, 4751.07, 4759.08, 4771.22, 4779.08, 4779.17, 4779.18, 4903.24, 4905.79, 4905.91,
4919.79, 4931.45, 4931.47, 4931.48, 4973.17, 4981.01, 4981.03, 4981.031, 4981.032, 4981.033, 4981.04, 4981.06,
4981.07, 4981.08, 4981.09, 4981.091, 4981.10, 4981.11, 4981.12, 4981.13, 4981.131,
4981.14, 4981.15, 4981.16, 4981.17, 4981.18, 4981.19, 4981.20, 4981.21, 4981.22,
4981.23, 4981.25, 4981.26, 4981.28, 4981.29, 4981.30, 4981.31, 4981.32, 4981.33,
4981.34, 4981.35, 4981.361, 5101.11, 5101.14, 5101.141, 5101.142, 5101.144,
5101.145, 5101.146, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181,
5101.21, 5101.211, 5101.212, 5101.22, 5101.24, 5101.36, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.611, 5101.62, 5101.63, 5101.65, 5101.67, 5101.68, 5101.69, 5101.70, 5101.75,
5101.80, 5101.83, 5101.97, 5101.99, 5103.031, 5103.033, 5103.034, 5103.036, 5103.037, 5103.038, 5103.0312, 5103.0313, 5103.0314,
5103.0315, 5103.0316, 5103.154,
5104.01, 5104.011, 5104.02, 5104.30, 5104.32, 5104.42, 5107.02, 5107.30,
5107.37, 5107.40, 5107.60, 5108.01, 5108.03, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5108.09, 5108.10,
5111.019, 5111.0112, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022,
5111.03, 5111.06, 5111.111, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.20, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.22, 5111.231, 5111.25, 5111.252, 5111.26, 5111.263, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.34,
5111.85, 5111.87, 5111.872, 5111.94, 5111.99, 5112.03, 5112.08, 5112.17, 5112.31,
5112.99, 5115.01, 5115.02, 5115.03, 5115.04, 5115.05, 5115.07, 5115.10, 5115.11,
5115.13, 5115.15, 5115.20, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5123.01, 5123.051, 5123.19, 5123.61, 5123.801, 5126.042, 5126.12, 5126.31, 5139.36, 5139.87, 5153.16, 5153.163,
5153.60, 5153.69, 5153.72, 5153.78, 5310.15, 5501.03, 5502.13, 5519.01,
5703.054, 5703.19, 5705.19, 5707.03, 5709.01, 5709.20, 5709.21, 5709.22, 5709.25, 5709.26, 5709.27, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.64, 5709.67, 5709.84, 5711.02, 5711.13, 5711.22, 5711.27, 5711.33, 5713.07, 5713.08, 5713.081, 5713.082, 5715.27, 5715.39, 5717.02, 5717.03, 5719.07, 5725.01, 5725.14, 5725.25, 5725.26, 5727.01, 5727.06, 5727.111, 5727.15, 5727.24, 5727.25, 5727.26, 5727.27, 5727.28, 5727.30, 5727.32, 5727.33, 5727.38, 5727.56, 5728.04, 5728.99, 5733.01, 5733.04, 5733.042, 5733.05, 5733.051, 5733.056, 5733.057, 5733.059, 5733.06, 5733.065, 5733.066, 5733.069, 5733.09, 5733.18, 5733.22, 5733.33, 5733.39, 5733.40, 5733.45, 5733.98, 5735.05, 5735.14, 5735.15, 5735.19, 5735.23, 5735.26, 5735.291, 5735.30, 5735.99, 5739.01, 5739.011, 5739.02, 5739.03, 5739.071, 5739.12, 5739.17, 5739.33, 5741.01, 5741.02, 5743.02, 5743.32, 5745.01, 5745.02, 5745.04, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 5747.05, 5747.057, 5747.08, 5747.09, 5747.30, 5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 6101.09, 6109.21, 6111.044, 6111.06, 6115.09, 6301.05, and 6301.07 be amended; that sections 3301.33 (3301.40), 3701.145 (3701.0210), 4104.46 (4104.48), 4981.01 (5507.01), 4981.03 (5507.03), 4981.031 (5507.031), 4981.032 (5507.032), 4981.033 (5507.033), 4981.04 (5507.04), 4981.05 (5507.05), 4981.06 (5507.06), 4981.07 (5507.07), 4981.08 (5507.08), 4981.09 (5507.09), 4981.091 (5507.091), 4981.10 (5507.10), 4981.11 (5507.11), 4981.12 (5507.12), 4981.13 (5507.13), 4981.131 (5507.131), 4981.14 (5507.14), 4981.15 (5507.15), 4981.16 (5507.16), 4981.17 (5507.17), 4981.18 (5507.18), 4981.19 (5507.19), 4981.20 (5507.20), 4981.21 (5507.21), 4981.22 (5507.22), 4981.23 (5507.23), 4981.25 (5507.25), 4981.26 (5507.26), 4981.28 (5507.28), 4981.29 (5507.29), 4981.30 (5507.30), 4981.31 (5507.31), 4981.32 (5507.32), 4981.33 (5507.33), 4981.34 (5507.34), 4981.35 (5507.35), 4981.36 (5507.36), 4981.361 (5507.361), 5101.211 (5101.212),
5101.212 (5101.213), 5108.06 (5108.04), 5108.07 (5108.05), 5111.08 (5111.071), 5111.16 (5111.08), 5111.25 (5111.27), 5111.252 (5123.199), 5111.26 (5111.23), 5111.263 (5111.30), 5111.29 (5111.31), 5111.30 (5111.224), 5111.31 (5111.222), 5111.32 (5111.223), 5111.33 (5111.29), 5115.02 (5115.04), 5115.04 (5115.02), 5115.07 (5115.06), 5115.13 (5115.07), and 5115.15 (5115.23) be amended for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses; that new sections 718.11, 718.12, 3301.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.46, 5108.06, 5108.07, 5111.16, 5111.173, 5111.221, 5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.252, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.32, and 5733.052, and sections 122.90, 123.152, 123.153,
173.08, 305.28, 317.36, 319.63, 718.021, 718.031, 718.051, 718.111, 718.112, 927.701, 1503.50, 1503.51, 1503.52, 1503.53,
1503.54, 1503.55, 1503.56, 1503.57, 1503.58, 2113.041, 2117.061, 3123.97, 3301.31,
3301.34, 3301.35, 3301.36, 3301.37, 3314.083, 3701.029, 3702.63, 3721.561,
4104.47, 4115.17, 4115.18, 4115.19, 4115.20, 4707.24, 5101.1410, 5101.211, 5101.214, 5101.241, 5101.242, 5101.243, 5101.601, 5103.155,
5108.11, 5108.12, 5111.0113, 5111.025, 5111.172,
5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.176, 5111.177, 5111.206, 5111.211,
5111.253, 5111.254, 5111.256, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.267, 5111.268, 5111.269, 5111.2610, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.913, 5111.95,
5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5115.12, 5115.13, 5115.14, 5115.22, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38,
5123.851, 5703.491, 5703.56, 5703.58, 5703.80, 5709.201, 5709.211, 5709.212, 5709.23, 5709.24, 5717.011, 5733.044, 5733.55, 5733.56, 5733.57, 5735.053, 5741.25, 5745.042, and 5745.044 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:
Sec. 9.01. When any officer, office, court, commission,
board, institution, department, agent, or employee of the state,
or of a county, or of any other political subdivision, who is charged with
the duty or authorized or required by law to record, preserve,
keep, maintain, or file any record, document, plat, court file,
paper, or instrument in writing, or to make or furnish copies of
any thereof of them, deems it necessary or advisable, when recording any
such document, plat, court file, paper, or instrument in writing,
or when making a copy or reproduction of any thereof of them or of any
such record, for the purpose of recording or copying, preserving,
and protecting the same them, reducing space required for storage, or
any similar purpose, to do so by means of any photostatic,
photographic, miniature photographic, film, microfilm, or
microphotographic process, or perforated tape, magnetic tape,
other magnetic means, electronic data processing, machine
readable means, or graphic or video display, or any combination
thereof of those processes, means, or displays, which correctly and accurately copies, records, or
reproduces, or provides a medium of copying, recording, or
reproducing, the original record, document, plat, court file,
paper, or instrument in writing, such use of any such
photographic or electromagnetic of those processes, means, or displays for any such purpose,
is hereby authorized. Any such records, copies, or reproductions
may be made in duplicate, and such the duplicates shall be stored in
different buildings. The film or paper used for this a process
shall comply with the minimum standards of quality approved for
permanent photographic records by the national bureau of
standards. All such records, copies, or reproductions shall
carry a certificate of authenticity and completeness, on a form
specified by the director of administrative services through the state records administrator program.
Any such officer, office, court, commission, board,
institution, department, agent, or employee of the state, of a
county, or of any other political subdivision may purchase or rent
required equipment for any such photographic process and may
enter into contracts with private concerns or other governmental
agencies for the development of film and the making of
reproductions thereof of film as a part of any such photographic process.
When so recorded, or copied or reproduced to reduce space
required for storage or filing of such records, said such photographs,
microphotographs, microfilms, perforated tape, magnetic tape,
other magnetic means, electronic data processing, machine
readable means, graphic or video display, or any combination
thereof of these processes, means, or displays, or films, or prints made therefrom, when properly
identified by the officer by whom or under whose supervision the
same they were made, or who has the their custody thereof, have the same
effect at law as the original record or of a record made by any
other legally authorized means, and may be offered in like manner
and shall be received in evidence in any court where such the
original record, or record made by other legally authorized
means, could have been so introduced and received. Certified or
authenticated copies or prints of such photographs,
microphotographs, films, microfilms, perforated tape, magnetic
tape, other magnetic means, electronic data processing, machine
readable means, graphic or video display, or any combination
thereof of these processes, means, or displays, shall be admitted in evidence equally with the original
photographs, microphotographs, films, or microfilms.
Such photographs, microphotographs, microfilms, or films
shall be placed and kept in conveniently accessible, fireproof,
and insulated files, cabinets, or containers, and provisions
shall be made for preserving, safekeeping, using, examining,
exhibiting, projecting, and enlarging the same them whenever
requested, during office hours.
All persons utilizing the methods described in this section
for keeping records and information shall keep and make readily
available to the public the machines and equipment necessary to
reproduce the records and information in a readable form.
Sec. 9.83. (A) The state and any political subdivision
may procure a policy or policies of insurance insuring its
officers and employees against liability for injury, death, or
loss to person or property that arises out of the operation of an
automobile, truck, motor vehicle with auxiliary equipment,
self-propelling equipment or trailer, aircraft, or watercraft by
the officers or employees while engaged in the course of their
employment or official responsibilities for the state or the
political subdivision. The state is authorized to expend funds
to pay judgments that are rendered in any court against its
officers or employees and that result from such operation, and is
authorized to expend funds to compromise claims for liability
against its officers or employees that result from such
operation. No insurer shall deny coverage under such a policy,
and the state shall not refuse to pay judgments or compromise
claims, on the ground that an automobile, truck, motor vehicle
with auxiliary equipment, self-propelling equipment or trailer,
aircraft, or watercraft was not being used in the course of an
officer's or employee's employment or official responsibilities
for the state or a political subdivision unless the officer or
employee who was operating an automobile, truck, motor vehicle
with auxiliary equipment, or self-propelling equipment or trailer
is convicted of a violation of section 124.71 of the Revised Code
as a result of the same events.
(B) Such funds Funds shall be reserved as are necessary, in the
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover
potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The
superintendent of insurance may recommend or, if the state
requests of the superintendent, shall recommend, a specific
amount for any period of time that, in the superintendent's
opinion, represents
such a judgment.
(C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require
the department of administrative services to purchase liability
insurance for all state vehicles in a single policy of insurance
or to cover all state vehicles under a single plan of
self-insurance.
(D) Insurance procured by the state pursuant to this
section shall be procured as provided in section 125.03 of the
Revised Code.
(E) For purposes of liability insurance procured under this
section to cover the operation of a motor vehicle by a prisoner for whom the
insurance is procured, "employee" includes a prisoner in the custody of the
department of
rehabilitation and correction who is enrolled in a work program that is
established by the department pursuant to section 5145.16
of the Revised Code and in which
the prisoner is required to operate a motor vehicle, as defined in section
4509.01 of the Revised Code, and who is engaged in the operation of a motor
vehicle in the
course of the work program.
(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the vehicle liability fund. All contributions collected by the director of administrative services under division (I) of this section shall be deposited into the fund. The fund shall be used to provide insurance and self-insurance for the state under this section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to it.
(G) The director of administrative services, through the office of risk management, shall operate the vehicle liability fund on an actuarially sound basis.
(H) Reserves shall be maintained in the vehicle liability fund in any amount that is necessary and adequate, in the exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover potential liability claims, expenses, fees, or damages. Money in the fund may be applied to the payment of liability claims that are filed against the state in the court of claims and determined in the manner provided in Chapter 2743. of the Revised Code. The director of administrative services may procure the services of a qualified actuarial firm for the purpose of recommending the specific amount of money that is required to maintain adequate reserves for a specified period of time.
(I) The director of administrative services shall collect from each state agency or any participating state body its contribution to the vehicle liability fund for the purpose of purchasing insurance or administering self-insurance programs for coverage authorized under this section. The amount of the contribution shall be determined by the director, with the approval of the director of budget and management. It shall be based upon actuarial assumptions and the relative risk and loss experience of each state agency or participating state body. The amount of the contribution also shall include a reasonable sum to cover administrative costs of the department of administrative services.
Sec. 101.82. As used in sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the
Revised Code:
(A)
"Agency" means any board, commission, committee, or
council, or any other similar state public body required to be
established pursuant to state
statutes for the exercise of any
function of state government and to
which members are appointed or
elected.
"Agency" does not include the following:
(1) The general assembly, or any commission, committee, or
other
body composed entirely of members thereof of the general assembly;
(3) Any public body created by or directly pursuant to the
constitution of this state;
(4) The board of trustees of any institution of higher
education financially supported in whole or in part by the state;
(5) Any public body that has the authority to issue bonds
or
notes or that has issued bonds or notes that have not been
fully
repaid;
(6) The public utilities commission of Ohio;
(7) The consumers' council governing board;
(8) The Ohio board of regents;
(9) Any state board or commission that has the authority
to
issue any final adjudicatory order that may be appealed to the
court of common pleas under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;
(10) Any board of elections;
(11) The board of directors of the Ohio insurance
guaranty
association and the board of governors of the Ohio fair plan
underwriting association;
(12) The Ohio public employees deferred compensation board;
(13) The Ohio retirement study council;
(14) The board of trustees of the Ohio police and fire
pension
fund, public employees retirement board, school employees
retirement board,
state highway patrol retirement board, and state
teachers retirement
board;
(15) The industrial commission.
(B)
"Abolish" means to repeal the statutes creating and
empowering an agency, remove its personnel, and transfer its
records to the department of administrative services pursuant to
division (H)(E) of section 149.331 of the Revised Code.
(C)
"Terminate" means to amend or repeal the statutes
creating and empowering an agency, remove its personnel, and
reassign its functions and records to another agency or officer
designated by the general assembly.
(D)
"Transfer" means to amend the statutes creating and
empowering an agency so that its functions, records, and
personnel
are conveyed to another agency or officer.
(E)
"Renew" means to continue an agency, and may include
amendment of the statutes creating and empowering the agency, or
recommendations for changes in agency operation or personnel.
Sec. 102.02. (A) Except as otherwise provided in division
(H) of this section, every person who is elected to or is a
candidate for a state, county, or city office, or the office of
member of the United States congress, and every person who is
appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an
elective office; all members of the state board of education;
the
director, assistant directors, deputy
directors, division chiefs,
or persons of equivalent rank of any
administrative department of
the state; the president or other
chief administrative officer of
every state institution of higher
education as defined in section
3345.011 of the Revised Code; the
chief executive officer of each
state retirement system; all
members of the board of commissioners
on grievances and
discipline of the supreme court and the ethics
commission created
under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every
business manager,
treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local,
exempted village,
joint vocational, or cooperative education
school
district or an educational service center; every person who
is elected
to or is a candidate for
the office of member of a
board of education of a city, local,
exempted village, joint
vocational, or cooperative
education school district or of a
governing board of an educational service
center that has a total
student count of twelve thousand or more as most
recently
determined by the department of education pursuant to section
3317.03
of
the Revised Code; every person who is appointed to the
board of education
of a municipal school district pursuant to
division (B) or
(F) of section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all
members of the board of
directors of a sanitary district
established under Chapter 6115.
of the Revised Code and organized
wholly for the purpose of providing a water
supply for
domestic,
municipal, and public use that includes two municipal corporations
in two counties; every public official or
employee who is paid a
salary or wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or
schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of
the board
of trustees and the executive director of the tobacco
use prevention and
control foundation; members of the board of
trustees and the executive
director of the southern Ohio
agricultural and community development
foundation;
and every
other public official or employee
who is designated by the
appropriate ethics commission pursuant to
division (B) of this
section shall file with the appropriate
ethics commission on a
form prescribed by the commission, a
statement disclosing all of the
following:
(1) The name of the person filing the statement and each
member of the person's immediate family and all names under
which
the
person or members of the person's immediate family do
business;
(2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this
section and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of
the
Revised Code, identification of every source of income, other
than
income from a legislative agent identified in division
(A)(2)(b)
of this section, received during the preceding calendar
year, in
the person's own name or by any other person for
the person's use
or
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief
description of the nature of the services for which the income
was
received. If the person filing the statement is a member of
the
general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of
every
source of income received in accordance with the following
ranges
of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand
dollars; one
thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand
dollars; ten
thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five
thousand
dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less
than fifty
thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but
less than
one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand
dollars or
more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be
construed
to require a person filing the statement who derives
income from a
business or profession to disclose the individual
items of income
that constitute the gross income of that business
or profession,
except for those individual items of income that
are attributable
to the person's or, if the income is shared with
the person, the
partner's, solicitation of services or goods or
performance,
arrangement, or facilitation of services or
provision of goods on
behalf of the business or profession of
clients, including
corporate clients, who are legislative agents
as defined in
section 101.70 of the Revised Code. A person who
files the
statement under this section shall disclose the
identity of and
the amount of income received from a person
who
the public
official or employee knows or has reason to know is
doing or
seeking to do business of any kind with the public
official's or
employee's agency.
(b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the
general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of
income and the amount of that income that was received from a
legislative agent, as defined in section 101.70 of the Revised
Code, during the preceding calendar year, in the person's
own name
or by
any other person for the person's use or benefit, by the
person filing the
statement, and a brief description of the nature
of the services
for which the income was received. Division
(A)(2)(b) of this
section requires the disclosure of clients of
attorneys or
persons licensed under section 4732.12 of the Revised
Code, or
patients of persons certified under section 4731.14 of
the
Revised Code, if those clients or patients are legislative
agents.
Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires a person
filing the
statement who derives income from a business or
profession to
disclose those individual items of income that
constitute the
gross income of that business or profession that
are received
from legislative agents.
(c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of
this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to
attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the
practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the
Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics
applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are
required
not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients,
patients,
or other recipients of professional services except
under
specified circumstances or generally are required to
maintain
those types of confidences as privileged communications
except
under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this
section
does not require an attorney, physician, or other
professional
subject to a confidentiality requirement as
described in division
(A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the
name, other identity, or
address of a client, patient, or other
recipient of professional
services if the disclosure would
threaten the client, patient, or
other recipient of professional
services, would reveal details of
the subject matter for which
legal, medical, or professional
advice or other services were
sought, or would reveal an otherwise
privileged communication
involving the client, patient, or other
recipient of professional
services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this
section does not require an
attorney, physician, or other
professional subject to a
confidentiality requirement as described
in division (A)(2)(c) of
this section to disclose in the brief
description of the nature
of services required by division
(A)(2)(a) of this section any
information pertaining to specific
professional services rendered
for a client, patient, or other
recipient of professional
services that would reveal details of
the subject matter for
which legal, medical, or professional
advice was sought or would
reveal an otherwise privileged
communication involving the
client, patient, or other recipient of
professional services.
(3) The name of every corporation on file with the
secretary
of state that is incorporated in this state or
holds a
certificate
of compliance authorizing it to do business in this
state, trust,
business trust, partnership, or association that
transacts
business in this state in which the person filing
the statement or
any other person for the person's use and
benefit had during
the
preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand
dollars
at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of
December of the
preceding calendar year, or the date of
disposition, whichever is
earlier, or in which the person holds
any office or has a
fiduciary relationship, and a description of
the nature of the
investment, office, or relationship. Division
(A)(3) of this
section does not require
disclosure of the name of any bank,
savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan
association with which the person filing the statement has a
deposit or a withdrawable share account.
(4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the
person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial
interest in real property located within the state, excluding the
person's residence and property used primarily for personal
recreation;
(5) The names of all persons residing or transacting
business in the state to whom the person filing the statement
owes, in the person's own name or in the name of any other
person,
more
than one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5)
of this section
shall not be construed
to require the disclosure of debts owed by
the person resulting
from the ordinary conduct of a business or
profession or debts on
the person's residence or real property
used primarily for
personal recreation, except that the
superintendent of financial
institutions shall disclose the
names
of all
state-chartered savings and loan associations and of
all
service
corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2)
of
section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent
in
the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other
person owes any money,
and that the superintendent and any deputy
superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all
state-chartered
banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject
to regulation
under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom
the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.
(6) The names of all persons residing or transacting
business in the state, other than a depository excluded under
division (A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one
thousand
dollars to the person filing the statement, either in the
person's
own
name or to any person for the person's use or benefit.
Division
(A)(6) of this section
shall not be construed to require
the disclosure of clients of
attorneys or persons licensed under
section 4732.12 or 4732.15 of
the Revised Code, or patients of
persons certified under section
4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor
the disclosure of debts owed to
the person resulting from the
ordinary conduct of a business or
profession.
(7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the
Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five
dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by
a
member of the general assembly from a legislative agent,
received
by the person in the person's own name or by any
other person for
the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar
year,
except
gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of
the
Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents,
children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles,
aunts,
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law,
daughters-in-law,
fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person
to whom the person
filing the statement stands in loco parentis,
or received by way
of distribution from any inter vivos or
testamentary trust
established by a spouse or by an ancestor;
(8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the
Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every
payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or
outside this state that is received by the person in the
person's
own name
or by any other person for the person's use or benefit
and
that is
incurred in connection with the person's official
duties, except
for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions
of a national
or state organization to which
any state agency,
including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state
institution of
higher
education as defined in section
3345.011 of
the Revised
Code,
pays
membership dues, or any political
subdivision or any
office or
agency of a political subdivision
pays membership dues;
(9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the
Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses
for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and
other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the
person
participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement
or at a
meeting or convention of a national or state organization
to which
any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative
agency or
state institution of higher education as
defined in
section
3345.011 of the Revised Code,
pays membership dues, or
any
political subdivision or any
office or agency of a political
subdivision pays membership dues,
that are incurred in connection
with the person's official duties
and that exceed one hundred
dollars aggregated per calendar year;
(10) If the financial disclosure statement is filed by a
public official or employee described in division (B)(2) of
section 101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section
121.63 of the Revised Code who receives a statement from a
legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that
contains the information described in division (F)(2) of section
101.73 of the Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63
of
the Revised Code, all of the nondisputed information contained
in
the statement delivered to that public official or employee by
the
legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer
under
division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section
121.63 of
the Revised Code. As used in division (A)(10) of this
section,
"legislative agent,"
"executive agency
lobbyist," and
"employer"
have the same meanings as in sections 101.70 and
121.60 of the
Revised Code.
A person may file a statement required by this section in
person or by mail. A person who is a candidate for elective
office shall file the statement no later than the thirtieth
day
before the primary, special, or general election at which
the
candidacy is to be voted on, whichever election occurs
soonest,
except that a person who is a write-in candidate shall file the
statement no later than the twentieth day before the earliest
election at which the person's candidacy is to be voted on.
A
person who
holds elective office shall file the statement on or
before
the
fifteenth day of April of each year unless the person
is a
candidate for
office. A person who is appointed to fill a
vacancy for an
unexpired term in an elective office shall file the
statement
within fifteen days after the person qualifies for
office.
Other persons
shall file an annual statement on or before
the fifteenth day of
April or, if appointed or employed after that
date, within ninety
days after appointment or employment. No
person shall be
required to file with the appropriate ethics
commission more than
one statement or pay more than one filing fee
for any one
calendar year.
The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may
extend
for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a
statement under
this section.
A statement filed under this section is subject to public
inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics
commission except as otherwise provided in this section.
(B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative
ethics
committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances
and
discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making
procedures
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any
class of
public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and
not
specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve
a
substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion
in
the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds,
enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city,
or
the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual
statement
on or before the fifteenth day of April under division
(A) of this
section. The appropriate ethics commission shall
send the public
officials or employees written notice of the
requirement by the
fifteenth day of February of each year the
filing is required
unless the public official or employee is
appointed after that
date, in which case the notice shall be sent
within thirty days
after appointment, and the filing shall be
made not later than
ninety days after appointment.
Except for disclosure
statements filed by members of the
board of trustees and the executive
director of the tobacco use
prevention and control foundation
and members of the
board of
trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio
agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure
statements filed under this
division with the
Ohio ethics commission by members of boards,
commissions, or
bureaus of the state for which no compensation is
received other
than reasonable and necessary expenses shall be
kept confidential. Disclosure
statements filed
with the Ohio
ethics commission under division (A) of this
section by business
managers, treasurers, and superintendents of
city, local, exempted
village, joint vocational, or
cooperative education school
districts or educational service centers shall be
kept
confidential, except that any person conducting an audit of any
such school district
or educational service center pursuant to
section 115.56 or Chapter 117.
of the Revised Code may examine the
disclosure statement of any
business manager, treasurer, or
superintendent of that school
district or educational service
center. The Ohio ethics commission shall
examine each disclosure
statement required to be kept confidential to
determine whether a
potential conflict of interest exists for the
person who filed the
disclosure statement. A potential conflict
of interest exists if
the private interests of the person, as
indicated by the person's
disclosure statement, might
interfere with the
public interests
the person is required to serve in the
exercise of the person's
authority and duties in
the person's office or position of
employment. If
the commission determines that a potential
conflict of interest
exists, it shall notify the person who filed
the disclosure
statement and shall make the portions of the
disclosure statement
that indicate a potential conflict of
interest subject to public
inspection in the same manner as is
provided for other disclosure
statements. Any portion of the
disclosure statement that the
commission determines does not
indicate a potential conflict of
interest shall be kept
confidential by the commission and shall
not be made subject to
public inspection, except as is necessary
for the enforcement of
Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised
Code and except as
otherwise provided in this
division.
(C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before
the
applicable filing deadline established under this section, a
statement that is required by this section.
(D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that
is
required to be filed under this section.
(E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of
this section,
the statement required
by division
(A) or (B) of
this section shall be accompanied by a
filing fee of twenty-five
forty dollars.
(2) The statement required by division (A) of this section
shall be accompanied by a the following filing fee to be paid by the person who
is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any of the
following offices:
|
For state office, except member of the |
|
|
|
state board of education |
|
$50 65 |
|
For office of member of United States |
|
|
|
congress or member of general assembly |
|
$25 |
|
For county office |
|
$25 40 |
|
For city office |
|
$10 25 |
|
For office of member of the state board |
|
|
|
of education |
|
$20 25 |
|
For office of member of a city, local, |
|
|
|
exempted village, or cooperative |
|
|
|
education board of |
|
|
|
education or educational service |
|
|
|
center governing board |
|
$ 5 20 |
|
For position of business manager, |
|
|
|
treasurer, or superintendent of a |
|
|
|
city, local, exempted village, joint |
|
|
|
vocational, or cooperative education |
|
|
|
school district or |
|
|
|
educational service center |
|
$ 5 20 |
(3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge
of
a court
of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a
court of
record, shall be required to pay the fee required under
division
(E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.
(4) For any public official who is appointed to a
nonelective office of the state and for any employee who holds a
nonelective position in a public agency of the state, the state
agency that is the primary employer of the state official or
employee shall pay the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F)
of this section.
(F) If a statement required to be filed under this section
is not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the
appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to
file the statement a late filing fee equal to one-half of the
applicable filing fee ten dollars for each day the statement is not filed,
except that the total amount of the late filing fee shall not
exceed one two hundred fifty dollars.
(G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the
Ohio
ethics commission shall deposit all fees it receives under
divisions (E) and (F) of this section into the general revenue
fund of the state.
(2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts,
including, but
not limited to, fees it
receives under divisions
(E) and (F) of this section and all
moneys it receives from
settlements under division (G) of section
102.06 of the Revised
Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund,
which is hereby
created in the state treasury. All moneys
credited to the fund
shall be used solely for expenses related to
the operation and
statutory functions of the commission.
(H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a
person
elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or
district
committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised
Code; a
presidential elector; a delegate to a national
convention; village
or township officials and employees; any
physician or psychiatrist
who is paid a salary or wage in
accordance with schedule C of
section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of
section 124.152 of the Revised
Code and whose primary duties do
not require the exercise of
administrative discretion; or any
member of a board, commission,
or bureau of any county or city
who receives less than one
thousand dollars per year for serving
in that position.
Sec. 109.57. (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from wherever
procurable and file
for record photographs, pictures, descriptions, fingerprints,
measurements, and other information that may be pertinent of
all persons who have been convicted of committing within this state a
felony, any crime
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division
(A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of all
children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that would
be a felony or
an offense of violence if committed by an adult or who have been
convicted of
or pleaded guilty to committing within this state a felony or an offense
of violence, and of all
well-known and habitual criminals. The person
in charge of any
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional
facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or
state correctional institution and the person in
charge of any state institution having custody of a person
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses,
or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a)
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or having custody of a child
under eighteen years of age with respect to whom there is
probable
cause to believe that the child may have committed an act that would
be a felony or
an offense of violence if committed by an adult shall furnish such
material
to the superintendent of
the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of age,
has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act
that would be a felony or an offense of
violence if committed by an adult, has not
been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act
that would be a felony or an offense of violence
if committed by an adult, has not been convicted of
or pleaded guilty to committing a
felony or an
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there is
probable cause to
believe that the child may have committed an act
that would be a felony or
an offense of violence if committed by an adult
shall not be procured by the superintendent or furnished by any
person in charge of any
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional
facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or
state correctional institution, except as
authorized in section 2151.313 of the Revised Code.
(2) Every clerk of a
court of record in this state, other than the
supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the
superintendent of
the bureau a weekly report containing a summary of each case
involving a felony, involving any crime constituting a
misdemeanor on the
first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, involving a misdemeanor
described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572
of the Revised Code, or involving an
adjudication in a case in which a child under eighteen years of age was
alleged to be a delinquent child
for committing an act that would be a
felony or an offense of violence if committed by
an adult. The clerk
of the court of common pleas shall include in the report and summary the clerk
sends under this division all information described in divisions
(A)(2)(a) to (f) of this section
regarding a case before the court of appeals that is served by that
clerk. The summary shall be written on the standard forms
furnished by the
superintendent pursuant to division (B) of this section and shall
include the following information:
(a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard forms
furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of this
section;
(b) The style and number of the case;
(d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded guilty
to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the act that
would be
a felony or an
offense of violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an act that
would be a
felony or an
offense of violence if committed by an adult, the date of an entry
dismissing
the charge, an entry declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person
is discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not competent to
stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the date of any other
determination that constitutes final resolution of the case;
(e) A statement of the original charge with the section of the Revised Code
that was alleged to be violated;
(f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or was
adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or
terms of probation imposed or any other disposition of the
offender or the delinquent child.
If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement officer or an
attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the clerk shall
clearly state that fact in the summary, and the superintendent shall ensure
that a clear statement of that fact is placed in the bureau's records.
(3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist
sheriffs,
chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in the establishment of
a complete system of criminal identification and in obtaining
fingerprints and other means of identification of all persons
arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime constituting a
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent
offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division
(A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and of all children
under
eighteen years of age arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing
an act that would
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult.
The
superintendent also shall file for record the
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, multicounty,
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse,
community-based correctional facility, halfway house,
alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution for
the violation of state
laws and of all children under
eighteen years of age who
are confined in a county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or
state correctional
institution or in any
facility for delinquent children for committing an act
that would be a felony or
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, and any other
information
that the superintendent may receive from law enforcement
officials of the state and its political subdivisions.
(4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of
the
Revised Code with respect to the registration of
persons who are convicted of or plead guilty
to a sexually oriented offense and with respect to all other duties imposed on
the bureau under that chapter.
(B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional
facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or
state correctional institution and to every clerk of a court in this
state specified in division (A)(2) of this
section standard forms for reporting the information required
under division (A) of this
section. The standard forms that the superintendent prepares pursuant to
this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both
tangible formats and electronic formats.
(C) The superintendent may operate a center for
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are adjudicated
delinquent children for committing an
act that would be a felony or an offense of
violence if committed by an adult, criminal activity, crime prevention,
law
enforcement,
and criminal justice, and may establish and operate a statewide
communications network to gather and disseminate information,
data, and statistics for the use of law enforcement agencies. The
superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to children who are
under eighteen years of age and that are gathered pursuant to sections 109.57
to 109.61 of the Revised Code together with information, data, and
statistics that pertain to adults and that are gathered pursuant to those
sections.
(D) The information and materials furnished to the
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section and
information and materials furnished to any board or person under
division (F) or (G) of this section are not public records under section
149.43 of the Revised Code.
(E) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, setting forth the
procedure by which a person may receive or release information
gathered by the superintendent pursuant to
division (A) of this
section. A reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a
temporary employment service submits a request for a determination
of whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense
listed in division (A)(1), (3), (4), or (5), or (6) of section 109.572
of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a single
request and only one fee shall be charged.
(F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been
approved to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the
"Community Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42
U.S.C.A. 9831, as amended.
(2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32,
3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, 5126.28,
5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, the board of education
of any school district; the director of mental retardation and
developmental disabilities; any county board of mental retardation
and developmental disabilities; any entity under contract with a
county board of mental retardation and developmental
disabilities; the chief administrator of any chartered nonpublic
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency;
the chief administrator of or person operating any child
day-care center, type A family day-care home, or type B family
day-care home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of the
Revised Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care
home certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start agency;
or the executive director of a public children services agency
may request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any individual
wishing to apply for employment with a board of education may
request, with regard to the
individual, whether the bureau has any
information gathered under division (A) of this section that
pertains to that individual. On receipt of the request, the
superintendent shall determine whether that information
exists
and, upon request of the person, board, or entity requesting
information, also shall request from the federal bureau of
investigation any criminal records it has pertaining
to that
individual. Within thirty days of the date that the superintendent
receives a
request, the superintendent shall send to the board, entity, or
person a report of any information that the superintendent
determines exists,
including information contained in records that have been sealed
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty
days of its receipt, shall send the board, entity, or person a
report of any information received from the federal
bureau of investigation, other than information the dissemination
of which is prohibited by federal law.
(b) When a board of education is required to receive information
under this section as a prerequisite to employment of an
individual pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it may accept a
certified copy of records that were issued
by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are
presented by an individual applying for employment with the
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a case, the
board shall accept the certified copy issued by the bureau in order to make a
photocopy of it for that individual's employment application documents and
shall return the certified copy to the individual. In a case of that nature,
a district only shall
accept a certified copy of records of that nature within one year
after the date of their issuance by the
bureau.
(3) The state board of education may request, with respect
to any individual who has applied for employment after October 2,
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of
education, any information that a school district board of
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2)
of this section, and the
superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request has
been received from a school district board of education under
division (F)(2) of this section.
(4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a
request for information that is authorized under section 3319.291
of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall proceed as if the
request has been received from a school district board of
education under division (F)(2) of this section.
(5) When a recipient of an OhioReads classroom
or
community reading
grant paid under section 3301.86 or 3301.87 of the Revised
Code
or an entity approved by the OhioReads council
requests, with respect to any individual who applies to participate in
providing any program or service
through an entity approved by the OhioReads council
or
funded in whole or in
part by the grant, the information that a school district board of
education is authorized to request under division
(F)(2)(a) of
this section, the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the
request has been
received from a school district board of education under division
(F)(2)(a) of this section.
(G) In addition to or in conjunction with
any request that is required to be made under section 173.41, 3701.881,
3712.09,
3721.121, or 3722.151 of the Revised
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment in
a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, the chief
administrator of a PASSPORT agency that provides services through the
PASSPORT program created under section 173.40 of the Revised
Code, home health agency,
hospice care program, home licensed under Chapter 3721.
of the Revised Code, adult day-care program
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the
Revised Code, or adult care facility
may request that the superintendent of the bureau
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has
applied after
January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that
does not involve providing
direct care to an older adult, whether the bureau has any information
gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains
to that individual. On receipt of the request, the
superintendent shall determine whether that information
exists
and, on request of the administrator requesting information,
shall also request from the federal bureau of investigation any
criminal records it has pertaining to that
individual. Within
thirty days of the date a request is received, the superintendent
shall send to the administrator a report of any
information determined to exist, including information contained
in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the
Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its
receipt, shall send the administrator a report of any
information received from the federal bureau of
investigation,
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited
by federal law.
(H) Information obtained by a board,
administrator, or other person under this section is confidential
and shall not be released or disseminated.
(I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2)
or (G) of this section.
Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 5104.012, 5104.013, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.
(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5123.081 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, pursuant to section 5126.28 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with a county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, or pursuant to section 5126.281 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in a direct services position with an entity contracting with a county board for employment, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.41, 3712.09, 3721.121, or 3722.151 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(3)(a) of this section.
(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency as a person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.
(5) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5111.95 or 5111.96 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with agencies participating in department of job and family services administered waivers or independent providers in department administered home and community-based service programs in a position that involves providing home and community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of
the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04,
2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16,
2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.12, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.
(6) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(5)(6)(a) of this section.
(6)(7) When conducting a criminal records check upon a request pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, in addition to the determination made under division (A)(1) of this section, the superintendent shall determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.
(7)(8) When conducting a criminal records check on a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of the Revised Code for a person who is a prospective foster caregiver or who is eighteen years old or older and resides in the home of a prospective foster caregiver, the superintendent, in addition to the determination made under division (A)(1) of this section, shall determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of:
(a) Section 2909.02 or 2909.03 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to section 2909.02 or 2909.03 of the Revised Code.
(8)(9) Not later than thirty days after the date the superintendent receives the request, completed form, and fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request any information, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exists with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7), or (8) of this section, as appropriate. The superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request a copy of the list of offenses specified in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7), or (8) of this section, as appropriate. If the request was made under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with regard to an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult, the superintendent shall provide a list of the offenses specified in divisions (A)(4) and (5)(6) of this section.
(B) The superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check requested under section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code as follows:
(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the request, including any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;
(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the request and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau.
(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is required by section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.
(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is required by section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. Any person for whom a records check is required by any of those sections shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.
(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check requested under section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The person making a criminal records request under section 173.41, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. A person making a request under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code for a criminal records check for an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult shall pay one fee for the request.
(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic
method.
(D) A determination whether any information exists that indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1)(a) or (b), (A)(2)(a) or (b), (A)(3)(a) or (b), (A)(4)(a) or (b), (A)(5)(a) or (b), (A)(6), or (A)(7)(a) or (b), or (A)(8)(a) or (b) of this section that is made by the superintendent with respect to information considered in a criminal records check in accordance with this section is valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent makes the determination. During the period in which the determination in regard to a person is valid, if another request under this section is made for a criminal records check for that person, the superintendent shall provide the information that is the basis for the superintendent's initial determination at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.
(E) As used in this section:
(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.
(2) "Home and community-based waiver services" has the same meaning as in section 5111.95 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
(3)(4) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.
Sec. 109.71. There is hereby created in the office of the
attorney general the Ohio peace officer training commission. The
commission shall consist of nine members appointed by the governor
with the advice and consent of the senate and selected as
follows:
one member representing the public; two members who are
incumbent
sheriffs; two members who are incumbent chiefs of
police; one
member from the bureau of criminal identification and
investigation; one member from the state highway patrol; one
member who is the special agent in charge of a field office of
the
federal bureau of investigation in this state; and one member
from
the department of education, trade and industrial
education
services, law enforcement training.
As used in sections 109.71 to 109.77 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Peace officer" means:
(1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of
the
organized police department of a township or municipal
corporation, member of a township police district or joint
township police district police force, member of a police force
employed by a metropolitan housing authority under division (D)
of
section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, or township constable,
who is
commissioned and employed as a peace officer by a
political
subdivision of this state or by a metropolitan housing
authority,
and whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to
protect
life and property, and to enforce the laws of this state,
ordinances of a municipal corporation, resolutions of a township,
or regulations of a board of county commissioners or board of
township trustees, or any of those laws, ordinances,
resolutions,
or regulations;
(2) A police officer who is employed by a railroad company
and
appointed and commissioned by the governor pursuant to
sections
4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;
(3) Employees of the department of taxation engaged in the
enforcement of Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code laws the tax commissioner administers and designated
by
the tax commissioner for peace officer training for purposes
of
the delegation of investigation powers under section 5743.45 5703.58
of
the Revised Code;
(4) An undercover drug agent;
(5) Enforcement agents of the
department of public safety
whom the director of
public safety designates under section
5502.14 of the Revised
Code;
(6) An employee of the department of natural resources who
is a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated
pursuant to
section 1501.013, a park officer designated pursuant
to
section
1541.10, a
forest officer designated pursuant to
section 1503.29, a preserve
officer designated pursuant to section
1517.10, a wildlife officer designated
pursuant to section
1531.13, or a state watercraft
officer designated pursuant to
section 1547.521 of the Revised
Code;
(7) An employee of a park district who is designated
pursuant to section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;
(8) An employee of a conservancy district who is
designated
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;
(9) A police officer who is employed by a hospital that
employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or
security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by the
governor pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised
Code;
(10) Veterans' homes police officers designated under
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code;
(11) A police officer who is employed by a qualified
nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section
1702.80 of the Revised Code;
(12) A state university law enforcement officer appointed
under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a
state
university law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on
June 19,
1978, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive
director of the
Ohio peace officer training
commission
attesting to
the person's
satisfactory completion of an approved
state, county,
municipal, or department
of natural resources peace
officer basic
training program;
(13) A special police officer employed by the department of
mental health pursuant to section 5119.14 of the Revised Code or
the department of mental retardation and developmental
disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code;
(14) A member of a campus police department appointed
under
section 1713.50 of the Revised Code;
(15) A member of a police force employed by a regional
transit authority
under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the
Revised Code;
(16) Investigators appointed by the auditor of state
pursuant to
section
117.091 of the Revised Code and engaged in the
enforcement of Chapter 117. of
the Revised Code;
(17) A special police officer designated by the
superintendent of the
state highway patrol pursuant to section
5503.09 of the Revised Code
or a person who was serving as a
special police officer pursuant
to that section
on a permanent
basis on
October 21, 1997, and who has
been awarded a certificate
by the executive director of the
Ohio peace officer training
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of
an
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural
resources peace officer basic training program;
(18) A special police officer employed by a port
authority under section
4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code
or
a person serving as a special police officer employed
by a port
authority on a permanent basis on
May
17, 2000, who has been
awarded a certificate by the
executive director of the Ohio
peace officer training
commission
attesting to the person's
satisfactory completion of an
approved
state, county, municipal,
or department of natural
resources peace
officer basic training
program;
(19) A special police officer employed by a municipal
corporation who has been awarded a certificate by the executive
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission for
satisfactory completion of an approved peace officer basic
training program and who is employed on a permanent basis on or
after the effective date of this amendment March 19, 2003, at a municipal airport,
or other municipal air navigation facility, that
has scheduled
operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14
of the Code of
Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended,
and that is
required to be under a security program and is
governed by
aviation security rules of the transportation security
administration of the United States department of transportation
as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of
Federal Regulations, as amended.
(B) "Undercover drug agent" has the same meaning as in
division (B)(2) of section 109.79 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Crisis intervention training" means training in the
use
of interpersonal and communication skills to most effectively
and
sensitively interview victims of rape.
(D) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section
2901.30 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 117.45. (A) The auditor of state shall draw warrants
against the treasurer of state pursuant to all requests for
payment that the director of budget and management has approved
under section 126.07 of the Revised Code.
(B) Unless the director of job and family services has
provided for
the making of payments by electronic benefit transfer, if a
financial institution and account have been designated by the
participant or recipient, payment by the auditor of state to a
participant in the Ohio works first program pursuant to Chapter 5107. of the
Revised Code or a recipient of disability financial assistance pursuant to Chapter 5115.
of the
Revised Code shall be made by direct deposit to the account of
the participant or recipient in the financial institution. Payment by
the auditor of state to a recipient of benefits
distributed through the medium of electronic benefit transfer pursuant to
section 5101.33 of the Revised Code shall be by electronic
benefit transfer. Payment by the auditor of state as compensation
to an employee of the state who has, pursuant to section 124.151
of the Revised Code, designated a financial institution and
account for the direct deposit of such payments shall be made by
direct deposit to the account of the employee. Payment to any
other payee who has designated a financial institution and
account for the direct deposit of such payment may be made by
direct deposit to the account of the payee in the financial
institution as provided in section 9.37 of the Revised Code. The
auditor of state shall contract with an authorized financial
institution for the services necessary to make direct deposits or
electronic benefit transfers under this division and draw lump
sum warrants payable to that institution in the amount to be
transferred. Accounts maintained by the auditor of state or the
auditor of state's agent in a financial institution for the purpose of
effectuating
payment by direct deposit or electronic benefit transfer shall be
maintained in accordance with section 135.18 of the Revised Code.
(C) All other payments from the state treasury shall be
made by paper warrants or by direct deposit payable to the respective
payees. The
auditor of state may mail the paper warrants to the respective
payees or distribute them through other state agencies, whichever
the auditor of state determines to be the better procedure.
(D) If the average per transaction cost the auditor of
state incurs in making direct deposits for a state agency exceeds
the average per transaction cost the auditor of state incurs
in drawing paper
warrants for all public offices during the same period of time,
the auditor of state may certify the difference in cost and
the number of direct
deposits for the agency to the director of administrative
services. The director shall reimburse the auditor of state for
such additional costs and add the amount to the processing charge
assessed upon the state agency.
Sec. 119.035. An agency may appoint an
advisory committee to advise the agency concerning its
development of a rule, amendment, or rescission, and may
otherwise consult with persons representing interests that would
be affected by the rule, amendment, or rescission were it
actually to be proposed and adopted. Upon an agency's request,
the executive director or another officer or employee of the
Ohio commission on dispute
resolution and conflict management may serve as a group
facilitator for, but not as a member of, such an advisory
committee.
Sec. 121.04. Offices are created within the several
departments as follows:
In the department of commerce:
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Commissioner of securities; |
|
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Superintendent of real estate and professional licensing; |
|
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Superintendent of financial institutions; |
|
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Fire marshal; |
|
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Superintendent of labor and worker safety; |
|
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Beginning on July 1, 1997, |
|
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Superintendent of liquor control; |
|
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Superintendent of industrial compliance. |
In the department of administrative services:
|
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State architect and engineer; |
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Equal employment opportunity coordinator. |
In the department of agriculture:
Chiefs of divisions as follows:
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Administration; |
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Animal industry; |
|
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Dairy; |
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Food safety; |
|
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Plant industry; |
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Markets; |
|
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Meat inspection; |
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Consumer analytical laboratory; |
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Amusement ride safety; |
|
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Enforcement; |
|
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Weights and measures. |
In the department of natural resources:
Chiefs of divisions as follows:
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Water; |
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Mineral resources management; |
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Forestry; |
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Natural areas and preserves; |
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Wildlife; |
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Geological survey; |
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Parks and recreation; |
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Watercraft; |
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Recycling and litter prevention; |
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Civilian conservation; |
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Soil and water conservation; |
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Real estate and land management; |
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Engineering. |
In the department of insurance:
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Deputy superintendent of insurance; |
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Assistant superintendent of insurance, technical; |
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Assistant superintendent of insurance,
administrative; |
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Assistant superintendent of insurance, research. |
Sec. 121.084. (A) All moneys collected
under sections
1333.96,
3783.05, 3791.07,
4104.07, 4104.18, 4104.42, 4104.44,
4104.45, 4105.17, 4105.20,
4169.03, 4171.04,
and 5104.051 of the
Revised Code, and
any other moneys collected by the division of
industrial
compliance shall be paid into the state
treasury to the
credit of
the industrial compliance operating
fund, which is
hereby created.
The
department of commerce shall use the
moneys in
the fund for
paying the operating expenses of the
division and the
administrative assessment described in
division (B) of this
section.
(B) The director of commerce, with the approval of the
director
of budget and management, shall prescribe procedures for
assessing the
industrial compliance operating fund a proportionate
share of the
administrative costs of the department of commerce.
The assessment shall be
made in accordance with those procedures
and be paid from the industrial
compliance operating fund to the
division of administration fund created in
section 121.08 of the
Revised Code.
Sec. 122.011. (A) The department of development shall
develop and promote plans and programs designed to assure that
state resources are efficiently used, economic growth is properly
balanced, community growth is developed in an orderly manner, and
local governments are coordinated with each other and the state,
and for such purposes may do all of the following:
(1) Serve as a clearinghouse for information, data, and
other materials that may be helpful or necessary to persons or
local governments, as provided in section 122.07 of the Revised
Code;
(2) Prepare and activate plans for the retention,
development, expansion, and use of the resources and commerce of
the state, as provided in section 122.04 of the Revised Code;
(3) Assist and cooperate with federal, state, and local
governments and agencies of federal, state, and local
governments
in the coordination of programs to carry out the functions and
duties of the department;
(4) Encourage and foster research and development
activities, conduct studies related to the solution of community
problems, and develop recommendations for administrative or
legislative actions, as provided in section 122.03 of the Revised
Code;
(5) Serve as the economic and community development
planning
agency, which shall prepare and recommend plans and
programs for
the orderly growth and development of this state and
which shall
provide planning assistance, as provided in section
122.06 of the
Revised Code;
(6) Cooperate with and provide technical assistance to
state
departments, political subdivisions, regional and local
planning
commissions, tourist associations, councils of
government,
community development groups, community action
agencies, and other
appropriate organizations for carrying out the
functions and
duties of the department or for the solution of
community
problems;
(7) Coordinate the activities of state agencies that have
an
impact on carrying out the functions and duties of the
department;
(8) Encourage and assist the efforts of and cooperate with
local governments to develop mutual and cooperative solutions to
their common problems that relate to carrying out the purposes of
this section;
(9) Study existing structure, operations, and financing of
regional or local government and those state activities that
involve significant relations with regional or local governmental
units, recommend to the governor and to the general assembly such
changes in these provisions and activities as will improve the
operations of regional or local government, and conduct other
studies of legal provisions that affect problems related to
carrying out the purposes of this section;
(10) Appoint, with the approval of the governor,
technical
and other advisory councils as it considers
appropriate, as
provided in section 122.09 of the Revised Code;
(11) Create and operate a division of community development
to develop and
administer programs and activities that are
authorized by federal statute or
the Revised Code;
(12) Until July 1,
2003 October 15, 2005,
establish fees and charges, in
consultation with the
director of agriculture, for purchasing
loans from financial institutions and
providing loan guarantees
under the family farm
loan program created under sections 901.80
to 901.83 of the Revised Code;
(13) Provide loan servicing for the loans purchased and
loan
guarantees
provided
under section 901.80 of the Revised Code
as
that section
existed prior to July 1,
2003 October 15, 2005;
(14) Until July 1,
2003 October 15, 2005,
and upon approval by the
controlling board under division
(A)(3) of section 901.82 of the
Revised
Code of the release of money to
be used for purchasing a
loan or providing a loan guarantee, request the
release of
that
money in accordance with division
(B) of section 166.03 of the
Revised
Code for use for the purposes
of the fund created by
section 166.031 of the
Revised Code.
(B)
The director of development may request the attorney
general
to, and the attorney general, in accordance with section
109.02 of the Revised Code, shall
bring a civil action in any
court of competent jurisdiction. The director may
be sued in the
director's official capacity, in connection with this chapter,
in
accordance with Chapter 2743. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 122.04. The department of development shall do the following:
(A) Maintain a continuing evaluation of the sources
available for the retention, development, or expansion of
industrial and commercial facilities in this state through both
public and private agencies;
(B) Assist public and private agencies in obtaining
information necessary to evaluate the desirability of the
retention, construction, or expansion of industrial and
commercial facilities in the state;
(C) Facilitate contracts between community improvement
corporations organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code or
Ohio development corporations organized under Chapter 1726. of
the Revised Code and industrial and commercial concerns seeking
to locate or expand in Ohio the state;
(D) Upon request, consult with public agencies or
authorities in the preparation of studies of human and economic
needs or advantages relating to economic and community
development;
(E) Encourage, promote, and assist trade and commerce
between this state and foreign nations;
(F) Promote and encourage persons to visit and travel
within this state;
(G) Maintain membership in the national association of state
development agencies;
(H) Assist in the development of facilities and
technologies that will lead to increased, environmentally sound
use of Ohio coal;
(I) Promote economic growth in the state.
Sec. 122.08. (A) There is hereby created within the
department of development an office to be known as the office of
small business. The office shall be under the supervision of a
manager appointed by the director of development.
(B) The office shall do all of the following:
(1) Act as liaison between the small business community
and state governmental agencies;
(2) Furnish information and technical assistance to
persons and small businesses concerning the establishment and
maintenance of a small business, and concerning state laws and
rules relevant to the operation of a small business. In
conjunction with these duties, the office shall keep a record of
all state agency rules affecting individuals, small businesses,
or small organizations, as defined in section 121.24 of the
Revised Code, and may testify before the joint committee on
agency rule review concerning any proposed rule affecting
individuals, small businesses, or small organizations.
(3) Prepare and publish the small business register under
section 122.081 of the Revised Code;
(4) Receive complaints from small businesses concerning
governmental activity, compile and analyze those complaints, and
periodically make recommendations to the governor and the general
assembly on changes in state laws or agency rules needed to
eliminate burdensome and unproductive governmental regulation to
improve the economic climate within which small businesses
operate;
(5) Receive complaints or questions from small businesses
and direct such those businesses to the appropriate governmental
agency. If, within a reasonable period of time, a complaint is
not satisfactorily resolved or a question is not satisfactorily
answered, the office shall, on behalf of the small business, make
every effort to secure a satisfactory result. For this purpose,
the office may consult with any state governmental agency and may
make any suggestion or request that seems appropriate.
(6) Utilize, to the maximum extent possible, the printed
and electronic media to disseminate information of current
concern and interest to the small business community and to make
known to small businesses the services available through the
office. The office shall publish such books, pamphlets, and
other printed materials, and shall participate in such trade
association meetings, conventions, fairs, and other meetings
involving the small business community, as the manager considers
appropriate.
(7) Prepare for inclusion in the department of
development's annual report to the governor and general assembly,
a description of the activities of the office and a report of the
number of rules affecting individuals, small businesses, and
small organizations that were filed with the office under
division (B)(2) of section 121.24 of the Revised Code, during the
preceding calendar year;
(8) Operate the Ohio one-stop business permit center first-stop business connection to assist
individuals in identifying and preparing applications for business licenses,
permits, and certificates and to serve as the central public distributor for
all forms, applications, and other information related to business licensing.
Each state agency, board, and commission shall cooperate in providing
assistance, information, and materials to enable the center connection to perform its
duties under this division (B)(8) of this section.
(C) The office of small business may, upon the request of
a state agency, assist the agency with the preparation of any
rule that will affect individuals, small businesses, or small
organizations.
(D) The director of development shall assign such
employees and furnish such equipment and supplies to the office
as the director considers necessary for the proper
performance of the duties assigned to the office.
Sec. 122.17. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is
employed for consideration for at least thirty-five hours a week,
or who renders any other standard of service generally accepted
by custom or specified by contract as full-time employment.
(2) "New employee" means one of the following:
(a) A full-time employee first employed by a taxpayer in
the project that is the subject of the agreement after the
taxpayer enters into a tax credit agreement with the tax credit
authority under this section;
(b) A full-time employee first employed by a taxpayer in
the project that is the subject of the tax credit after the tax
credit authority approves a project for a tax credit under this
section in a public meeting, as long as the taxpayer enters into
the tax credit agreement prepared by the department of
development after such meeting within sixty days after receiving
the agreement from the department. If the taxpayer fails to
enter into the agreement within sixty days, "new employee" has
the same meaning as under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
Under division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, if the tax
credit authority determines it appropriate, "new employee" also
may include an employee re-hired or called back from lay-off to
work in a new facility or on a new product or service established
or produced by the taxpayer after entering into the agreement
under this section or after the tax credit authority approves the
tax credit in a public meeting. "New employee" does not include
any employee of the taxpayer who was previously employed in this
state by a related member of the taxpayer and whose employment
was shifted to the taxpayer after the taxpayer entered into the
tax credit agreement or after the tax credit authority approved
the credit in a public meeting, or any employee of the taxpayer
for which the taxpayer has been granted a certificate under
division (B) of section 5709.66 of the Revised Code.
"New employee" also does not include an employee of the
taxpayer who is employed in an employment position that
was
relocated to a project from other operations of the taxpayer in
this state or from operations of a related member of the
taxpayer in this state.
In
addition, "new employee" does not include a child, grandchild,
parent, or spouse, other than a spouse who is legally separated
from the individual, of any individual who is an employee of the
taxpayer and who has a direct or indirect ownership interest of
at least five per cent in the profits, capital, or value of the
taxpayer. Such ownership interest shall be determined in
accordance with section 1563 of the Internal Revenue Code and
regulations prescribed thereunder.
(3) "New income tax revenue" means the total amount
withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the
taxpayer during the taxable year from the compensation of new
employees for the tax levied under Chapter 5747. of the Revised
Code.
(4) "Related member" has the same meaning as under
division (A)(6) of in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code without
regard to division (B) of that section.
(B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this
section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall
take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax
imposed by section 5733.06 or
5747.02 of the Revised Code. The
credit shall be claimed for the taxable years specified in the
taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under division
(D) of this section. The credit shall be claimed after the
allowance of all other credits provided by Chapter 5733. or 5747.
of the Revised Code. The amount of the credit equals the new
income tax revenue for the taxable year multiplied by the
percentage specified in the agreement with the tax credit
authority.
(C) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a
project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax
credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit
under this section. The director of development
shall prescribe
the form of the application. After receipt of an application,
the authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a
credit under this section if it determines all of the following:
(1) The taxpayer's project will create new jobs in this
state;
(2) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will
benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for
employment and strengthening the economy of this state;
(3) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the
taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.
(D) An agreement under this section shall include all of
the following:
(1) A detailed description of the project that is the
subject of the agreement;
(2) The term of the tax credit, which shall not exceed ten
years, and the first taxable year for which the credit may be
claimed;
(3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain
operations at the project location for at least twice the number
of years as the term of the tax credit;
(4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit
authority, of new income tax revenue that will be allowed as the
amount of the credit for each taxable year;
(5) A specific method for determining how many new
employees are employed during a taxable year;
(6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report
to the director of development the number of new
employees, the
new income tax revenue withheld in connection with the new
employees, and any other information the director needs to
perform his the director's duties under this section;
(7) A requirement that the director of
development
annually shall verify the amounts reported under division (D)(6)
of this section, and after doing so shall issue a certificate to
the taxpayer stating that the amounts have been verified;
(8)(a) A provision requiring that the
taxpayer, except as otherwise provided in division
(D)(8)(b) of this section,
shall not relocate employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the
project site that
is the subject of the agreement for the lesser of five years from the date the
agreement is entered into or the number of years the
taxpayer is entitled to claim the tax credit.
(b) The taxpayer may relocate employment positions from elsewhere
in
this state to the project site that is the subject of the agreement if the
director of development determines both of the
following:
(i) That the site from which the employment positions would be
relocated
is inadequate to meet market and industry conditions, expansion plans,
consolidation plans, or other business considerations affecting the
taxpayer;
(ii) That the legislative authority of the county,
township, or municipal corporation from which the employment positions would
be relocated has
been notified of the relocation.
For purposes of this section, the movement of an
employment position from one political subdivision to another
political subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an
employment position, but the transfer of an individual employee
from one political subdivision to another political subdivision
shall not be considered a relocation of an employment position
as long as the individual's employment position in the first
political subdivision is refilled.
(E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any
condition or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the
tax credit authority may amend the agreement to reduce the
percentage or term of the tax credit. The reduction of the
percentage or term shall take effect in the taxable year
immediately following the taxable year in which the authority
amends the agreement.
If the taxpayer relocates employment positions in violation of the
provision required
under division (D)(8)(a)
of this section, the taxpayer shall not claim the tax credit under section
5733.0610 of the Revised Code for any tax years
following the calendar year in which the relocation occurs, or shall not claim
the tax credit under
section 5747.058 of the Revised Code for the taxable year in
which the relocation occurs and any subsequent taxable years.
(F) Projects that consist solely of
point-of-final-purchase retail facilities are not eligible for a
tax credit under this section. If a project consists of both
point-of-final-purchase retail facilities and nonretail
facilities, only the portion of the project consisting of the
nonretail facilities is eligible for a tax credit and only the
new income tax revenue from new employees of the nonretail
facilities shall be considered when computing the amount of the
tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a
point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that
facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax
credit. Catalog distribution centers are not considered
point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of
this division, and are eligible for tax credits under this
section.
(G) Financial statements and other information submitted
to the department of development or the tax
credit authority by
an applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and
any information taken for any purpose from such statements or
information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of
the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the
authority may
make use of the statements and other information for purposes of
issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings
concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the
request of the tax commissioner, the chairperson of the
authority
shall provide to the commissioner any statement or information
submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in
connection with the credit. The commissioner shall preserve the
confidentiality of the statement or information.
(H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall
submit to the tax commissioner a copy of the director of
development's certificate of verification under division (D)(7)
of this section for the taxable year. However, failure to submit
a copy of the certificate does not invalidate a claim for a
credit.
(I) The director of development, after
consultation with
the tax commissioner and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this
section. The rules may provide for recipients of tax credits
under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative
costs of the tax credit program. At the time the director
gives public
notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code
of the adoption of the rules, the director shall submit copies of
the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the standing
committees on
economic development in the senate and the house of
representatives.
(J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may
include a partnership, a corporation that has made an election
under subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal
Revenue Code, or any other business entity through which income
flows as a distributive share to its owners. A credit received
under this section by a partnership, S-corporation, or other such
business entity shall be apportioned among the persons to whom
the income or profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other
entity is distributed, in the same proportions as those in which
the income or profit is distributed.
(K) If the director of development determines
that a
taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not
complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this
section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority
of the
noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving
the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax
credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state
a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:
(1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project
location for at least one and one-half times the number of years
of the term of the tax credit, an amount not exceeding
twenty-five per cent of the sum of any previously allowed credits
under this section;
(2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project
location for at least the number of years of the term of the tax
credit, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the sum of any
previously allowed credits under this section;
(3) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project
location for less than the number of years of the term of the tax
credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum
of any previously allowed credits under this section.
In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded
to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect
of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the
taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state.
After making the determination, the authority shall certify the
amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner. The commissioner
shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer
under Chapter 5733. or 5747. of the Revised Code. The time
limitations on assessments under Chapter 5733. or 5747. of the
Revised Code do not apply to an assessment under this division,
but the commissioner shall make the assessment within one year
after the date the authority certifies to the commissioner
the amount to be
refunded.
(L) On or before the thirty-first day of March each year,
the director of development shall submit a
report to the
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the
house of representatives on the tax credit program under this
section. The report shall include information on the number of
agreements that were entered into under this section during the
preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the
subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of
projects under agreements entered into before the preceding
calendar year.
During the fifth year of the tax credit program, the
director of development in conjunction with the
director of
budget and management shall conduct an evaluation of it. The
evaluation shall include assessments of the effectiveness of the
program in creating new jobs in this state and of the revenue
impact of the program, and may include a review of the practices
and experiences of other states with similar programs. The
director of development shall submit a report on
the evaluation
to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of
the house of representatives on or before January 1, 1998.
(M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority,
which consists of the director of development
and four other
members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the
senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each
shall appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic
development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a
specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members
appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the
members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker
of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years.
Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial
appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days
after January 13,
1993. Each
member shall serve on the authority until the end of the term for
which the member was appointed. Vacancies shall be filled in
the same
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed
to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term
for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold
office for the
remainder of that term. Members may be reappointed to the
authority. Members of the authority shall receive their
necessary and actual expenses while engaged in the business of
the authority. The director of development
shall serve as
chairperson of the authority, and the members annually
shall elect a
vice-chairperson from among themselves. Three
members of the
authority constitute a quorum to transact and vote on the
business of the authority. The majority vote of the membership
of the authority is necessary to approve any such business,
including the election of the vice-chairperson.
The director of development may appoint a
professional employee of the department of
development to serve as the director's substitute at a meeting of the
authority. The director shall
make the appointment in writing. In the absence of the director
from a meeting of the authority, the appointed substitute shall
serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the
director and the director's
substitute from a meeting, the vice-chairperson
shall serve as
chairperson.
Sec. 122.25. (A) In administering the program
established
under section 122.24 of the Revised
Code, the director of
development shall do all of the
following:
(1) Annually designate, by the first day of January of
each
year, the entities that constitute the eligible areas in this
state as
defined in section 122.23 of the Revised Code;
(2) Inform local governments and others in the state of
the
availability of the program and financial assistance
established
under sections 122.23 to 122.27 of the
Revised Code;
(3) Report to the governor, president of the
senate, speaker
of the house of representatives, and minority leaders of the
senate and the house of representatives by the
thirtieth day of
June of each year on the activities
carried out under the program
during the preceding calendar
year. The report shall include the
number of loans made that year and the
amount and recipient of
each loan.
(4) Work in conjunction with conventional lending
institutions, local
revolving loan funds, private investors, and
other
private and public financing sources to provide loans or
loan guarantees to
eligible applicants;
(5) Establish fees, charges, interest rates, payment
schedules, local
match requirements, and other
terms and
conditions for loans and loan guarantees provided under the loan
program created by section 122.24 of the
Revised Code;
(6) Require each applicant to demonstrate the suitability of
any site for
the assistance sought; that the site has been
surveyed, has adequate or
available utilities, and that there are
no zoning restrictions, environmental
regulations, or other
matters impairing the use of the site for the purpose
intended;
(7) Require each applicant to provide a marketing plan and
management
strategy for the project;
(8) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code establishing all of the following:
(a) Forms and procedures by which eligible
applicants may
apply for assistance;
(b) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and
ranking
applications, and for approving applications that best serve the
goals
of the program;
(c) Reporting requirements and monitoring
procedures;
(d) Guidelines regarding situations in which industrial
parks would be
considered to compete against one another for the
purposes of division
(B)(2) of section 122.27 of the Revised Code;
(e) Any other rules necessary to implement and
administer
the program created by section 122.24 of the
Revised Code.
(B) The director may adopt rules in
accordance with Chapter
119. of the Revised Code
establishing requirements governing
the
use of any industrial park site receiving assistance under section
122.24
of the Revised
Code, such that a certain portion of the
site
must be used for manufacturing, distribution, high
technology, research and
development, or other businesses wherein
a majority of the product or service
produced is exported out of
the state.
(C) As a condition to receiving assistance under section
122.24
of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division
(D)
of this section, an applicant must agree, for a period of five
years, not to permit the use of a site that is developed or
improved with such
assistance to cause the relocation of jobs to
that site from elsewhere in
Ohio.
(D) A site developed or improved with
assistance under
section 122.24 of the Revised
Code may be the site of jobs
relocated from
elsewhere in Ohio if the director of
development
does all of the following:
(1) Makes a written determination that the site from which
the jobs would
be relocated is inadequate to
meet market or
industry conditions, expansion plans, consolidation plans, or
other business considerations affecting the relocating employer;
(2) Provides a copy of the determination
required by
division (D)(1) of this section to
the members of the general
assembly whose legislative districts include the
site from which
the jobs would be relocated, and to the joint legislative
committee on tax incentives;
(3) Determines that the governing body of the area from
which the jobs
would be relocated has been notified in writing by
the relocating company of
the possible relocation.
(E) The director of development must obtain the approval of
the
controlling board for any loan or loan guarantee provided
under sections
122.23 to 122.27 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 122.651. (A) There is hereby created the clean Ohio
council consisting of the director of development or the
director's designee, the director of
environmental protection or
the director's designee, the lieutenant governor or the lieutenant governor's designee, the director of the Ohio public works
commission as a nonvoting, ex officio member, one member of the
majority party of the
senate and one member of the minority party
of the senate to be
appointed by the
president of the senate, one
member of the
majority party of the house of
representatives and
one member of
the minority party of the house of representatives
to be appointed
by the speaker of the house of
representatives,
and seven members
to be appointed by the governor
with the advice
and consent of the
senate. Of the members
appointed by the
governor, one shall
represent the interests of
counties, one shall
represent the
interests of townships, one
shall represent the
interests of
municipal corporations, two
shall represent the
interests of
business and development, and two
shall represent
statewide
environmental advocacy organizations. The members
appointed by
the governor shall reflect the demographic and
economic diversity
of the population of the state. Additionally,
the governor's
appointments shall represent all areas of the
state.
All
appointments to the council shall be made not later
than one hundred twenty
days after
July 26, 2001.
(B) The members appointed by the president of the senate
and
speaker of
the
house of representatives shall serve at the
pleasure of
their
appointing authorities. Of the initial members
appointed by
the
governor to the clean Ohio council, four shall be
appointed
for
two years and three shall be appointed for one year.
Thereafter,
terms of office for members appointed by the governor
shall be for
two years, with each term ending on the same day of
the same month
as did the term that it succeeds. Each of those
members shall
hold office from the date of appointment until the
end of the term
for which the member is appointed.
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the
same manner as provided for original appointments. Any member
appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date
of the term for which the member was appointed shall hold office
for the remainder of that term. A member shall continue in office
after the expiration date of the member's term until the member's
successor takes office or until a period of sixty days has
elapsed, whichever occurs first. The governor may remove a member
appointed by the governor for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or
malfeasance in office.
(C) The director of development governor shall appoint a member of the clean Ohio council to serve as the
chairperson of the clean Ohio council. The director of development shall serve as the vice-chairperson of the council unless appointed chairperson. If the director is appointed chairperson, the council annually shall select from among its members a vice-chairperson to serve while the director is chairperson. The council annually shall
select from among its members a vice-chairperson and a secretary
to keep a record of its proceedings. A majority vote of a quorum
of the
members of the council is necessary to take action on any
matter.
The council may adopt bylaws governing its operation,
including
bylaws that establish the frequency of meetings,
procedures for
reviewing eligible projects under sections 122.65
to 122.658 of the
Revised Code and policies and requirements
established under section
122.657 of the Revised
Code, and other
necessary procedures.
(D)
Members of the clean Ohio council shall be deemed to be
public officials or officers only for the purposes of section 9.86
and Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code. Serving as a
member of the clean Ohio council does not
constitute holding a
public office or position of employment
so as to constitute
grounds for removal
of
public officers or employees
serving as
members of the council
from their offices or positions of
employment.
Members of the
council shall file with the Ohio ethics
commission the disclosure
statement described in division (A) of
section 102.02 of the
Revised Code on the form prescribed by the
commission and be
subject to divisions (C) and (D) of that
section. Members of the
council shall serve without
compensation
for attending council
meetings,
but shall receive their actual and
necessary traveling
and other expenses incurred in the performance
of their official
duties in accordance with the rules of the
office of budget and
management.
(E) Members appointed by the governor
to represent the
interests of counties, townships, and municipal corporations do
not have a
conflict of interest
by virtue of their service in
the
position. For the purposes of this
division, "conflict of
interest" means the taking of any action
as a member
of the
council that affects a public agency the person serves as
an
officer or employee.
(F) The department of development shall provide office space
for the council. The council shall be assisted in its duties by
the staff of the department of development and the environmental
protection agency.
(G) Sections 101.82
to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not
apply to the clean Ohio council.
Sec. 122.658. (A) The clean Ohio revitalization fund is
hereby
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of
moneys
credited to it pursuant to section 151.40 of the Revised
Code. Moneys in
the fund
shall be used to make grants or loans
for projects that
have been
approved
by the clean Ohio council in
accordance with
section
122.653 of
the
Revised Code, except that
the council
annually
shall devote
twenty per cent of the net
proceeds of
obligations deposited in the clean
Ohio
revitalization
fund for
the purposes of
section 122.656 of the Revised Code.
Moneys in the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to
pay
reasonable
costs incurred by the department of development and
the environmental protection agency in administering
sections
122.65 to
122.658 of the Revised Code. All investment
earnings of
the fund
shall be credited to the fund. For two years after
July
26, 2001, investment
Investment earnings
credited to
the clean Ohio
revitalization fund may be used to pay
costs
incurred by the
department
of
development and the
environmental
protection agency
pursuant to
sections 122.65 to
122.658 of the
Revised Code.
The department of
development
shall administer the clean Ohio
revitalization fund in
accordance with this
section, policies and
requirements established
under section 122.657
of the Revised
Code,
and the terms of
agreements entered into by
the council
under
section 122.653 of
the
Revised Code.
(B) Grants awarded and loans made under section 122.653 of
the Revised Code
shall provide not more than seventy-five per cent
of the estimated
total cost of a project. A grant or loan to any
one project shall not
exceed three million dollars. An applicant
shall provide at least
twenty-five per cent of the estimated total
cost of a project. The
applicant's share may consist of one or a
combination of any of
the following:
(1) Payment of the cost of acquiring the property for the
purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658
of the Revised Code;
(2) Payment of the reasonable cost of an assessment at the
property;
(3) The reasonable value, as determined by the council, of
labor and materials that will be contributed by the applicant in
performing the cleanup or remediation;
(4) Moneys received by the applicant in any form for use in
performing the cleanup or remediation;
(5) Loans secured by the applicant for the purpose of the
cleanup or remediation of the brownfield.
Costs that were incurred more than two years prior to the
submission of an application to the clean Ohio council for the
acquisition of property, assessments, and labor and materials
shall not be used as part of the applicant's matching share.
(C) The department of development shall not make any payment
to an applicant from the clean Ohio revitalization fund to pay
costs of the applicant that were not included in an application
for a grant or loan under section 122.653 of the Revised Code or
that
exceed the amount of the estimated total cost of the project
included in the application. If, upon completion of a project,
the costs of the project are less than the amounts included in the
application, the amounts included in the application less the
amounts of the actual costs of the project shall be credited to
the clean Ohio revitalization fund. However, the amounts credited
shall be equivalent in percentage to the percentage of the costs
of the project that were to be funded by the grant or loan from
the fund.
(D) Grants awarded or loans made under section 122.653 of
the Revised
Code from the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be
used by an
applicant only to pay the costs of the actual cleanup
or
remediation of a brownfield and shall not be used by an
applicant
to pay any administrative costs incurred by the
applicant. Costs
related to the use of a certified professional
for purposes of
section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not
administrative costs
and may be paid with moneys from grants
awarded or loans made under section
122.653 of the Revised Code.
(E)
The portion of net proceeds of obligations devoted
under division
(A) of this section for the purposes of section
122.656 of the Revised Code shall be used to make
grants for
assessments, cleanup or remediation of brownfields, and
public
health projects that have been approved by the director
of
development under that section. The
department of development
shall
administer section 122.656 of the Revised Code in
accordance
with
this section, policies and requirements
established under
section
122.657
of the
Revised Code, and the
terms of agreements
entered
into by
the
director under section
122.656 of the Revised
Code.
The director shall not grant more than twenty-five million
dollars
for public health projects under section 122.656 of the
Revised
Code.
(F) Grants awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code
shall be used by an
applicant
only to pay the costs of actually
conducting an
assessment, a cleanup or remediation of a
brownfield, or
a public
health project
and shall not be used by an
applicant to pay any
administrative
costs incurred by the
applicant. Costs related to
the use of a
certified professional
for purposes of section
122.654 of the
Revised Code are not
administrative costs and may
be paid with
moneys from grants
awarded under section 122.656 of
the Revised
Code.
(G)(1) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund is
hereby created in the state treasury. Payments of principal and
interest on loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund
shall be credited to this revolving loan fund, as shall payments
of principal and interest on loans made from the revolving loan
fund itself. The revolving loan fund's investment earnings shall
be credited to it.
(2) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund shall
be used to make loans for the same purposes and subject to the
same policies, requirements, criteria, and application procedures
as loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund.
Sec. 122.87. As used in sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Surety company" means a company that is authorized by the department of
insurance to issue bonds as surety.
(B) "Minority business" means any of the following occupations:
(1) Minority construction contractor;
(3) Minority service vendor.
(C) "Minority construction contractor" means a person who is both a
construction contractor and an
owner of a minority business enterprise certified under division (B) of
section 123.151 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Minority seller" means a person who is both a seller of goods and an
owner of a minority business enterprise listed on the special minority
business enterprise bid notification list under division (B) of section 125.08
of the Revised Code.
(E) "Minority service vendor" means a person who is both a vendor of services
and an owner of a minority business enterprise listed on the special minority
business enterprise bid notification list under division (B) of section 125.08
of the Revised Code.
(F) "Minority business enterprise" has the meaning given in section 122.71 of
the Revised Code.
(G) "EDGE business enterprise" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture certified as a participant in the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program by the director of administrative services under section 123.152 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 122.88. (A) There is hereby created in the state
treasury the minority business bonding fund, consisting of
moneys deposited or credited to it pursuant to section 169.05 of
the Revised Code; all grants, gifts, and contributions received
pursuant to division (B)(9) of section
122.74 of the Revised Code;
all moneys recovered following defaults; and any other moneys
obtained by the director of development for the purposes of
sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be
administered by the director. Moneys in the fund shall be held
in trust for the purposes of sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the
Revised Code.
(B) Any claims against the state arising from defaults
shall be payable from the minority business bonding program
administrative and loss reserve fund as provided in division (C)
of this section or from the minority business bonding fund.
Nothing in sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code grants
or pledges to any obligee or other person any state moneys other
than the moneys in the minority business bonding program
administrative and loss reserve fund or the minority business
bonding fund, or moneys available to the minority business
bonding fund upon request of the director in accordance with
division (B) of section 169.05 of the Revised Code.
(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the
minority business bonding program administrative and loss
reserve fund, consisting of all premiums charged and collected in
accordance with section 122.89 of the Revised Code and any
interest income earned from the moneys in the minority
business bonding fund. All expenses of the director and the
minority development financing advisory board in carrying out the
purposes of sections 122.87 to 122.89 122.90 of the Revised Code shall
be paid from the minority business bonding program
administrative and loss reserve fund.
Any moneys to the credit of the minority business
bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund in excess of
the amount necessary to fund the appropriation authority for the
minority business bonding program administrative and loss
reserve fund shall be held as a loss reserve to pay claims
arising from defaults on surety bonds underwritten in accordance
with section 122.89 of the Revised Code or guaranteed in accordance with section 122.90 of the Revised Code. If the balance of funds
in the minority business bonding program administrative and
loss reserve fund is insufficient to pay a claim against the
state arising from default, then such claim shall be payable from
the minority business bonding fund.
Sec. 122.90. (A) The director of development may guarantee bonds executed by sureties for minority businesses and EDGE business enterprises certified under section 123.152 of the Revised Code as principals on contracts with the state, any political subdivision or instrumentality, or any person as the obligee. The director, as guarantor, may exercise all the rights and powers of a company authorized by the department of insurance to guarantee bonds under Chapter 3929. of the Revised Code but otherwise is not subject to any laws related to a guaranty company under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code nor to any rules of the department of insurance.
(B) The director shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish procedures for the application for bond guarantees and the review and approval of applications for bond guarantees submitted by sureties that execute bonds eligible for guarantees under division (A) of this section.
(C) In accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this section, the director may guarantee up to ninety per cent of the loss incurred and paid by sureties on bonds guaranteed under division (A) of this section.
(D) The penal sum amounts of all outstanding guarantees made by the director under this section shall not exceed three times the difference between the amount of moneys in the minority business bonding fund and available to the fund under division (B) of section 169.05 of the Revised Code and the amount of all outstanding bonds issued by the director in accordance with division (A) of section 122.89 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 123.01. (A) The department of administrative
services, in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124.
and 125. of the Revised Code, and as provided elsewhere by law,
shall exercise the following powers:
(1) To prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans,
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor,
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or
public buildings is a statutory duty of the department. This
section does not require the independent employment of an
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the
Revised Code in the cases to which that section applies nor
affect or alter the existing powers of the director of
transportation.
(2) To have general supervision over the construction of
any projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a
state agency and over the inspection of materials previous to
their incorporation into those projects, improvements, or
buildings;
(3) To make contracts for and supervise the construction
of any projects and improvements or the construction and repair
of buildings under the control of a state agency, except
contracts for the repair of buildings under the management and
control of the departments of public safety, job and
family services,
mental health, mental retardation and developmental disabilities,
rehabilitation and correction, and youth services, the bureau of
workers' compensation, the
rehabilitation
services commission, and boards of trustees of educational and
benevolent institutions. These contracts shall be made and
entered into by the directors of public safety, job and
family services,
mental health, mental retardation and developmental disabilities,
rehabilitation and correction, and youth services, the
administrator of workers' compensation, the rehabilitation services commission,
and the
boards of
trustees of such institutions, respectively. All such contracts
may be in whole or in part on unit price basis of maximum
estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon actual
quantities or units.
(4) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state
agency;
(5) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or
grant, all real estate required by a state agency, in the
exercise of which power the department may exercise the power of
eminent domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to
163.22 of the Revised Code;
(6) To make and provide all plans, specifications, and
models for the construction and perfection of all systems of
sewerage, drainage, and plumbing for the state in connection with
buildings and grounds under the control of a state agency;
(7) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;
(8) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a
state agency;
(9) To lease or grant easements or licenses for
unproductive and unused lands or other property under the control
of a state agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses shall be
granted for a period not to exceed fifteen years and shall be
executed for the state by the director of administrative services
and the governor and shall be approved as to form by the attorney
general, provided that leases, easements, or licenses may be
granted to any county, township, municipal corporation, port
authority, water or sewer district, school district, library
district, health district, park district, soil and water
conservation district, conservancy district, or other political
subdivision or taxing district, or any agency of the United
States government, for the exclusive use of that agency,
political subdivision, or taxing district, without any right of
sublease or assignment, for a period not to exceed fifteen years,
and provided that the director shall grant leases, easements, or
licenses of university land for periods not to exceed twenty-five
years for purposes approved by the respective university's board
of trustees wherein the uses are compatible with the uses and
needs of the university and may grant leases of university land
for periods not to exceed forty years for purposes approved by
the respective university's board of trustees pursuant to section
123.77 of the Revised Code.
(10) To lease office space in buildings for the use of a
state agency;
(11) To have general supervision and care of the
storerooms, offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state
agency;
(12) To exercise general custodial care of all real
property of the state;
(13) To assign and group together state offices in any
city in the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state
agencies involved, rules governing space requirements for office
or storage use;
(14) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years,
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands
under the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed
forty years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the
end of the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated,
shall become the property of the state without cost.
(a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement
is to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans,
details, bills of materials, and specifications:
(i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of
mechanics and other builders in the improvement;
(ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and
represented as to be easily understood;
(iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of
different kinds of material necessary to the construction;
(iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to
be performed, together with such directions as will enable a
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford
bidders all needed information;
(v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense
and of the aggregate cost thereof.
(b) The department shall give public notice, in such
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the
director of administrative services prescribes, published once
each week for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place
where bids will be received for entering into an agreement to
lease to a state agency a building, structure, or other
improvement. The last publication shall be at least eight days
preceding the day for opening the bids. The bids shall contain
the terms upon which the builder would propose to lease the
building, structure, or other improvement to the state agency.
The form of the bid approved by the department shall be used, and
a bid is invalid and shall not be considered unless that form is
used without change, alteration, or addition. Before submitting
bids pursuant to this section, any builder shall comply with
Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.
(c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids
for entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the
director of administrative services shall open the bids and shall
publicly proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate
sheets. No lease agreement shall be entered into until the
bureau of workers' compensation has certified that the person to
be awarded the lease agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of
the Revised Code, until, if the builder submitting the lowest and
best bid is a foreign corporation, the secretary of state has
certified that the corporation is authorized to do business in
this state, until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best
bid is a person nonresident of this state, the person has filed
with the secretary of state a power of attorney designating the
secretary of state as its agent for the purpose of accepting
service of summons in any action brought under Chapter 4123. of
the Revised Code, and until the agreement is submitted to the
attorney general and the attorney general's approval is certified
thereon. Within
thirty days after the day on which the bids are received, the
department shall investigate the bids received and shall
determine that the bureau and the secretary of state have made
the certifications required by this section of the builder who
has submitted the lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the
completion of the investigation of the bids, the department shall
award the lease agreement to the builder who has submitted the
lowest and best bid and who has been certified by the bureau and
secretary of state as required by this section. If bidding for
the lease agreement has been conducted upon the basis of basic
plans, specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of
costs, upon the award to the builder the department, or the
builder with the approval of the department, shall appoint an
architect or engineer licensed in this state to prepare such
further detailed plans, specifications, and bills of materials as
are required to construct the building, structure, or
improvement. The department shall adopt such rules as are
necessary to give effect to this section. The department may
reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those
concerned therein shall be rejected.
(15) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and to
transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section existed before its repeal by . B. of the 125th general assembly;
(16) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years,
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street,
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used
in this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the
Revised Code.
Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering,
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers,
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall
also include provision for protection of the property by
insurance or otherwise, and plans for financing the development,
and shall set forth details of the developer's financial
responsibility.
The department may employ, as employees or consultants,
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans.
Those persons may include attorneys, financial experts,
engineers, and other necessary experts. The department shall
review the development plans and may enter into a lease if it
finds all of the following:
(a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by
entering into a lease with the developer;
(b) The development plans are satisfactory;
(c) The developer has established the developer's financial
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the
development.
The lease shall contain a provision that construction or
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date
of the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to
between the department and the developer or the lease will be
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state
pursuant to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue
fund. The lease shall provide that at the end of the lease
period the buildings, structures, and related improvements shall
become the property of the state without cost.
(17) To lease to any person any tract of land owned by the
state and under the control of the department, or any part of
such a tract, for the purpose of drilling for or the pooling of
oil or gas. Such a lease shall be granted for a period not
exceeding forty years, with the full power to contract for,
determine the conditions governing, and specify the amount the
state shall receive for the purposes specified in the lease, and
shall be prepared as in other cases.
(B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code
shall not interfere with any of the following:
(1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general
as director of state armories;
(2) The power of the director of transportation in
acquiring rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the
leasing of lands for division or resident district offices, or
the leasing of lands or buildings required in the maintenance
operations of the department of transportation, or the purchase of
real property
for garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such
buildings as the director may require in the administration of
the department;
(3) The power of the director of public safety and the
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property
and buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section
4507.011 of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is
to conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director of
public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings to be used as
locations for division or district offices as required in the maintenance of
operations of the department of public safety, and the power of the
superintendent of the state
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real property owned
by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned or leased by the patrol,
and to make or cause to be made repairs to all property owned or under the
control of the patrol;
(4) The power of the division of liquor control in the
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities
for the use of the division;
(5) The power of the director of development to enter into leases
of real property, buildings, and office space to be used solely as locations
for the state's foreign offices to carry out the purposes of section 122.05
of the Revised Code.
(C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of,
buildings under the management and control of the capitol square
review and advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission, the bureau of
workers' compensation, or the
departments of public safety,
job and family services, mental health, mental retardation
and
developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation and correction,
and buildings of educational and benevolent institutions under
the management and control of boards of trustees, are not subject
to the control and jurisdiction of the department of
administrative services.
(D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to
this section
shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the
real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 123.152. (A) As used in this section, "EDGE business enterprise" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture certified as a participant in the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program by the director of administrative services under this section of the Revised Code.
(B) The director of administrative services shall establish a business assistance program known as the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program and shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to administer the program and that do all of the following:
(1) Establish procedures by which a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture may apply for certification as an EDGE business enterprise;
(2) Establish agency procurement goals for contracting with EDGE business enterprises in the award of contracts under Chapters 123., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code based on the availability of eligible program participants by region or geographic area, as determined by the director, and by standard industrial code.
(a) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section shall be based on a percentage level of participation and a percentage of contractor availability.
(b) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section shall be applied at the contract level, relative to an overall dollar goal for each state agency, in accordance with the following certification categories: construction, architecture, and engineering; professional services; goods and services; and information technology services.
(3) Establish a system of certifying EDGE business enterprises based on a requirement that the business owner or owners show both social and economic disadvantage based on the following, as determined to be sufficient by the director:
(a) Relative wealth of the business seeking certification as well as the personal wealth of the owner or owners of the business;
(b) Social disadvantage based on any of the following:
(i) A rebuttable presumption when the business owner or owners demonstrate membership in a racial minority group or show personal disadvantage due to color, ethnic origin, gender, physical disability, long-term residence in an environment isolated from the mainstream of American society, location in an area of high unemployment;
(ii) Some other demonstration of personal disadvantage not common to other small businesses;
(iii) By business location in a qualified census tract.
(c) Economic disadvantage based on economic and business size thresholds and eligibility criteria designed to stimulate economic development through contract awards to businesses located in qualified census tracts.
(4) Establish standards to determine when an EDGE business enterprise no longer qualifies for EDGE business enterprise certification;
(5) Develop a process for evaluating and adjusting goals established by this section to determine what adjustments are necessary to achieve participation goals established by the director;
(6) Establish a point system to evaluate bid proposals to encourage EDGE business enterprises to participate in the procurement of professional design and information technology services;
(7) Establish a system to track data and analyze each certification category established under division (B)(2)(b) of this section;
(8) Establish a process to mediate complaints and to review EDGE business enterprise certification appeals;
(9) Implement an outreach program to educate potential participants about the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program;
(10) Establish a system to assist state agencies in identifying and utilizing EDGE business enterprises in their contracting processes;
(11) Implement a system of self-reporting by EDGE business enterprises as well as an on-site inspection process to validate the qualifications of an EDGE business enterprise;
(12) Establish a waiver mechanism to waive program goals or participation requirements for those companies that, despite their best-documented efforts, are unable to contract with certified EDGE business enterprises;
(13) Establish a process for monitoring overall program compliance in which equal employment opportunity officers primarily are responsible for monitoring their respective agencies.
(C) Not later than December 31, 2003, the director of administrative services shall prepare a detailed report to the governor outlining and evaluating the progress made in implementing the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program.
Sec. 123.153. The director of development shall do all of the following with regard to the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program created under section 123.152 of the Revised Code:
(A) Conduct outreach, marketing, and recruitment of EDGE business enterprises;
(B) Provide assistance to the department of administrative services, as needed, to certify new EDGE business enterprises and to train appropriate state agency staff;
(C) Provide business development services to EDGE business enterprises in the developmental and transitional stages of the program, including financial and bonding and management and technical assistance;
(D) Develop a mentor program to bring businesses into a working relationship with EDGE business enterprises in a way that commercially benefits both entities and serves the purpose of the EDGE program;
(E) Not later than December 31, 2003, prepare a detailed report to the governor outlining and evaluating the progress made in implementing the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity program;
(F) Establish processes by which an EDGE business enterprise may apply for contract assistance, financial and bonding assistance, management and technical assistance, and mentoring opportunities.
Sec. 124.03. The state personnel board of review shall
exercise the following powers and perform the following duties:
(A) Hear appeals, as provided by law, of employees in the
classified state service from final decisions of appointing
authorities or the director of administrative services relative
to reduction in pay or position, job abolishments, layoff,
suspension, discharge, assignment or reassignment to a new or
different position classification, or refusal of the director, or
anybody authorized to perform the director's functions, to
reassign an employee to another classification or to reclassify the
employee's position with or without a job audit under division
(D) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code. As used in this
division, "discharge" includes disability
separations. The
The board may affirm,
disaffirm, or modify the decisions of the appointing authorities
or the director, as the case may be, and its decision is final. The
board's decisions shall be consistent with the applicable classification
specifications. The
The board shall not be deprived of jurisdiction to
hear any appeal due to the failure of an appointing authority to file its
decision with the board. Any final decision of an appointing
authority or of the director not filed in the manner provided in
this chapter shall be disaffirmed. The
The board may place an exempt employee,
as defined in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, into a bargaining unit
classification, if the board determines that the bargaining unit
classification is the proper classification for that employee.
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments and contracts
negotiated under it, such placements are at the board's discretion.
In any hearing before the board, including any hearing at
which a record is taken that may be the basis of an appeal to a
court, an employee may be represented by a person permitted to
practice before the board who is not an attorney at law so as long
as the person does not receive any compensation from the employee
for such the representation.
(B) Hear appeals, as provided by law, of appointing
authorities from final decisions of the director relative to the
classification or reclassification of any position in the
classified state service under the jurisdiction of such
that appointing authority. The board may affirm, disaffirm, or modify
the decisions of the director, and its decision is final. The
board's
decisions shall be consistent with the applicable classification
specifications.
(C) Exercise the authority provided by section 124.40 of
the Revised Code, for appointment, removal, and supervision of
municipal and civil service township civil service commissions;
(D) Appoint a secretary, referees, examiners, and whatever
other employees are necessary in the exercise of its powers and
performance of its duties and functions. The board shall
determine appropriate education and experience requirements for
its secretary, referees, examiners, and other employees and shall
prescribe their duties. A referee or examiner does not need to
have been admitted to the practice of law.
(E) Maintain a journal which that shall be open to public
inspection, in which it shall keep a record of all of its
proceedings and of the vote of each of its members upon every
action taken by it;
(F) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code relating to the procedure of the board in
administering the laws which it has the authority or duty to
administer and for the purpose of invoking the jurisdiction of
the board in hearing appeals of appointing authorities and
employees in matters set forth in divisions (A) and (B) of this
section;
(G) Subpoena and require the attendance and testimony of
witnesses and the production of books, papers, public records,
and other documentary evidence pertinent to any matter which it
has authority to investigate, inquire into, or hear in the same
manner and to the same extent as provided by division (G) of
section 124.09 of the Revised Code. All witness fees shall be
paid in the manner set forth in that division.
(H) The board shall be funded by general revenue fund
appropriations. All moneys received by the board for copies of
documents, rule books, and transcriptions shall be paid into the
state treasury to the credit of the transcript and other
documents fund, which is hereby created to defray the cost of
furnishing or making available such copies, rule books, and
transcriptions producing an administrative record.
Sec. 125.05. Except as provided in division (E) of this
section, no state agency shall purchase any supplies or
services except as provided in divisions (A) to (C) of this section.
(A) Subject to division (D) of this section, a state agency may, without
competitive selection, make any purchase of services that cost fifty thousand
dollars or less or any purchase of supplies that cost twenty-five thousand
dollars or less. The agency may make the purchase directly or may make the
purchase from or through the department of administrative services, whichever
the agency determines. The
department
shall establish written procedures to assist state agencies when
they make
direct purchases. If the agency makes the purchase directly, it
shall make the purchase by a term contract whenever possible.
(B) Subject to division (D) of this section, a state agency
wanting to purchase services that cost more than
fifty thousand dollars or supplies that cost more than
twenty-five thousand dollars shall, unless otherwise authorized by law, make
the purchase from or through the department. The department shall make the
purchase by competitive selection under section 125.07 of the
Revised Code. If the director of administrative services determines that it
is not possible or not advantageous to the state for the department to make
the purchase, the department shall grant the agency a release and permit under
section 125.06 of the Revised Code to make the purchase. Section 127.16 of
the Revised Code does not apply to purchases the department makes under this
section.
(C) An agency that has been granted a release and permit to make
a purchase may make the purchase without competitive selection if after making
the purchase the cumulative purchase threshold as computed under division (F)
of section 127.16 of the Revised Code would:
(1) Be exceeded and the controlling board approves the purchase;
(2) Not be exceeded and the department of administrative
services approves the purchase.
(D) Not later than January 31, 1997, the amounts
specified in divisions (A) and (B) of this section and, not
later than the thirty-first day of January of each second year
thereafter, any amounts computed by adjustments made under this division,
shall be increased or decreased by the average percentage increase or decrease
in the consumer price index prepared by the United States
bureau of labor statistics (U.S. City
Average for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers: "All Items
1982-1984=100") for the twenty-four calendar month period prior to the
immediately preceding first day of January over the immediately
preceding twenty-four calendar month period, as reported by the bureau. The
director of administrative services shall make this determination and adjust
the appropriate amounts accordingly.
(E) If the Ohio SchoolNet
commission, the department of education,
or the Ohio education computer
network determines that it can purchase software services or supplies for
specified school districts at a price less than the price for which the
districts could purchase the same software services or supplies for
themselves, the office, department, or network shall certify that fact to the
department of administrative services and, acting as an agent for the
specified school districts, shall make that purchase without following the
provisions in divisions (A) to (D) of this section.
Sec. 125.15. All state agencies required
to secure any equipment, materials, supplies, or services, or contracts of
insurance from the department of administrative services shall make
acquisition in the manner and upon forms prescribed by the
director of administrative services and shall reimburse the department for the
equipment, materials, supplies, or services, or contracts of insurance, including
a reasonable sum to cover the department's administrative costs,
whenever
reimbursement is required by the department. The money so paid shall be
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the
general services fund or the information
technology fund, as appropriate. Such Those funds
are hereby created.
Sec. 125.91. As used in sections 125.92 to 125.98 of the Revised Code:
(A) "State
agency" includes every department, bureau, board, commission, office, or other
organized body established by the constitution and laws of the state for the
exercise of any function of state government, but does not include any
state-supported institution of higher education, the general assembly or any
legislative agency, the attorney general, the auditor of state, the secretary
of state, the treasurer of state, the bureau of workers' compensation, any
court or judicial agency, or any political subdivision or agency thereof of a political subdivision.
(B) "Form" means any document, device, or item used to convey information,
regardless of medium, that has blank spaces for the insertion of information
and that may have a predetermined format and data elements to guide the entry,
interpretration interpretation, and use of the information. "Form"
does not include letterheads, envelopes, labels, tags, tickets, or note pads,
or forms mandated by the federal government, but does include all
computer-generated forms except those mandated by the federal government. As
used in sections 125.931 to 125.935 of the Revised Code, "form" applies only
to a form that is used by a state agency and that is completed in whole or in
part by private business, political subdivisions, or the public.
Sec. 125.92. There is hereby established in the department of administrative
services a state forms management control center program, which shall be under the
control and supervision of the director of administrative services, who shall
appoint an administrator of the center or the director's designee.
The center state forms management program shall develop, implement, and maintain a statewide forms management
program that involves be developed, implemented, and maintained for all state agencies and is be designed to simplify,
consolidate, or eliminate, when expedient, forms, surveys, and other documents
used by state agencies. In developing the program, particular emphasis shall
be placed upon determining the actual need for any information, records, and
reports sought from private business, agriculture, and local governments
through the use of such forms, surveys, and other documents.
Sec. 125.93. The state forms management control center program
shall do each of the following:
(A) Assist state agencies in establishing internal forms
management capabilities;
(B) Study, develop, coordinate, and initiate forms of
interagency and common administrative usage, and establish basic
design and specification criteria to standardize state forms;
(C) Assist state agencies to design economical forms and
compose art work for forms;
(D) Establish and supervise control procedures to prevent
the undue creation and reproduction of state forms;
(E) Assist, train, and instruct state agencies and their
forms management representatives in forms management techniques,
and provide direct forms management assistance to new state
agencies as they are created;
(F)(E) Maintain a central cross index forms repository of all state forms to
facilitate standardization of the forms, eliminate redundant
forms, and provide a central source of information on forms usage
and availability;
(G) Utilize existing functions within the department of
administrative services to design economical forms and compose
art work, as well as use appropriate procurement techniques to
take advantage of competitive selection, consolidated orders, and
contract procurement of forms;
(H) Conduct an annual evaluation of the effectiveness of
the forms management program and the forms management practices
of individual state agencies, and maintain records that indicate
dollar savings resulting from, and the number of forms
eliminated, simplified, or standardized through, centralized
forms management. The results of the evaluation shall be
reported to the speaker of the house of representatives and
president of the senate not later than the fifteenth day of
January each year. The center shall report on the first day of
each month to the state records administrator on its activities
during the preceding month.
Sec. 125.95. (A) The administrator of the state forms
management control center program may permit any state agency to manage
fully any forms used or proposed to be used by it, whenever the
administrator program determines that the delegation will result in the
most timely and economical method of accomplishing the objectives
of the forms management program as set forth in section 125.93 of
the Revised Code. A determination to delegate to a state agency
authority to manage forms may, among other matters, take into
consideration the benefits of central management of any form in
relation to the costs associated with such that management.
(B) To expedite the collection and disposition of general
state and local revenue, the administrator state forms management program shall permit, without
prior authorization, the tax commissioner to design, print or
have printed, distribute, and require the use of those forms
which that the tax commissioner determines are necessary for the
proper administration of those taxes and programs he the tax commissioner administers
except as provided in division (A) of section 4307.05 of the
Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall report to the
administrator program not later than fifteen days after the close of each
calendar quarter with respect to the forms activities occurring
within his the tax commissioner's agency during the preceding calendar quarter.
Sec. 125.96. The director of administrative services may
adopt, amend, or rescind rules necessary to carry out the powers
and duties imposed upon the state forms management control center
and its administrator program and state agencies by sections 125.92 to 125.98 of the Revised
Code. The director shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules
providing that each of the following:
(A) After a date to be determined by the administrator state forms management program, no
state agency shall utilize any form, other than a form subject to
division (B) of section 125.95 of the Revised Code, the
management of which has not been delegated to the agency by the
administrator program under division (A) of that section 125.95 of the Revised
Code or that has not been approved by the center program.
(B) The notice required by section 125.97 of the Revised
Code shall appear in a standard place and a standard manner on
each form to which the notice applies, and shall include
specified indicia of approval by the administrator state forms management program.
(C) Any form required by a state agency on an emergency
basis may be given interim approval by the administrator state forms management program if the
form is accompanied by a letter from the director or other head
of the agency setting forth the nature of the emergency and
requesting interim approval.
Sec. 125.98. (A) Each state agency shall appoint a forms
management representative, who may be from existing personnel. The appointee
shall cooperate with, and provide other
necessary assistance to, the director of administrative services and the
administrator of the state forms management control center program in implementing the
state forms management program. A forms management representative shall do
all of the following:
(1) Manage the agency's forms management program and cooperate with and
provide other necessary assistance to the director of administrative services
in implementing the state forms management program;
(2) Monitor the use and reproduction of all forms to ensure that all
policies, procedures, guidelines, and standards established by the agency and
the director of administrative services are followed;
(3) Ensure that every form used by the agency is presented to the state forms
management control center program for registration prior to its reproduction;
(4) Maintain a master forms file history file, in numeric order, of all
agency forms;
(5) Verify and update the information on all forms computer file reports
returned to the agency by the state forms management control center in the central forms repository database.
(B) Any state agency, as such term is defined in section 1.60 of the Revised
Code,
not included within the definition of a state agency in section 125.91 of the
Revised Code may elect to participate in the state forms management program. The center program may provide
to any such agency any service required or authorized by sections 125.92 to
125.98 of the Revised Code to be performed for a state agency.
Sec. 126.11. (A)(1) The director of budget and management
shall, upon consultation with
the treasurer of state, coordinate
and approve the scheduling of
initial sales of publicly
offered
securities of the state and of
publicly
offered fractionalized
interests in or securitized issues of public
obligations of the
state. The
director shall from time to time develop and
distribute to
state issuers an approved sale schedule for each of
the obligations covered by division (A) or (B) of this section.
Division (A) of this section
applies
only to
those obligations on
which the state or a
state agency is
the direct obligor or obligor
on any backup
security or related
credit enhancement facility or
source of money
subject to state
appropriations that is intended
for payment of
those obligations.
(2) The issuers of obligations pursuant to section 151.03,
151.04, 151.05,
151.07, or 151.09 or Chapter 152. of the
Revised
Code shall submit to the director:
(a) For review and approval: the projected sale date,
amount, and
type of obligations proposed to be sold; their
purpose, security, and source
of payment; and the proposed
structure and maturity
schedule;
(b) For review and comment: the authorizing order or
resolution;
preliminary and final offering documents; method of
sale; preliminary and
final pricing information; and any written
reports or
recommendations of financial advisors or consultants
relating to
those obligations;
(c) Promptly after each sale of those obligations: final
terms,
including sale price, maturity schedule and yields, and
sources and uses;
names of the original purchasers or
underwriters; a copy
of the final offering document and of the
transcript of
proceedings; and any other pertinent information
requested by the
director.
(3) The issuer of obligations pursuant to section 151.06
,
151.08, or 151.40 or
Chapter 154. of the Revised
Code
shall
submit to the director:
(a) For review and mutual agreement: the projected
sale
date,
amount, and
type of obligations proposed to be sold; their
purpose, security, and source
of payment; and the proposed
structure and maturity
schedule;
(b) For review and comment: the authorizing order or
resolution;
preliminary and final offering documents; method of
sale; preliminary and
final pricing information; and any written
reports or
recommendations of financial advisors or consultants
relating to
those obligations;
(c) Promptly after each sale of those obligations: final
terms,
including sale price, maturity schedule and yields, and
sources and uses;
names of the original purchasers or
underwriters; a copy
of the final offering document and of the
transcript of
proceedings; and any other pertinent information
requested by the
director.
(4) The issuers of obligations pursuant to Chapter 166.,
4981.,
5507., 5540., or 6121., or section 5531.10, of the Revised Code
shall submit to the director:
(a) For review and comment: the projected sale date, amount,
and
type of obligations proposed to be sold; the purpose,
security, and
source of payment; and preliminary and final
offering documents;
(b) Promptly after each sale of those obligations: final
terms,
including a maturity schedule; names of the original
purchasers or
underwriters; a copy of the complete continuing
disclosure agreement pursuant to S.E.C. rule
15c2-12 or equivalent
rule as from time to time in effect;
and any other pertinent
information requested by the director.
(5) Not later than thirty days after
the end of a fiscal
year, each issuer of obligations subject to divisions (A)
and (B)
of this section shall submit to the director and to the treasurer
of
state a sale
plan for the then current fiscal year for each
type of obligation,
projecting the amount and term of each
issuance, the method of sale, and
the month of sale.
(B) Issuers of obligations
pursuant to section 3318.085 or
Chapter
175., 3366., 3706., 3737., 5537., 6121., or
6123.
of
the Revised Code
shall submit to the director
copies of
the
preliminary and final offering documents upon their
availability
if not previously submitted pursuant to division (A)
of this
section.
(C) Not later than the first day of January of each year,
every
state agency obligated to make payments on outstanding
public
obligations with respect to which fractionalized interests
have been publicly
issued, such as certificates of participation,
shall submit a
report to the director of the amounts payable from
state
appropriations under those public obligations during the
then current and next two fiscal years, identifying the
appropriation or intended appropriation from which payment is
expected to be made.
(D)(1) Information relating generally to the
historic,
current, or future demographics or economy or financial
condition
or funds or general operations of the state, and
descriptions of
any state contractual obligations relating to public
obligations,
to be contained in any offering
document, continuing disclosure
document, or written
presentation prepared, approved, or provided,
or committed to be provided, by an issuer in
connection with the
original issuance and sale of, or rating,
remarketing, or credit
enhancement facilities relating to, public
obligations
referred to
in division (A) of this section shall be approved as
to format and
accuracy by the director before
being presented, published, or
disseminated in preliminary, draft, or final form, or publicly
filed in
paper, electronic, or other format.
(2) Except for
information described in division (D)(1) of
this section that is
to be contained in an offering document,
continuing disclosure document, or
written presentation,
division
(D)(1) of this section does not inhibit direct
communication
between an issuer and a rating agency, remarketing
agent, or
credit enhancement provider concerning an issuance of public
obligations referred to in division (A) of this section or matters
associated with that issuance.
(3) The materials approved and provided pursuant to
division
(D)
of this section are the information relating to the particular
subjects
provided by the state or state agencies that are required
or contemplated by
any applicable
state or federal securities laws
and any commitments by the state
or state agencies made under
those laws. Reliance for the purpose
should not be placed on any
other information publicly provided,
in any format including
electronic, by any state agency for other
purposes, including
general information provided to the public or
to portions of the
public. A statement to that effect shall be
included in those
materials so approved or provided.
(E) Issuers of obligations
referred to in division (A) of
this section may take
steps, by formal agreement, covenants in the
proceedings, or otherwise, as may
be necessary or appropriate to
comply or permit compliance with applicable
lawful disclosure
requirements relating to those obligations, and may,
subject to
division (D) of this section, provide,
make available, or file
copies of any required
disclosure materials as necessary or
appropriate. Any such formal agreement or covenant relating to
subjects referred to in division (D) of this section, and any
description of that
agreement or covenant to be contained in any
offering document, shall be approved by the
director before being
entered into
or published or publicly disseminated in preliminary,
draft, or final
form or publicly filed
in paper, electronic, or
other format. The director shall be
responsible for making all
filings in compliance with those requirements
relating to direct
obligations of the state, including fractionalized
interests in
those obligations.
(F) No state agency or official shall, without the
approval
of the director
of budget and management, do either of the
following:
(1) Enter into or commit to enter into a public obligation
under which fractionalized interests in the payments are
to be
publicly offered, which payments are
anticipated to be made from
money from any source
appropriated or to be appropriated by the
general assembly or in which the
provision stated in section 9.94
of the Revised Code is not included;
(2) Except as otherwise expressly authorized for the purpose
by law, agree
or commit to provide, from money from any source to
be appropriated in
the future by the
general assembly, financial
assistance to or participation in the costs
of capital
facilities,
or the payment of debt charges, directly or by way of a
credit
enhancement facility, a reserve, rental payments, or
otherwise, on
obligations issued to pay costs
of capital facilities.
(G) As used in this section, "credit enhancement
facilities," "debt charges," "fractionalized
interests in public
obligations," "obligor," "public issuer," and "securities"
have
the same meanings as in section 133.01 of the Revised Code;
"public
obligation" has the same meaning as in division (GG)(2) of
section 133.01 of
the Revised Code; "obligations" means securities
or
public obligations or fractionalized interests in them;
"issuers"
means issuers of securities or state obligors on
public
obligations; "offering document" means an official
statement,
offering circular, private placement memorandum, or
prospectus, or
similar document; and "director" means the director
of budget and
management or the employee of the office of budget
and management
designated by the director for the purpose.
Sec. 127.16. (A) Upon the request of either a state
agency
or the director of budget and management and after the
controlling
board determines that an emergency or a sufficient
economic reason
exists, the controlling board may approve
the making of a purchase
without competitive selection as provided in
division (B) of this
section.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no state
agency, using money that has been appropriated to it directly,
shall:
(1) Make any purchase from a particular supplier, that
would
amount to fifty thousand dollars or more when combined with
both
the amount of all disbursements to the supplier during the
fiscal
year for purchases made by the agency and the amount of
all
outstanding encumbrances for purchases made by the agency
from the
supplier, unless the purchase is made by competitive
selection or
with the approval of the controlling board;
(2) Lease real estate from a particular supplier, if the
lease would amount to seventy-five thousand dollars or more when
combined with both the amount of all disbursements to the
supplier
during the fiscal year for real estate leases made by
the agency
and the amount of all outstanding encumbrances for
real estate
leases made by the agency from the supplier, unless
the lease is
made by competitive selection or with the approval
of the
controlling board.
(C) Any person who authorizes a purchase in violation of
division (B) of this section shall be liable to the state for any
state funds spent on the purchase, and the attorney general shall
collect the amount from the person.
(D) Nothing in division (B) of this section shall be
construed as:
(1) A limitation upon the authority of the director of
transportation as granted in sections 5501.17, 5517.02, and
5525.14 of the Revised Code;
(2) Applying to medicaid provider agreements under Chapter
5111. of the Revised Code
or payments or provider
agreements under the
disability assistance medical assistance program
established under Chapter
5115. of the Revised Code;
(3) Applying to the purchase of examinations from a sole
supplier by a state licensing board under Title XLVII of the
Revised Code;
(4) Applying to entertainment contracts for the Ohio state
fair entered into by the Ohio expositions commission, provided
that the controlling board has given its approval to the
commission to enter into such contracts and has approved a total
budget amount for such contracts as agreed upon by commission
action, and that the commission causes to be kept itemized
records
of the amounts of money spent under each contract and
annually
files those records with the clerk of the
house of representatives
and the clerk of the senate following
the close of the fair;
(5) Limiting the authority of the chief of the division of
mineral resources management to contract
for reclamation work with
an operator
mining adjacent land as provided in section 1513.27 of
the
Revised Code;
(6) Applying to investment transactions and procedures of
any state agency, except that the agency shall file with the
board
the name of any person with whom the agency contracts to
make,
broker, service, or otherwise manage its investments, as
well as
the commission, rate, or schedule of charges of such
person with
respect to any investment transactions to be
undertaken on behalf
of the agency. The filing shall be in a
form and at such times as
the board considers appropriate.
(7) Applying to purchases made with money for the per cent
for arts program established by section 3379.10 of the Revised
Code;
(8) Applying to purchases made by the rehabilitation
services commission of services, or supplies, that are provided
to
persons with disabilities, or to purchases made by the
commission
in connection with the eligibility determinations it
makes for
applicants of programs administered by the social
security
administration;
(9) Applying to payments by the department of job and
family
services under section 5111.13 of the Revised Code for group
health plan premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and other
cost-sharing expenses;
(10) Applying to any agency of the legislative branch of
the
state government;
(11) Applying to agreements or contracts entered into under
section
5101.11, 5101.21, or 5101.211, 5101.212, or 5101.214 of the Revised Code;
(12) Applying to purchases of services by the adult parole
authority under section 2967.14 of the Revised Code or by the
department of youth services under section 5139.08 of the Revised
Code;
(13) Applying to dues or fees paid for membership in an
organization or association;
(14) Applying to purchases of utility services pursuant to
section 9.30 of the Revised Code;
(15) Applying to purchases made in accordance with rules
adopted by the department of administrative services of motor
vehicle, aviation, or watercraft fuel, or emergency repairs of
such vehicles;
(16) Applying to purchases of tickets for passenger air
transportation;
(17) Applying to purchases necessary to provide public
notifications required by law or to provide notifications of job
openings;
(18) Applying to the judicial branch of state government;
(19) Applying to purchases of liquor for resale by the
division of liquor
control;
(20) Applying to purchases of motor courier and freight
services made in accordance with department of administrative
services rules;
(21) Applying to purchases from the United States postal
service and purchases of stamps and postal meter replenishment
from vendors at rates established by the United States postal
service;
(22) Applying to purchases of books, periodicals,
pamphlets,
newspapers, maintenance subscriptions, and other
published
materials;
(23) Applying to purchases from other state agencies,
including state-assisted institutions of higher education;
(24) Limiting the authority of the director of
environmental
protection to enter into contracts under division
(D) of section
3745.14 of the Revised Code to conduct compliance
reviews, as
defined in division (A) of that section;
(25) Applying to purchases from a qualified nonprofit
agency
pursuant to sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the Revised
Code;
(26) Applying to payments by the department of job and
family
services to the United States department of health and
human
services for printing and mailing notices pertaining to the
tax
refund offset program of the internal revenue service of the
United States department of the treasury;
(27) Applying to contracts entered into by the department
of
mental retardation and developmental disabilities under
sections
5123.18, 5123.182, and 5111.252 5123.199 of the Revised Code;
(28) Applying to payments made by the department of mental
health under a
physician recruitment program authorized by section
5119.101 of the Revised
Code;
(29) Applying to contracts entered into with persons by
the
director of commerce for unclaimed funds collection and
remittance
efforts as provided in division
(F) of section 169.03 of the
Revised
Code. The director shall keep
an itemized accounting of
unclaimed funds collected by those
persons and amounts paid to
them for their services.
(30) Applying to purchases made by a state institution of
higher
education
in accordance with the terms of a contract
between the vendor and an
inter-university purchasing group
comprised of purchasing officers of state
institutions of higher
education;
(31) Applying to the department of job and family
services'
purchases of health
assistance services under the children's
health insurance program part
I provided for under section 5101.50
of the Revised Code or the children's
health
insurance program
part II provided for under section 5101.51
of the Revised Code;
(32) Applying to payments by the attorney general from the
reparations fund to hospitals and other emergency medical
facilities for performing medical examinations to collect physical
evidence pursuant to section 2907.28 of the Revised Code;
(33) Applying to contracts with a contracting authority or
administrative receiver under division (G)(2) of section 5126.055
of the Revised Code.
(E) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, the
cumulative purchase threshold shall be seventy-five thousand
dollars for the departments of mental retardation and
developmental disabilities, mental health, rehabilitation and
correction, and youth services.
(F) When determining whether a state agency has reached
the
cumulative purchase thresholds established in divisions
(B)(1),
(B)(2), and (E) of this section, all of the following
purchases by
such agency shall not be considered:
(1) Purchases made through competitive selection or with
controlling board approval;
(2) Purchases listed in division (D) of this section;
(3) For the purposes of the thresholds of divisions (B)(1)
and (E) of this section only, leases of real estate.
(G) As used in this section,
"competitive selection,"
"purchase,"
"supplies," and
"services" have the same meanings as
in section 125.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 131.23. The various political subdivisions of this
state may issue bonds, and any indebtedness created by such
issuance shall not be subject to the limitations or included in
the calculation of indebtedness prescribed by sections 133.05,
133.06, 133.07, and 133.09 of the Revised Code, but such bonds
may be issued only under the following conditions:
(A) The subdivision desiring to issue such bonds shall
obtain from the county auditor a certificate showing the total
amount of delinquent taxes due and unpayable to such subdivision
at the last semiannual tax settlement.
(B) The fiscal officer of that subdivision shall prepare a
statement, from the books of the subdivision, verified by him the
fiscal officer
under oath, which shall contain the following facts of such
subdivision:
(1) The total bonded indebtedness;
(2) The aggregate amount of notes payable or outstanding
accounts of the subdivision, incurred prior to the commencement
of the current fiscal year, which shall include all evidences of
indebtedness issued by the subdivision except notes issued in
anticipation of bond issues and the indebtedness of any
nontax-supported public utility;
(3) Except in the case of school districts, the aggregate
current year's requirement for disability
financial assistance and disability medical assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised
Code that the subdivision is unable to finance except by the
issue of bonds;
(4) The indebtedness outstanding through the issuance of
any bonds or notes pledged or obligated to be paid by any
delinquent taxes;
(5) The total of any other indebtedness;
(6) The net amount of delinquent taxes unpledged to pay
any bonds, notes, or certificates, including delinquent
assessments on improvements on which the bonds have been paid;
(7) The budget requirements for the fiscal year for bond
and note retirement;
(8) The estimated revenue for the fiscal year.
(C) The certificate and statement provided for in
divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be forwarded to the
tax commissioner together with a request for authority to issue
bonds of such subdivision in an amount not to exceed seventy per
cent of the net unobligated delinquent taxes and assessments due
and owing to such subdivision, as set forth in division (B)(6) of
this section.
(D) No subdivision may issue bonds under this section in
excess of a sufficient amount to pay the indebtedness of the
subdivision as shown by division (B)(2) of this section and,
except in the case of school districts, to provide funds for
disability financial assistance and disability medical assistance, as shown by
division (B)(3) of this section.
(E) The tax commissioner shall grant to such subdivision
authority requested by such subdivision as restricted by
divisions (C) and (D) of this section and shall make a record of
the certificate, statement, and grant in a record book devoted
solely to such recording and which shall be open to inspection by
the public.
(F) The commissioner shall immediately upon issuing the
authority provided in division (E) of this section notify the
proper authority having charge of the retirement of bonds of such
subdivision by forwarding a copy of such grant of authority and
of the statement provided for in division (B) of this section.
(G) Upon receipt of authority, the subdivision shall
proceed according to law to issue the amount of bonds authorized
by the commissioner, and authorized by the taxing authority,
provided the taxing authority of that subdivision may by
resolution submit to the electors of that subdivision the
question of issuing such bonds. Such resolution shall make the
declarations and statements required by section 133.18 of the
Revised Code. The county auditor and taxing authority shall
thereupon proceed as set forth in divisions (C) and (D) of such
section. The election on the question of issuing such bonds
shall be held under divisions (E), (F), and (G) of such section,
except that publication of the notice of such election shall be
made on four separate days prior to such election in one or more
newspapers of general circulation in the subdivisions. Such
bonds may be exchanged at their face value with creditors of the
subdivision in liquidating the indebtedness described and
enumerated in division (B)(2) of this section or may be sold as
provided in Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, and in either event
shall be uncontestable.
(H) The per cent of delinquent taxes and assessments
collected for and to the credit of the subdivision after the
exchange or sale of bonds as certified by the commissioner shall
be paid to the authority having charge of the sinking fund of the
subdivision, which money shall be placed in a separate fund for
the purpose of retiring the bonds so issued. The proper
authority of the subdivisions shall provide for the levying of a
tax sufficient in amount to pay the debt charges on all such
bonds issued under this section.
(I) This section is for the sole purpose of assisting the
various subdivisions in paying their unsecured indebtedness, and
providing funds for disability financial assistance and disability medical assistance. The bonds issued under authority
of this section shall not be
used for any other purpose and any exchange for other purposes,
or the use of the money derived from the sale of such bonds by
the subdivision for any other purpose, is misapplication of
funds.
(J) The bonds authorized by this section shall be
redeemable or payable in not to exceed ten years from date of
issue and shall not be subject to or considered in calculating
the net indebtedness of the subdivision. The budget commission
of the county in which the subdivision is located shall annually
allocate such portion of the then delinquent levy due such
subdivision which is unpledged for other purposes to the payment
of debt charges on the bonds issued under authority of this
section.
(K) The issue of bonds under this section shall be
governed by Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, respecting the
terms used, forms, manner of sale, and redemption except as
otherwise provided in this section.
The board of county commissioners of any county may issue
bonds authorized by this section and distribute the proceeds of
such bond issues to any or all of the cities and townships of
such counties, according to their relative needs for disability
financial assistance and disability medical assistance as determined by such county.
All sections of the Revised Code inconsistent with or
prohibiting the exercise of the authority conferred by this
section are inoperative respecting bonds issued under this
section.
Sec. 131.35. (A) With respect to the federal funds
received into any fund of the state from which transfers may be
made under division (D) of section 127.14 of the Revised Code:
(1) No state agency may make expenditures of any federal
funds, whether such funds are advanced prior to expenditure or as
reimbursement, unless such expenditures are made pursuant to
specific appropriations of the general assembly
identifying the federal program that is the source of
funds, are authorized pursuant to section 131.38 of the
Revised Code, are authorized by the
controlling board pursuant to division
(A)(5) of this section, or are authorized by an executive
order issued in accordance with section
107.17 of the Revised Code, and until an allotment has been
approved by the director of budget and management. All federal
funds received by a state agency shall be reported to the
director within fifteen days of the receipt of such funds or the
notification of award, whichever occurs first. The director
shall prescribe the forms and procedures to be used when
reporting the receipt of federal funds.
(2) If the federal funds received are greater than the
amount of such funds appropriated by the general assembly for a
specific purpose, the total appropriation of federal and state
funds for such purpose shall remain at the amount designated by
the general assembly, except that the expenditure of federal
funds received in excess of such specific appropriation may be
authorized by the controlling board.
(3) To the extent that the expenditure of excess federal
funds is authorized, the controlling board may transfer a like
amount of general revenue fund appropriation authority from the
affected agency to the emergency purposes appropriation of the
controlling board, if such action is permitted under federal
regulations.
(4) Additional funds may be created by the controlling
board to receive revenues not anticipated in an appropriations
act for the biennium in which such new revenues are received.
Expenditures from such additional funds may be authorized by the
controlling board, but such authorization shall not extend beyond
the end of the biennium in which such funds are created.
(5) Controlling board authorization for a state agency to make an
expenditure
of
federal funds constitutes
authority for the agency to participate in the federal program providing the
funds, and the agency is not required to obtain an executive order
under section 107.17 of the Revised Code to participate in the federal program.
(B) With respect to nonfederal funds received into the
waterways safety fund, the wildlife fund, and any
fund of the state from which transfers may be made under division
(D) of section 127.14 of the Revised Code:
(1) No state agency may make expenditures of any such
funds unless the expenditures are made pursuant to specific
appropriations of the general assembly.
(2) If the receipts received into any fund are greater
than the amount appropriated, the appropriation for that fund
shall remain at the amount designated by the general assembly or
as increased and approved by the controlling board.
(3) Additional funds may be created by the controlling
board to receive revenues not anticipated in an appropriations
act for the biennium in which such new revenues are received.
Expenditures from such additional funds may be authorized by the
controlling board, but such authorization shall not extend beyond
the end of the biennium in which such funds are created.
(C) The controlling board shall not authorize more than
ten per cent of additional spending from the occupational
licensing and regulatory fund, created in section 4743.05 of the
Revised Code, in excess of any appropriation made by the general
assembly to a licensing agency except an appropriation for costs
related to the examination or reexamination of applicants for a
license. As used in this division, "licensing agency" and
"license" have the same meanings as in section 4745.01 of the
Revised Code.
Sec. 147.01. (A) The
secretary of state may
appoint and
commission
as notaries public as many persons who meet
the
qualifications of
division (B) of this section as
the
secretary
of state considers
necessary.
(B) In order for a person to qualify to be appointed and
commissioned as a notary public, the person must satisfy both of
the following:
(1) The person has attained the age of eighteen years.
(2) One of the following applies:
(a) The person is a citizen legal resident of this state who is not an
attorney admitted to the practice of law in this state by the Ohio supreme court.
(b) The person is a citizen legal resident of this state who is an
attorney
admitted to the practice of law in this state by the
Ohio supreme
court.
(c) The person is not a citizen legal resident of this state, is an
attorney admitted to the practice of law in this state by the
Ohio
supreme court, and has
the person's principal place of
business
or
the person's primary practice in this state.
(C) A notary public shall be appointed and commissioned as
a
notary public for the state. The
secretary of state may
revoke a
commission issued to a notary public upon presentation of
satisfactory evidence of official misconduct or incapacity.
Sec. 147.37. Each person receiving a commission as notary
public, except including an
attorney admitted to the practice of law in this
state by the Ohio supreme
court, shall pay a fee of five fifteen dollars
to the secretary of state. Each person receiving a commission as
a notary public who is an attorney admitted to the practice of law
in this
state by the Ohio supreme court shall pay a fee of ten
dollars
to the secretary of state.
Sec. 149.011. As used in this chapter:
(A)
"Public office" includes any state agency, public
institution, political subdivision, or any other organized body,
office, agency, institution, or entity established by the laws of
this state for the exercise of any function of government.
(B)
"State agency" includes every department, bureau,
board,
commission, office, or other organized body established by
the
constitution and laws of this state for the exercise of any
function of state government, including any state-supported
institution of higher education, the general assembly, or any
legislative agency, any court or judicial agency, or any
political
subdivision or agency thereof of a political subdivision.
(C)
"Public money" includes all money received or
collected
by or due a public official, whether in accordance with
or under
authority of any law, ordinance, resolution, or order,
under color
of office, or otherwise. It also includes any money
collected by
any individual on behalf of a public office or as a
purported
representative or agent of the public office.
(D)
"Public official" includes all officers, employees, or
duly authorized representatives or agents of a public office.
(E)
"Color of office" includes any act purported or
alleged
to be done under any law, ordinance, resolution, order,
or other
pretension to official right, power, or authority.
(F)
"Archive" includes any public record that is
transferred
to the state archives or other designated archival
institutions
because of the historical information contained on
it.
(G)
"Records" includes any document, device, or item,
regardless of physical form or characteristic, including an electronic record as defined in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code, created or
received
by or coming under the jurisdiction of any public office
of the
state or its political subdivisions, which serves to
document the
organization, functions, policies, decisions,
procedures,
operations, or other activities of the office.
Sec. 149.33. (A) The department of administrative
services shall have full responsibility for establishing and
administering a state records program for all state agencies,
except for state-supported institutions of higher education. The
department shall apply efficient and economical management
methods to the creation, utilization, maintenance, retention,
preservation, and disposition of state records.
There is hereby established within the department of
administrative services an office of a state records
administration program, which shall be under the control and supervision
of the director of administrative services or his the director's
appointed
deputy. The director shall designate an administrator of the
office of state records administration.
(B) The boards of trustees of state-supported institutions
of higher education shall have full responsibility for
establishing and administering a records program for their
respective institutions. The boards shall apply efficient and
economical management methods to the creation, utilization,
maintenance, retention, preservation, and disposition of the
records of their respective institutions.
Sec. 149.331. The state record administration records
program of the department of administrative services shall do all of the
following:
(A) Establish and promulgate in consultation with the
state archivist standards, procedures, and techniques for the
effective management of state records;
(B) Make continuing surveys of record-keeping operations
and recommend improvements in current records management
practices including the use of space, equipment, and supplies
employed in creating, maintaining, storing, and servicing
records;
(C) Establish and operate such state records centers and
auxiliary facilities as may be authorized by appropriation and
provide such related services as are deemed necessary for the
preservation, screening, storage, and servicing of state records
pending disposition;
(D) Review applications for one-time records disposal and
schedules of records retention and destruction submitted by state
agencies in accordance with section 149.333 of the Revised Code;
(E)(C) Establish "general schedules" proposing the disposal,
after the lapse of specified periods of time, of records of
specified form or character common to several or all agencies
that either have accumulated or may accumulate in such agencies
and that apparently will not, after the lapse of the periods
specified, have sufficient administrative, legal, fiscal, or
other value to warrant their further preservation by the state;
(F)(D) Establish and maintain a records management training
program, and provide a basic consulting service, for personnel involved in record-making and
record-keeping functions of departments, offices, and
institutions;
(G) Obtain reports from departments, offices, and
institutions necessary for the effective administration of the
program;
(H)(E) Provide for the disposition of any remaining records
of any state agency, board, or commission, whether in the
executive, judicial, or legislative branch of government, that
has terminated its operations. After the closing of the
Ohio veterans' children's home, the
resident records of the home and the resident records of the home when it was
known as the soldiers'
and sailors' orphans' home required to be maintained by approved records
retention schedules shall be administered by the state department of education
pursuant to this chapter, the administrative records of the home required
to be maintained by approved records retention schedules shall be administered
by the department of administrative services pursuant to this
chapter, and historical records of the home shall be
transferred to an appropriate archival institution in this state prescribed by
the state record administration records program.
(I)(F) Establish a centralized program coordinating
micrographics standards, training, and services for the benefit
of all state agencies;
(J)(G) Establish and publish in accordance with the
applicable law necessary procedures and rules for the retention
and disposal of state records.
This section does not apply to the records of
state-supported institutions of higher education, which shall
keep their own records.
Sec. 149.332. Upon request the state records administrator director of administrative services and the state
archivist shall assist and advise in the establishment of records management
programs in the legislative and judicial branches of state government and
shall, as required by them, provide program services similar to those
available to the executive branch pursuant to under section 149.33 of the Revised
Code. Prior to the disposal of any records, the state archivist shall be
allowed sixty days to select for preservation in the state archives those
records he the state archivist determines to have continuing historical value.
Sec. 149.333. No state agency shall retain, destroy, or
otherwise transfer its state records in violation of this
section. This section does not apply to state-supported
institutions of higher education.
Each state agency shall submit to the state records
administrator program under the director of administrative services all applications for records disposal or transfer
and all schedules of records retention and destruction. The
state records administrator program shall review such the applications and
schedules and provide written approval, rejection, or
modification of the an application or schedule. The state records
administrator program shall then forward the application for records
disposal or transfer or the schedule for retention or
destruction, with the administrator's program's recommendation attached, to
the auditor of state for review and approval. The decision of
the auditor of state to approve, reject, or modify the
applications application or schedules schedule shall be based upon the continuing
administrative and fiscal value of the state records to the state
or to its citizens. If the auditor of state disapproves the
action by the state agency, he the auditor of state shall so
inform the state agency
through the state records administrator program within sixty days, and
these the records shall not be destroyed. At
At the same time, the
state records administrator program shall forward the application for
records disposal or transfer or the schedule for retention or destruction to
the state archivist for review and approval. The state archivist
shall have sixty days to select for custody such the state records as
he that the state archivist determines to be of continuing historical
value. Records not
so selected shall be disposed of in accordance with this section.
Sec. 149.34. The head of each state agency, office,
institution, board, or commission shall do the following:
(A) Establish, maintain, and direct an active continuing
program for the effective management of the records of the state
agency;
(B) Cooperate with the state records administrator in the
conduct of surveys pursuant to section 149.331 of the Revised
Code;
(C) Submit to the state records administrator program, in
accordance with applicable standards and procedures, schedules
proposing the length of time each record series warrants
retention for administrative, legal, or fiscal purposes after it
has been received or created by the agency. The head of each
state agency also shall submit to the state records administrator program
applications for disposal of records in his the head's
custody that are not
needed in the transaction of current business and are not
otherwise scheduled for retention or destruction.
(D) Transfer to a state records center or auxiliary
facilities, in the manner prescribed by the state records
administrator, those records of the agency that can be retained
more efficiently and economically in such a center;
(E)(C) Within one year after their date of creation or
receipt, schedule all records for disposition or retention in the
manner prescribed by applicable law and procedures.
This section does not apply to state-supported institutions
of higher education.
Sec. 149.35. If any law prohibits the destruction of records, neither the
state records administrator nor director of administrative services, the director's designee, or the boards of trustees of state-supported
institutions of higher education shall not order their destruction or other
disposition, and, if. If any law provides that records shall be kept for a
specified period of time, neither the administrator nor director of administrative services, the director's designee, or the boards shall not order
their destruction or other disposition prior to the expiration of such that period.
Sec. 153.65. As used in sections 153.65 to 153.71 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Public authority" means the state, or a county, township,
municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or any
public agency, authority, board, commission, instrumentality, or special
district of the state or a county, township, municipal corporation, school
district, or other political subdivision.
(B) "Professional design firm" means any person legally
engaged in rendering professional design services.
(C) "Professional design services" means services within
the scope of practice of an architect or landscape architect
registered under Chapter 4703. of the Revised Code or a
professional engineer or surveyor registered under Chapter 4733.
of the Revised Code.
(D) "Qualifications" means all of the following:
(1) Competence of the professional design firm to perform
the required professional design services as indicated by the
technical training, education, and experience of the firm's
personnel, especially the technical training, education, and
experience of the employees within the firm who would be assigned
to perform the services;
(2) Ability of the firm in terms of its workload and the
availability of qualified personnel, equipment, and facilities to
perform the required professional design services competently and
expeditiously;
(3) Past performance of the firm as reflected by the
evaluations of previous clients with respect to such factors as
control of costs, quality of work, and meeting of deadlines;
(4) Other similar Any other relevant factors as determined by the public authority.
Sec. 163.06. (A) A public agency, other than an agency
appropriating property for the purposes described in division (B)
of this section, which qualifies pursuant to Section 19 of
Article I, Ohio Constitution, may deposit with the court at the
time of filing the petition the value of such property
appropriated together with the damages, if any, to the residue,
as determined by the public agency, and thereupon take possession
of and enter upon the property appropriated. The right of
possession upon deposit as provided in this division shall not
extend to structures.
(B) A public agency appropriating property for the purpose
of making or repairing roads which shall be open to the public,
without charge, or for the purpose of implementing rail service under Chapter
4981. of the Revised Code,
may deposit with the court at the time of filing the petition the
value of such property appropriated together with the damages, if
any, to the residue, as determined by the public agency, and
stated in an attached declaration of intention to obtain
possession and thereupon take possession of and enter upon the
property appropriated, including structures situated upon the
land appropriated for such purpose or situated partly upon the
land appropriated therefor and partly upon adjoining land, so
that such structures cannot be divided upon the line between such
lands without manifest injury thereto. The jury, in assessing
compensation to any owner of land appropriated under this
division shall assess the value thereof in accordance with
section 163.14 of the Revised Code. The owner or occupant of
such structures shall vacate the same within sixty days after
service of summons as required under section 163.07 of the
Revised Code, at no cost to the appropriating agency, after which
time the agency may remove said structures. In the event such
structures are to be removed before the jury has fixed the value
of the same, the court, upon motion of the agency, shall:
(1) Order appraisals to be made by three persons, one to
be named by the owner, one by the county auditor, and one by the
agency. Such appraisals may be used as evidence by the owner or
the agency in the trial of said case but shall not be binding on
said owner, agency, or the jury, and the expense of said
appraisals shall be approved by the court and charged as costs in
said case.
(2) Cause pictures to be taken of all sides of said
structures;
(3) Compile a complete description of said structures,
which shall be preserved as evidence in said case to which the
owner or occupants shall have access.
(C) Any time after the deposit is made by the public
agency under division (A) or (B) of this section, the owner may
apply to the court to withdraw the deposit, and such withdrawal
shall in no way interfere with the action except that the sum so
withdrawn shall be deducted from the sum of the final verdict or
award. Upon such application being made the court shall direct
that the sum be paid to such owner subject to the rights of other
parties in interest provided such parties make timely application
as provided in section 163.18 of the Revised Code. Interest
shall not accrue on any sums withdrawable as provided in this
division.
Sec. 164.27. (A) The clean Ohio conservation fund is
hereby
created in the state treasury. Seventy-five per cent of the net
proceeds of obligations
issued and sold by the issuing authority
pursuant to sections 151.01 and
151.09 of the Revised Code shall
be deposited into the fund.
Investment earnings of the fund shall
be credited to the fund.
For two years after the effective date of
this section, investment earnings credited to the fund
and may be used
to pay costs incurred by the Ohio public works
commission in
administering sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the
Revised Code.
Moneys in the
clean Ohio
conservation fund shall be
used to
make
grants to local
political
subdivisions and nonprofit
organizations
for projects
that have
been approved for grants
under sections
164.20 to 164.27
of the
Revised Code.
The
clean Ohio
conservation fund
shall be administered
by
the Ohio public works
commission.
(B) For the purpose of grants issued under sections 164.20
to 164.27 of the Revised Code, moneys shall be allocated on an
annual basis from the
clean Ohio conservation fund to districts
represented by
natural resources assistance councils as follows:
(1) Each district shall receive an amount that is equal to
one-fourth of one per cent of the total annual amount allocated to
all districts each year for each county that is represented by the
district.
(2) The remaining moneys shall be allocated to each district
annually on a per capita basis.
(C) A grant that is awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27
of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent of the
estimated cost of a project. Matching funds from a grant
recipient may consist of contributions of money by any person, any
local political subdivision, or the federal government
or of
contributions in-kind by such entities through the purchase
or
donation of equipment, land,
easements, interest in land,
labor,
or
materials necessary to complete the project.
(D) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall
notify the director of budget and management of the amounts
allocated pursuant to this section, and that information shall be
entered in the state accounting system. The director of budget
and management may establish appropriate line items or other
mechanisms that are needed to track the allocations.
(E) Grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the
Revised Code from the clean Ohio conservation fund shall be used
by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization only to
pay the costs related to the purposes for which grants may be
issued under section 164.22 of the Revised Code and shall not be
used by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization to
pay any administrative costs incurred by the local political
subdivision or nonprofit organization.
Sec. 165.09. Any real or personal property, or both, of an
issuer which that is acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged,
improved, furnished or equipped, or any combination thereof, and
leased or subleased under authority of either Chapter 165. or
761.
of the Revised Code shall be subject to ad valorem, sales,
use,
and franchise taxes and to zoning, planning, and building
regulations and fees, to the same extent and in the same manner
as
if the lessee-user or sublessee-user thereof, rather than the
issuer, had acquired, constructed, reconstructed, enlarged,
improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof,
such
real or personal property, and title thereto was in the name
of
such lessee-user or sublessee-user.
The transfer of tangible personal property by lease or
sublease under authority of either Chapter 165. or 761. of the
Revised Code is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the
Revised
Code. The exemptions provided in divisions (B)(1) and
(B)(14)(12)
of
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code shall not be
applicable to
purchases for a project under either Chapters 165.
or 761. of the
Revised Code.
An issuer shall be exempt from all taxes on its real or
personal property, or both, which has been acquired, constructed,
reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any
combination thereof, under Chapter 165. or 761. of the Revised
Code, so long as such property is used by the issuer for purposes
which would otherwise exempt such property; has ceased to be used
by a former lessee-user or sublessee-user and is not occupied or
used; or has been acquired by the issuer, but development has not
yet commenced. The exemption shall be effective as of the date
the exempt use begins. All taxes on the exempt real or personal
property for the year should be prorated and the taxes for the
exempt portion of the year shall be remitted by the county
auditor.
Sec. 173.08. (A) The resident services coordinator program is established in the department of aging to fund resident services coordinators. The coordinators shall provide information to low-income and special-needs tenants, including the elderly, who live in subsidized rental housing complexes, and assist those tenants in identifying and obtaining community and program services and other benefits for which they are eligible.
(B) The resident services coordinator program fund is hereby created in the state treasury to support the resident services coordinator program established pursuant to this section. The fund consists of all moneys the department of development sets aside pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 175.21 of the Revised Code and moneys the general assembly appropriates to the fund.
Sec. 173.14. As used in sections 173.14 to 173.26 of
the
Revised Code:
(A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential
facility that provides personal care services for more than
twenty-four hours for two or more unrelated adults, including all
of the following:
(a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home
for the aging"
as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;
(b) A facility authorized to provide extended care
services under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat.
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;
(c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;
(d) An "adult care facility" as defined in section 3722.01
of the Revised Code;
(e) A facility approved by the veterans administration
under section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of
1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used
exclusively for the placement and care of veterans;
(f) An adult foster home certified under section 173.36 of
the Revised Code.
(2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a
"residential facility" as defined in section 5119.22 of the
Revised Code or a "residential facility" as defined in section
5123.19 of the Revised Code.
(B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care
facility and, where appropriate, includes a prospective,
previous, or deceased resident of a long-term care facility.
(C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health
and social services provided to persons age sixty or older in
their own homes or in community care settings, and includes any
of the following:
(7) Home-delivered meals;
(9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;
(10) Any other health and social services provided to
persons age sixty or older that allow them to retain their
independence in their own homes or in community care settings.
(D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based
long-term care services.
(E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a
resident or a recipient.
(F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
(G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program"
means an
entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a
regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the
state long-term
care ombudsperson.
(H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term
care ombudsperson program" means the state long-term
care ombudsperson
or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person
certified
as a
representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised
Code.
(I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat.
219, 42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.
Sec. 173.20. (A) If consent is given and unless otherwise
prohibited by law, a representative of the office of the state
long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program shall have access
to any records, including medical records, of a resident or a recipient
that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint.
Consent may be given in any of the following ways:
(1) In writing by the resident or recipient;
(2) Orally by the resident or recipient, witnessed in
writing at the time it is given by one other person, and, if the
records involved are being maintained by a long-term care
provider, also by an employee of the long-term care provider
designated under division (E)(1) of this section;
(3) In writing by the guardian of the resident or
recipient;
(4) In writing by the attorney in fact of the resident or
recipient, if the resident or recipient has authorized the
attorney in fact to give such consent;
(5) In writing by the executor or administrator of the
estate of a deceased resident or recipient.
(B) If consent to access to records is not refused by a
resident or recipient or his the resident's or recipient's legal
representative but cannot be
obtained and any of the following circumstances exist, a
representative of the office of the state long-term care
ombudsman ombudsperson program, on approval of the state
long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson, may inspect the records
of a resident or a recipient, including medical records, that are reasonably
necessary for
investigation of a complaint:
(1) The resident or recipient is unable to express written
or oral consent and there is no guardian or attorney in fact;
(2) There is a guardian or attorney in fact, but he the guardian or
attorney in fact cannot be contacted within three working days;
(3) There is a guardianship or durable power of attorney,
but its existence is unknown by the long-term care provider and
the representative of the office at the time of the
investigation;
(4) There is no executor or administrator of the estate of
a deceased resident or recipient.
(C) If a representative of the office of the state
long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program has been refused
access to
records by a guardian or attorney in fact, but has reasonable
cause to believe that the guardian or attorney in fact is not
acting in the best interests of the resident or recipient, the
representative may, on approval of the state long-term care
ombudsman ombudsperson, inspect the records of the resident or recipient,
including medical records, that are reasonably necessary for
investigation of a complaint.
(D) A representative of the office of the state long-term
care ombudsman ombudsperson program shall have access to any records of a
long-term care provider reasonably necessary to an investigation
conducted under this section, including but not limited to:
incident reports, dietary records, policies and procedures of a
facility required to be maintained under section 5111.21 of the
Revised Code, admission agreements, staffing schedules, any
document depicting the actual staffing pattern of the provider,
any financial records that are matters of public record, resident
council and grievance committee minutes, and any waiting list
maintained by a facility in accordance with section 5111.31 5111.222 of
the Revised Code, or any similar records or lists maintained by a
provider of community-based long-term care services. Pursuant to
division (E)(2) of this section, a representative shall be
permitted to make or obtain copies of any of these records after
giving the long-term care provider twenty-four hours' notice. A
long-term care provider may impose a charge for providing copies
of records under this division that does not exceed the actual
and necessary expense of making the copies.
The state ombudsman ombudsperson shall take whatever action is necessary
to ensure that any copy of a record made or obtained under this
division is returned to the long-term care provider no later than
three years after the date the investigation for which the copy
was made or obtained is completed.
(E)(1) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or
more of its employees to be responsible for witnessing the giving
of oral consent under division (A) of this section. In the event
that a designated employee is not available when a resident or
recipient attempts to give oral consent, the provider shall
designate another employee to witness the consent.
(2) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or
more of its employees to be responsible for releasing records for
copying to representatives of the office of the long-term care
ombudsman ombudsperson program who request permission to make or obtain copies
of records specified in division (D) of this section. In the
event that a designated employee is not available when a
representative of the office makes the request, the long-term
care provider shall designate another employee to release the
records for copying.
(F) A long-term care provider or any employee of such a
provider is immune from civil or criminal liability or action
taken pursuant to a professional disciplinary procedure for the
release or disclosure of records to a representative of the
office pursuant to this section.
(G) A state or local government agency or entity with
records relevant to a complaint or investigation being conducted
by a representative of the office shall provide the
representative access to the records.
(H) The state ombudsman ombudsperson, with the approval of the
director of aging, may issue a subpoena to compel any person he the
ombudsperson reasonably believes may be able to provide information to
appear before him the ombudsperson or his the
ombudsperson's designee and give sworn testimony and to produce
documents, books, records, papers, or other evidence the state
ombudsman ombudsperson believes is relevant to the
investigation. On the
refusal of a witness to be sworn or to answer any question put to
him the witness, or if a person disobeys a subpoena, the
ombudsman ombudsperson shall
apply to the Franklin county court of common pleas for a contempt
order, as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a
subpoena issued from the court, or a refusal to testify in the
court.
(I) The state ombudsman ombudsperson may petition the court of common
pleas in the county in which a long-term care facility is located
to issue an injunction against any long-term care facility in
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.
(J) Any suspected violation of Chapter 3721. of the
Revised Code discovered during the course of an investigation may
be reported to the department of health. Any suspected criminal
violation discovered during the course of an investigation shall
be reported to the attorney general or other appropriate law
enforcement authorities.
(K) The department of aging shall adopt rules in
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for referral by
the state ombudsman ombudsperson and regional long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson
programs of complaints to other public agencies or entities. A
public agency or entity to which a complaint is referred shall
keep the state ombudsman ombudsperson or regional program handling the
complaint advised and notified in writing in a timely manner of
the disposition of the complaint to the extent permitted by law.
Sec. 173.21. (A) The office of the state long-term care
ombudsman ombudsperson program, through the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson and
the regional long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson programs, shall require
each representative of the office to complete a training and
certification program in accordance with this section and to meet
the continuing education requirements established under this
section.
(B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of
training programs for representatives of the office of the state
long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program. Training for representatives
other than those who are volunteers providing services through
regional long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson programs shall include
instruction regarding federal, state, and local laws, rules, and
policies on long-term care facilities and community-based
long-term care services; investigative techniques; and other
topics considered relevant by the department and shall consist of
the following:
(1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction,
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to
handle complaints without the supervision of a representative of
the office certified under this section;
(2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;
(3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment,
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson.
(4) One of the following, which shall be completed within
the first twenty-four months of employment:
(a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of
health to certify a facility to receive funds under sections
5111.20 to 5111.32 the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;
(b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director
of health to license an adult care facility under section 3722.04
of the Revised Code.
(5) Any other training considered appropriate by the
department.
(C) Persons who for a period of at least six months prior
to June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmen through the long-term care
ombudsman ombudsperson
program
established by the department of aging under division (M) of
section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be required to
complete a training program. These persons and persons who
complete a training program shall take an examination
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the
person an identification card, which the representative shall
show at the request of any person with whom he the
representative deals while performing his the
representative's duties and which he shall surrender be
surrendered at the time he the representative separates from
the office.
(D) The state ombudsman ombudsperson and each regional program
shall conduct training programs for volunteers on their respective
staffs in accordance with the rules of the department of aging
adopted under division (B) of this section. Training programs
may be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, but not
all, of the duties of a representative of the office. Each
regional office shall bear the cost of training its
representatives who are volunteers. On completion of a training
program, the representative shall take an examination
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a
passing score, he a volunteer shall be certified by the
department as a representative authorized to perform services specified in the
certification. The department shall issue an identification
card, which the representative shall show at the request of any
person with whom he the representative deals while performing
his the representative's duties and which he shall
surrender be surrendered at the time he the
representative separates from the office. Except as a
supervised part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty
unless he is certified as a representative having received appropriate
training for that duty.
(E) The state ombudsman ombudsperson shall provide technical
assistance
to regional programs conducting training programs for volunteers
and shall monitor the training programs.
(F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of
this section, the state ombudsman ombudsperson shall obtain permission to have
the survey or inspection observed from both the director of
health and the long-term care facility at which the survey or
inspection is to take place.
(G) The department of aging shall establish continuing
education requirements for representatives of the office.
Sec. 173.26. (A) Each of the following facilities shall
annually pay to the department of aging three six dollars for each
bed maintained by the facility for use by a resident during any
part of the previous year:
(1) Nursing homes, residential care facilities, and homes
for the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;
(2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care
services under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat.
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;
(3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;
(4) Adult care facilities as defined in section 3722.01 of
the Revised Code;
(5) Adult foster homes certified under section 173.36 of
the Revised Code;
(6) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration
under Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of
1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used
exclusively for the placement and care of veterans.
The department shall, by rule adopted under section 111.15
of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments required by
this section.
(B) All money collected under this section shall be
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the office of
the state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson program fund,
which is hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to
pay
the costs of operating the regional long-term care ombudsman
ombudsperson programs.
(C) The state long-term care ombudsman ombudsperson and the
regional programs may solicit and receive contributions to support the
operation of the office or a regional program, except that no
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.
Sec. 173.55. The department of aging may charge a fee, not to
exceed four hundred dollars, for each of the annual customer
satisfaction surveys conducted under section 173.54 of the
Revised Code. The fee shall be paid
by the nursing facility and is subject to reimbursement through the
medicaid program pursuant to sections 5111.20 to 5111.32 established under Chapter 5111. of the
Revised Code.
All fees collected under this section shall be
deposited to the credit of the long-term care consumer guide fund, which is
hereby
created in the state treasury. The fund shall be used
for costs associated with publishing
the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, including the cost of
contracting with persons and government entities under section
173.47 of the Revised Code. The department may contract
with a person or government entity to
collect the fees on behalf of the department.
Sec. 173.57. (A) The department of aging shall adopt rules to
implement and administer sections 173.45 to
173.59 of the Revised Code. The rules shall specify all of
the
following:
(1) The content of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, including any
information in addition to the information specified in section 173.51 of the
Revised Code;
(2) The content of the computerized
and printed forms of the executive summary of the consumer guide;
(3) The customer satisfaction measures to be published in
the consumer guide pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 173.51
of the Revised Code;
(4) The clinical quality indicators to be published in the
consumer guide pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 173.51
of the Revised Code;
(5) For purposes of clinical quality, customer satisfaction, and survey
data tag comparisons under
section 173.51 of the Revised Code, criteria to be used in classifying
nursing facilities into peer
groups, which may be based on case-mix scores calculated pursuant to rules adopted
under section 5111.231 5111.02 of the Revised Code, the size of nursing facilities, the
location of facilities, or other pertinent factors;
(6) The format for listing nursing facility services in the
consumer guide and the manner in which that information is to be collected
from nursing facilities;
(7) A method of including additional long-term care facilities
and service providers
in the consumer guide pursuant to considerations made under division
(B)(4) of section 173.58 of the Revised Code;
(8) Any other requirements necessary to implement and administer
sections 173.45 to 173.59 of the Revised Code.
(B) The department shall develop rules under this section
in consultation with the long-term care consumer
guide advisory
council created under section 173.58 of the Revised Code.
Before filing a rule under section 119.03 of the Revised
Code, the
department shall present it to the advisory council and provide
the council a reasonable time to comment on it. The department shall give
appropriate consideration to recommendations of the advisory council regarding
proposed rules.
(C) All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Initial rules shall be adopted not later than six months after the
effective date of this section July 1, 2000.
Sec. 175.03. (A)(1) The Ohio housing finance agency shall
consist of
eleven members.
Nine of the members shall be
appointed
by the governor with the advice and consent of the
senate. The
director of commerce and the director of development,
or their
respective designees, shall also be voting members of the
agency.
Of the
nine appointed members, at least one shall
have
experience in residential housing construction; at least one
shall
have experience in residential housing mortgage lending,
loan
servicing, or brokering; at least one shall have experience
in the
licensed residential housing brokerage business; at least
one
shall have experience with the housing needs of senior
citizens;
at least one shall be from a background in labor
representation in
the construction industry;
at least one shall
represent the
interests of nonprofit multifamily housing
development
corporations; at least one shall represent the
interests of
for-profit multifamily housing development
organizations; and
two
shall be
public members.
The
governor shall receive
recommendations from the Ohio housing
council for appointees to
represent the interests of nonprofit
multifamily housing
development corporations and for-profit
multifamily housing
development organizations. Each appointee
representing multifamily
housing interests currently shall be
employed with an organization
that is active in the area of
affordable housing development or
management.
No more than
six
of the appointed
members of
the
agency shall be of the same
political party.
Of
the appointments
made to the agency for the
eighth and
ninth
appointed members in
accordance with this
amendment, one
shall be
for a term ending on
January 31, 2005, and
one shall be
for a term
ending on January
31, 2006. Thereafter,
each appointed
member
shall serve for a
term ending on the
thirty-first day of
January
which is six years
following the date
of termination of
the term
which it succeeds.
Each member shall
hold office from
the date of
the member's
appointment until the
end of the term for
which
the
member was
appointed. Any member
appointed to fill a
vacancy
occurring prior
to the expiration of
the term for which
the
member's
predecessor
was appointed shall
hold office for the
remainder of
such term.
Any appointed member
shall continue in
office
subsequent to the
expiration date of the
member's term
until
the member's successor
takes office, or until
a period of
sixty days has elapsed,
whichever occurs first. Each
appointed
member may be removed
from
office by the governor for
misfeasance,
nonfeasance,
malfeasance
in office, or for failure to
attend in
person three
consecutive
meetings of the agency.
(2) The director of development or the director's designee
governor shall be appoint the
chairperson of
the agency. The agency shall elect
one of its appointed members
as vice-chairperson and such other
officers as it
deems necessary,
who need not be members of the
agency. Each appointed member of
the agency shall receive
compensation at the rate of one hundred
fifty dollars per agency
meeting attended in person, not to
exceed a maximum of three
thousand dollars per year. All members
shall be reimbursed for
their actual and necessary expenses
incurred in the discharge of
their official duties.
(3)
Six members of the agency constitute a quorum, and
the
affirmative vote of
six members shall be necessary for
any
action
taken by the agency. No vacancy in membership of the
agency
impairs the right of a quorum to exercise all the rights
and
perform all the duties of the agency. Meetings of the agency
may
be held at any place within the state. Meetings of the
agency,
including notice of the place of meetings, shall comply
with
section 121.22 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) The appointed members of the agency are not subject
to
section 102.02 of the Revised Code. Each such appointed member
shall file with the agency a signed written statement setting
forth the general nature of sales of goods, property or services
or of loans to the agency in which such member has a pecuniary
interest or in which any member of the member's immediate family,
as
defined in section 102.01 of the Revised Code, or any
corporation, partnership or enterprise of which the member is an
officer,
director, or partner, or of which the member or a member
of
the member's immediate
family, as so defined, owns more than a
five per cent interest,
has a pecuniary interest, and of which
sale, loan and interest
such member has knowledge. The statement
shall be supplemented
from time to time to reflect changes in the
general nature of any
such sales or loans. No member shall
participate in portions of
agency meetings dealing with, or vote
concerning, any such
matter.
(2) The requirements of this section
pertaining to
disclosure
and prohibition from participation and
voting do not
apply to
agency loans to lending institutions or
contracts
between the
agency and lending institutions for the
purchase,
administration,
or servicing of loans notwithstanding
that such
lending
institution has a director, officer, employee,
or owner
who is a
member of the agency, and no such loans or
contracts
shall be
deemed to be prohibited or otherwise regulated
by reason
of any
other law or rule.
(3) The members of the agency representing multifamily
housing interests are not in violation of division (A) of section
2921.42, division (D) of section 102.03, or division (E) of
section 102.03 of the Revised Code in regard to a contract the
agency enters into if both of the following apply:
(a) The contract is entered into for a loan, grant, or
participation in a program administered or funded by the agency
and the contract was awarded pursuant to rules or guidelines the
agency adopted.
(b) The member does not participate in the discussion or vote
on the contract if the contract secured a grant or loan that would
directly benefit the member, a family member, or a business
associate of the member.
Sec. 175.21. (A) The low- and moderate-income housing
trust
fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund
shall
consist of all appropriations made to the fund, housing trust fund fees collected by county recorders pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code and deposited into the fund pursuant to section 319.63 of the Revised Code, and all grants, gifts, loan
repayments,
and
contributions of money made from any source to the
department of
development for deposit in the fund. All investment earnings
of the fund
shall be
credited to the fund. The director of
development shall
allocate a portion of the money in the fund to
an account of the
Ohio housing finance agency. The department
shall administer the
fund. The agency shall use money allocated
to it in the fund for
implementing and administering its programs
and duties under
sections 175.22 and 175.24 of the Revised Code,
and the
department
shall use the remaining money in the fund for
implementing and
administering its programs and duties under
sections 175.22 to
175.25 of the Revised Code. Use of all money
in the fund is
subject to the following restrictions:
(1) Not more than six per cent of any current year appropriation authority for the fund shall be used for the transitional and permanent housing program to make grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, and nonprofit organizations for the acquisition, rehabilitation, renovation, construction, conversion, operation, and cost of supportive services for new and existing transitional and permanent housing for homeless persons.
(2)(a) Not more than five per cent of any current year appropriation authority for the fund shall be used for grants and loans to community development corporations and the Ohio community development finance fund, a private nonprofit corporation.
(b) In any year in which the amount in the fund exceeds one hundred thousand dollars, not less than one hundred thousand dollars shall be used to provide training, technical assistance, and capacity building assistance to nonprofit development organizations in areas of the state the director designates as underserved.
(c) For monies awarded in any fiscal year, priority shall be given to proposals submitted by nonprofit development organizations from areas of the state the director designates as underserved.
(3) Not more than seven per cent of any current year appropriation authority for the fund shall be used for the emergency shelter housing grants program to make grants to private, nonprofit organizations and municipal corporations, counties, and townships for emergency shelter housing for the homeless. The grants shall be distributed pursuant to rules the director adopts and qualify as matching funds for funds obtained pursuant to the McKinney Act, 101 Stat. 85 (1987), 42 U.S.C.A. 11371 to 11378.
(4) In any fiscal year in which the amount in the fund exceeds the amount awarded pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of this section by at least two hundred fifty thousand dollars, at least two hundred fifty thousand dollars from the fund shall be provided to the department of aging for the resident services coordinator program.
(5) Of all money in the fund:
(a) Not more than six per cent shall be used for administration.
(b) Not less than forty-five
per cent of the
amount of funds awarded during any one fiscal
year shall be used
to make for grants
and loans to nonprofit
organizations under section
175.22 of the
Revised Code, not.
(c) Not less
than
fifty per
cent of
the
amount of funds awarded
during any one fiscal year, excluding the amounts awarded pursuant to divisions (A)(1), (A)(2), and (A)(3) of this section,
shall be
used
to make for grants and loans
for activities
that will
provide
housing
and housing assistance to
families and
individuals
in
rural areas
and small cities that
would
are not be
eligible to
participate
as a
participating
jurisdiction under the "HOME
Investment Partnerships
Act," 104
Stat. 4094 (1990), 42 U.S.C.
12701 note, 12721, no
more
than
five per cent of the money in
the
fund shall be used
for
administration, and no.
(d) No money in the
fund
shall be used to pay
for
any legal services other than the
usual
and customary legal
services
associated with the acquisition
of
housing.
(6) Except as
otherwise provided
by
the director
under
division (B) of this
section, money in the fund may be used
as
matching money for
federal funds received by the state,
counties,
municipal
corporations, and townships for the
activities listed in
section
175.22 of the Revised Code.
(B) If after the second quarter of any year it appears to
the director that the full amount of the money in the low- and
moderate-income housing trust fund designated in that year for
activities that will provide housing and housing assistance to
families and individuals in rural areas and small cities under
division (A) of this section will not be so used for that purpose, the director
may
reallocate all or a portion of that amount for other housing
activities. In determining whether or how to reallocate money
under this division, the director may consult with and shall
receive advice from the housing trust fund advisory committee.
Sec. 175.22. (A) The department of development and the
Ohio
housing finance agency shall each develop programs under
which, in
accordance with rules adopted under this section, it they
may make
grants, loans, loan guarantees, and loan subsidies to
counties,
municipal corporations, townships, local housing
authorities, and
nonprofit organizations and may make loans, loan
guarantees, and
loan subsidies to private developers and private
lenders to assist
them in activities that will provide housing
and
housing
assistance for specifically targeted low- and
moderate-income
families and individuals.
There shall be is no
minimum housing
project size for awards under this division for
any project that
is being developed for a special needs population
and that is
supported by a social service agency where the housing
project
will be is located. Activities for which grants, loans,
loan
guarantees, and
loan subsidies may be made
under this section
include
all of the following:
(1) Acquiring, financing, constructing, leasing,
rehabilitating, remodeling, improving, and equipping publicly or
privately owned housing;
(2) Providing supportive services related to housing and
the
homeless, including housing counseling. Not
more than twenty per
cent of the current year appropriation
authority for the low- and
moderate-income housing trust fund that remains after the expenditures made pursuant to divisions (A)(1), (A)(2), and (A)(3) of section 175.21 of the Revised Code,
shall be awarded in any fiscal
year for such supportive services.
(3) Providing rental assistance payments or other project
operating subsidies that lower tenant rents.
(B)
Grants, loans, loan guarantees,
and loan
subsidies may
be
made to counties, municipal
corporations, townships, and
nonprofit
organizations for the
additional purposes of providing
technical
assistance, design and
finance services and
consultation, and
payment of pre-development
and administrative
costs related to any
of the activities listed
above.
(C) In developing programs under this section, the
department and
the agency shall invite, accept, and consider
public
comment, and recommendations from the housing trust fund
advisory
committee created under section 175.25 of the Revised
Code, on
how the programs should be designed to most effectively
benefit
low- and moderate-income families and individuals. The
programs
developed under this section shall respond collectively
to
housing and housing assistance needs of low- and
moderate-income
families and individuals statewide.
(D) The department and
the agency, in accordance with
Chapter
119. of the Revised Code, shall each adopt rules under
which it
shall to administer programs developed by it under this
section.
The rules shall prescribe procedures and forms whereby that
counties,
municipal corporations, townships, local housing
authorities, and
nonprofit organizations may apply shall use in applying for
grants,
loans, loan
guarantees,
and loan subsidies and that private
developers
and private
lenders may apply shall use in applying for loans, loan
guarantees, and loan
subsidies;
eligibility criteria for the
receipt of funds;
procedures for
reviewing and granting or denying
applications;
procedures for
paying out funds; conditions on the
use of funds;
procedures for
monitoring the use of funds; and
procedures under
which a
recipient shall be required to repay
funds that are
improperly
used. The rules adopted by the
department shall do
both of the
following:
(1) Require each recipient of a grant
or loan made
from
the
low- and moderate-income housing trust fund for
activities
that
will provide, or assist in providing, a rental
housing
project, to
reasonably ensure that the rental housing
project
will be remain
affordable to those families and individuals
targeted for
the
rental housing project for the useful life of the
rental
housing
project or for thirty years, whichever is longer;
(2) Require each recipient of a grant
or loan made
from
the
low- and moderate-income housing trust fund for
activities
that
will provide, or assist in providing, a housing
project to
prepare
and implement a plan to reasonably assist any
families
and
individuals displaced by the housing project in
obtaining
decent
affordable housing.
(E) In prescribing eligibility criteria and conditions for
the use of funds, neither the department nor the agency is limited to
the criteria and conditions specified in this section and each
may
prescribe additional eligibility criteria and conditions that
relate to the purposes for which
grants, loans, loan guarantees,
and loan subsidies may be made. However, the
department and
agency are limited by the following specifically
targeted low-
and
moderate-income guidelines:
(1) Not less than seventy-five per cent of the money
granted
and loaned under this section in any
fiscal year shall be
for
activities that will provide affordable housing and housing
assistance to families and individuals in a county whose incomes
are equal to or less than
fifty per cent of the median
income for
that the county in which they live, as determined by the department under
section 175.23
of the Revised Code.
(2) The remainder of the Any money
granted and loaned under
this
section in any
fiscal year that is not granted or loaned pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section shall be for activities
that
will
provide
affordable housing and housing assistance to
families
and
individuals in a county whose incomes are equal to or
less
than
eighty per cent of the median income for that the county in which they live, as
determined by the department under section 175.23 of the Revised
Code.
(F) In making
grants, loans, loan guarantees,
and loan
subsidies under this section, the department and
the
agency shall
give preference to viable projects and activities
that will
benefit those families and individuals in a county whose
incomes
are equal to or less than
thirty-five per cent of
the median
income for that the county in which they live, as determined by the department
under
section 175.23 of the Revised Code.
(G) The department and
the
agency
shall monitor the programs developed under this section to
ensure
that money granted and loaned under this section is not
used in a
manner that violates division (H) of section 4112.02 of
the
Revised Code or discriminates against families with children.
Sec. 183.02. This section's references to years mean state
fiscal years.
All payments received by the state pursuant to the
tobacco
master settlement agreement shall be deposited into the state
treasury to the credit of the tobacco master settlement agreement
fund,
which is hereby created. All investment earnings of the
fund shall also
be credited to the fund. Except as provided in
division
(K) of
this section, payments and interest credited to
the fund shall be transferred
by the director of budget and
management as
follows:
(A)(1) Of the first payment credited to the tobacco master
settlement
agreement fund in 2000 and the net amounts credited to
the
fund annually from 2000 to 2006 and in 2012, the
following
amount or percentage shall be transferred to the tobacco use
prevention and cessation trust fund, created in section 183.03 of
the Revised Code:
|
YEAR |
AMOUNT OR PERCENTAGE |
|
2000 (first payment credited) |
$104,855,222.85 |
|
2000 (net amount credited) |
70.30% |
|
2001 |
62.84 |
|
2002 |
61.41 |
|
2003 |
63.24 |
|
2004 |
66.65 |
|
2005 |
66.24 |
|
2006 |
65.97 |
|
2012 |
56.01 |
(2) Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master
settlement agreement fund in 2013, the director shall transfer to
the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund the amount not
transferred to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund
from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement
agreement fund in 2002 due to
Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405
and Am. Sub.
S.B. No. 242 of the 124th
general
assembly. Of the net amounts
credited to the tobacco
master
settlement agreement fund in 2014,
the director shall
transfer to
the tobacco use prevention and
cessation trust fund
the amount not
transferred to the tobacco use
prevention and
cessation trust fund
from the net amounts credited
to the tobacco
master settlement
agreement fund in 2003 due to
Am.
Sub. H.B. No.
405
and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general
assembly. Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2015, the director shall transfer to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund the amount not transferred to the tobacco use prevention and cessation trust fund from the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund in 2004 due to H.B. of the 125th general assembly.
(B) Of the first payment credited to the tobacco master
settlement
agreement fund in 2000 and the net amounts credited to
the fund annually in
2000 and
2001, the following amount or
percentage shall be
transferred to the law enforcement
improvements trust fund,
created in section 183.10 of the Revised
Code:
|
YEAR |
AMOUNT OR PERCENTAGE |
|
2000 (first payment credited) |
$10,000,000 |
|
2000 (net amount credited) |
5.41% |
|
2001 |
2.32 |
(C)(1) Of the first payment credited to the tobacco master
settlement agreement fund in 2000 and the net amounts credited to
the fund
annually from 2000 to 2011, the following percentages
shall be transferred
to the southern Ohio agricultural and
community development
trust fund, created in section 183.11 of the
Revised
Code:
|
YEAR |
PERCENTAGE |
|
2000 (first payment credited) |
5.00% |
|
2000 (net amount credited) |
8.73 |
|
2001 |
8.12 |
|
2002 |
9.18 |
|
2003 |
8.91 |
|
2004 |
7.84 |
|
2005 |
7.79 |
|
2006 |
7.76 |
|
2007 |
17.39 |
|
2008 through 2011 |
17.25 |
(2) Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master
settlement agreement fund in 2013, the director shall transfer to
the southern Ohio agricultural and community development trust
fund the amount not
transferred to the southern Ohio agricultural
and community development trust fund from
the net amounts credited
to the tobacco master settlement
agreement fund in 2002 due to
Am.
Sub. H.B. No. 405
and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th
general
assembly. Of the net
amounts credited to the tobacco
master
settlement agreement fund
in 2014, the director shall
transfer to
the southern Ohio
agricultural and community development trust
fund the amount not
transferred to the southern Ohio agricultural
and community
development trust fund from the net
amounts credited
to the
tobacco master settlement agreement fund
in 2003 due to
Am.
Sub.
H.B.
No. 405
and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the 124th general
assembly.
(D)(1) The following percentages of the net amounts credited
to
the
tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually shall be
transferred to
Ohio's public health priorities trust fund, created
in
section 183.18 of the Revised Code:
|
YEAR |
PERCENTAGE |
|
2000 |
5.41 |
|
2001 |
6.68 |
|
2002 |
6.79 |
|
2003 |
6.90 |
|
2004 |
7.82 |
|
2005 |
8.18 |
|
2006 |
8.56 |
|
2007 |
19.83 |
|
2008 |
19.66 |
|
2009 |
20.48 |
|
2010 |
21.30 |
|
2011 |
22.12 |
|
2012 |
10.47 |
(2) Of the net amounts credited to the tobacco master
settlement agreement fund in 2013, the director shall transfer to
Ohio's public health priorities trust fund the amount not
transferred to
Ohio's public health priorities trust fund
from
the net amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement
agreement fund in 2002 due to
Am. Sub. H.B. No. 405
and Am. Sub.
S.B. No. 242 of the 124th
general assembly. Of the net amounts
credited to the tobacco
master settlement agreement fund in 2014,
the director shall
transfer to
Ohio's public health
priorities
trust fund
the amount not
transferred to
Ohio's public health
priorities trust fund from the net
amounts
credited to the tobacco
master settlement agreement fund
in 2003
due to
Am. Sub. H.B. No.
405
and Am. Sub. S.B. No. 242 of the
124th general assembly.
(E) The following percentages of the net amounts credited
to
the
tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually shall be
transferred to the biomedical research and technology transfer
trust fund, created in section 183.19 of the Revised
Code:
|
YEAR |
PERCENTAGE |
|
2000 |
2.71 |
|
2001 |
14.03 |
|
2002 |
13.29 |
|
2003 |
12.73 |
|
2004 |
13.78 |
|
2005 |
14.31 |
|
2006 |
14.66 |
|
2007 |
49.57 |
|
2008 to 2011 |
45.06 |
|
2012 |
18.77 |
(F) Of the amounts credited to the
tobacco master settlement
agreement fund annually,
the following amounts shall be
transferred to the education
facilities trust fund, created in
section 183.26 of the Revised
Code:
|
YEAR |
AMOUNT |
|
2000 |
$133,062,504.95 |
|
2001 |
128,938,732.73 |
|
2002 |
185,804,475.78 |
|
2003 |
180,561,673.11 |
|
2004 |
122,778,219.49 |
|
2005 |
121,389,325.80 |
|
2006 |
120,463,396.67 |
|
2007 |
246,389,369.01 |
|
2008 to 2011 |
267,531,291.85 |
|
2012 |
110,954,545.28 |
(G) Of the amounts credited to the tobacco master settlement
agreement fund annually, from 2000 to 2012 five million dollars
per year shall
be transferred to the education facilities
endowment fund, created in section 183.27 of the Revised
Code.
From 2013 to 2025, the
following percentages of the amounts
credited to the tobacco master
settlement agreement fund annually
shall be transferred to the endowment
fund:
|
YEAR |
PERCENTAGE |
|
2013 |
30.22 |
|
2014 |
33.36 |
|
2015 to 2025 |
40.90 |
(H) The following percentages of the net amounts credited to
the
tobacco master settlement agreement fund annually shall be
transferred to the
education technology trust fund, created in
section 183.28 of the Revised Code:
|
YEAR |
PERCENTAGE |
|
2000 |
7.44 |
|
2001 |
6.01 |
|
2002 |
9.33 |
|
2003 |
8.22 |
|
2004 |
3.91 |
|
2005 |
3.48 |
|
2006 |
3.05 |
|
2007 |
13.21 |
|
2008 |
18.03 |
|
2009 |
17.21 |
|
2010 |
16.39 |
|
2011 |
15.57 |
|
2012 |
14.75 |
(I)
In each year from 2003 to 2025, after the transfers made
under divisions (F) and (G) of this section but prior to the
transfers made under divisions (A) to (E) of this section, the
director of budget and management shall transfer to the tobacco
settlement oversight, administration, and enforcement fund created
in section 183.34 of the Revised Code such amount as the director
determines necessary to pay the costs incurred by the attorney
general in tobacco settlement oversight, administration, and
enforcement.
(J) In each year from 2003 to 2025, after the transfers
made
under divisions (F) and (G) of this section but prior to the
transfers made under divisions (A) to (E) of this section, the
director of budget and management shall transfer to the tobacco
settlement enforcement fund created in section 183.35 of the
Revised Code such amount as the director determines necessary to
pay the costs incurred by the tax commissioner in the enforcement
of divisions (F) and (G) of section 5743.03 of the Revised Code.
(K) If in any year from 2001 to 2012 the payments and
interest
credited to the tobacco master settlement agreement fund
during the year
amount to less than the amounts required to be
transferred to the education facilities trust fund
and the
education facilities endowment
fund that year, the director of
budget and management shall make none of the
transfers required by
divisions (A) to
(J) of this section.
(L) If in any year from 2000 to 2025 the payments
credited
to the
tobacco master settlement agreement fund during
the year
exceed
the following amounts, the director of budget and
management shall
transfer the excess to the income tax reduction
fund, created in
section 131.44 of the Revised Code:
|
YEAR |
AMOUNT |
|
2000 |
$443,892,767.51 |
|
2001 |
348,780,049.22 |
|
2002 |
418,783,038.09 |
|
2003 |
422,746,368.61 |
|
2004 |
352,827,184.57 |
|
2005 |
352,827,184.57 |
|
2006 |
352,827,184.57 |
|
2007 |
352,827,184.57 |
|
2008 to 2017 |
383,779,323.15 |
|
2018 to 2025 |
403,202,282.16 |
Sec. 183.28. The education technology trust fund is hereby
created in the state treasury. Money credited to the fund shall
be used to pay costs of
the Ohio SchoolNet
commission under
section
3301.80 of the Revised Code department of education for school technology-related activities.
All
investment earnings of
the fund shall
be credited to the fund.
Sec. 305.28. (A) A board of county commissioners, by resolution, may adopt a cost allocation plan that identifies, accumulates, and distributes allowable direct and indirect costs that may be paid from any county special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund to the county general fund, including funds provided for in sections 307.806 and 307.846 of the Revised Code. The plan shall use cost principles like those contained in the United States office of management and budget circular A-87, "Cost Principles for State, Local, and Indian Tribal Governments." The plan may include reasonable rates or charges for general fund direct and indirect costs, administrative services, and centrally budgeted costs. If rates and charges are so included, the county shall periodically review them to ensure that they continue to reflect actual costs.
(B) After the adoption of a cost allocation plan under division (A) of this section, the board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution of intent declaring its intention to allocate costs identified in the plan to any special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund, and identifying the name of each such fund, any numerical fund identifier, and the rates or charges to be made. By regular mail or by personal service, the clerk of the board shall give a certified copy of the resolution of intent, a copy of the cost allocation plan, and an estimate of the costs that will be allocated to the particular fund in the next ensuing fiscal year, to the county elected official or the board, commission, or other instrumentality of the county associated with each fund identified in the resolution of intent.
Within twenty days after the mailing or personal service of those documents, a recipient county elected official, board, commission, or other instrumentality may request a meeting with the board of county commissioners to discuss the rates or charges in the resolution of intent. The board shall consider their comments. Not sooner than twenty days after receiving the comments of all recipients who timely made a request for a meeting, the board may adopt a resolution to proceed consistent with its cost allocation plan, which may amend the rates or charges specified in the resolution of intent. These rates and charges cannot be charged before the first day of January of the ensuing fiscal year to any special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund specified in the resolution to proceed with the plan.
(C) After adoption of the resolution to proceed with the cost allocation plan under division (B) of this section, the board of county commissioners shall charge, at least annually, each applicable county elected official, board, commission, or other instrumentality in a manner consistent with that resolution and the plan. Notwithstanding sections 5705.14, 5705.15, and 5705.16 of the Revised Code, if the county elected official, board, commission, or other instrumentality does not reimburse the general fund as charged, the board may authorize a transfer from the appropriate special revenue fund, enterprise fund, or internal service fund to the general fund, or may take any other action to ensure that the rates or charges are collected and deposited in the general fund.
(D) The authority granted in this section is in addition to and not in derogation of the authority granted to the board of county commissioners in section 307.85, division (B) of section 343.08, section 955.17, division (H) of section 6103.02, and division (E) of section 6117.02 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 307.202. As used in this section, "rail property" and "rail service"
have the same meanings as in section 4981.01 5507.01 of the Revised Code.
The board of county commissioners may acquire, rehabilitate, and develop rail
property and rail service, and may enter into agreements with the Ohio rail
development commission, boards of township trustees, legislative authorities
of
municipal corporations, other boards of county commissioners, with other
governmental agencies or organizations, and with private agencies or
organizations in order to achieve those purposes.
Sec. 307.86. Anything to be purchased, leased, leased with
an option or agreement to purchase, or constructed, including,
but
not limited to, any product, structure, construction,
reconstruction, improvement, maintenance, repair, or service,
except the services of an accountant, architect, attorney at law,
physician, professional engineer, construction project manager,
consultant, surveyor, or appraiser, by or on behalf of the county
or contracting authority, as defined in section 307.92 of the
Revised Code, at a cost in excess of fifteen thousand dollars,
except
as otherwise provided in division (D) of section 713.23 and
in
sections 125.04, 307.022, 307.041, 307.861, 339.05, 340.03,
340.033,
4115.31 to 4115.35, 5119.16, 5513.01, 5543.19, 5713.01,
and
6137.05 of the Revised Code, shall be obtained through
competitive bidding. However, competitive bidding is not
required
when any of the following applies:
(A) The board of county commissioners, by a unanimous vote
of its members, makes a determination that a real and present
emergency exists, and that determination and the
reasons for it
are entered in the minutes of the proceedings of the board, when
either of
the following applies:
(1) The estimated cost is less than fifty thousand
dollars.
(2) There is actual physical disaster to structures, radio
communications
equipment, or computers.
For purposes of this division, "unanimous vote" means all
three members of
a board of county commissioners when all three
members are present, or two
members of the board if only two
members, constituting a quorum, are present.
Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is
exempted from competitive bidding under division (A)(1) of this
section because the estimated cost is less than fifty thousand
dollars, but the estimated cost is fifteen thousand dollars or
more,
the county or contracting authority shall solicit informal
estimates from no fewer than three persons who could perform the
contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to each such
contract, the county or contracting authority shall maintain a
record of such estimates, including the name of each person from
whom an estimate is solicited. The county or contracting
authority shall maintain the record for the longer
of at least one
year after
the contract is awarded or the amount of time the
federal government
requires.
(B) The purchase consists of supplies or a replacement or
supplemental part or parts for a product or equipment owned or
leased by the county, and the only source of supply for the
supplies, part, or parts is limited to a single supplier.
(C) The purchase is from the federal government, the state,
another county or contracting authority of another county, or a
board of
education, township, or municipal corporation.
(D) Public family Family services duties or workforce development
activities are purchased for provision by
the county department of
job and family services under
section 329.04 of
the Revised Code,
or program services, such as direct and
ancillary client services,
child day-care, case management
services, residential services,
and family resource services, are
purchased for provision by a
county board of mental retardation
and developmental disabilities
under section 5126.05 of the
Revised Code.
(E) The purchase consists of
criminal justice services,
social services programs, family services,
or workforce
development activities by
the board of county commissioners from
nonprofit corporations or
associations under programs
funded
by
the
federal government
or by state grants.
(F) The purchase consists of any form of an insurance
policy
or contract authorized to be issued under Title XXXIX of
the
Revised Code or any form of health care plan
authorized to be
issued under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any
combination
of such policies,
contracts, or plans that the contracting
authority is authorized
to purchase, and the contracting authority
does all of the
following:
(1) Determines that compliance with the requirements of
this
section would increase, rather than decrease, the cost of
the
purchase;
(2) Employs a competent consultant to assist the
contracting
authority in procuring appropriate coverages at the
best and
lowest prices;
(3) Requests issuers of
the policies, contracts, or
plans
to submit proposals to the contracting authority, in a form
prescribed by the contracting authority, setting forth the
coverage and cost of
the policies, contracts, or plans as the
contracting authority desires to purchase;
(4) Negotiates with
the issuers for the purpose of
purchasing
the policies, contracts, or plans at the best and
lowest price reasonably possible.
(G) The purchase consists of computer hardware, software,
or
consulting services that are necessary to implement a
computerized
case management automation project administered by
the Ohio
prosecuting attorneys association and funded by a grant
from the
federal government.
(H) Child day-care services are purchased for provision to
county employees.
(I)(1) Property, including land, buildings, and other real
property, is leased for offices, storage, parking, or other
purposes, and all of the following apply:
(a) The contracting authority is authorized by the Revised
Code to lease the
property.
(b) The contracting authority develops requests for
proposals for leasing the property, specifying the criteria that
will be considered prior to leasing the property, including the
desired size and geographic location of the property.
(c) The contracting authority receives responses from
prospective lessors with property meeting the criteria specified
in the requests for proposals by giving notice in a manner
substantially similar to the procedures established for giving
notice under section 307.87 of the Revised Code.
(d) The contracting authority negotiates with the
prospective lessors to obtain a lease at the best and lowest
price
reasonably possible considering the fair market value of
the
property and any relocation and operational costs that may be
incurred
during the period the lease is in effect.
(2) The contracting authority may use the services of a
real
estate appraiser to obtain advice, consultations, or other
recommendations regarding the lease of property under this
division.
(J) The purchase is made pursuant to section 5139.34 or
sections
5139.41 to 5139.46 of the Revised Code and is of programs
or services that
provide case
management, treatment, or prevention
services to any felony or misdemeanant
delinquent, unruly youth,
or status offender under the supervision of the
juvenile court,
including, but not limited to, community
residential care, day
treatment, services to children in their home, or
electronic
monitoring.
(K) The purchase is made by a public children services
agency pursuant to
section 307.92 or 5153.16 of the Revised Code
and consists of
family services,
programs, or ancillary services
that provide case management, prevention, or
treatment services
for children at risk of being or alleged to be abused,
neglected,
or dependent children.
Any issuer of policies, contracts, or plans listed in
division (F) of this section and any prospective lessor under
division (I) of
this section may have the issuer's or prospective
lessor's
name and address, or the name and address
of an agent,
placed on a special
notification list to be kept by the
contracting authority, by
sending the contracting authority
that
name and address. The
contracting authority shall send
notice to
all persons listed on
the special notification list.
Notices shall
state the deadline
and place for submitting
proposals. The
contracting authority
shall mail the notices at
least six weeks
prior to the deadline
set by the contracting
authority for
submitting proposals.
Every five years the
contracting authority
may review this list
and remove any person
from the list after
mailing the person
notification of
that
action.
Any contracting authority that negotiates a contract under
division (F) of this section shall request proposals and
renegotiate with issuers in accordance with that division at
least
every three years from the date of the signing of such a
contract.
Any consultant employed pursuant to division (F) of this
section and any real estate appraiser employed pursuant to
division (I) of
this section shall disclose any fees or
compensation received from any
source in connection with that
employment.
Sec. 307.98. Each board of county
commissioners shall enter into a one or more written partnership agreement fiscal agreements with the
director of job and family services in accordance with
section 5101.21 of the Revised
Code. Prior to
entering into or substantially amending the agreement, the board shall conduct
a public hearing and
consult with the county family services planning committee
established under section 329.06 of the Revised Code. Through the hearing and
consultation, the board shall obtain comments and
recommendations concerning what would be the county's
obligations and responsibilities under the agreement or amendment.
As evidence that the board consulted with the county
family services
planning committee, the committee's chair shall sign a letter confirming that
the consultation occurred, which shall be attached to the partnership
agreement and any substantial amendments to the agreement. The boards shall enter into the agreements on behalf of their county family services agencies.
Sec. 307.981. (A)(1) As
used in the
Revised Code:
(a) "County family services
agency" means all of the
following:
(i) A child support enforcement agency;
(ii) A county department of job and
family services;
(iii) A public children services agency.
(b) "Family services duty"
means a duty state law requires
or allows a county family services agency to
assume, including financial and general administrative duties.
(2) As used in sections
307.981 to 307.989 of the Revised Code, "private entity"
means an entity other than a government entity.
(B) To the extent permitted by federal law, including, when applicable, subpart
F of 5 C.F.R. part 900, and
subject to any limitations established by the Revised
Code, including division (H) of this section,
a board of
county commissioners may designate any private or government
entity within this state to serve as any of the following:
(1) A child support enforcement agency;
(2) A county
department of job and family services;
(3) A public children services agency;
(4) A county department of job and family services and one other of
those county family services
agencies;
(5) All three of
those county family services agencies;
(6) A workforce development agency;
(7) A workforce development agency and a county department of job and
family services;
(8) A workforce development agency and a county department of job and
family services and one or two of the other county family services agencies.
(C) A To the extent permitted by federal law, including, when applicable, subpart F of 5 C.F.R. part 900, and subject to any limitations of the Revised Code, including division (H) of this section, a board of county commissioners may change
the
designation it makes under division (B) of this section by
designating another private or government entity.
(D) If the director of job and family services determines that a
designation under division (B) or (C) of this section
constitutes
a substantial change from what is the designation in the current partnership a fiscal agreement between
the director of job and family services and the board of county commissioners under
section 5101.21 of the Revised Code, the director may
require that the director and board amend the partnership fiscal agreement and that
the board provide the director written assurances that the
newly designated private or government entity will meet or exceed
all requirements of the family services duties or workforce
development activities the entity is to assume.
(E) Not
less than sixty days before a board of county commissioners designates
an entity
under division (B) or (C) of this section, the board
shall notify the director
of job and family services and publish notice in a
newspaper of general
circulation in the county of the board's intention to make the
designation and reasons for the designation.
(F) A board of county commissioners shall enter into a written
contract with each entity it designates under division (B) or
(C) of this section
specifying the entity's responsibilities and standards the
entity is required to meet.
(G) This section does not require a board of county
commissioners to abolish the child support enforcement agency,
county department of job and family services, or public
children services
agency serving the county on
October 1, 1997, and designate a different private or
government entity to serve
as the county's child support enforcement agency, county
department of job and family services, or public children
services
agency.
(H) If a county children
services board appointed under section 5153.03 of the
Revised
Code serves as a public
children services agency for a county, the board of county
commissioners may not redesignate the public children services
agency unless the board of county commissioners does all of the
following:
(1) Notifies the county children services board of its
intent to redesignate the public children services agency. In its
notification, the board of county commissioners shall provide the county
children services board a written explanation of the administrative, fiscal,
or performance considerations causing the board of county commissioners to
seek to redesignate the public children services agency.
(2) Provides the county children services board an opportunity to
comment on the proposed redesignation before the redesignation
occurs;
(3) If the county children services board, not more than
sixty days after receiving the notice under division
(H)(1) of this section,
notifies the board of county commissioners that the county
children services board has voted to oppose the redesignation,
votes unanimously to proceed with the redesignation.
Sec. 307.987. To the extent
federal statutes and regulations and
state law permit, a partnership agreement
entered into under
section 307.98, a contract
entered into under section 307.981 or 307.982,
a plan of cooperation entered into under section 307.983, a regional plan
of cooperation entered into under section 307.984, a
transportation
work plan developed under section 307.985, and
procedures established under
section 307.986 of the Revised Code shall permit the
exchange of information needed to improve services and assistance to
individuals and families and the protection of children. A private or
government entity that receives information pursuant to an agreement,
contract, a plan, or procedures is bound by the same standards of
confidentiality as the
entity that provides the information.
An agreement, contract, A plan, or procedures
shall:
(A) Be coordinated and not conflict with another
agreement, contract, plan, or procedures or an agreement entered into under
section 329.05
of the Revised Code;
(B) Prohibit discrimination in hiring and promotion
against applicants for and participants of the
Ohio works first
program established under
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and the prevention, retention, and
contingency
program established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code;
(C) Comply with federal statutes and regulations and
state law;
(D) Be adopted by resolution of a board of county
commissioners;
(E) Specify how the agreement, contract, plan, or procedures may
be amended.
Sec. 311.17.
For
the services specified in this
section,
the sheriff shall
charge the following
fees, which the court or
its clerk
thereof shall tax in the bill
of costs against the judgment
debtor or those legally liable
therefor
for the judgment:
(A) For the service and return of the following writs and
orders:
(a) When money is paid without levy or when no property
is
found, five twenty dollars;
(b) When levy is made on real property, for the first
tract, twenty twenty-five dollars, and for each additional tract, five
ten dollars;
(c) When levy is made on goods and chattels, including
inventory, twenty-five fifty dollars;.
(2) Writ of attachment of property, except for purpose of
garnishment, twenty forty dollars;
(3) Writ of attachment for the purpose of garnishment,
five ten dollars;
(4) Writ of replevin, twenty forty dollars;
(5) Warrant to arrest, for each person named in the writ,
five ten dollars;
(6) Attachment for contempt, for each person named in the
writ, three six dollars;
(7) Writ of possession or restitution, twenty sixty dollars;
(8) Subpoena, for each person named in the writ, if in either a
civil or criminal case three, six dollars, if in a criminal case one dollar;
(9) Venire, for each person named in the writ, if in either a
civil or criminal case three, six dollars, if in a criminal case one dollar;
(10) Summoning each juror, other than on venire, if in either a
civil or criminal case three, six dollars, if in a criminal case one dollar;
(11) Writ of partition, fifteen twenty-five dollars;
(12) Order of sale on partition, for the first tract,
twenty-five fifty dollars, and for each additional tract, five
twenty-five dollars;
(13) Other order of sale of real property, for the first
tract, twenty fifty dollars, and for each additional tract, five
twenty-five dollars;
(14) Administering oath to appraisers, one dollar and
fifty cents three dollars each;
(15) Furnishing copies for advertisements, fifty cents
one dollar for
each hundred words;
(16) Copy of indictment, for each defendant, two five dollars;
(17) All summons, writs, orders, or notices, for the
first
name, three six dollars, and for each additional name, fifty
cents one dollar.
(B) In addition to the fee for service and return, the
sheriff may charge:
(1) On each summons, writ, order, or notice, a fee of
fifty cents one dollar per mile for the first mile, and twenty fifty cents per
mile
for each additional mile, going and returning, actual
mileage to
be charged on each additional name;
(2) Taking bail bond, one dollar three dollars;
(3) Jail fees, as follows:
(a) For receiving a prisoner, four five dollars
each time a
prisoner is received, and for
discharging or surrendering a
prisoner, four five dollars;
each time a prisoner is discharged or
surrendered. The departure or return of a prisoner from or to a
jail in connection with a program established under section
5147.28 of the Revised Code is not a receipt, discharge, or
surrender of the prisoner for purposes of this division.
(b) Taking a prisoner before a judge or court, per day,
three five dollars;
(c) Calling action, fifty cents one dollar;
(d) Calling jury, one dollar three dollars;
(e) Calling each witness, one dollar three dollars;
(f) Bringing prisoner before court on habeas corpus, four six
dollars;.
(4) Poundage on all moneys actually made and paid to the
sheriff on execution, decree, or sale of real estate, one and one-half per
cent;
(5) Making and executing a deed of land sold on
execution,
decree, or order of the court, to be paid by the
purchaser,
twenty-five fifty dollars.
When any of the
foregoing services
described in division
(A) or (B) of this section are rendered by an
officer or employee,
whose salary or per diem compensation is
paid by the county, the
applicable legal fees
and any other extraordinary expenses,
including overtime, provided for
such
the service
in
this section
shall be taxed in the costs in the case, and, when
such fees are
collected
they, shall be paid into the general fund
of the county.
The sheriff shall charge the same fees for the execution
of
process issued in any other state as
he
the sheriff charges for
the execution
of process of a substantively similar nature that is
issued in
this state.
Sec. 317.32. The county recorder shall
charge and collect
the following fees, to include base fees for the recorder's services and housing trust fund fees, collected pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code:
(A) For recording and indexing an instrument when the
photocopy or any similar process is employed, a base fee of fourteen dollars
for
the first two pages and a housing trust fund fee of fourteen dollars, and a base fee of four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four dollars for each subsequent
page,
size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or
fraction of
a page, including the caption page, of such
instrument;
(B) For certifying a photocopy from the record previously
recorded, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by
fourteen inches, or fraction of a page; for each certification
where the recorder's seal is required, except as to instruments
issued by the armed forces of the United States, a base fee of fifty cents and a housing trust fund fee of fifty cents;
(C) For manual or typewritten recording of assignment or
satisfaction of mortgage or lease or any other marginal entry, a base fee of
four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four dollars;
(D) For entering any marginal reference by separate
recorded
instrument, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars for each marginal reference set
out in
that instrument, in addition to the recording fee fees set
forth in
division (A) of this section;
(E) For indexing in the real estate mortgage records,
pursuant to
section
1309.519 of
the
Revised Code,
financing
statements covering crops growing or to be
grown,
timber to be
cut, minerals or the like, including oil and
gas,
accounts subject
to
section
1309.301
of the
Revised Code, or fixture filings made
pursuant to section
1309.334
of the Revised Code, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars for
each name
indexed;
(F) For recording manually any plat not exceeding six
lines, a base fee of
two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars, and for each additional line, a base fee of ten cents and a housing trust fund fee of ten cents;
(G) For filing zoning resolutions, including text and
maps,
in the office of the recorder as required under sections
303.11
and 519.11 of the Revised Code, a base fee of fifty dollars and a housing trust fund fee of fifty dollars, regardless
of the
size or length of the resolutions;
(H) For filing zoning amendments, including text and maps,
in the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.12
and 519.12 of the Revised Code, a base fee of ten dollars and a housing trust fund fee of ten dollars for the first page
and a base fee of
four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four dollars for each additional page;
(I) For photocopying a document, other than at the time of
recording and indexing as provided for in division (A) of this
section, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by
fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;
(J) For local facsimile transmission of a document, a base fee of one
dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen
inches, or fraction thereof; for long distance facsimile
transmission of a document, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars per page, size eight and
one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;
(K) For recording a declaration executed pursuant to section
2133.02 of the Revised
Code or a durable power of attorney for
health
care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the
Revised
Code,
or both a declaration and a durable power of attorney for
health care, a base fee of at
least fourteen dollars but not more than twenty
dollars and a housing trust fund fee of at least fourteen dollars but not more than twenty dollars.
In any county in which the recorder employs the photostatic
or any similar process for recording maps, plats, or prints the
recorder
shall determine, charge, and collect for the recording or
rerecording of any map, plat, or print, a base fee of five cents and a housing trust fund fee of five cents per
square inch, for each square inch of the map, plat, or print
filed
for that recording or rerecording, with a minimum base fee of
twenty
dollars and a minimum housing trust fund fee of twenty dollars; for certifying a copy from the record, a base fee of
two cents
and a housing trust fund fee of two cents per square inch of the record, with a minimum base fee of
two dollars and a minimum housing trust fund fee of two dollars.
The fees provided in this section shall be paid upon the
presentation of the instruments for record or upon the
application
for any certified copy of the record, except
that the payment of
fees
associated with the filing and recording of, or the copying
of,
notices of internal revenue tax liens and notices of other
liens
in favor of the United States as described in division (A)
of
section 317.09 of the Revised Code and certificates of
discharge
or release of those liens, shall be
governed by section
317.09 of the Revised Code, and the payment of
fees for
providing
copies of instruments conveying or extinguishing agricultural
easements to the office of farmland preservation under division
(G) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code shall be governed by
that
division.
Sec. 317.36. (A) The county recorder shall collect the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund fee as specified in sections 317.32, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2505.13, 4141.23, 4509.60, 5111.021, 5310.15, 5719.07, 5727.56, 5733.18, 5733.22, 6101.09, and 6115.09 of the Revised Code. The amount of any housing trust fund fee the recorder is authorized to collect is equal to the amount of any base fee the recorder is authorized to collect for services. The housing trust fund fee shall be collected in addition to the base fee.
(B) The recorder shall certify the amounts collected as housing trust fund fees pursuant to division (A) of this section into the county treasury as housing trust fund fees, collected solely to provide revenue for the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund in the state treasury created under section 175.21 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 319.302. After complying with section 319.301 of the
Revised Code, the
county auditor shall reduce the remaining sums
to be levied against each parcel of real (A) Real property listed on the
general current tax list and duplicate of real and public utility
property for the current tax year, and against each manufactured
and or mobile home that is
homes taxed pursuant to division (D)(2) of section
4503.06 of the Revised Code and that is listed on the
current manufactured home tax list for the current tax year, by ten per
cent. Except shall be exempted from taxation to the extent provided in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section. The exemption shall be effected by the county auditor reducing the sums remaining to be levied against such real property and manufactured or mobile homes by the amounts prescribed in those divisions after the reduction under section 319.301 of the Revised Code:
(1) Ten per cent of the remaining sums in the case of a tract or parcel of real property classified according to use as agricultural;
(2) Ten per cent of the remaining sums in the case of a tract or parcel of real property classified according to use as residential and on which is situated a single-family or two-family dwelling. If the dwelling qualifies for the reduction in taxes under division (B) of section 323.152 of the Revised Code for the current tax year or would qualify if an application for the reduction had been filed, the ten per cent reduction shall apply only to the extent of the remaining sums to be levied on the first one million dollars in true value of those tracts, including the true value of the dwelling.
(3) Ten per cent of the remaining sums in the case of a manufactured or mobile home. If the manufactured or mobile home qualifies for the reduction in taxes under division (B) of section 323.152 of the Revised Code for the current tax year or would qualify if an application for the reduction had been filed, the ten per cent reduction shall apply to the home and the tract or parcel of land on which the home is situated only to the extent of the remaining sums to be levied on the first one million dollars in true value of the tract or parcel and the home. The reduction shall be applied first to the sums to be levied against the tract or parcel of land if owned by the owner of the home and then, if the maximum reduction is not exceeded after such application, to the sums to be levied against the manufactured or mobile home.
(4) Five per cent of the remaining sums in the case of all other real property.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in sections 323.152, 323.158, 505.06,
and 715.263 of the Revised Code, the
amount of the taxes remaining after such reduction the exemption is applied under this section shall be the
real and public utility property taxes charged and payable, and the
manufactured home tax charged and payable, on
each property and shall be the amounts that are certified to the county
treasurer for collection. Upon receipt of the tax duplicate, the
county treasurer shall certify to the tax commissioner the total amount
by which such taxes were reduced under this section, as shown on
the duplicate. Such reduction
(C) The exemption provided in this section shall not directly or indirectly
affect the determination of the principal amount of notes that
may be issued in anticipation of any tax levies or the amount of
bonds or notes for any planned improvements. If after
application of sections 5705.31 and 5705.32 of the Revised Code
and other applicable provisions of law, including division (F) of
section 321.24 of the Revised Code, there would be insufficient
funds for payment of debt charges on bonds or notes payable from
taxes reduced by this section, the reduction of taxes exemption provided
for in this section shall be adjusted to the extent necessary to
provide funds from such taxes.
Sec. 319.63. (A) During the first thirty days of each calendar quarter, the county auditor shall pay to the treasurer of state all amounts that the county recorder collected as housing trust fund fees pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code during the previous calendar quarter. If payment is made to the treasurer of state within the first thirty days of the quarter, the county auditor may retain an administrative fee of one per cent of the amount of the trust fund fees collected during the previous calendar quarter.
(B) The treasurer of state shall deposit the first fifty million dollars of housing trust fund fees received each year pursuant to this section into the low- and moderate-income housing trust fund, created under section 175.21 of the Revised Code, and shall deposit any amounts received each year in excess of fifty million dollars into the state general revenue fund.
(C) The county auditor shall deposit the administrative fee that the auditor is permitted to retain pursuant to division (A) of this section into the county general fund for the county recorder to use in administering the trust fund fee.
Sec. 321.24. (A) On or before the fifteenth day of
February, in each year, the county treasurer shall settle with
the
county auditor for all taxes and assessments that the
treasurer
has
collected on the general duplicate of real and public utility
property at the time of making the settlement.
(B) On or before the thirtieth day of June, in each year,
the treasurer shall settle with the auditor for all advance
payments of general personal and classified property taxes that
the treasurer has received at the time of making the
settlement.
(C) On or before the tenth day of August, in each year,
the
treasurer shall settle with the auditor for all taxes and
assessments that the treasurer has collected on the general
duplicates of
real and public utility property at the time of
making such
settlement, not included in the preceding February
settlement.
(D) On or before the thirty-first day of October, in each
year, the treasurer shall settle with the auditor for all taxes
that the treasurer has collected on the general personal and
classified
property duplicates, and for all advance payments of
general
personal and classified property taxes, not included in
the
preceding June settlement, that the treasurer has received at
the time of
making such settlement.
(E) In the event the time for the payment of taxes is
extended, pursuant to section 323.17 of the Revised Code, the
date
on or before which settlement for the taxes so extended must
be
made, as herein prescribed, shall be deemed to be extended for
a
like period of time. At each such settlement, the auditor
shall
allow to the treasurer, on the moneys received or collected
and
accounted for by the treasurer, the
treasurer's fees, at the
rate or percentage
allowed by law, at a full settlement of the
treasurer.
(F) Within thirty days after the day of each settlement of
taxes required under divisions (A) and (C) of this section, the
treasurer shall certify to the tax commissioner any adjustments
which have been made to the amount certified previously pursuant
to section 319.302 of the Revised Code and that the settlement
has
been completed. Upon receipt of such certification, the
commissioner shall provide for payment to the county treasurer
from the general revenue fund of an amount equal to one-half of
the amount certified by the treasurer in the preceding tax year
under section 319.302 of the Revised Code, less one-half of the amount computed for all taxing districts in that county for the current fiscal year under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code for crediting to the property tax administration fund. Such payment shall be
credited upon receipt to the county's undivided income tax fund,
and the county auditor shall transfer to the county general fund
from the amount thereof the total amount of all fees and charges
which the auditor and treasurer would have been authorized to
receive had such section not been in effect and that
amount had
been levied and collected as taxes. The county auditor shall
distribute the amount remaining among the various taxing
districts
in the county as if it had been levied, collected, and
settled as
real property taxes. The amount distributed to each taxing district shall be reduced by the total of the amounts computed for the district under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of section 5703.60 of the Revised Code, but the reduction shall not exceed the amount that otherwise would be distributed to the taxing district under this division. The tax commissioner shall make available to taxing districts such information as is sufficient for a taxing district to be able to determine the amount of the reduction in its distribution under this section.
(G)(1) Within thirty days after the day of the settlement
required in division (D) of this section, the county treasurer shall
certify to notify the tax commissioner that the settlement has been
completed. Upon receipt of that certification notification, the commissioner
shall provide for payment to the county treasurer from the
general
revenue fund of an amount equal to the amount certified under section
319.311 of the
Revised Code in the current year paid in the state's fiscal year 2003 multiplied by the percentage specified in division (G)(2) of this section. The payment
shall be credited
upon receipt to the county's undivided income
tax fund, and the
county auditor shall distribute the amount
thereof among the
various taxing districts of the county as if it
had been levied,
collected, and settled as personal property
taxes. The amount
received by a taxing district under this
division shall be
apportioned among its funds in the same
proportion as the current
year's personal property taxes are
apportioned.
(2) Payments required under division (G)(1) of this section shall be made at the following percentages of the amount paid under division (G) of this section in the state's fiscal year 2003:
(a) In fiscal year 2004, ninety per cent;
(b) In fiscal year 2005, eighty per cent;
(c) In fiscal year 2006, seventy per cent;
(d) In fiscal year 2007, sixty per cent;
(e) In fiscal year 2008, fifty per cent;
(f) In fiscal year 2009, forty per cent;
(g) In fiscal year 2010, thirty per cent;
(h) In fiscal year 2011, twenty per cent;
(i) In fiscal year 2012, ten per cent.
After fiscal year 2012, no payments shall be made under division (G) of this section.
(H)(1) On or before the fifteenth day of April each
year,
the county treasurer shall settle with the county auditor for all
manufactured home taxes that the county treasurer has
collected on
the
manufactured home tax duplicate at the time of making the
settlement.
(2) On or before the fifteenth day of September each year,
the
county treasurer shall settle with the county auditor for all
remaining manufactured home taxes that the county
treasurer has
collected on the manufactured home tax duplicate at
the time of
making the settlement.
(3) If the time for payment of such taxes is extended under
section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the time for making the
settlement as prescribed by divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this
section is extended for a like period of time.
Sec. 323.01. Except as otherwise provided, as used in
Chapter 323. of the Revised Code:
(A) "Subdivision" means any county, township, school
district, or municipal
corporation.
(B) "Municipal corporation" includes charter
municipalities.
(C) "Taxes" means the total amount of all charges against
an entry appearing on a tax list and the duplicate thereof that
was prepared and certified in accordance with section 319.28 of
the Revised Code, including taxes levied against real estate;
taxes on property whose value is certified pursuant to section
5727.23 of the Revised Code; recoupment charges applied pursuant
to section 5713.35 of the Revised Code; all assessments;
penalties and interest charged pursuant to section 323.121 of the
Revised Code; charges added pursuant to section 319.35 of the
Revised Code; and all of such charges which remain unpaid from
any previous tax year.
(D) "Current taxes" means all taxes charged against an
entry on the general tax list and duplicate of real and public
utility property that have not appeared on such list and
duplicate for any prior tax year and any penalty thereon charged
by division (A) of section 323.121 of the Revised Code. Current
taxes, whether or not they have been certified delinquent, become
delinquent taxes if they remain unpaid after the last day
prescribed for payment of the second installment of current taxes
without penalty.
(E) "Delinquent taxes" means:
(1) Any taxes charged against an entry on the general tax
list and duplicate of real and public utility property that were
charged against an entry on such list and duplicate for a prior
tax year and any penalties and interest charged against such
taxes.
(2) Any current taxes charged on the general tax list and
duplicate of real and public utility property that remain unpaid
after the last day prescribed for payment of the second
installment of such taxes without penalty, whether or not they
have been certified delinquent, and any penalties and interest
charged against such taxes.
(F) "Current tax year" means, with respect to particular
taxes, the calendar year in which the first installment of taxes
is due prior to any extension granted under section 323.17 of the
Revised Code.
(G) "Liquidated claim" means:
(1) Any sum of money due and payable, upon a written
contractual obligation executed between the subdivision and the
taxpayer, but excluding any amount due on general and special
assessment bonds and notes;
(2) Any sum of money due and payable, for
disability financial assistance or disability medical assistance provided under Chapter
5115. of the Revised Code that is furnished to or in behalf of
a subdivision, provided that such claim is recognized by a
resolution or ordinance of the legislative body of such
subdivision;
(3) Any sum of money advanced and paid to or received and
used by a subdivision, pursuant to a resolution or ordinance of
such subdivision or its predecessor in interest, and the moral
obligation to repay which sum, when in funds, shall be recognized
by resolution or ordinance by the subdivision.
Sec. 323.13. Except as provided in section 323.134 of the
Revised Code, immediately upon receipt of any tax duplicate from
the county auditor, but not less than twenty days prior to the
last date on which the first one-half taxes may be paid without
penalty as prescribed in section 323.12 or 323.17 of the Revised
Code, the county treasurer shall cause to be prepared and mailed
or delivered to each person charged on such duplicate with taxes
or to an agent designated by such person, the tax bill prescribed
by the commissioner of tax equalization under section 323.131 of
the Revised Code. When taxes are paid by installments, the
county treasurer shall mail or deliver to each person charged on
such duplicate or the agent designated by such person, a second
tax bill showing the amount due at the time of the second tax
collection. The second half tax bill shall be mailed or
delivered at least twenty days prior to the close of the second
half tax collection period.
After delivery of the delinquent land duplicate as
prescribed in section 5721.011 of the Revised Code, the county
treasurer may prepare and mail to each person in whose name
property therein is listed an additional tax bill showing the
total amount of delinquent taxes appearing on such duplicate
against such property. The tax bill shall include a notice that
the interest charge prescribed by division (B) of section 323.121
of the Revised Code has begun to accrue.
A change in the mailing address of any tax bill shall be
made in writing to the county treasurer.
Upon certification by the county auditor of the
apportionment of taxes following the transfer of a part of a
tract or lot of real estate, and upon request by the owner of any
transferred or remaining part of such tract or parcel, the
treasurer shall cause to be prepared and mailed or delivered to
such owner a tax bill for the taxes allocated to his the
owner's part,
together with the penalties, interest, and other charges.
Failure to receive any bill required by this section does
not excuse failure or delay to pay any taxes shown on such bill
or, except as provided in division (A)(B)(1) of section 5715.39 of the
Revised Code, avoid any penalty, interest, or charge for such
delay.
Sec. 323.152. In addition to the reduction in taxes
required
under section 319.302 of the Revised Code, taxes shall
be reduced
as provided in divisions (A) and
(B) of this section.
(A)(1) Division (A) of this
section applies to any of the
following:
(a) A person who is permanently and totally disabled;
(b) A person who is sixty-five years of age or older;
(c) A person who is the surviving spouse of a deceased
person who was permanently and totally disabled or sixty-five
years of age or older and who applied and qualified for a
reduction in taxes under this division in the year of death,
provided the
surviving spouse is at least fifty-nine but not
sixty-five or more years of
age on the date the deceased spouse
dies.
(2) Real property taxes on a homestead owned and occupied,
or a
homestead in a housing cooperative occupied, by a
person to
whom division (A) of this section
applies shall be reduced for
each year for which the owner obtains a certificate of reduction
from the county auditor under section 323.154 of the Revised
Code
or for which the occupant obtains a certificate of reduction in
accordance with
section 323.159 of the Revised Code. The
reduction
shall equal the amount obtained by
multiplying the tax
rate for the tax year for which the
certificate is issued by the
reduction in taxable value shown in
the following schedule:
|
|
Reduce Taxable Value |
| Total Income |
|
by the Lesser of: |
| $11,900 or less |
|
$5,000 or seventy-five per cent |
| More than $11,900 but not more than $17,500 |
|
$3,000 or sixty per cent |
| More than $17,500 but not more than $23,000 |
|
$1,000 or twenty-five per cent |
| More than $23,000 |
|
-0- |
(3) Each calendar year, the tax
commissioner shall adjust
the foregoing schedule
by completing the
following
calculations
in September of each year:
(a) Determine the percentage increase in the gross
domestic
product deflator determined by the bureau of economic
analysis of
the United
States department of commerce
from the first day of
January of
the preceding calendar year to the last day of
December of the
preceding calendar
year;
(b) Multiply that percentage increase by each of
the total
income amounts, and by each dollar amount by which taxable value
is
reduced, for the current tax year;
(c) Add the resulting product to each of the total
income
amounts, and to each of the dollar amounts by which taxable value
is
reduced, for the current tax year;
(d) Round the resulting sum to the nearest
multiple of one
hundred dollars.
The commissioner shall certify the amounts resulting from
the
adjustment to each county auditor not later than the first
day of
December each year. The
certified amounts apply to the following
tax year. The
commissioner shall not make the adjustment in any
calendar year
in which the amounts resulting from the adjustment
would be less
than the total income amounts, or less than the
dollar amounts by which
taxable value is reduced, for the current
tax year.
(B) Real property taxes on any homestead, and manufactured
home
taxes on any manufactured or mobile home on which a
manufactured home tax is
assessed pursuant to division (D)(2) of
section 4503.06 of the
Revised Code, shall be reduced for each
year for
which the owner obtains a certificate of
reduction from
the county auditor under section 323.154 of the
Revised Code. The
amount of the reduction shall equal one-fourth
of the amount by
which the taxes charged and payable on the
homestead or the
manufactured or mobile home are reduced for such year
under
section 319.302 of the
Revised Code two and one-half per cent of the amount of taxes to be levied against the homestead or manufactured or mobile home after the reductions required under sections 319.301 and 319.302 of the Revised Code, but the reduction shall apply only to the amount of taxes to be levied on the first one million dollars of the homestead's or home's true value.
(C) The reductions granted by this section do not apply to
special assessments or respread of assessments levied against the
homestead, and if there is a transfer of ownership subsequent to
the filing of an application for a reduction in taxes, such
reductions are not forfeited for such year by virtue of such
transfer.
(D) The reductions in taxable value referred to in this
section
shall be applied solely as a factor for the purpose of
computing
the reduction of taxes under this section and shall not
affect
the total value of property in any subdivision or taxing
district
as listed and assessed for taxation on the tax lists and
duplicates, or any direct or indirect limitations on indebtedness
of a subdivision or taxing district. If after application of
sections 5705.31 and 5705.32 of the Revised Code, including the
allocation of all levies within the ten-mill limitation to debt
charges to the extent therein provided, there would be
insufficient funds for payment of debt charges not provided for
by
levies in excess of the ten-mill limitation, the reduction of
taxes provided for in sections 323.151 to 323.159 of
the Revised
Code shall be proportionately adjusted to the extent necessary
to
provide such funds from levies within the ten-mill limitation.
(E) No reduction shall be made on the taxes due on the
homestead of any person convicted of violating division (C) or
(D)
of section 323.153 of the Revised Code for a period of three
years
following the conviction.
Sec. 329.03. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Applicant" or "recipient" means an applicant for or
participant in
the Ohio works first program established under
Chapter 5107. of the
Revised Code or an applicant for or recipient of disability financial assistance
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
(2) "Voluntary direct deposit" means a system established
pursuant to this section under which cash assistance payments to
recipients who agree to direct deposit are made by direct deposit
by electronic transfer to an account in a financial institution
designated under this section.
(3) "Mandatory direct deposit" means a system established
pursuant to this section under which cash assistance payments to all
participants in
the Ohio works first program or recipients of
disability financial assistance, other
than those exempt under division (E) of this section, are made by
direct deposit by electronic transfer to an account in a
financial institution designated under this section.
(B) A board of county commissioners may by adoption of a
resolution require the county department of job and family
services to
establish a direct deposit system for distributing cash assistance
payments under Ohio works first,
disability financial assistance, or both, unless the director of job and
family services has
provided
for those payments to be made by electronic benefit transfer pursuant to
section 5101.33 of the Revised Code.
Voluntary or mandatory direct deposit may be applied to either of
the programs. The
resolution shall specify for each program for which direct
deposit is to be established whether direct deposit is voluntary
or mandatory. The board may require the department to change or
terminate direct deposit by adopting a resolution to change or
terminate it. Within ninety days after adopting a resolution
under this division, the board shall certify one copy of the
resolution to the director of job and family
services and one copy
to the office of budget and management. The
director of
job and family services may adopt rules governing
establishment of direct
deposit by county departments of job and family services.
The county department of job and family services shall
determine
what type of account will be used for direct deposit and
negotiate with financial institutions to determine the charges,
if any, to be imposed by a financial institution for establishing
and maintaining such accounts. Under voluntary direct deposit,
the county department of job and family services may pay
all charges
imposed by a financial institution for establishing and
maintaining an account in which direct deposits are made for a
recipient. Under mandatory direct deposit, the county department
of job and family services shall pay all charges imposed
by a financial
institution for establishing and maintaining such an account. No
financial institution shall impose any charge for such an account
that the institution does not impose on its other customers for
the same type of account. Direct deposit does not affect the
exemption of Ohio works first and
disability financial assistance from attachment, garnishment, or other like
process afforded by sections 5107.75 and 5115.07 5115.06 of
the Revised Code.
(C) The county department of job and family services
shall, within
sixty days after a resolution requiring the establishment of
direct deposit is adopted, establish procedures governing direct
deposit.
Within one hundred eighty days after the resolution is
adopted, the county department shall:
(1) Inform each applicant or recipient of the procedures
governing direct deposit, including in the case of voluntary
direct deposit those that prescribe the conditions under which a
recipient may change from one method of payment to another;
(2) Obtain from each applicant or recipient an
authorization form to designate a financial
institution
equipped for and authorized by law to accept direct deposits by
electronic transfer and the account into which the applicant or
recipient wishes the
payments to be made, or in the case of voluntary direct deposit
states the applicant's or recipient's election to receive such
payments in the form of a
paper warrant.
The department may require a recipient to complete a new
authorization form whenever the department considers it
necessary.
A recipient's designation of a financial institution and
account shall remain in effect until withdrawn in writing or
dishonored by the financial institution, except that no change
may be made in the authorization form until the next eligibility
redetermination of the recipient unless the department feels that
good grounds exist for an earlier change.
(D) An applicant or recipient without an account who
either agrees or is required to receive payments by direct
deposit shall have ten days after receiving the authorization
form to designate an account suitable for direct deposit. If
within the required time the applicant or recipient does not make
the designation or
requests that the department make the designation, the
department
shall designate a financial institution and help the recipient to
open an account.
(E) At the time of giving an applicant or recipient the
authorization form, the
county department of job and family services of a county
with mandatory
direct deposit shall inform each applicant or recipient of the
basis for exemption and the right to request exemption from
direct deposit.
Under mandatory direct deposit, an applicant or recipient
who wishes to receive payments in the form of a paper warrant
shall record on the authorization form a request for exemption
under this division and the basis for the exemption.
The department shall exempt from mandatory direct deposit
any recipient who requests exemption and is any of the following:
(3) Likely, in the judgment of the department, to be
caused personal hardship by direct deposit.
A recipient granted an exemption under this division shall
receive payments for which the recipient is eligible in the form of
paper warrants.
(F) The county department of job and family services
shall bear the
full cost of the amount of any replacement warrant issued to a
recipient for whom an authorization form as provided in this
section has not been obtained within one hundred eighty days
after the later of the date the board of county commissioners
adopts a resolution requiring payments of financial assistance by
direct deposit to accounts of recipients of
Ohio works first or
disability financial assistance or the date the recipient made application
for assistance, and shall not be reimbursed by the state for any
part of the cost. Thereafter, the county department of job
and family
services shall continue to bear the full cost of each replacement
warrant issued until the board of county commissioners requires
the county department of job and family services to obtain
from each such
recipient the authorization forms as provided in this section.
Sec. 329.04. (A) The county department of job and family
services shall
have, exercise, and perform the following powers
and duties:
(1) Perform any duties assigned by
the state department of
job and family services
regarding the provision of public family
services, including the provision of the following services
to
prevent or reduce economic or
personal dependency and to
strengthen family life:
(a) Services authorized by
a Title IV-A
program, as
defined in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code;
(b) Social services authorized by Title XX of the
"Social
Security Act" and provided for by section 5101.46 of the Revised
Code;
(c) If the county department is designated as the child
support
enforcement agency, services authorized by Title IV-D of
the "Social
Security
Act" and provided for by
Chapter 3125. of
the Revised Code. The county
department
may perform the services
itself or contract with other
government entities, and, pursuant
to division
(C) of section 2301.35 and section 2301.42 of the
Revised Code, private
entities, to perform the Title IV-D
services.
(2) Administer disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of
the
Revised Code, as required by the state department of job and
family services under section 5115.03 of the Revised Code;
(3) Administer disability medical assistance, as required by the state department of job and family services under section 5115.13 of the Revised Code;
(3)(4) Administer burials insofar as the administration of
burials was,
prior to September 12, 1947, imposed upon the board
of county commissioners
and if otherwise required by state law;
(4)(5) Cooperate with state and federal authorities in any
matter
relating to family services and to act as the agent of
such
authorities;
(5)(6) Submit an annual account of its
work and expenses to the
board of county commissioners and to the
state department of job
and family services at the
close of each fiscal year;
(6)(7) Exercise any powers and duties
relating to family
services duties or workforce development
activities imposed upon the
county department of job and
family
services by law, by resolution
of the board of county commissioners, or by
order of the governor,
when authorized by law, to meet
emergencies during war or peace;
(7)(8) Determine the eligibility for medical assistance of
recipients of aid under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act";
(8)(9) If assigned by the state director of job and
family
services under section 5101.515
of the Revised Code,
determine
applicants' eligibility for health assistance under the
children's
health insurance program part II;
(9)(10) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of
county
commissioners under section 307.983, consult with
the board
in the development of the transportation work plan developed under
section 307.985, establish with the board procedures
under section
307.986 for
providing services to children whose families relocate
frequently, and comply
with the
contracts the board enters into
under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the
Revised Code that affect
the county department;
(10)(11) For the purpose of complying with a partnership fiscal
agreement the board
of county commissioners enters into under
section 307.98 of the Revised Code, exercise the
powers and
perform the duties the partnership fiscal agreement assigns to the county
department;
(11)(12) If the county department is designated as the workforce
development
agency, provide the workforce development activities
specified in the contract
required by section 330.05 of the
Revised Code.
(B) The powers and duties of a county department of job and
family services are, and
shall be exercised and performed, under
the control and direction of the board
of county commissioners.
The board may assign to the county department any
power or duty of
the board regarding family services duties
and workforce development
activities. If the new power or duty
necessitates the state
department of job and family
services changing its federal cost
allocation plan, the county department may not implement the power
or duty
unless the United States department of health and human
services approves the
changes.
Sec. 329.05. The county department of job and family
services may
administer or assist in administering any state or
local
family services
activity duty in addition
to those mentioned in
section 329.04 of
the Revised Code, supported wholly or in part by
public funds
from any source provided by agreement between the
board of county
commissioners and the officer, department, board,
or agency in
which the administration of such activity is vested.
Such
officer, department, board, or agency may enter into such
agreement and confer upon the county department of job and
family
services, to the extent and in particulars specified in the
agreement, the performance of any duties and the exercise of any
powers imposed upon or vested in such officer, board, department,
or agency, with respect to the administration of such activity.
Such agreement shall be in the form of a resolution of the board
of county commissioners, accepted in writing by the other party
to
the agreement, and filed in the office of the county auditor,
and
when so filed, shall have the effect of transferring the
exercise
of the powers and duties to which the agreement relates
and shall
exempt the other party from all further responsibility
for the
exercise of the powers and duties so transferred, during
the life
of the agreement.
Such agreement shall be coordinated and not conflict with a
partnership fiscal agreement entered into under section 307.98, a
contract
entered into under section 307.981 or 307.982, a plan of
cooperation
entered
into under section 307.983, a regional plan of
cooperation entered into
under section 307.984, a transportation
work plan
developed under
section 307.985, or procedures for
providing services
to children whose
families relocate frequently
established under section
307.986 of the Revised
Code. It may be
revoked at the option of either
party, by a resolution or order of
the revoking party filed in
the office of the auditor. Such
revocation shall become
effective at the end of the fiscal year
occurring at least six
months following the filing of the
resolution or order. In the
absence of such an express revocation
so filed, the agreement
shall continue indefinitely.
This section does not permit a county department of job and
family
services to manage or control hospitals, humane societies,
detention
facilities,
jails or
probation departments of courts,
or veterans service commissions.
Sec. 329.051. The county department of job and family
services
shall make voter registration applications as prescribed by the secretary
of state under section 3503.10 of the Revised Code available to persons who
are applying for, receiving assistance from, or
participating in any of the following:
(A) The disability financial
assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(B) The disability medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(C) The medical assistance program established under
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;
(C)(D) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107.
of the Revised Code;
(D)(E) The prevention, retention, and contingency program
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 329.06. (A) Except as provided in division
(C) of this section and section 6301.08 of the Revised Code, the board
of county
commissioners shall
establish a county family services planning committee.
The board shall appoint a member to represent the county
department of job and family services; an employee in the
classified civil service of
the county department of job and family services, if there
are any such employees; and
a member to represent the public. The board shall appoint other
individuals to the committee in such a manner that the
committee's membership is broadly representative of the groups
of individuals and the public and private entities that have an
interest in the family services provided in the county.
The board shall make
appointments in a manner that reflects the ethnic and racial composition of
the county. The following groups and entities may be represented on the
committee:
(1) Consumers of family services;
(2) The public children services agency;
(3) The child support enforcement agency;
(4) The county family and children first council;
(5) Public and private colleges and universities;
(6) Public entities that provide family services,
including boards of health, boards of education, the county
board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, and
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services
that serves the county;
(7) Private nonprofit and for-profit entities that
provide family services in the county or that advocate
for
consumers of family services in the county, including
entities that provide
services to or advocate for victims of domestic violence;
(9) Any other group or entity that has an interest in the
family services provided in the county, including groups
or
entities that represent any of the county's business, urban, and
rural sectors.
(B) The county family
services planning committee shall do all of the
following:
(1) Serve as an advisory body to the board of county
commissioners with regard to the family services provided
in the
county, including assistance under
Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the
Revised
Code, publicly funded child
day-care under Chapter 5104. of
the Revised
Code, and social services
provided under section 5101.46 of the
Revised
Code;
(2) At least once a year, review and analyze the county department
of job and family services' implementation of the programs
established under
Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the Revised Code. In
its
review, the committee shall use information available to it to examine
all of the following:
(a) Return of assistance groups to participation in
either program after ceasing to participate;
(b) Teen pregnancy rates among the programs' participants;
(c) The other types of assistance the programs' participants
receive, including medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the
Revised Code, publicly funded
child day-care under Chapter 5104. of the Revised
Code, food stamp
benefits under section 5101.54 of the Revised Code, and
energy
assistance under Chapter 5117. of the Revised
Code;
(d) Other issues the committee considers appropriate.
The committee shall make recommendations to the board of county
commissioners and county department of job and family
services regarding the
committee's findings.
(3) Provide comments and recommendations to the board
prior to the board's entering into or substantially amending a partnership
agreement
with
the director of job and family services under section
307.98 of the
Revised Code;
(4) Conduct public hearings
on proposed county profiles for the provision of social services
under section 5101.46 of the
Revised
Code;
(5)(4) At the request of the board, make recommendations and
provide assistance regarding the family services provided
in the
county;
(6)(5) At any other time the committee considers
appropriate, consult with the board and make recommendations
regarding the family services provided in the county.
The
committee's recommendations may address the following:
(a) Implementation and administration
of family service programs;
(b) Use of federal, state, and local
funds available for family service programs;
(c) Establishment of goals to be
achieved by family service programs;
(d) Evaluation of the outcomes of
family service programs;
(e) Any other matter the board
considers relevant to the provision of family services.
(C) If there is a
committee in existence in a county on October 1, 1997,
that the board of
county commissioners determines is
capable of fulfilling the responsibilities of a county
family
services planning committee, the board may designate the
committee as the county's family services planning
committee and
the committee shall serve in that capacity.
Sec. 340.03. (A) Subject to rules issued by the director
of
mental health after consultation with relevant constituencies
as
required by division (A)(11) of section 5119.06 of the Revised
Code, with regard to mental health services, the board of
alcohol,
drug addiction, and mental health services shall:
(1) Serve as the community mental health planning agency
for
the county or counties under its jurisdiction, and in so
doing it
shall:
(a) Evaluate the need for
facilities and community mental
health
services;
(b)
In cooperation with other local and regional
planning
and funding bodies and with relevant ethnic
organizations,
assess
the community mental health needs, set
priorities, and
develop
plans for the operation of
facilities and
community
mental health
services;
(c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director
of
mental health after consultation with board representatives,
develop and submit to the department of mental health, no later
than six months prior to the conclusion of the fiscal year in
which the board's current plan is scheduled to expire, a
community
mental health plan listing community mental health
needs,
including the needs of all residents of the district now
residing
in state mental institutions and severely mentally
disabled
adults, children, and adolescents; all children
subject to a
determination made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised
Code;
and all
the facilities and community mental health
services that
are or will be
in operation
or provided
during
the
period for
which the plan will be in operation in the
service
district to
meet such needs.
The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement
of
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised
Code
the board intends to provide or purchase, an explanation of
how
the board intends to make any payments that it may be
required to
pay under section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, a
statement of the
inpatient and community-based services the board
proposes that the
department operate, an assessment of the number
and types of
residential facilities needed, and such other
information as the
department requests, and a budget for moneys
the board expects to
receive. The board shall also submit an
allocation request for
state and federal funds. Within sixty
days after the department's
determination that the plan and
allocation request are complete,
the department shall approve or
disapprove the plan and request,
in whole or in part, according
to the criteria developed pursuant
to section 5119.61 of the
Revised Code. The department's
statement of approval or
disapproval shall specify the inpatient
and the community-based
services that the department will operate
for the board.
Eligibility for financial support shall be
contingent upon an
approved plan or relevant part of a plan.
If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the
director shall inform the board of the reasons for the disapproval
and of
the criteria that must be met before the plan may be
approved.
The director shall provide the board an opportunity to
present
its case on behalf of the plan. The director shall give
the
board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, and
shall
offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the
criteria.
If the approval of a plan remains in dispute thirty days
prior to the conclusion of the fiscal year in which the board's
current plan is scheduled to expire, the board or the director
may
request that the dispute be submitted to a mutually agreed
upon
third-party mediator with the cost to be shared by the board
and
the department. The mediator shall issue to the board and
the
department recommendations for resolution of the dispute.
Prior to
the conclusion of the fiscal year in which the current
plan is
scheduled to expire, the director, taking into
consideration the
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a
final determination
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole
or in part.
If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan
or
an allocation request that has been approved under division
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed
amendment to the director. The director may approve or
disapprove
all or part of the amendment. If the director does
not approve
all or part of the amendment within thirty days after
it is
submitted, the amendment or part of it shall be considered
to have
been approved. The director shall inform the board of the
reasons
for
disapproval of all or part of an amendment and of the criteria
that
must be met before the
amendment may be approved. The
director shall provide the board
an opportunity to present its
case on behalf of the amendment. The director
shall give the
board a reasonable time in which to
meet the criteria, and shall
offer the board technical assistance
to help it meet the criteria.
The board shall implement the plan approved by the
department.
(d) Receive, compile, and transmit to the department of
mental health applications for state reimbursement;
(e) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements
with
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial
agencies.
(2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate,
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving
services from a community mental health agency as defined in
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or from a residential
facility licensed under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. If
the investigation substantiates the charge of abuse or neglect,
the board shall take whatever action it determines is necessary
to
correct the situation, including notification of the
appropriate
authorities. Upon request, the board shall provide
information
about such investigations to the department.
(3)
For the purpose of section 5119.611 of the
Revised Code,
cooperate with the director of mental health in
visiting and
evaluating whether the services of a community mental
health
agency satisfy the certification standards
established by
rules
adopted under that section;
(4) In accordance with criteria established under division
(G) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code, review and evaluate
the quality, effectiveness, and
efficiency of services provided
through its
community mental
health
plan
and submit its findings
and recommendations to the department of
mental health;
(5) In accordance with section 5119.22 of the Revised
Code,
review applications for residential facility licenses and
recommend to the department of mental health approval or
disapproval of applications;
(6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor
of state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least
annually all programs and services provided under contract with
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the
services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report
shall be provided to the director of mental health, the auditor
of
state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's
district.
(7) Recruit and promote local financial support for
mental
health programs from private and public sources;
(8)(a)
Enter
into contracts with public and private
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with
public and private
community
mental health
agencies for the
provision of
community mental
health services
listed in section
340.09 of the
Revised Code and included in the
board's community
mental health
plan.
Contracts with community
mental health
agencies are subject to section 5119.611 of the
Revised Code.
Section 307.86 of the Revised Code does not apply
to
contracts
entered into under this division. In contracting
with
a
community mental health agency, a board
shall
consider the cost
effectiveness of services provided by that
agency and the quality
and continuity of care, and may review cost
elements, including
salary costs, of the services to be provided.
A utilization
review
process shall be established as part of the
contract for
services
entered into between a board and a
community mental health
agency. The board may establish
this process in a way
that is
most effective and efficient
in meeting local needs. In the case
of a
contract with a
community mental health facility described, as defined in
division
(B) of
section 5111.022 of the Revised Code, to provide
services
established by listed in
division (A)(B) of that section, the contract
shall
provide for the
facility to be paid in accordance with the
contract entered into between the
departments of
job and
family
services and mental health under division (E) of
that
section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and
any rules adopted under division (A) of section
5119.61 of the
Revised Code.
If either the board or a
facility or community mental health
agency
with
which
the board contracts
under division (A)(8)(a)
of this
section proposes not to renew the contract or proposes
substantial
changes in contract terms, the other party shall be
given written
notice at least one hundred twenty days before the
expiration date
of the contract. During the first sixty days of
this one hundred
twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to
resolve any
dispute through good faith collaboration and
negotiation in order
to continue to provide services to persons
in
need. If the
dispute has not been resolved sixty days before
the
expiration
date of the contract, either party may notify the
department of
mental health of the unresolved dispute. The
director may require
both parties to submit the dispute to a
third
party with the cost
to be shared by the board and the
facility or
community
mental
health
agency. The third party shall issue to
the board,
the
facility or agency,
and the department
recommendations on how the
dispute
may be
resolved twenty days
prior to the expiration date
of the
contract, unless both parties
agree to a time extension.
The
director shall adopt rules
establishing the procedures of this
dispute resolution process.
(b) With the prior approval of the director of mental
health, a board may operate a
facility or provide a community
mental health service as follows, if there
is no other qualified
private or
public
facility or community
mental health agency that
is
immediately available and willing to
operate such
a facility or
provide the service:
(i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a
facility or provide a community
mental health service in order to
provide
essential services for the duration
of the emergency;
(ii) In a service district with a population of at least
one
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board
may
operate a
facility or provide a community mental health service
for no
longer than one year;
(iii) In a service district with a population of less than
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a
facility or provide a
community mental
health
service for no
longer than one year,
except
that such a board may operate a
facility or provide a
community mental health
service for more than one year with the
prior approval of the
director and the prior approval of the board
of county
commissioners, or of a majority of the boards of county
commissioners if the district is a joint-county district.
The director shall not give a board approval to operate
a
facility or provide a community mental health service under
division
(A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section
unless the
director
determines that
it is not feasible to have the
department
operate the
facility or provide the service.
The director shall not give a board approval to operate
a
facility or provide a community mental health service under
division
(A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless
the director
determines
that the
board will
provide greater
administrative
efficiency and
more or better
services than would
be available if
the board
contracted with a
private or public
facility or
community mental
health
agency.
The director shall not give a board approval to operate
a
facility previously
operated
by
a
person or other government
entity
unless the board has
established to the director's
satisfaction
that the
person or other government entity cannot
effectively
operate the
facility or
that
the
person or other
government entity has requested
the board to take over operation
of the
facility.
The director shall not give a board approval to
provide
a community mental health service previously provided by a
community mental health agency unless the board has established to
the director's satisfaction that the agency cannot effectively
provide the service or that the agency has requested the board
take over providing the service.
The director shall review and evaluate
a board's
operation
of
a facility and provision of community mental
health service
under
division (A)(8)(b) of this section.
Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any
facility
or community
mental health agency, but
a facility or agency may
contract with a
board to
receive administrative services or staff
direction from
the board
under the direction of the governing body
of the
facility or agency.
(9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a
unit cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract
services provided by community mental health agencies in
accordance with guidelines issued by the department as necessary
to comply with state and federal laws pertaining to financial
assistance;
(10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners
of
the county or counties served by the board, and make available
to
the public, an annual report of the programs under the
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;
(11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a
community support system, which provides for treatment, support,
and rehabilitation services and opportunities. The essential
elements of the system include, but are not limited to, the
following components in accordance with section 5119.06 of the
Revised Code:
(a) To locate persons in need of mental health services to
inform them of available services and benefits mechanisms;
(b) Assistance for clients to obtain services necessary to
meet basic human needs for food, clothing, shelter, medical care,
personal safety, and income;
(c) Mental health care, including, but not limited to,
outpatient, partial hospitalization, and, where
appropriate,
inpatient care;
(d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;
(e) Assistance for clients to obtain vocational services
and
opportunities for jobs;
(f) The provision of services designed to develop social,
community, and personal living skills;
(g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of
residential treatment and support;
(h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for
families, friends, consumers of mental health services, and
others;
(i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends,
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial
and
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and
meaningful employment as natural supports for consumers of mental
health services;
(j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of
consumers of mental health services;
(k) Case management, which includes continual
individualized
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed
services are offered
and procured.
(12) Designate the treatment program, agency,
or
facility
for each person involuntarily committed to the board
pursuant to
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code and authorize
payment for such
treatment. The board shall provide the least
restrictive and most
appropriate alternative that is available
for
any person
involuntarily committed to it and shall assure
that the
services
listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code
are
available to
severely mentally disabled persons residing
within
its service
district. The board shall establish the
procedure for
authorizing
payment for services, which may include
prior
authorization in
appropriate circumstances. The board may
provide
for services
directly to a severely mentally disabled
person when
life or
safety is endangered and when no community
mental health
agency is
available to provide the service.
(13) Establish a method for evaluating
referrals for
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant
to section
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the
probate
division of the court of common pleas in determining
whether there
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to
involuntary
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is
available and
appropriate, if any;
(14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built,
subsidized,
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a
community
mental health agency have been approved as meeting
minimum fire
safety standards and that persons residing in the
rooms or
apartments are receiving appropriate and necessary
services,
including culturally relevant services, from a
community mental
health agency. This division does not apply to
residential
facilities licensed pursuant to section 5119.22 of
the Revised
Code.
(15) Establish a mechanism for involvement
of consumer
recommendation and advice on matters pertaining
to mental health
services in the alcohol, drug addiction, and
mental health service
district;
(16) Perform the duties under section 3722.18 of the
Revised
Code required by rules
adopted under section 5119.61 of
the
Revised Code
regarding referrals by the board or mental health
agencies under contract
with the board of individuals with mental
illness
or severe mental disability to adult care facilities and
effective
arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the
individuals. The
board is accountable in the manner specified in
the rules for ensuring that
the ongoing mental health services are
effectively arranged for the
individuals.
(B) The board shall establish such rules, operating
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this
chapter.
(C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and
mental health
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or
bequest any
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the
purposes for
which the board is established, and may hold and
apply it
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant,
or bequest
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the
treasurer of
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction,
and mental
health services funds to the credit of the board and
shall be
available for use by the board for purposes stated by
the donor or
grantor.
(D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol,
drug
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for
injury
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within
the scope
of the board member's official duties or the
employee's
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section
of the
Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes
willful or wanton
misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code
applies to any action or
inaction by a board member or employee of
a board taken within the scope of
the board member's official
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes
of this
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall
not be
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board
member or
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the
board member
or employee
reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the
best
interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal
action
or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the
conduct was unlawful.
(E) The meetings held by any committee established by a
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services
shall
be considered to be meetings of a public body subject to
section
121.22 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 505.69. As used in this section, "rail property" and "rail service" have
the same meanings as in section 4981.01 5507.01 of the Revised Code.
The board of township trustees may acquire, rehabilitate, and develop rail
property and rail service, and may enter into agreements with the Ohio rail
development commission, boards of county commissioners, legislative
authorities of municipal corporations, other boards of township trustees, with
other governmental agencies or organizations, and with private agencies or
organizations in order to achieve those purposes.
Sec. 715.013. (A) Except as otherwise expressly authorized by the
Revised Code, no municipal corporation shall levy a tax that
is the same as or similar to a tax levied under Chapter 322., 3734.,
3769., 4123., 4141., 4301., 4303., 4305., 4307., 4309., 5707., 5725., 5727.,
5728., 5729., 5731., 5735., 5737., 5739., 5741., 5743., or 5749. of the
Revised Code.
(B) This section does not prohibit a municipal corporation from levying a tax
on amounts any of the following:
(1) Amounts received for admission to any place or, on and after
January 1, 2002, on the;
(2) The income of an electric company or combined
company, as defined in
section 5727.01 of the Revised Code;
(3) On and after January 1, 2004, the income of a telephone company, as defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 717.01. Each municipal corporation may do any of the
following:
(A) Acquire by purchase or condemnation real estate with
or without buildings on it, and easements or interests in real
estate;
(B) Extend, enlarge, reconstruct, repair, equip, furnish,
or improve a building or improvement that it is authorized to
acquire or construct;
(C) Erect a crematory or provide other means for disposing
of garbage or refuse, and erect public comfort stations;
(D) Purchase turnpike roads and make them free;
(E) Construct wharves and landings on navigable waters;
(F) Construct infirmaries, workhouses, prisons, police
stations, houses of refuge and correction, market houses, public
halls, public offices, municipal garages, repair shops, storage
houses, and warehouses;
(G) Construct or acquire waterworks for supplying water to
the municipal corporation and its inhabitants and extend the
waterworks system outside of the municipal corporation limits;
(H) Construct or purchase gas works or works for the
generation and transmission of electricity, for the supplying of
gas or electricity to the municipal corporation and its
inhabitants;
(I) Provide grounds for cemeteries or crematories, enclose
and embellish them, and construct vaults or crematories;
(J) Construct sewers, sewage disposal works, flushing
tunnels, drains, and ditches;
(K) Construct free public libraries and reading rooms, and
free recreation centers;
(L) Establish free public baths and municipal lodging
houses;
(M) Construct monuments or memorial buildings to
commemorate the services of soldiers, sailors, and marines of the
state and nation;
(N) Provide land for and improve parks, boulevards, and
public playgrounds;
(O) Construct hospitals and pesthouses;
(P) Open, construct, widen, extend, improve, resurface, or
change the line of any street or public highway;
(Q) Construct and improve levees, dams, waterways,
waterfronts, and embankments and improve any watercourse passing
through the municipal corporation;
(R) Construct or improve viaducts, bridges, and culverts;
(S)(1) Construct any building necessary for the police or
fire department;
(2) Purchase fire engines or fire boats;
(3) Construct water towers or fire cisterns;
(4) Place underground the wires or signal apparatus of any
police or fire department.
(T) Construct any municipal ice plant for the purpose of
manufacturing ice for the citizens of a municipal corporation;
(U) Construct subways under any street or boulevard or
elsewhere;
(V) Acquire by purchase, gift, devise, bequest, lease,
condemnation proceedings, or otherwise, real or personal
property, and thereon and thereof to establish, construct,
enlarge, improve, equip, maintain, and operate airports, landing
fields, or other air navigation facilities, either within or
outside the limits of a municipal corporation, and acquire by
purchase, gift, devise, lease, or condemnation proceedings
rights-of-way for connections with highways, waterways, and
electric, steam, and interurban railroads, and improve and equip
such facilities with structures necessary or appropriate for such
purposes. No municipal corporation may take or disturb property
or facilities belonging to any public utility or to a common
carrier engaged in interstate commerce, which property or
facilities are required for the proper and convenient operation
of the utility or carrier, unless provision is made for the
restoration, relocation, or duplication of the property or
facilities elsewhere at the sole cost of the municipal
corporation.
(W) Provide by agreement with any regional airport
authority, created under section 308.03 of the Revised Code, for
the making of necessary surveys, appraisals, and examinations
preliminary to the acquisition or construction of any airport or
airport facility and pay the portion of the expense of the
surveys, appraisals, and examinations as set forth in the
agreement;
(X) Provide by agreement with any regional airport
authority, created under section 308.03 of the Revised Code, for
the acquisition, construction, maintenance, or operation of any
airport or airport facility owned or to be owned and operated by
the regional airport authority or owned or to be owned and
operated by the municipal corporation and pay the portion of the
expense of it as set forth in the agreement;
(Y) Acquire by gift, purchase, lease, or condemnation,
land, forest, and water rights necessary for conservation of
forest reserves, water parks, or reservoirs, either within or
without the limits of the municipal corporation, and improve and
equip the forest and water parks with structures, equipment, and
reforestation necessary or appropriate for any purpose for the
utilization of any of the forest and water benefits that may
properly accrue therefrom to the municipal corporation;
(Z) Acquire real property by purchase, gift, or devise and
construct and maintain on it public swimming pools, either within
or outside the limits of the municipal corporation;
(AA) Construct or rehabilitate, equip, maintain, operate,
and lease facilities for housing of elderly persons and for
persons of low and moderate income, and appurtenant facilities.
No municipal corporation shall deny housing accommodations to or
withhold housing accommodations from elderly persons or persons
of low and moderate income because of race, color, religion, sex,
familial status as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised
Code, disability as defined in that section,
ancestry, or
national origin. Any elderly person or person of low or moderate
income who is denied housing accommodations or has them withheld
by a municipal corporation because of race, color, religion, sex,
familial status as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised
Code, disability as defined in that section, ancestry,
or national
origin may file a charge with the Ohio civil rights commission as
provided in Chapter 4112. of the Revised Code.
(BB) Acquire, rehabilitate, and develop rail property or
rail service, and enter into agreements with the Ohio
rail development commission, boards of county commissioners, boards of
township trustees, legislative authorities of other municipal
corporations, with other governmental agencies or organizations,
and with private agencies or organizations in order to achieve
those purposes;
(CC) Appropriate and contribute money to a soil and water
conservation district for use under Chapter 1515. of the Revised
Code;
(DD) Authorize the board of county commissioners, pursuant
to a contract authorizing the action, to contract on the
municipal corporation's behalf for the administration and
enforcement within its jurisdiction of the state building code by
another county or another municipal corporation located within or
outside the county. The contract for administration and
enforcement shall provide for obtaining certification pursuant to
division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code for the
exercise of administration and enforcement authority within the
municipal corporation seeking those services and shall specify
which political subdivision is responsible for securing that
certification.
(EE) Expend money for providing and maintaining services
and facilities for senior citizens.
"Airport," "landing field," and "air navigation facility,"
as defined in section 4561.01 of the Revised Code, apply to
division (V) of this section.
As used in divisions (W) and (X) of this section, "airport"
and "airport facility" have the same meanings as in section
308.01 of the Revised Code.
As used in division (BB) of this section, "rail property"
and "rail service" have the same meanings as in section 4981.01
5507.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 718.01. (A) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Adjusted federal taxable income" has the same meaning as in section 5745.01 of the Revised Code.
(2)
"Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code
of
1986, 100
Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended.
(2)(3)
"Schedule C" means internal revenue service schedule C
filed by a
taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.
(3)(4)
"Form 2106" means internal revenue service form 2106
filed by a taxpayer
pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.
(4)(5)
"Intangible income" means income of any of the following
types: income
yield, interest, dividends, or other income arising
from the ownership, sale,
exchange, or other disposition of
intangible property including, but not
limited to, investments,
deposits, money, or credits as those terms are
defined in Chapter
5701. of the Revised Code.
(5)(6) "S corporation" means a corporation that has made an
election under subchapter S of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the
Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year.
(7) On and after January 1, 2004, "net profit" means adjusted federal taxable income calculated on the basis of the Internal Revenue Code as it exists on the effective date of this amendment.
(8) "Taxpayer" means a person subject to a tax levied by a municipal corporation on income.
(9) "Taxable year" means a taxpayer's taxable year for federal income tax purposes.
(10) "Tax administrator" means the individual charged with direct responsibility for administration of a tax levied by a municipal corporation on income.
(B) No municipal corporation with respect to that income
that it may tax
shall tax such income at other than a uniform
rate.
(C) No municipal corporation shall levy a tax on income at a
rate in excess
of one per cent without having obtained the
approval of the excess by a
majority of the electors of the
municipality voting on the question at a
general, primary, or
special election. The legislative authority of the
municipal
corporation shall file with the board of elections at least
seventy-five days before the day of the election a copy of the
ordinance
together with a resolution specifying the date the
election is to be held and
directing the board of elections to
conduct the election. The ballot shall be
in the following form:
"Shall the Ordinance providing for a ... per cent levy
on income
for (Brief description of the purpose of the proposed levy) be
passed?
In the event of an affirmative vote, the proceeds of the
levy
may be used only for the specified purpose.
(D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2)
or
(F)(9) of
this section, no No
municipal corporation shall exempt from
a tax on
income, compensation for
personal services of individuals
over
eighteen years of age or the net profit
from a business or
profession.
(2) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation
may, by ordinance or
resolution, exempt from a tax on income any
compensation arising from the
grant, sale, exchange, or other
disposition of a stock option; the exercise of
a stock option; or
the sale, exchange, or other disposition of stock purchased
under
a stock option. On and after January 1, 2004, no municipal corporation shall tax the net profit from a business or profession using any base other than the taxpayer's adjusted federal taxable income. Division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to any taxpayer required to file a return under section 5745.03 of the Revised Code.
(E) Nothing in this section shall prevent Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, a municipal
corporation from
permitting may permit lawful deductions as prescribed by
ordinance. If a taxpayer's
taxable income includes income against
which the taxpayer has taken a
deduction for federal income tax
purposes as reportable on the taxpayer's form
2106, and against
which a like deduction has not been allowed by the municipal
corporation, the municipal corporation shall deduct from the
taxpayer's
taxable income an amount equal to the deduction shown
on such form allowable
against such income, to the extent not
otherwise so allowed as a deduction by
the municipal corporation.
In the case of a taxpayer who has a net profit
from a business or
profession that is operated as a sole proprietorship, no
municipal
corporation may tax or use as the base for determining the amount
of
the net profit that shall be considered as having a taxable
situs in the
municipal corporation, a greater amount than the net
profit reported by the
taxpayer on schedule C filed in reference
to the year in question as taxable
income from such sole
proprietorship, except as otherwise specifically
provided by
ordinance or regulation an amount other than the net profit required to be reported by the taxpayer on schedule C as taxable income from such sole proprietorship for the taxable year, but such amount shall be increased in accordance with the principles and concepts described in section 5745.042 of the Revised Code as if the taxpayer were a C corporation.
(F) A municipal corporation shall not tax any of the
following:
(1) The military pay or allowances of members of the armed
forces of the
United States and of members of their reserve
components, including the Ohio
national guard;
(2) The income of religious, fraternal, charitable,
scientific, literary, or
educational institutions to the extent
that such income is derived from
tax-exempt real estate,
tax-exempt tangible or intangible property, or
tax-exempt
activities;
(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (G) of this
section, intangible
income;
(4) Compensation paid under section 3501.28 or 3501.36 of
the Revised Code to
a person serving as a precinct election
official, to the extent that such
compensation does not exceed one
thousand dollars annually. Such compensation
in excess of one
thousand dollars may be subjected to taxation by a municipal
corporation. A municipal corporation shall not require the payer
of such
compensation to withhold any tax from that compensation.
(5) Compensation paid to an employee of a transit authority,
regional transit
authority, or regional transit commission created
under Chapter 306. of the
Revised Code for operating a transit bus
or other motor vehicle for the
authority or commission in or
through the municipal corporation, unless the
bus or vehicle is
operated on a regularly scheduled route, the operator is
subject
to such a tax by reason of residence or domicile in the municipal
corporation, or the headquarters of the authority or commission is
located
within the municipal corporation;
(6) The income of a public utility, when that public utility
is
subject to the tax levied under section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of
the Revised
Code, except starting January 1, 2002, the income of
an
electric company or combined company, as defined in section
5727.01 of the
Revised Code, may
be taxed by a municipal
corporation may tax the following, subject to
Chapter 5745. of the
Revised Code:
(a) Beginning January 1, 2002, the income of an electric
company or combined company;
(b) Beginning January 1, 2004, the income of a telephone
company.
As used in division (F)(6) of this section, "combined company," "electric
company" and "telephone company" have
the same meanings as in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.
(7) On and after January 1, 2003, items excluded from
federal gross income pursuant to section 107 of the Internal
Revenue Code;
(8) On and after January 1, 2001, compensation paid to a
nonresident
individual to the extent prohibited under
section
718.011 of the Revised Code;
(9) Except as provided in division (H) of this section, an S
corporation
shareholder's distributive share of net
profits of the
S
corporation, other than any part of the
distributive share of
net
profits that represents
wages as defined in section 3121(a) of
the Internal Revenue Code or net earnings from self-employment as
defined in section 1402(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, to the
extent such distributive share would not be allocated or
apportioned to this state under division (B)(1) and (2) of section
5733.05 of the Revised Code if the S corporation were a
corporation subject to the taxes imposed under Chapter 5733. of
the Revised Code.
(10) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2004, with respect to a nonqualified deferred compensation plan or program under section 3121(v)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code:
(a) Any amount that is not included in a person's federal gross income; and
(b) Any amount included in a person's federal gross income to the extent the municipal corporation imposed a tax on the nonqualified deferred compensation at the time the compensation was deferred.
(11) Any amount of compensation included in a person's federal gross income if the amount may not be subjected to taxation by the municipal corporation under 4 U.S.C. 114 because the person is not a resident of the municipal corporation at the time such compensation is distributed.
(G) Any municipal corporation that taxes any type of
intangible income on
March 29, 1988, pursuant to Section 3 of
Amended Substitute Senate Bill No.
238 of the 116th general
assembly, may continue to tax that type of income
after 1988 if a
majority of the electors of the municipal corporation voting
on
the question of whether to permit the taxation of that type of
intangible
income after 1988 vote in favor thereof at an election
held on November 8,
1988.
(H) Any municipal corporation that, on December 6, 2002,
taxes an S corporation shareholder's distributive share of net
profits of the S corporation to any greater extent than that
permitted under division (F)(9) of this section may continue after
2002 to tax such distributive shares to such greater extent only
if a majority of the electors of the municipal corporation voting
on the question of such continuation vote in favor thereof at an
election held on November 4, 2003. If a majority of electors vote
in favor of that question, then, for purposes of section 718.14 of
the Revised Code, "pass-through entity" includes S corporations,
"income from a pass-through entity" includes distributive shares
from an S corporation, and "owner" includes a shareholder of an S
corporation, notwithstanding that section to the contrary.
(I) Nothing in this section or section 718.02 of the Revised
Code
shall authorize the levy of any tax on income that a
municipal
corporation is not
authorized to levy under existing
laws or shall require a municipal
corporation to allow a deduction
from taxable income for losses incurred from
a sole proprietorship
or partnership.
Sec. 718.02. This section does not apply to electric
companies
or combined companies, or to electric light companies
for which an election
made under section 5745.031 taxpayers that are subject to and required to file reports under Chapter 5745. of the Revised
Code is in effect.
(A) In the taxation of income that is
subject to municipal
income taxes, if the books and records of a
taxpayer conducting a
business or profession both within and
without the boundaries of a
municipal corporation disclose
with reasonable accuracy what
portion of its net profit is
attributable to that part of the
business or profession conducted
within the boundaries of the
municipal corporation, then only
such portion shall be considered
as having a taxable situs in
such municipal corporation for
purposes of municipal income
taxation. In the absence of such
records, net Net profit from a
business or profession conducted both
within and without the
boundaries of a municipal corporation shall
be considered as
having a taxable situs in such municipal
corporation for purposes
of municipal income taxation in the same
proportion as the
average ratio of the following:
(1) The average net book value original cost of the real and tangible
personal property owned or used by the taxpayer in the business
or
profession in such municipal corporation during the taxable
period
to the average net book value original cost of all of the real and
tangible
personal property owned or used by the taxpayer in the
business or
profession during the same period, wherever situated.
As used in the preceding paragraph, real property shall
include property rented or leased by the taxpayer and the value
of
such property shall be determined by multiplying the annual
rental
thereon by eight;
(2) Wages, salaries, and other compensation paid during
the
taxable period to persons employed in the business or
profession
for services performed in such municipal corporation
to wages,
salaries, and other compensation paid during the same
period to
persons employed in the business or profession,
wherever their
services are performed, excluding compensation
that is not taxable
by the municipal corporation under section 718.011 of the Revised
Code;
(3) Gross receipts of the business or profession from
sales
made and services performed during the taxable period in
such
municipal corporation to gross receipts of the business or
profession during the same period from sales and services,
wherever made or performed.
If the foregoing allocation apportionment formula does not
produce an
equitable result, another basis may be substituted, under
uniform
regulations, so as to produce an equitable
result. If, for any taxable year, the foregoing apportionment formula produces an amount less than zero, the taxpayer shall not be entitled to a refund with respect to that taxable year of any amounts other than amounts the taxpayer has paid in estimated taxes for the taxable year and any overpayment from a previous taxable year credited towards the taxable year for which the foregoing apportionment formula produces an amount less than zero.
(B) As used in division (A) of this section,
"sales made
in
a municipal corporation" mean:
(1) All sales of tangible personal property
delivered within
such municipal corporation regardless of where
title passes if
shipped or delivered from a stock of goods within
such municipal
corporation;
(2) All sales of tangible personal property
delivered within
such municipal corporation regardless of where
title passes even
though transported from a point outside such
municipal corporation
if the taxpayer is regularly engaged
through its own employees in
the solicitation or promotion of
sales within such municipal
corporation and the sales result from
such solicitation or
promotion;
(3) All sales of tangible personal property
shipped from a
place within such municipal corporation to
purchasers outside such
municipal corporation regardless of where
title passes if the
taxpayer is not, through its own employees,
regularly engaged in
the solicitation or promotion of sales at
the place where delivery
is made.
Sec. 718.021. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Apportioned net income" means the amount derived from the application of the apportionment formula described in section 718.02 of the Revised Code for taxable years beginning on and after January 1, 1999.
(2) "Loss-generating taxable year" means a taxable year in which the taxpayer has negative apportioned net income.
(3) "Negative apportioned net income" means apportioned net income that is less than zero, except that if, for any taxable year, a taxpayer was not subject to the income tax imposed by a municipal corporation or was exempt from that tax, then the taxpayer's negative apportioned net income with respect to that municipal corporation is zero for that taxable year.
(4) "Positive apportioned net income" means apportioned net income greater than zero.
(B)(1) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2004, if a taxpayer has negative apportioned net income for a taxable year with respect to a municipal income tax, then for each of the next five ensuing taxable years, the taxpayer may reduce any positive apportioned net income with respect to the municipal corporation in which the negative apportioned net income was generated by the lesser of:
(a) The positive apportioned net income for that ensuing taxable year; or
(b) The absolute value of the negative apportioned net income attributable to the loss-generating taxable year reduced by any amount the taxpayer was allowed to deduct under this section in any of the previous taxable years.
(2) If, during a period of five consecutive taxable years, a taxpayer has negative apportioned net income in more than one taxable year, the negative apportioned net income generated in the earliest of those taxable years shall be the first negative apportioned net income deducted under this section.
(C) Nothing in this section shall be construed as allowing any negative apportioned net income for a taxable year to be deducted more than once in any subsequent taxable year.
(D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as allowing any negative apportioned net income for a taxable year to be deducted in any subsequent taxable year beginning more than five years after the beginning of the loss-generating taxable year.
Sec. 718.03. As used in this section, "other payer" means any person, other than an individual's employer or the employer's agent,
that pays an
individual any item
included in the
taxable income of the individual, other than the individual's employer
or that employer's agent.
(A) Beginning January July 1, 2001 2003, a municipal
corporation
shall not require any nonresident employer,
agent of such an employer, or other payer that is not situated in the
municipal corporation to deduct and withhold taxes
from the taxable income of an individual unless and until the total amount
of tax required to be deducted and withheld for the municipal corporation on
account of all of the
employer's
employees or all of the other payer's payees
exceeds one hundred fifty dollars for a the calendar year beginning on or after
that date.
If the total amount of tax required to be deducted and
withheld on account of all of the nonresident employer's employees or all of
the other
payer's payees exceeds one hundred fifty
dollars
for a calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2001, the
municipal corporation may require
the employer, agent, or other payer to deduct and withhold taxes
in each ensuing year even if the amount required to be deducted
and withheld in each of those ensuing years is one hundred fifty
dollars or less, except as otherwise provided in division (B)
of this section.
(B) If a nonresident employer, agent of such an employer, or
other payer
that is not situated in the municipal corporation is required to deduct
and withhold taxes for an ensuing year under division (A) of
this section, and the total amount of tax required to be deducted and withheld
under that division in each of three
consecutive ensuing years is one hundred fifty dollars or less,
the municipal corporation shall not require the employer, agent,
or other payer to deduct and withhold taxes in any year following
the last of those consecutive years unless the amount required to
be deducted and withheld in any such following year exceeds one
hundred fifty dollars.
Sec. 718.031. (A) As used in this section, "qualifying wages" means wages, as defined in section 3121 of the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:
(1) Deduct any amount included in wages to the extent the amount constitutes compensation attributable to a nonqualified deferred compensation plan or program described in section 3121(v)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and is not included in any individual's federal gross income.
(2) Add any amount not included in wages to the extent the amount constitutes compensation attributable to a nonqualified deferred compensation plan or program described in section 3121(v)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code if the amount is included in any individual's federal gross income, but only to the extent the municipal corporation did not impose its tax on the nonqualified deferred compensation at the time the compensation was deferred. Division (A)(2) of this section applies only to the extent that division (F)(11) of section 718.01 of the Revised Code does not prohibit taxation of such amount by the municipal corporation. For purposes of determining the applicability of division (F)(11) of section 718.01 of the Revised Code, any employer or any agent of any employer or any other payer, as defined in section 718.03 of the Revised Code, may rely on an affidavit or other sworn statement, submitted in good faith by an employee or previous employee, setting forth the employee's residency status.
(3) Add any amount not included in wages to the extent the amount has been directly or indirectly paid to or for the benefit of any employee, payee, or former employee and is excluded from the employee's, payee's, or former employee's federal gross income under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(B) For taxable years beginning after 2003, no municipal corporation shall require any employer or any agent of any employer or any other payer, as defined in section 718.03 of the Revised Code, to withhold tax from any compensation other than qualifying wages directly or indirectly paid to or for the benefit of any employee or payee or former employee. Nothing in this section prohibits an employer from withholding amounts on a basis greater than qualifying wages.
Sec. 718.05. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Generic form" means an electronic or paper form designed for
reporting estimated municipal income taxes and annual municipal income tax
liability or for filing a refund claim
that is not prescribed by a particular municipal corporation for the
reporting of that municipal corporation's tax on income.
(2) "Return preparer" means any person other than a taxpayer that
is authorized by a taxpayer to complete or file an income
tax return, report, or other document for or on behalf of the
taxpayer.
(B) A municipal corporation shall not require a taxpayer to
file
an annual income tax return or report prior to the filing date for the
corresponding tax reporting period as prescribed for such
a taxpayer under the Internal Revenue Code. For taxable years beginning after 2003, except as otherwise provided in section 718.051 of the Revised Code and division (D) of this section, a municipal corporation shall not require a taxpayer to file an annual income tax return or report on any date other than the filing date for the corresponding tax reporting period as prescribed for such a taxpayer under the Internal Revenue Code.
(C) On and after January 1, 2001, any municipal
corporation that
requires taxpayers to file income tax returns, reports, or other
documents shall accept for filing a generic form of such a return,
report, or document if the generic form, once completed and filed,
contains all of the information required to be submitted with the
municipal corporation's prescribed returns, reports, or documents,
and if the taxpayer or return preparer filing the generic form
otherwise complies with rules or ordinances of the municipal
corporation governing the filing of returns, reports, or
documents.
(D) Beginning Except as otherwise provided in section 718.051 of the Revised Code, beginning January 1, 2001, any taxpayer that has
requested an extension for
filing a federal income tax return may request an extension for
the filing of a municipal income tax return. The taxpayer shall
make the request by filing a copy of the taxpayer's request for a
federal filing extension with the individual or office charged
with the administration of the municipal income tax. The request
for extension shall be filed not later than the last day for
filing the municipal income tax return as prescribed by ordinance
or rule of the municipal corporation. A municipal corporation
shall grant such a request for extension filed before January 1, 2004, for a period not less
than the period of the federal extension request. For taxable years beginning after 2003, the extended due date of the municipal income tax return shall be the last day of the month to which the due date of the federal income tax return has been extended. A municipal
corporation may deny a taxpayer's request for extension only if
the taxpayer fails to timely file the request, fails to file a
copy of the request for the federal extension, owes the
municipal corporation any delinquent income tax or any penalty,
interest, assessment, or other charge for the late payment or
nonpayment of income tax, or has failed to file any required income tax
return, report, or
other related document for a prior tax period. The granting of an extension
for filing
a municipal corporation income tax return does not extend the last
date for paying the tax without penalty unless the municipal
corporation grants an extension of that date.
Sec. 718.051. (A) As used in this section, "Ohio business gateway" means the online computer network system, initially created by the department of administrative services under section 125.30 of the Revised Code, that allows private businesses to electronically file business reply forms with state agencies.
(B) Notwithstanding section 718.05 of the Revised Code, on and after January 1, 2005, any taxpayer that is subject to any municipal corporation's tax on the net profit from a business or profession and has received an extension to file the federal income tax return shall not be required to notify the municipal corporation of the federal extension and shall not be required to file any municipal income tax return until the last day of the month to which the due date for filing the federal return has been extended, provided that, on or before the date for filing the municipal income tax return, the person notifies the tax commissioner of the federal extension through the Ohio business gateway or any successor electronic filing and payment system.
(C) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a taxpayer subject to any municipal corporation's tax on the net profit from a business or profession may file any municipal income tax return or estimated municipal income return, and may make payment of amounts shown to be due on such returns, by using the Ohio business gateway or any successor electronic filing and payment system.
(D)(1) As used in this division, "qualifying wages" has the same meaning as in section 718.031 of the Revised Code.
(2) Any employer may report the amount of municipal income tax withheld from qualifying wages paid on or after January 1, 2007, and may make remittance of such amounts, by using the Ohio business gateway or any successor electronic filing and payment system.
(E) Nothing in this section shall be construed as affecting the due dates for filing income tax returns or employer withholding tax returns or for paying any amounts shown to be due on such returns.
(F) Nothing in this section requires this state to continue to make available the Ohio business gateway or to make available any successor electronic filing and payment system.
Sec. 718.11. (A) If any employer or taxpayer required to file a tax return for a tax subject to this chapter fails to file the return within the time prescribed, files an incorrect return, or fails to remit the full amount of the tax due for the period covered by the return, the tax administrator may make an assessment against the employer or taxpayer for any deficiency for the period for which the return or tax is due, based upon any information in the administrator's possession.
The tax administrator shall not make or issue an assessment against an employer or taxpayer more than three years after the final date the return subject to assessment was required to be filed or the date the return was filed, whichever is later. The time limit may be extended if both the employer or taxpayer and the administrator consent in writing to the extension. An extension shall extend the three-year time limit in section 718.12 of the Revised Code for the same period of time. There is no bar or limit to an assessment against an employer or taxpayer that fails to file a return subject to assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a fraudulent return. The administrator shall give the employer or taxpayer assessed written notice of the assessment by personal service or mail. Notice sent by mail shall be sent to the address shown on the tax return or other documentation unless the employer or taxpayer notifies the administrator of a different address. With the notice, the administrator shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.
(B) Unless the employer or taxpayer assessed files with the tax administrator within sixty days from the mailing of the assessment a written petition for reassessment signed by the employer or taxpayer or by the authorized agent of the employer or taxpayer assessed having knowledge of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable from the employer or taxpayer to the treasurer of the municipal corporation. The petition shall indicate the employer's or taxpayer's objections, but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the administrator prior to the date shown on the final determination. An assessment sent by mail which is returned undeliverable or sent to a location other than that of the employer or taxpayer shall not be considered to be "the mailing of the assessment" until the assessment is actually mailed to the location of the employer or taxpayer.
(C) If the petitioner requests a hearing, the tax administrator shall assign a time and place for the hearing on the petition and shall notify the petitioner of the time and place of the hearing. The administrator may continue the hearing from time to time if necessary.
The tax administrator shall make such corrections to the assessment as the administrator finds proper. The administrator shall serve a copy of the final determination on the petitioner by personal service or by certified mail, and the administrator's determination in the matter shall be final, subject to appeal as provided for in section 5717.011 of the Revised Code. Only objections decided on the merits by the board of tax appeals or a court shall be given collateral estoppel or res judicata effect in considering an application for refund of amounts paid pursuant to the assessment.
(D) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified copy of the tax administrator's entry making the assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county where the municipal corporation is primarily located.
Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall enter a judgment against the employer or taxpayer assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for municipal corporation of income taxes" and shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax administrator, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.
The portion of an assessment not paid within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued shall bear additional interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the day the administrator issues the assessment until the assessment is paid. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.
(E) All money collected under this section shall be considered revenue arising from the tax imposed by the municipal corporation.
(F) If the tax administrator believes that collection of the tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the administrator may issue a jeopardy assessment against the employer or taxpayer liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy assessment, the administrator shall file an entry with the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (D) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served on the employer or taxpayer assessed or the taxpayer's legal representative by personal service or certified mail within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the employer or taxpayer assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with division (B) of this section and provides security in a form satisfactory to the administrator and in an amount sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the administrator's consideration of the petition for reassessment.
(G) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment is pending, the employer or taxpayer may pay all or a portion of the assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of a payment by the treasurer of the municipal corporation does not prejudice any claim for refund upon final determination of the petition.
If upon final determination of the petition an error in the assessment is corrected by the tax administrator, upon petition so filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so that the amount due from the employer or taxpayer under the corrected assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to the employer or taxpayer, its assignees, or legal representative a refund in the amount of the overpayment as provided by section 718.12 of the Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided in that section.
(H) As used in this section:
(1) "Employer" includes a responsible party if the municipal corporation imposes such liability.
(2) "Tax" includes amounts an employer is required to withhold.
Sec. 718.111. Except as provided in this section, no municipal corporation shall levy, assess, or collect any civil penalties for a tax subject to assessment under section 718.11 of the Revised Code.
(A) The following penalties shall apply to employers and taxpayers required to file a tax return for a tax subject to this chapter:
(1) If an employer or a taxpayer required to file a return or remit tax fails to make and file a return within the time prescribed, including any extensions of time granted by the tax administrator, the administrator may impose a penalty not exceeding the greater of fifty dollars per month or fraction of a month, not to exceed five hundred dollars, or five per cent per month or fraction of a month, not to exceed fifty per cent, of the tax required to be shown on the return, for each month or fraction of a month elapsing between the due date, including extensions of the due date, and the day on which the return is filed.
(2) If an employer or a taxpayer fails to pay any amount of estimated tax required to be paid, subject to section 718.08 of the Revised Code, by the dates prescribed for payment, the tax administrator may impose a penalty of up to twice the interest owed for the delinquent payment.
(3) If an employer or a taxpayer files what purports to be a return required by a municipal corporation to report income that does not contain information upon which the substantial correctness of the return may be judged or contains information that on its face indicates that the return is substantially incorrect, and the filing of the return in that manner is due to a position that is frivolous or a desire that is apparent from the return to delay or impede the administration of the tax, a penalty of up to five hundred dollars may be imposed.
(4) If an employer or a taxpayer makes a fraudulent attempt to evade the reporting or payment of the tax required to be shown on any return, a penalty may be imposed not exceeding the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per cent of the tax required to be shown on the return.
(5) If any person makes a false or fraudulent claim for a refund under section 718.12 of the Revised Code, a penalty may be imposed not exceeding the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per cent of the claim. Any penalty imposed under division (A)(5) of this section, any refund issued on the claim, and interest on any refund from the date of the refund, may be assessed under section 718.11 of the Revised Code without regard to any time limitation for the assessment imposed by division (A) of that section.
(B) For the purposes of this section, the tax required to be shown on the return shall be reduced by the amount of any part of the tax paid on or before the date, including extensions of the date, prescribed for filing the return.
(C) Each penalty imposed under this section shall be in addition to any other penalty described in this section. All or part of any penalty imposed under this section may be abated by the tax administrator. The administrator may adopt rules governing the imposition and abatement of such penalties.
(D) All amounts collected under this section from an employer or a taxpayer shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by the municipal corporation.
(E) The interest rate for any interest charges levied by a municipal corporation for the underpayment of tax shall be based upon the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 718.112. (A) If any of the facts, figures, computations, or attachments required in a taxpayer's annual return to determine the tax charged by the municipal corporation must be altered as the result of an adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return, whether initiated by the taxpayer or the internal revenue service, and such alteration affects the taxpayer's tax liability, the taxpayer shall file an amended return with the tax administrator in such form as the administrator requires. The amended return shall be filed not later than sixty days after the adjustment has been agreed to or finally determined for federal income tax purposes or any federal income tax deficiency or refund, or the abatement or credit resulting therefrom, has been assessed or paid, whichever occurs first.
(B) In the case of an underpayment, the amended return shall be accompanied by payment of any additional tax due together with interest thereon. If the tax shown to be due is one dollar or less, such amount need not accompany the amended return. An amended return required by this section is a return subject to assessment under section 718.11 of the Revised Code for the purpose of assessing any additional tax due under this section, together with any applicable penalty and interest. An amended return does not reopen facts, figures, computations, or attachments from a previously filed return no longer subject to assessment that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.
(C) In the case of an overpayment, an application for refund may be filed under this division within the sixty-day period prescribed for filing the amended return even if it is filed beyond the period prescribed in section 718.12 of the Revised Code if it otherwise conforms to the requirements of that section. An application filed under this division shall claim refund of overpayments resulting from alterations to only those facts, figures, computations, or attachments required in the taxpayer's annual return that are affected, either directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return unless it is also filed within the time prescribed in section 718.12 of the Revised Code. The application does not reopen facts, figures, computations, or attachments that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.
Sec. 718.12. (A) An application to refund to an employer or a taxpayer the amount of taxes paid on any illegal, erroneous, or excessive payment of tax to a municipal corporation, including assessments, shall be filed with the tax administrator of the municipal corporation within three years after the date of the illegal, erroneous, or excessive payment of the tax, or within any additional period allowed by division (A) of section 718.11 of the Revised Code. The application shall be filed in the form prescribed by the tax administrator or by using a generic form as allowed under section 718.05 of the Revised Code.
(B) Upon the filing of a refund application, the administrator shall determine the amount of refund to which the applicant is entitled. If the amount is not less than that claimed, the administrator shall issue a refund. If the amount is less than that claimed, the administrator shall give the applicant notice by ordinary mail of the amount approved for refund. The notice shall be sent to the address shown on the application for a refund unless the applicant notifies the administrator of a different address. The applicant shall have sixty days from the date the administrator mails the notice to provide additional information to the administrator or to request a hearing, or both. Nothing in this section prohibits the administrator from refunding the applicant the approved amount prior to the expiration of the sixty-day period.
(C) If the applicant neither requests a hearing nor provides additional information to the tax administrator within the time prescribed by division (B) of this section, the administrator shall take no further action, and the determination of the refund amount denied is final and is not subject to appeal under section 5717.011 of the Revised Code.
(D)(1) If the applicant requests a hearing within the time prescribed by division (B) of this section, the tax administrator shall assign a time and place for the hearing and shall notify the applicant of such time and place. The administrator may continue the hearing from time to time as necessary. After the hearing, the administrator may make such adjustments to the refund as the administrator finds proper and shall issue a final determination thereon.
(2) If the applicant does not request a hearing, but provides additional information, within the time prescribed by division (B) of this section, the tax administrator shall review the information, make such adjustments to the refund as the administrator finds proper, and shall issue a final determination thereon.
(3) The administrator shall serve a copy of the final determination made under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section on the applicant by personal service or by certified mail, and the decision is final, subject to appeal under section 5717.011 of the Revised Code.
(4) The administrator shall refund any additional tax found to be due the taxpayer under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section.
(E) Upon the written request of a taxpayer, the tax administrator may credit the amount of the refund against the taxpayer's estimated tax payments to the municipal corporation for an ensuing taxable year. The administrator may apply any refund due under this section to any taxes or fees owed to the municipal corporation as partial satisfaction of the debt owed to the municipal corporation if the refund is for less than the debt or for full satisfaction of the debt owed to the municipal corporation if the refund equals or exceeds the debt. If the refund is greater than the debt, the amount remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded. The preceding two sentences apply only to debts that have become final.
(F) Interest shall be allowed and paid on any overpayment by a taxpayer of tax from the date of the overpayment until the date of the refund of the overpayment, except that if any overpayment is refunded within ninety days after the final filing date of the annual return or ninety days after the complete return is filed, whichever is later, no interest shall be allowed on the refunded overpayment. For purposes of computing the payment of interest on overpayments, no amount of tax for any taxable year shall be treated as having been paid before the date on which the tax return for that year was due without regard to any extension of time for filing that return.
(G) If the amount of refund the applicant is entitled to under this section is for less than one dollar, the tax administrator is not required to issue the refund.
Sec. 901.17. (A) The division of markets shall may do all of the following:
(1)(A) Investigate the cost of production and marketing in
all its phases;
(2)(B) Gather and disseminate information concerning supply,
demand, prevailing prices, and commercial movements, including
common and cold storage of food products, and maintain market
news service for disseminating such information;
(3)(C) Promote, assist, and encourage the organization and
operation of cooperative and other associations and organizations
for improving the relations and services among producers,
distributors, and consumers of food products;
(4)(D) Investigate the practice, methods, and any specific
transaction of commission merchants and others who receive,
solicit, buy, or handle on commission or otherwise, food
products;
(5)(E) Act as mediator or arbitrator, when invited, in any
controversy or issue that arises between producers and
distributors and that affects the interest of the consumer;
(6)(F) Act on behalf of the consumers in conserving and
protecting their interests in every practicable way against
excessive prices;
(7)(G) Act as market adviser for producers and distributors,
assisting them in economical and efficient distribution of good
products at fair prices;
(8)(H) Encourage the establishment of retail municipal
markets and develop direct dealing between producers and
consumers;
(9)(I) Encourage the consumption of Ohio-grown products
within the state, nationally, and internationally, and inspect and determine
the grade and
condition of farm produce, both at collecting and receiving
centers within the state;
(10)(J) Take such means and use such powers, relative to
shipment, transportation, and storage of foodstuffs of any kind,
as are necessary, advisable, or desirable in case of an emergency
creating or threatening to create a scarcity of food within the
state;
(K) Participate in trade missions between states and foreign countries in order to encourage the sale and promotion of Ohio-grown products.
(B)(1) The director of agriculture shall adopt and may
amend schedules of fees to be charged for inspecting farm produce
at collecting and receiving centers or such other services as may
be rendered under this section. All such fees shall be made with
a view to the minimum cost and to make this branch of the
department of agriculture self-sustaining.
The fees shall be deposited in the state treasury and
credited to the inspection fund, which is hereby created, for use
in carrying out the purposes of this section. All investment
earnings of the inspection fund shall be credited to the
fund. If, in any year,
the balance in the inspection fund is not sufficient to meet the
expenses incurred pursuant to this section, the deficit shall be
paid from funds appropriated for the use of the department.
(2) The director may adopt a schedule of fees to be charged for
inspecting
any agricultural product for the purposes of the issuance of an
export
certificate, as may be required by the United States department
of agriculture
or foreign purchasers. Such fees shall be credited to the
general revenue fund.
Sec. 901.21. (A) As used in this section and section 901.22
of
the
Revised Code:
(1)
"Agricultural
easement" has the same meaning
as in
section 5301.67 of the
Revised Code.
(2)
"Agriculture" means those activities occurring on land
devoted
exclusively to agricultural use, as defined in section
5713.30 of the Revised Code, or on land that constitutes a
homestead.
(3) "Homestead" means the portion of a farm on which is
located a dwelling house, yard, or outbuildings such as a barn or
garage.
(B) The director of agriculture may acquire real property
used
predominantly in agriculture and agricultural easements by
gift, devise, or bequest if, at the time an easement is granted,
such
an easement is on land that is
valued for
purposes of real
property taxation at its current value
for
agricultural use
under
section 5713.31 of the Revised Code
or that constitutes a
homestead.
Any
terms may be included in an
agricultural
easement
so acquired that
are necessary or
appropriate to
preserve on
behalf of the grantor
of the easement
the favorable
tax
consequences of the gift,
devise, or bequest
under the
"Internal
Revenue Act of 1986," 100
Stat. 2085, 26
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.
The director, by any such
means
or by
purchase or lease, may
acquire, or acquire
the use of,
stationary
personal property or
equipment that is located on land
acquired in
fee by the director
under this section and that is
necessary or
appropriate for the
use of the land predominantly in
agriculture.
(C) The director may do
all things necessary or appropriate
to retain the use of real property
acquired
in fee under
division
(B) of this section
predominantly in agriculture, including,
without limitation,
performing any of the activities described in
division (A)(1) or (2)
of section 5713.30 of
the Revised Code or
entering into contracts
to lease or rent the real property so
acquired to persons or
governmental entities that will use the
land predominantly in
agriculture.
(D)(1) When the director
considers it to be necessary or
appropriate, the director may
sell real property acquired in fee,
and stationary personal
property or equipment acquired by gift,
devise, bequest, or
purchase, under division (B) of
this section
on such terms as the director considers to be
advantageous to this
state.
(2) An agricultural easement acquired under
division (B) of
this section
may be extinguished under the circumstances
prescribed, and in
accordance with the terms and conditions set
forth, in the
instrument conveying the agricultural
easement.
(E) There is hereby
created in the state treasury the
agricultural
easement purchase fund. The fund shall consist of
the proceeds
received from the sale of real and personal property
under
division (D) of this section;
moneys received due to the
extinguishment of agricultural
easements acquired by the director
under division
(B) of this section or section
5301.691 of the
Revised
Code; moneys received due to
the extinguishment of
agricultural easements
purchased with the assistance of matching
grants made under
section 901.22 of the Revised
Code; gifts,
bequests, devises,
and contributions received by the director for
the purpose of
acquiring agricultural easements; and grants
received from
public or private
sources for the purpose of
purchasing
agricultural easements. The
fund shall
be administered
by the
director, and moneys in the fund
shall be
used by the
director
exclusively to purchase
agricultural
easements under
division
(A)
of section 5301.691 of the
Revised
Code and provide
matching
grants
under section 901.22 of the
Revised Code to
municipal
corporations, counties,
townships, and
charitable
organizations
for
the purchase of agricultural
easements. Money
in the fund
shall be
used only
to
purchase
agricultural easements
on
land that
is
valued for
purposes of real
property taxation at
its current
value
for
agricultural use under
section 5713.31 of
the Revised
Code
or
that
constitutes a homestead when the
easement
is
purchased.
(F) There is hereby created in
the state treasury the clean
Ohio agricultural easement fund.
Twelve and one-half per cent of
net proceeds of obligations issued
and sold pursuant to sections
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised
Code shall be deposited into the
fund. The fund shall be used by the
director for the purposes of
sections
901.21 and 901.22 and the
provisions of sections 5301.67
to
5301.70 of the Revised Code
governing agricultural easements.
Investment earnings of the fund
shall be credited to the fund.
For
two years after
the effective date of this amendment,
investment
earnings credited to the fund and may be used to pay costs
incurred by
the director in administering those sections and
provisions.
(G) The term of an agricultural
easement purchased wholly
or
in part with money from the clean
Ohio agricultural easement fund
or the agricultural easement
purchase fund shall be perpetual and
shall
run with the land.
Sec. 902.11. (A) Any real or personal property, or both,
of
an issuer which that is acquired, constructed, reconstructed,
enlarged,
improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination
thereof, and
leased or subleased under authority of this chapter
shall be
subject to ad valorem, sales, use, and franchise taxes
and to
zoning, planning, and building regulations and fees, to
the same
extent and in the same manner as if the lessee-user or
sublessee-user thereof, rather than the issuer, had acquired,
constructed, reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or
equipped, or any combination thereof, such real or personal
property, and title thereto was in the name of such lessee-user
or
sublessee-user.
The transfer of tangible personal property by lease or
sublease under authority of this chapter is not a sale as used in
Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code. The exemptions provided in
divisions (B)(1) and
(14)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code
shall not be applicable to purchases for a project under this
chapter.
An issuer shall be exempt from all taxes on its real or
personal property, or both, which has been acquired, constructed,
reconstructed, enlarged, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any
combination thereof, under this chapter so long as such property
is used by the issuer for purposes which would otherwise exempt
such property; has ceased to be used by a former lessee-user or
sublessee-user and is not occupied or used; or has been acquired
by the issuer but development has not yet commenced. The
exemption shall be effective as of the date the exempt use
begins.
All taxes on the exempt real or personal property for
the year
should be prorated and the taxes for the exempt portion
of the
year shall be remitted by the county auditor.
(B) Bonds issued under this chapter, the transfer thereof,
and the interest and other income from the bonds, including any
profit made on the sale thereof, are free from taxation within
the
state.
Sec. 921.151. The pesticide program fund is hereby created in the state
treasury. All The portion of the money in the fund that is collected under this chapter shall be used to carry out the purposes of
this chapter. The portion of the money in the fund that is collected under Chapter 927. of the Revised Code shall be used to carry out the purposes of that chapter, provided that the money that is collected under section 927.701 of the Revised Code shall be used to carry out the purposes of that section. The fund shall consist of fees collected under sections 921.01
to 921.15 and section 927.69 of the Revised Code, money collected under section 927.701 of the Revised Code, and all fines, penalties, costs, and damages,
except court costs, which that are collected by either the director of agriculture
or the attorney general in consequence of any violation of sections 921.01 to
921.29 of the Revised Code. Not later than the thirtieth day of June of each
year, the director of budget and management shall determine whether the amount
credited to the pesticide program fund is in excess of the amount necessary to
meet the expenses of the director of agriculture in administering this chapter
and Chapter 927. of the Revised Code and shall transfer any excess from the pesticide program fund to the general
revenue fund.
Sec. 927.69. To effect the purpose of sections 927.51 to 927.74, inclusive,
of the Revised Code, the director of agriculture, or his the director's authorized
representative, may:
(A) Make reasonable inspection of any premises in this state and any property
therein or thereon;
(B) Stop and inspect in a reasonable manner, any means of conveyance moving
within this state upon probable cause to believe it contains or carries any
pest, host, commodity, or other article which that is subject to sections 927.51 to
927.72, inclusive, of the Revised Code;
(C) Conduct inspections of agricultural products that are required by other states, the United States department of agriculture, other federal agencies, or foreign countries to determine whether the products are infested. If, upon making such an inspection, the director or the director's authorized representative determines that an agricultural product is not infested, the director or the director's authorized representative may issue a certificate, as required by other states, the United States department of agriculture, other federal agencies, or foreign countries, indicating that the product is not infested.
The director may charge a fee for the inspection and may charge an additional fee for the issuance of a certificate. The fees shall be established in rules adopted under section 927.52 of the Revised Code and shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the pesticide program fund created in Chapter 921. of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay the costs incurred by the department of agriculture in administering this chapter.
Sec. 927.701. (A) As used in this section, "gypsy moth" means the live insect, Lymantria dispar, in any stage of development.
(B) The director of agriculture may establish a voluntary gypsy moth suppression program under which a landowner may request that the department of agriculture have the landowner's property aerially sprayed to suppress the presence of gypsy moths in exchange for payment from the landowner of a portion of the cost of the spraying. To determine the amount of payment that is due from a landowner, the department first shall determine the projected cost per acre to the department of gypsy moth suppression activities for the year in which the landowner's request is made. The cost shall be calculated by determining the total expense of aerial spraying for gypsy moths to be incurred by the department in that year divided by the total number of acres proposed to be sprayed in that year. With respect to a landowner, the department shall multiply the cost per acre by the number of acres that the landowner requests to be sprayed. The department shall add to that amount any administrative costs that it incurs in billing the landowner and collecting payment. The amount that the landowner shall pay to the department shall not exceed fifty per cent of the resulting amount.
(C) The director shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish procedures under which a landowner may make a request under division (B) of this section and to establish provisions governing agreements between the department and landowners concerning gypsy moth suppression together with any other provisions that the director considers appropriate to administer this section.
(D) The director shall deposit all money collected under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the pesticide program fund created in Chapter 921. of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund under this section shall be used for the suppression of gypsy moths in accordance with this section.
Sec. 1309.109. (A) Except as otherwise provided in
divisions
(C)
and (D) of this section, this chapter applies to the following:
(1) A transaction, regardless of its form, that creates a
security interest in personal property or fixtures by contract;
(2) An agricultural lien;
(3) A sale of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles,
or
promissory notes;
(5) A security interest arising under section 1302.42
or
1302.49, division (C) of section
1302.85, or division (E) of
section 1310.54 of the Revised Code, as provided in
section
1309.110 of the Revised Code; and
(6) A security interest arising under section 1304.20 or
1305.18
of the Revised Code.
(B) The application of this chapter to a security interest
in a
secured obligation is not affected by the fact that the
obligation
is itself secured by a transaction or interest to which
this chapter does not
apply.
(C) This chapter does not apply to the extent that:
(1) A statute, regulation, or treaty of the United
States
preempts this chapter; or
(2) The rights of a transferee beneficiary or nominated
person
under a letter of credit are independent and superior under
section
1305.13 of the Revised Code.
(D) This chapter does not apply to the following:
(1) A landlord's lien, other than an agricultural lien;
(2)(a) A lien, not enumerated in division (D)(2) of this
section and other than an agricultural lien, given by
statute or
other rule of law for services or materials, including
any lien
created under any provision of Chapter 926., sections
1311.55 to
1311.57, sections 1311.71 to 1311.80, section 1701.66,
or Chapter
4585. of the Revised Code;
(b) Notwithstanding division (D)(2)(a) of this section,
section
1309.333 of the Revised Code applies with respect to
priority of
the lien.
(3) An assignment of a claim for wages, salary, or other
compensation of an employee;
(4) A sale of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles,
or
promissory notes as part of a sale of the business out of which
they
arose;
(5) An assignment of accounts, chattel paper, payment
intangibles, or promissory notes that is for the purpose of
collection
only;
(6) An assignment of a right to payment under a contract to
an
assignee that is also obligated to perform under the contract;
(7) An assignment of a single account, payment intangible,
or
promissory note to an assignee in full or partial satisfaction
of a
preexisting indebtedness;
(8) A transfer of an interest in or an assignment of a claim
under a policy of insurance, other than an assignment by or to a
health-care provider of a health-care-insurance receivable and any
subsequent assignment of the right to payment, but
sections
1309.315 and 1309.322 of the Revised Code apply with
respect to
proceeds and priorities in proceeds;
(9) An assignment of a right represented by a judgment,
other
than a judgment taken on a right to payment that was
collateral;
(10) A right of recoupment or set-off, but:
(a) Section 1309.340 of the Revised Code
applies with
respect to the
effectiveness of rights of recoupment or set-off
against deposit accounts; and
(b) Section 1309.404 of the Revised Code
applies
with
respect to defenses or claims of an account debtor.
(11) The creation or transfer of an interest in or lien on
real
property, including a lease or rents under a lease, except to
the extent that provision is made for:
(a) Liens on real property in sections 1309.203
and
1309.308
of the Revised Code;
(b) Fixtures in section 1309.334 of the
Revised
Code;
(c) Fixture filings in sections 1309.501,
1309.502,
1309.512, 1309.516, and 1309.519 of the Revised Code; and
(d) Security agreements covering personal and real property
in
section 1309.604 of the Revised Code.
(12) An assignment of a claim arising in tort, other than a
commercial tort
claim, but
sections 1309.315 and 1309.322 of the
Revised Code
apply with
respect to proceeds and priorities in
proceeds;
(13) An assignment of a deposit account in a consumer
transaction, but sections 1309.315 and 1309.322 of the
Revised
Code apply with respect to proceeds and
priorities in
proceeds; or
(14) A transfer by a government, state, or governmental unit.
(E) The granting of a security
interest in all or any part
of a lottery prize award for
consideration is
subject to the
prohibition of division (A)(3)(C) of section 3770.07 of
the Revised
Code. The sale, assignment, or other redirection of a lottery
prize award for consideration is subject to the provisions of
division (A)(4)(D) of section 3770.07 and sections 3770.10 to 3770.14
of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1321.21. All fees, charges, penalties, and forfeitures collected under
Chapters 1321., 1322., 4712., 4727., and 4728., sections 1315.21 to
1315.30, and sections 1315.35 to 1315.44, and sections 1349.25 to 1349.37 of the
Revised Code shall be paid to the superintendent of
financial institutions and shall be deposited by the superintendent
into the state treasury to the credit of the consumer
finance fund, which is hereby created. The fund may
be expended or obligated by the superintendent for the defrayment of the costs
of administration of Chapters 1321., 1322., 4712., 4727., and
4728., sections 1315.21 to 1315.30, and sections 1315.35 to 1315.44, and sections 1349.25 to 1349.37 of the
Revised Code
by the division of financial institutions.
All actual and necessary expenses incurred by the superintendent, including
any services rendered by the department of commerce for the division's
administration of Chapters 1321., 1322.,
4712., 4727., and 4728., sections 1315.21 to 1315.30, and sections 1315.35 to
1315.44, and sections 1349.25 to 1349.37 of the Revised Code, shall be paid from the fund. The fund shall be assessed a
proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department and the
division. The proportionate share of the administrative costs of the division
of financial institutions shall be determined in accordance with
procedures prescribed by the superintendent
and approved by the director of budget and management. Such assessment shall
be paid from the consumer finance fund to the division of
administration fund or the financial institutions fund.
Sec. 1333.99. (A) Whoever violates sections 1333.01 to
1333.04 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.
(B) Whoever violates section 1333.12 of the Revised Code
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.
(C) Whoever violates section 1333.36 of the Revised Code
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(D) A prosecuting attorney may file an action to restrain
any person found in violation of section 1333.36 of the Revised
Code. Upon the filing of such an action, the common pleas court
may receive evidence of such violation and forthwith grant a
temporary restraining order as may be prayed for, pending a
hearing on the merits of said cause.
(E) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 1333.52 or
section 1333.81 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of
the first degree.
(F) Whoever violates division (A)(2) or (B) of section
1333.52 or division (F) or (H) of section 1333.96 of the Revised
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(G) Except as otherwise provided in this
division, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the Revised Code
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the
compensation is five hundred dollars or more and less than five thousand
dollars, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the Revised Code is guilty of a
felony of
the fifth degree. If the value of the compensation is five thousand
dollars or more and less
than one hundred thousand dollars, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the
Revised Code is
guilty of a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the compensation is
one hundred thousand dollars or more, whoever violates section 1333.92 of the
Revised Code is
guilty of a felony of the third degree.
(H) Whoever violates division (B), (C), or (I) of section
1333.96 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of
the third
degree.
(I) Any person not registered as a travel agency or tour
promoter as provided in divisions (B) and (C) of section 1333.96
of the Revised Code who states that the person is so registered is
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.
Sec. 1501.04. There is hereby created in the department of
natural resources a recreation and resources commission composed
of the chairman chairperson of the wildlife council created
under section
1531.03 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of the
parks and
recreation council created under section 1541.40 of the Revised
Code, the chairman chairperson of the waterways safety council
created under
section 1547.73 of the Revised Code, the chairman chairperson of
the technical advisory council on oil and gas created under section
1509.38 of the Revised Code, the chairman of the forestry
advisory council created under section 1503.40 of the Revised
Code, the chairman chairperson of the Ohio soil and water
conservation
commission created under section 1515.02 of the Revised Code, the
chairman chairperson of the Ohio natural areas council created
under section 1517.03 of the Revised Code, the chairman
chairperson of the Ohio water
advisory council created under section 1521.031 of the Revised
Code, the chairperson of the recycling and litter prevention
advisory council created under section 1502.04 of the Revised
Code, the chairperson of the civilian conservation advisory
council created under section 1553.10 of the Revised Code, the
chairman chairperson of the Ohio geology advisory council
created under section 1505.11 of the Revised Code, and five members appointed
by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate, not
more than three of whom shall belong to the same political party.
The director of natural resources shall be an ex officio member
of the commission, with a voice in its deliberations, but without
the power to vote.
Terms of office of members of the commission appointed by
the governor shall be for five years, commencing on the second
day of February and ending on the first day of February. Each
member shall hold office from the date of his appointment until
the end of the term for which he the member was appointed.
In the event of the death, removal, resignation, or
incapacity of a member of the commission, the governor, with the
advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who
shall hold office for the remainder of the term for which his the
member's predecessor was appointed. Any member shall continue in office
subsequent to the expiration date of his the member's term until
his the member's successor takes office, or until a period of
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.
The governor may remove any appointed member of the
commission for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in
office.
The commission shall exercise no administrative function,
but may:
(A) Advise with and recommend to the director of natural
resources as to plans and programs for the management,
development, utilization, and conservation of the natural
resources of the state;
(B) Advise with and recommend to the director as to
methods of coordinating the work of the divisions of the
department;
(C) Consider and make recommendations upon any matter
which that the director may submit to it;
(D) Submit to the governor biennially recommendations for
amendments to the conservation laws of the state.
Before Each member of the commission, before entering upon the
discharge of his the member's duties, each
member of the commission shall take and subscribe to an oath of
office, which oath, in writing, shall be filed in the office of
the secretary of state.
The members of the commission shall serve without
compensation, but shall be entitled to receive their actual and
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official
duties.
The commission, by a majority vote of all its
members, shall adopt and amend bylaws.
To be eligible for appointment, a person shall be a citizen
of the United States and an elector of the state and shall
possess a knowledge of and have an interest in the natural
resources of this state.
The commission shall hold at least four regular quarterly
meetings each year. Special meetings shall be held at such times
as the bylaws of the commission provide. Notices of all meetings
shall be given in such manner as the bylaws provide. The
commission shall choose annually from among its members a
chairman chairperson to preside over its meetings and a
secretary to keep a
record of its proceedings. A majority of the members of the
commission constitutes a quorum. No advice shall be given or
recommendation made without a majority of the members of the
commission concurring therein.
Sec. 1502.02. (A) There is hereby created in the
department of natural resources the division of recycling and litter
prevention to be headed by the chief of recycling and litter prevention.
(B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the
recycling and litter prevention fund, consisting of moneys
distributed to it.
(C) The chief of recycling and litter prevention shall do all of the
following:
(1) Use moneys credited to the fund exclusively for the
purposes set forth in sections 1502.03, 1502.04, and 1502.05 of
the Revised Code, with particular emphasis on programs relating
to recycling;
(2) Expend for administration of the division not more than ten per cent of
any fiscal year's
appropriation to the division, excluding the amount assessed to
the division for direct and indirect central support charges;
(3) Require recipients of grants under section 1502.05 of
the Revised Code, as a condition of receiving and retaining them,
to do all of the following:
(a) Create a separate account for the grants and any cash
donations received that qualify for the donor credit allowed by
section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;
(b) Make expenditures from the account exclusively for the
purposes for which the grants were received;
(c) Use any auditing and accounting practices the
chief considers necessary regarding the account;
(d) Report to the chief information regarding the amount
and donor of cash donations received as described by section
5733.064 of the Revised Code;
(e) Use grants received to supplement and not to replace
any existing funding for such purposes.
(4) Report to the tax commissioner information the chief receives
pursuant to division (C)(3)(d) of this section.
Sec. 1503.011. The chief of the division of forestry shall
be responsible for the conservation and development of forests
within this state.
The chief shall be concerned with
silvicultural
practices, including the proper planting, growing,
protecting,
harvesting, and managing of trees for such purposes as
watershed
and soil protection, timber production and utilization,
recreation, aesthetics, wildlife habitat development, and urban
enhancement and for all benefits that forests provide.
The chief may do any or all of the following:
(A) Provide rural forestry assistance to nonindustrial
private forest landowners, including advice in tree planting,
forest improvement, harvesting, and all aspects of conservation;
(B) Provide urban forestry assistance to individuals,
nonprofit organizations, and political subdivisions to manage
their urban forest resource and develop comprehensive tree care
programs;
(C) Provide wood utilization, marketing, and rural
forestry
development assistance to forest industries, political
subdivisions and agencies thereof, and state and federal agencies
for the purpose of establishing and maintaining a viable,
economically sound wood-based industry while expanding the forest
resource of this state;
(D) Provide forest pest protection assistance to forest
landowners, political subdivisions and agencies thereof, and
state
and federal agencies on assessing and evaluating the health
and
vigor of the forest resource;
(E) Provide technical assistance to landowners in
developing
forest windbreaks, filter strips, and other forest
management
practices that provide conservation benefits;
(F) Provide awareness of and education concerning the
programs provided for under divisions (A) to (E) of this section;
(G) Enter into agreements with political subdivisions and
agencies thereof, state and federal agencies, firefighting
agencies and private fire companies, as those terms are defined
in
section 9.60 of the Revised Code, nonprofit organizations, and
individuals to meet the needs of forestry assistance in this
state
and, in accordance with
section 1503.01
of
the
Revised Code,
develop and administer grant programs for any of
those entities
requesting assistance. The chief shall adopt, and
may amend and
rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of
the Revised Code
establishing such requirements and procedures as
are necessary to
implement this division. As As used in this section division,
"nonprofit organization" has the
same meaning as in section 4141.01 of the Revised Code.
(H) Perform inventories and assessments of the forest resource in this state;
(I) Establish and administer a cost-share program, in accordance with rules adopted under section 1503.58 of the Revised Code, under which the state may share the costs to private forest landowners of enhancing the sustainability of the forest resource in this state;
(J) Establish and administer a grant program, in accordance with rules adopted under section 1503.58 of the Revised Code, for the purpose of enhancing the sustainability and economic development of the forest resource of this state;
(K) Enter into agreements with private entities to carry out the purposes of sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code;
(L) Upon the invitation or permission of a private property owner, enter private property or designate another person to do so on the chief's behalf to carry out the purposes of this section.
Sec. 1503.05. (A) The chief of the division of forestry may
sell timber and other forest products from the state forest and state
forest nurseries whenever the chief considers such a sale desirable and,
with the approval of the attorney general and the director of natural
resources, may sell portions of the state forest lands when such
a sale is advantageous to the state.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a timber sale
agreement shall not be executed unless the person or governmental
entity bidding on the sale executes and files a surety bond
conditioned on completion of the timber sale in accordance with
the terms of the agreement in an amount equal to twenty-five per
cent of the highest value cutting section. All bonds shall be
given in a form prescribed by the chief and shall run to the
state as obligee.
The chief shall not approve any bond until it is personally
signed and acknowledged by both principal and surety, or as to
either by the attorney in fact thereof, with a
certified copy of the
power of attorney attached. The chief shall not approve the bond
unless there is attached a certificate of the superintendent of
insurance that the company is authorized to transact a fidelity
and surety business in this state.
In lieu of a bond, the bidder may deposit any of the
following:
(1) Cash in an amount equal to the amount of the bond;
(2) United States government securities having a par value
equal to or greater than the amount of the bond;
(3) Negotiable certificates of deposit or irrevocable
letters of credit issued by any bank organized or transacting
business in this state having a par value equal to or greater
than the amount of the bond.
The cash or securities shall be deposited on the same terms
as bonds. If one or more certificates of deposit are deposited
in lieu of a bond, the chief shall require the bank that issued
any of the certificates to pledge securities of the aggregate
market value equal to the amount of the certificate or
certificates that is in excess of the amount insured by the
federal deposit insurance corporation. The securities to be
pledged shall be those designated as eligible under section
135.18 of the Revised Code. The securities shall be security for
the repayment of the certificate or certificates of deposit.
Immediately upon a deposit of cash, securities,
certificates of deposit, or letters of credit, the chief shall
deliver them to the treasurer of state, who shall hold them in
trust for the purposes for which they have been deposited. The
treasurer of state is responsible for the safekeeping of the
deposits. A bidder making a deposit of cash, securities,
certificates of deposit, or letters of credit may withdraw and
receive from the treasurer of state, on the written order of the
chief, all or any portion of the cash, securities, certificates
of deposit, or letters of credit upon depositing with the
treasurer of state cash, other United States government
securities, or other negotiable certificates of deposit or
irrevocable letters of credit issued by any bank organized or
transacting business in this state, equal in par value to the par
value of the cash, securities, certificates of deposit, or
letters of credit withdrawn.
A bidder may demand and receive from the treasurer of state
all interest or other income from any such securities or
certificates as it becomes due. If securities so deposited with
and in the possession of the treasurer of state mature or are
called for payment by their issuer, the
treasurer of state,
at the request of the bidder who deposited them, shall convert
the proceeds of the redemption or payment of the securities into
other United States government securities, negotiable
certificates of deposit, or cash as the bidder designates.
When the chief finds that a person or governmental agency
has failed to comply with the conditions of the person's or
governmental agency's bond, the chief shall
make a finding of that fact and declare the bond, cash,
securities, certificates, or letters of credit forfeited. The
chief thereupon shall certify the total forfeiture to the
attorney general, who shall proceed to collect the amount of the
bond, cash, securities, certificates, or letters of credit.
In lieu of total forfeiture, the surety, at its option, may
cause the timber sale to be completed or pay to the treasurer of
state the cost thereof.
All moneys collected as a result of forfeitures of bonds,
cash, securities, certificates, and letters of credit under this
section shall be credited to the state forest fund created in
this section.
(C) The chief may grant easements and leases on portions of the
state forest lands and state forest nurseries under terms
that are advantageous to the
state, and the chief may grant mineral rights on a royalty
basis on those lands and nurseries, with
the approval of the attorney general and the director.
(D) All moneys received from the sale of state forest lands, or
in payment for easements or leases on or as rents from
those
lands or from state forest nurseries, shall be paid into the state
treasury to the credit of the
state forest fund, which is hereby created. All moneys received
from the sale of standing timber taken from the state forest
lands shall be deposited into the general revenue fund. All moneys received
from the sale of forest products, other than
standing timber, and minerals taken from the state forest lands and state
forest nurseries,
together with royalties from mineral rights, shall be paid into
the state forest fund. In addition, all fees collected under section 1503.51 of the Revised Code related to the licensure of timber buyers, all sustainable forestry fees collected under section 1503.56 of the Revised Code, and all per-acre fees collected under section 1503.57 of the Revised Code for the conversion of forest land shall be paid into the state forest fund.
At the time of making such a payment or deposit, the chief shall determine the
amount and gross
value of all such products sold or royalties received from lands and
nurseries in
each county, in each township within the county, and in each school district
within the county. Afterward the
chief shall send to each county treasurer a copy of the
determination and shall provide for payment to the county
treasurer, for the use of the general fund of that county from
the amount so received as provided in this division, an amount equal
to eighty per cent of the gross value of the products sold or royalties
received from lands and nurseries located in that county. The county
auditor shall do all
of the following:
(1) Retain for the use of the general fund of the county one-fourth of the
amount received by the county under division (D) of this section;
(2) Pay into the
general fund of any township located within the county and
containing such lands and nurseries one-fourth of the amount received
by the
county from products sold or royalties received from lands and
nurseries
located in the township;
(3) Request the board of education of any school district located within
the county and containing such lands and nurseries to identify which
fund or funds of the
district should receive the moneys available to the school district under
division (D)(3) of this section. After receiving notice from the
board, the county auditor shall pay into the fund or funds so identified
one-half of the amount received by the county from products sold or royalties
received from lands and nurseries located in the school district,
distributed
proportionately as identified by the board.
The division of forestry shall not
supply logs, lumber, or other forest products or minerals, taken
from the state forest lands or state forest nurseries, to any other
agency or subdivision
of the state unless payment is made therefor in the amount of the
actual prevailing value thereof. This section is applicable to
the moneys so received. All moneys received from the sale of
reforestation tree stock or other revenues derived from the
operation of the state forests, facilities, or equipment shall be
paid into the state forest fund.
The fund shall not be expended for any purpose other than
the administration, operation, maintenance, development, or
utilization of the state forests, forest nurseries, and forest
programs, for facilities or equipment incident to them,
or for
the further purchase of lands for state forest or forest nursery
purposes.
Sec. 1503.50. As used in sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Buying timber" means to purchase timber, cut timber in exchange for receiving a share of it, or barter for timber; to offer to do so; or to take possession of timber with or without the consent of the timber grower.
(B) "Forest land" means land consisting of a stand or stands of timber that contain not less than fifty square feet of basal area or not less than three hundred stems per acre and that are distributed evenly throughout the stand.
(C) "Person" means an individual, partnership, firm, association, business trust, or corporation.
(D) "Rules" means rules adopted by the chief of the division of forestry under section 1503.58 of the Revised Code.
(E) "Timber" means trees, standing or felled, and parts of trees that can be used for sawing or processing into lumber for building or structural purposes or for the manufacture of any article. "Timber" does not include Christmas trees, fruit or ornamental trees, or wood products that are not used or intended for use for building, structural, manufacturing, or processing purposes.
(F) "Timber buyer" means a person who is engaged in either of the following:
(1) The business of buying timber from its grower for the purposes of sawing it into lumber, processing it, or reselling it;
(2) Land-clearing, as "land-clearing" is defined in rules.
"Timber buyer" does not include a person who purchases timber for the purposes of sawing or processing it for the person's own use and not for resale, provided that the person does not purchase timber more frequently than the interval established in rules or in greater amounts than the amounts specified in rules.
Sec. 1503.51. Not later than July 1, 2004, the chief of the division of forestry shall establish a program for the licensure of timber buyers.
On and after July 1, 2004, no person shall act as a timber buyer unless the person holds a valid timber buyer license issued by the chief. A person who wishes to obtain a timber buyer license shall file an application with the chief on a form that the chief prescribes and provides. The application shall include the applicant's name, the names of the applicant's principal officers if the applicant is a corporation, the names of the applicant's partners if the applicant is a partnership, the location of any principal office or place of business of the applicant, the counties in this state in which the applicant proposes to engage in business as a timber buyer, and any additional information that the chief requires.
An applicant shall include with an application a filing fee of one hundred dollars plus an additional five-dollar fee for a timber buyer identification card. The chief shall deposit fees collected under this section in the state treasury to the credit of the state forest fund created in section 1503.05 of the Revised Code.
Upon receipt of a completed application together with the one-hundred-dollar fee and the five-dollar fee, the chief shall issue a license and a timber buyer identification card to the applicant, except that the chief shall not issue a license or timber buyer identification card to an applicant who has violated section 1503.56 or 1503.57 of the Revised Code by failing to pay a fee established in those sections. The license and identification card shall be valid for one year and may be renewed in the same manner that an initial license and identification card are applied for and issued.
Sec. 1503.52. (A) A timber buyer shall post a copy of that person's valid timber buyer license in the timber buyer's principal office in this state.
(B) When engaged in buying timber, a timber buyer shall carry on the timber buyer's person a valid timber buyer identification card. Upon the request of the chief of the division of forestry, the chief's authorized representative, a sheriff, a deputy sheriff, or any other peace officer, a timber buyer shall present the identification card for inspection. No person charged with violating this division shall be convicted if the person produces in court satisfactory evidence that a timber buyer identification card that was valid at the time of the violation had been issued to the person.
Sec. 1503.53. (A) No timber buyer shall do any of the following:
(1) Knowingly fail to pay for any timber purchased as agreed to with the seller;
(2) Knowingly cut or cause to be cut or appropriate any timber without the consent of the timber grower;
(3) Knowingly make any false statement in connection with an application for a timber buyer license or any other information that is required under sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code;
(4) Knowingly fail to accurately account for timber for purposes of calculating the sustainable forestry fee established under section 1503.56 of the Revised Code;
(5) Commit any act in connection with the cutting or purchase of timber with purpose to defraud or deceive;
(6) Violate sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code or rules.
(B) No person shall resist or obstruct the chief of the division of forestry or the chief's authorized representatives in the administration or enforcement of sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code or rules.
Sec. 1503.54. The chief of the division of forestry may inspect at any reasonable time the premises used by a timber buyer in the conduct of the timber buyer's business. During business hours, the books, accounts, records, and papers that are used in the conduct of the timber buyer's business are subject to inspection by the chief. A timber buyer shall retain the books, accounts, records, and papers that pertain to buying timber for a period of three years after the timber is bought.
Sec. 1503.55. The chief of the division of forestry may suspend or revoke the timber buyer license of any person who violates sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code or rules. In addition, the chief may refuse to issue a timber buyer license and timber buyer identification card to a person whose license has been suspended or revoked for a period not to exceed five years following the suspension or revocation.
The chief, by application to a court of competent jurisdiction, may seek, and the court may issue, an injunction restraining a timber buyer who engages in the business of buying timber in this state and who does not hold a valid timber buyer license from continuing to engage in that business until the person obtains a valid timber buyer license. Upon refusal or neglect to obey the order of the court, the court may compel compliance by initiating proceedings for contempt.
Sec. 1503.56. (A) On and after July 1, 2004, each timber buyer who engages in buying timber in this state shall pay a sustainable forestry fee. Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, the amount of the fee shall be equal to six per cent of the value, as determined by the sale price, of the timber involved in a transaction.
The timber buyer shall include with the fee a report describing the timber transaction that is the basis of the fee. The report shall be made on forms prescribed and provided by the chief of the division of forestry and shall include information specified by rules. The timber buyer shall post a copy of the report in a conspicuous place at the harvest site.
(B) In the case of a timber buyer who engages in the business of land-clearing forest land, as "land-clearing" is defined in rules, the timber buyer shall pay a sustainable forestry fee in an amount that is equal to six per cent of the gross value of the standing timber before its harvest. The timber buyer shall include with the fee a list on forms that the chief prescribes and provides. The list shall specify the size and species of the timber removed together with its gross value as standing timber. If the chief disputes the gross value assigned to the timber, the chief may cause an investigation to be made into the actual gross value of the timber.
A sustainable forestry fee is not due under this division for the clearing of land that does not consist of forest land.
(C) Prior to harvesting timber, a timber buyer shall submit the sustainable forestry fee together with the report or the list, as appropriate, that are required under this section to the chief in accordance with procedures established in rules. The chief shall deposit the fee in the state treasury to the credit of the state forest fund created in section 1503.05 of the Revised Code.
(D) The chief shall rebate one-sixth of a sustainable forestry fee that the chief receives to the following persons under the following circumstances:
(1) The owner of the land on which timber was harvested, provided that the landowner supplies the chief with documentation that either a professional forester planned and administered the harvest or a trained logger was utilized in the harvest of the timber;
(2) The timber buyer, provided that the timber buyer supplies the chief with any information about the harvest that is encouraged under section 1511.02 of the Revised Code and that a trained logger and management practices to protect water quality were utilized in the harvest of the timber.
For purposes of division (D) of this section, in order to be considered a professional forester or a trained logger, a person shall satisfy the standards established in rules.
Sec. 1503.57. A landowner who converts land use from forest land to nonforest land that is not used for agriculture shall pay a per-acre conversion fee to the chief of the division of forestry. The fee shall be submitted in an amount and in accordance with procedures and other requirements established by rules. The chief shall deposit the fee in the state treasury to the credit of the state forest fund created in section 1503.05 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1503.58. (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the chief of the division of forestry shall adopt rules that do all of the following:
(1) Establish procedures, eligibility criteria, and any other provisions that are necessary for the administration of a cost-share program under which the state may share the costs to private forest landowners of enhancing the sustainability of the forest resource in this state;
(2) Establish procedures, eligibility criteria, and any other provisions that are necessary for the administration of a grant program for the purpose of enhancing the sustainability and economic development of the forest resource in this state;
(3) Define "land-clearing" for purposes of sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code;
(4) Establish the maximum frequency and amount of timber purchases that a person may make for the person's own use without being considered to be a timber buyer;
(5) Specify the information that must be included in the report that is required to be submitted with a sustainable forestry fee under section 1503.56 of the Revised Code and establish procedures for submitting the report together with procedures for submitting the list that is required under that section;
(6) Establish standards that a person must meet in order to be considered to be a professional forester or a trained logger for purposes of section 1503.56 of the Revised Code;
(7) Establish the amount of the per-acre conversion fee that is required under section 1503.57 of the Revised Code and establish procedures for submitting the fee and any other requirements that are necessary to administer that section.
(B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the chief may adopt any additional rules that the chief considers necessary to administer sections 1503.50 to 1503.58 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1503.99. (A) Whoever violates section 1503.01 or 1503.12 of
the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.
(B) Whoever violates section 1503.18 or 1503.43 of the Revised Code is guilty
of a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(C) Whoever violates section 1503.53 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Whoever knowingly violates that section during a time period when the person does not possess a valid timber buyer license because the person's license has been suspended or revoked or the chief of the division of forestry has refused to issue a license under section 1503.55 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.
Sec. 1509.06. An application for a permit to drill a new
well, drill an existing well deeper, reopen a well, convert a
well
to any use other than its original purpose, or plug back a
well to
a different source of supply shall be filed with the
chief of the
division of mineral resources
management upon such form as the
chief
prescribes and shall contain each of the following that is
applicable:
(A) The name and address of the owner and, if a
corporation,
the name and address of the statutory agent;
(B) The signature of the owner or the owner's authorized
agent.
When an authorized agent signs an application, it shall be
accompanied by a certified copy of the appointment as such
agent.
(C) The names and addresses of all persons holding the
royalty interest in the tract upon which the well is located or
is
to be drilled or within a proposed drilling unit;
(D) The location of the tract or drilling unit on which
the
well is located or is to be drilled identified by section or
lot
number, city, village, township, and county;
(E) Designation of the well by name and number;
(F) The geological formation to be tested or used and the
proposed total depth of the well;
(G) The type of drilling equipment to be used;
(H) If the well is for the injection of a liquid, identity
of the geological formation to be used as the injection zone and
the composition of the liquid to be injected;
(I) A sworn statement that all requirements of any
municipal
corporation, county, or township having jurisdiction
over any
activity related to the drilling or operation of an oil
or gas
well that have been filed with the division of
mineral resources
management and are in effect at the time the
application is filed,
including, but not limited to, zoning ordinances and resolutions
and the requirements of section 4513.34 of the Revised Code, will
be complied with until abandonment of the well;
(J) A plan for restoration of the land surface disturbed
by
drilling operations. The plan shall provide for compliance
with
the restoration requirements of division (A) of section
1509.072
of the Revised Code and any rules adopted by the chief
pertaining
to that restoration.
(K) A description by name or number of the county,
township,
and municipal corporation roads, streets, and highways
that the
applicant anticipates will be used for access to and
egress from
the well site;
(L) Such other relevant information as the chief
prescribes
by rule.
Each application shall be accompanied by a map, on a scale
not smaller than four hundred feet to the inch, prepared by an
Ohio registered surveyor, showing the location of the well and
containing such other data as may be prescribed by the chief. If
the well is or is to be located within the excavations and
workings of a mine, the map also shall include the location of
the
mine, the name of the mine, and the name of the person
operating
the mine.
The chief shall cause a copy of the weekly circular
prepared
by the division to be provided to the
county engineer of each
county that contains active or proposed
drilling activity. The
weekly circular shall contain, in the
manner prescribed by the
chief, the names of all applicants for
permits, the location of
each well or proposed well, the
information required by division
(K) of this section, and
any
additional information the chief
prescribes.
The chief shall not
issue a permit for at least ten days
after the date of filing of
the application for the permit unless,
upon reasonable cause
shown, the chief waives that period or a
request for
expedited review is
filed under this section.
However,
the chief shall issue a
permit within twenty-one days of
the
filing of the application
unless the chief denies the
application
by order.
An applicant may file a request with the chief for
expedited
review of a permit application if the well is not
or
is not to be
located in a gas storage reservoir or reservoir
protective area,
as "reservoir protective area" is defined in
section 1571.01 of
the Revised Code. If the well is or is to be
located in a coal
bearing township, the application shall be
accompanied by the
affidavit of the landowner prescribed in
section 1509.08 of the
Revised Code.
In addition to a complete application for a permit that meets
the
requirements of this section and the permit fee prescribed by
this section, a
request for expedited review shall be accompanied
by a separate nonrefundable
filing
fee of five hundred dollars.
Upon the filing of a request for
expedited review, the chief shall
cause the county engineer of the county in
which the well
is or is
to be located to be notified of the filing of the permit
application and the request for expedited review by telephone or
other means that in the judgment of the chief
will provide
timely
notice of the application and request. The
chief shall issue a
permit within seven days of the filing of the
request unless the
chief denies the application by order.
Notwithstanding the
provisions of this section governing
expedited review of permit
applications, the chief may refuse to
accept requests for
expedited review if, in the chief's
judgment, the
acceptance of
the requests would prevent the issuance, within
twenty-one days of
their filing, of permits for which
applications are pending.
A well shall be drilled and operated in accordance with the
plans, sworn statements, and other information submitted in the
approved application.
The chief shall issue an order denying a permit if the
chief
finds that there is a substantial risk that the operation
will
result in violations of this chapter or rules adopted
under it
that will present an imminent danger to
public health
or safety or
damage to the environment, provided that where the
chief finds
that terms or conditions to the permit can reasonably
be expected
to prevent such violations, the chief shall issue the
permit
subject to those terms or conditions.
Each application for a permit required by section 1509.05
of
the Revised Code, except an application for a well drilled or
reopened for purposes of section 1509.22 of the Revised Code,
also
shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of two hundred
fifty
dollars.
The chief may order the immediate suspension of drilling,
operating, or plugging activities after finding that
any person is
causing, engaging in, or maintaining a condition or activity
that
in the chief's judgment presents an
imminent danger to
public
health or safety or results in or is likely to result in
immediate
substantial damage to natural resources or for
nonpayment of the
fee required by this section. The chief may
order the immediate
suspension of the drilling or reopening of a
well in a coal
bearing
township after determining that the drilling or reopening
activities present
an imminent and substantial threat to public
health or safety or to miners'
health or safety. Before issuing
any
such order, the chief shall notify the owner in such manner as
in
the chief's judgment would provide reasonable notification that
the chief intends to issue a suspension order. The chief may
issue such
an order without prior notification if reasonable
attempts to
notify the owner have failed, but in such an event
notification
shall be given as soon thereafter as practical.
Within five
calendar days after the issuance of the order, the
chief shall
provide the owner an opportunity to be heard and to
present
evidence that the condition or activity is not likely to
result
in immediate substantial damage to natural resources or
does not
present an imminent danger to public health or safety or
to miners' health
or safety, if applicable.
In the case of
activities in a coal bearing township, if the chief, after
considering evidence presented by the owner, determines that the
activities do
not present such a threat, the chief shall revoke
the suspension
order. Notwithstanding any provision of this
chapter, the owner
may
appeal a suspension order directly to the
court of common
pleas of the
county in which the activity is
located or, if in a coal bearing township,
to the
reclamation
commission under section 1513.13 of the Revised
Code.
Sec. 1509.08. Upon receipt of an application for a permit
required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code, or upon receipt
of an application for a permit to plug and abandon under section
1509.13 of the Revised Code, the chief of the division of mineral
resources
management shall determine whether the well
is
or is to
be located in a
coal bearing township.
Whether or not the well is or is to be located in a coal
bearing township, the chief, by order, may refuse to issue a
permit required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code to any
applicant who at the time of applying for the permit is in
material or substantial violation of this chapter or rules
adopted
or orders issued under it. The chief shall
refuse to
issue a
permit to any applicant who at the time of applying for
the permit
has been found liable by a final nonappealable order
of a court of
competent jurisdiction for damage to streets,
roads, highways,
bridges, culverts, or drainways pursuant to
section 4513.34 or
5577.12 of the Revised Code until the
applicant provides the chief
with evidence of compliance with the
order. No applicant shall
attempt to circumvent this provision
by applying for a permit
under a different name or business
organization name, by
transferring responsibility to another
person or entity, by
abandoning the well or lease, or by any
other similar act.
If the well is not or is not to be located in a coal
bearing
township, or if it is to be located in a coal bearing
township,
but the landowner submits an affidavit
attesting to ownership of
the property in fee simple, including the
coal, and has no
objection to the well, the chief shall issue the permit.
If the application to drill, reopen, or convert concerns a
well that is or is to be located in a coal bearing
township, the
chief immediately
shall notify the owner or lessee of any affected
mine that the
application has
been filed and send to the owner or
lessee two copies of the map
accompanying the application setting
forth the location of the
well.
If the owner or lessee objects to the location of the well
or
objects to any location within fifty feet of the original
location
as a possible site for relocation of the well, the owner
or lessee
shall notify the chief
of the objection, giving the reasons for
the objection
and, if applicable, indicating on a copy of the map
the particular location or
locations within fifty
feet of the
original location to which the owner or lessee
objects as a site
for possible relocation of the well, within six days after
the
receipt of the notice. If the chief receives no objections from
the owner
or lessee of the mine
within ten days after the receipt
of the notice by the owner or
lessee, or if in the opinion of the
chief the objections offered by
the owner or
lessee are not
sufficiently
well founded, the chief immediately shall notify
the
owner or lessee of those findings. The owner or lessee
may appeal
the decision of the chief
to the
reclamation oil and gas commission under
section
1513.13 1509.36 of the
Revised
Code. The appeal shall be filed
within fifteen days,
notwithstanding provisions in divisions
(A)(1) of section 1513.13
1509.36 of the Revised Code, to the contrary,
from
the
date on which the
owner or lessee receives the notice.
If
the
appeal is not filed
within that time, the chief immediately
shall
approve the
application and issue the permit if the
provisions of
this chapter
pertaining to the issuance of such a
permit have been
complied
with.
If the chief receives an
objection
from the owner or lessee
of the mine as to the location of the
well within ten days after
receipt of the notice by the owner or
lessee, and if in the
opinion of the chief the objection is well
founded, the chief
shall disapprove the application and
suggest a new
location for
the well, provided that the suggested new location
shall not be a
location within fifty feet of the original
location to which the
owner or lessee has objected as a site for
possible relocation of
the well if the chief has determined that
the objection is well
founded. The chief immediately shall notify
the applicant
for the
permit of
the disapproval and any suggestion as to a new location
for the well. The
applicant may withdraw the application or amend
the application
to drill the well at the location suggested by the
chief, or the applicant
may
appeal the disapproval of the
application by the chief to
the
reclamation
commission.
If the chief receives no
objection
from the owner or lessee
of a mine as to the location of the
well, but does receive an
objection from the owner or lessee as
to one or more locations
within fifty feet of the original
location as possible sites for
relocation of the well within ten
days after receipt of the notice
by the owner or lessee, and if
in the opinion of the chief the
objection is well founded,
the chief nevertheless shall approve
the application and issue a permit if the
provisions of this
chapter
pertaining to the issuance of such a permit have been
complied
with, incorporating as a term or condition of the permit
that the
applicant is prohibited from commencing drilling at any
location
within fifty feet of the original location that has been
disapproved by the chief. The
applicant may appeal to the
reclamation commission the terms and conditions
of
the permit
prohibiting the commencement of drilling at any
such
location
disapproved by the chief.
Any such appeal shall be filed within fifteen days,
notwithstanding provisions in division (A)(1) of section 1513.13
1509.36 of the Revised Code to the contrary, from the
date the applicant
receives notice of the disapproval of the
application, any other
location within fifty feet of the original
location, or terms or
conditions of the permit, or the owner or
lessee receives notice
of the chief's decision. No approval or
disapproval of an
application shall be delayed by the chief for more than
fifteen
days from the
date
of sending the notice of the application to the
mine owner or lessee
as required by this section.
All appeals provided for in this section shall be treated
as
expedited appeals. The
reclamation
commission shall hear any
such appeal in accordance with section
1513.13 1509.36 of the Revised
Code and
issue
a
decision
within thirty days of the filing of the
notice of appeal.
The chief shall not issue a
permit to drill a new well or
reopen a well that is or is
to be located within three hundred
feet of any opening of any mine used
as a means of ingress,
egress, or ventilation for persons
employed in the mine, nor
within one hundred feet of any
building or
inflammable structure
connected with the mine and
actually used as a part of the
operating equipment of the mine, unless the
chief determines that
life or property
will
not be endangered by drilling and operating
the well in that
location.
Sec. 1513.02. (A) The division of mineral
resources management shall
administer, enforce, and implement this chapter. The chief of
the division of mineral resources
management shall do all of the following:
(1) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules:
(a) To administer and enforce this chapter;
(b) To implement the requirements of this chapter for the
reclamation of lands affected by coal mining, including such
rules governing mining practices and procedures, segregation and
placement of soil and topsoil, backfilling, grading, terracing,
resoiling, soil conditioning and reconditioning, planting,
establishment of drainage patterns, construction of impoundments,
and the construction, maintenance, and disposition of haul roads,
ditches, and dikes, as may be necessary or desirable, under
varying conditions of slope, drainage, physical and chemical
characteristics of soil and overburden, erodability of materials,
season, growth characteristics of plants, and other factors
affecting coal mining and reclamation, to facilitate the return
of the land to a condition required by this chapter; to prevent
pollution or substantial diminution of waters of the state,
substantial erosion, substantial deposition of sediment,
landslides, accumulation and discharge of acid water, and
flooding, both during mining and reclamation and thereafter; to
restore the recharge capacity of the mined area to approximate
premining conditions; and to ensure full compliance with all
requirements of this chapter relating to reclamation, and the
attainment of those objectives in the interest of the public
health, safety, and welfare to which these reclamation
requirements are directed;
(c) To meet the requirements of the "Surface Mining
Control and Reclamation Act of 1977," 91 Stat. 445, 30 U.S.C.
1201.
(2) Issue orders to enforce this chapter and rules adopted
under it;
(3) Adopt rules for the internal management of the
division that do not affect private rights;
(4) Adopt programs, rules, and procedures designed to
assist the coal operator in this state with the permitting
process and complying with the environmental standards of this
chapter. Upon request of the applicant for a permit, the chief
shall make a determination of the probable hydrologic
consequences required in division (B)(2)(1)(k) of section 1513.07 of
the Revised Code within sixty days after a permit has been
submitted to the division for those applications requesting the
chief to perform the study. The chief shall perform the chemical
analysis of test borings or core samplings for operators who have
a total annual production of coal at all locations that does not
exceed one hundred thousand tons.
(5) Adopt programs, rules, and procedures designed to
ensure that reclamation is performed on operations for which the
performance bond has been forfeited pursuant to section 1513.16
of the Revised Code;
(6) Receive, administer, and expend moneys obtained from
the United States department of the interior and other federal
agencies to implement the state's permanent coal regulatory
program;
(7)(a) Regulate the beneficial use of coal
combustion byproducts at coal mining and reclamation operations
and abandoned mine lands that are regulated under this chapter
and rules adopted under it. The beneficial use of coal
combustion byproducts at such coal mining and reclamation
operations and abandoned mine lands is subject to all applicable
performance standards and requirements established under this
chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without
limitation, standards and requirements established under section
1513.16 of the Revised
Code and rules adopted pursuant
to it.
The beneficial use of coal combustion byproducts that is
authorized at coal mining and reclamation operations and
abandoned mine lands that are regulated under this chapter and
rules adopted under it is not subject to the following
provisions of Chapters 3734.
and 6111. of the Revised
Code and rules adopted under
those provisions:
(i) Permit and license requirements for solid
waste facilities established under sections 3734.02 and 3734.05
of the Revised
Code;
(ii) The prohibition against the open dumping of
solid wastes established in section 3734.03 of the
Revised
Code;
(iii) Solid waste generation and disposal fees
established under sections 3734.57 to 3734.574 of the
Revised
Code;
(iv) Permit to install and plan approval
requirements established under sections 6111.03, 6111.44, and
6111.45 of the Revised
Code.
Nothing in division
(A)(7) of this section shall be
construed to limit any other requirements that are applicable to
the beneficial use of coal combustion byproducts and that are
established under Chapter
3704., 3714., 3734., or 6111. of the
Revised
Code or under local or federal
laws, including, without limitation, requirements governing air
pollution control permits, hazardous waste, national pollutant
discharge elimination system permits, and section 401 water
quality certifications.
(b) As used in division
(A)(7) of this section:
(i) "Coal combustion byproducts" means fly ash,
bottom ash, coal slag, flue gas desulphurization and fluidized
bed combustion byproducts, air or water pollution control
residues from the operation of a coal-fired electric or steam
generation facility, and any material from a clean coal
technology demonstration project or other innovative process at
a coal-fired electric or steam generation facility.
(ii) "Beneficial use" means the use
of coal combustion byproducts in a manner that is not equivalent
to the establishment of a disposal system or a solid waste
disposal facility and that is unlikely to affect human health or
safety or the environment adversely or to degrade the existing
quality of the land, air, or water. "Beneficial use" includes,
without limitation, land application uses for agronomic value;
land reclamation uses; and discrete, controlled uses for
structural fill, pavement aggregate, pipe bedding aggregate,
mine sealing, alternative drainage or capping material, and
pilot demonstration projects.
(iii) "Structural fill" means the discrete,
controlled use of a coal combustion byproduct as a substitute
for a conventional aggregate, raw material, or soil under or
immediately adjacent to a building or structure. "Structural
fill" does not include uses that involve general filling or
grading operations or valley fills.
(iv) "Pavement aggregate" means the discrete,
controlled use of a coal combustion byproduct as a subbase
material or drainage layer under or immediately adjacent to a
paved road or a paved parking lot where the coal combustion
byproduct is a substitute for a conventional aggregate, raw
material, or soil.
(v) "Pipe bedding aggregate" means
the discrete, controlled use of a coal combustion byproduct as a
substitute for a conventional aggregate, raw material, or soil
under, around, or immediately adjacent to a water, sewer, or
other pipeline.
(vi) "Coal-fired electric or steam generation
facility" includes any boiler that is fired with coal or with
coal in combination with petroleum coke, oil, natural gas, or
any other fossil fuel.
(vii) "Solid waste disposal facility" means a
facility for the disposal of solid wastes as provided in
Chapter 3734. of the
Revised
Code and rules adopted under
it.
(viii) "Disposal system" has the same meaning as
in section 6111.01 of the
Revised
Code.
(B) The chief, by rule, may designate as unsuitable for
coal mining natural areas maintained on the registry of natural
areas of the department of natural resources pursuant to
Chapter 1517. of the Revised Code, wild,
scenic, or recreational river
areas designated pursuant to that
chapter, publicly owned or dedicated parks, and other areas of unique and
irreplaceable natural beauty or condition, or areas within
specified distances of a public road, occupied dwelling, public
building, school, church, community, or institutional building,
public park, or cemetery. Such a designation may include land
adjacent to the perimeters of those areas that may be necessary to
protect their integrity.
(C)(1) The adoption, amendment, and rescission of rules
under divisions (A)(1) and (B) of this section are subject to
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(2) The issuance of orders under division (A)(2) of this
section and appeals therefrom are not governed by or subject to
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, but are governed by this
chapter.
(D)(1) When the chief or an authorized representative of
the chief determines that any condition or practice exists or that any
permittee is in violation of any requirement of this chapter or
any permit condition required by this chapter, which condition,
practice, or violation creates an imminent danger to the health
or safety of the public or is causing, or can reasonably be
expected to cause, significant, imminent environmental harm to
land, air, or water resources, the chief or the authorized
representative immediately shall order the cessation of coal
mining and reclamation operations or the portion thereof relevant
to the condition, practice, or violation. The cessation order
shall remain in effect until the chief or the authorized
representative determines that the condition, practice, or
violation has been abated or until the order is modified,
vacated, or terminated by the chief or the authorized
representative pursuant to division (D)(4) of this section or by
the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section
1513.13 of the Revised Code. When the chief or the
authorized representative finds that the ordered cessation
of coal mining
and reclamation operations or any portion thereof will not
completely abate the imminent danger to the health or safety of the
public or the significant, imminent environmental harm to land,
air, or water resources, the chief or the authorized
representative, in addition to the cessation order, shall order
the operator to take whatever steps the chief or the
authorized representative considers necessary to abate the imminent danger
or the significant environmental harm.
(2) When the chief or an authorized representative of
the chief determines that any person is in violation of any requirement of
this chapter or any permit condition required by this chapter,
but the violation does not create an imminent danger to the
health or safety of the public or cannot reasonably be expected
to cause significant, imminent environmental harm to land, air,
or water resources, the chief or the authorized
representative
shall issue a notice of violation to the person or the
person's agent fixing a reasonable time for the abatement of the
violation,
provided that the time afforded a person to abate the violation
shall not exceed the time limitations prescribed by the secretary
of the interior in 30 C.F.R. Part 843 for an approvable state
regulatory program under the "Surface Mining Control and
Reclamation Act of 1977," 91 Stat. 445, 30 U.S.C. 1201.
If, upon expiration of the period of time as originally
fixed or subsequently extended for good cause shown and upon the
written finding of the chief or the authorized representative, the chief or
the authorized
representative finds that the
violation has not been abated, the chief or the authorized
representative immediately shall order the
cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations or the
portion thereof relevant to the violation. The cessation order
shall remain in effect until the chief or the authorized
representative determines that the violation has been abated or
until the order is modified, vacated, or terminated by the chief
or the authorized representative pursuant to division (D)(4)
of
this section or by the reclamation environmental review appeals commission
pursuant to
section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. In a cessation order issued
under division (D)(2) of this section, the chief
or the authorized
representative
shall prescribe the steps necessary to abate the violation in the
most expeditious manner possible.
(3) When in the judgment of the chief or an authorized
representative of the chief a pattern of violations of any
requirements of
this chapter or any permit conditions required by this chapter
exists or has existed and the violations are caused by the
unwarranted failure of the permittee to comply with any
requirements of this chapter or any permit conditions or are
willfully caused by the permittee, the chief or the
authorized
representative immediately shall issue an order to the permittee
to show cause why the permit should not be suspended or revoked.
If a hearing is requested, the chief shall inform all interested
parties of the time and place of the hearing and conduct the
hearing pursuant to division (D) of section 1513.13 of the
Revised Code. Upon the permittee's failure to show cause
why the permit should not be suspended or revoked, the chief or
the authorized representative immediately shall suspend or
revoke
the permit.
(4) Notices of violation and orders issued pursuant to
this section shall set forth with reasonable specificity the
nature of the violation and the remedial action required, the
period of time established for abatement, and a reasonable
description of the portion of the coal mining and reclamation
operation to which the notice or order applies. Each notice or
order issued under this section shall be given promptly to the
alleged violator or the agent of the alleged violator
by the chief or an authorized
representative of the chief who issues the notice or order. Notices
and orders shall be in writing and shall be signed by the chief or the
authorized representative and may be modified,
vacated, or
terminated by the chief or the authorized representative.
Any notice or order issued pursuant to this section that requires
cessation of mining by the operator shall expire within thirty
days after actual notice to the operator unless a public hearing
pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code is held at the
site or within such reasonable proximity to the site that any
viewings of the site can be conducted during the course of the public
hearing.
(E)(1) A person who violates a permit condition or any
other provision of this chapter may be assessed a civil penalty
by the chief, except that if the violation leads to the issuance
of a cessation order under division (D) of this section, the
civil penalty shall be assessed for each day until the person
initiates the necessary corrective steps. The penalty shall not
exceed five thousand dollars for each violation. Each day of
continuing violation may be deemed a separate violation for
purposes of penalty assessments. In determining the amount of
the penalty, consideration shall be given to the person's history
of previous violation at the particular coal mining operation;
the seriousness of the violation, including any irreparable harm
to the environment and any hazard to the health or safety of the
public; whether the person was negligent; and the demonstrated
diligence of the person charged in attempting to achieve rapid
compliance after notification of the violation.
(2) A civil penalty shall be assessed by the chief only
after the person charged with a violation under division
(E)(1)
of this section has been given an opportunity for a public
hearing. If a person charged with such a violation fails to
avail oneself of the opportunity for a public hearing, a
civil penalty shall be assessed by the chief after the chief has
determined that a violation did occur, and the amount of the
penalty that is warranted, and has issued an order
requiring
that the penalty be paid.
(3) Upon the issuance of a notice or order charging that a
violation of this chapter has occurred, the chief shall inform
the operator within thirty days of the proposed amount of the
penalty and provide opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing
pursuant to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. The person
charged with the penalty then shall have thirty days to pay the
proposed penalty in full or, if the person wishes to contest
either the amount of the penalty or the fact of the violation,
file a petition for review of the proposed assessment with the
secretary of the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant
to section
1513.13 of the Revised Code. If, after the hearing, the
commission
affirms or modifies the proposed amount of the penalty, the
person charged with the penalty then shall have thirty days after
receipt of the written decision to pay the amount in full or
file an appeal with the court of appeals in accordance with
section 1513.14 of the Revised Code. At the time the petition
for review of the proposed assessment is filed with the
secretary, the person shall forward the amount of the penalty to
the secretary for placement in the reclamation penalty fund,
which is hereby created. The fund shall be in the custody of the
treasurer of state, but shall not be a part of the state treasury.
Pursuant to administrative or judicial review of the penalty, the secretary,
within thirty days, shall remit the appropriate amount of the penalty to the
person, with interest, if it
is determined that no violation occurred or that the amount of
the penalty should be reduced, and the secretary shall forward the
balance of the
penalty or, if the penalty was not reduced, the entire amount of the penalty,
with interest, to the chief for deposit in the coal mining administration and
reclamation reserve fund created in section 1513.181 of the Revised
Code. Failure to forward the money to the secretary within thirty days
after the chief informs the operator of the proposed amount of
the penalty shall result in a waiver of all legal rights to
contest the violation or the amount of the penalty. Within
fifteen days after being informed of the penalty, the person
charged with the penalty may request in writing an informal
assessment conference to review the amount of the penalty. The
conference shall be presided over by the chief or an
individual appointed by the chief other than the inspector that issued
the notice
of violation or order upon which the penalty is based. The chief
shall adopt rules governing procedures to be followed in informal
conferences. Time allowed for payment of the penalty or appeal
to the commission shall be tolled while the penalty is
being reviewed
in an informal conference.
(4) An operator who fails to correct a violation for which
a notice of violation or order has been issued under division (D)
of this section within the period permitted for its correction
shall be assessed a civil penalty of not less than seven hundred
fifty dollars for each day during which the failure or violation
continues. However, a civil penalty shall not be assessed under
division (E)(4) of this section if the commission
orders the suspension of
the abatement
requirement after determining, based upon the findings of an
expedited hearing held under section 1513.13 of the Revised Code
at the request of the operator, that the operator will suffer
irreparable loss or damage from the application of the abatement
requirement or if the court orders suspension of the abatement
requirement pursuant to review proceedings held under section
1513.14 of the Revised Code at the request of the operator.
(F) The chief may enter into a cooperative agreement with
the secretary of the interior to provide for state regulation of
coal mining and reclamation operations on federal lands within
the state.
(G) The chief may prohibit augering if necessary to
maximize the utilization, recoverability, or conservation of the
solid fuel resources or to protect against adverse water quality
impacts.
(H) The chief shall transmit copies of all schedules
submitted under section 1513.07 of the Revised Code pertaining to
violations of air or water quality laws and rules adopted and
orders issued under those laws in connection with
coal mining
operations to the director of environmental protection for
verification.
(I) For the purposes of sections 1513.18, 1513.24,
1513.37, and 1514.06 of the Revised Code, the chief triennially shall
determine the average wage rate for companies performing
reclamation work for the division under those sections by
averaging the wage rate paid by all companies performing such
reclamation work during the three years immediately preceding
the
determination. However, in making the initial determination
under this division, the chief shall average the wage rate paid
by all companies performing such reclamation work during the ten
years immediately preceding October 29, 1995.
Sec. 1513.07. (A)(1) No operator shall conduct a coal
mining operation without a permit for the operation issued by
the chief of the division of mineral resources management.
(2) All permits issued pursuant to this chapter shall be
issued for a term not to exceed five years, except that, if the
applicant demonstrates that a specified longer term is reasonably
needed to allow the applicant to obtain necessary financing for
equipment and the opening of the operation, and if the application
is full and complete for the specified longer term, the chief may
grant a permit for the longer term. A successor in interest to a
permittee who applies for a new permit within thirty days after
succeeding to the interest and who is able to obtain the bond
coverage of the original permittee may continue coal mining and
reclamation operations according to the approved mining and
reclamation plan of the original permittee until the successor's
application is granted or denied.
(3) A permit shall terminate if the permittee has not
commenced the coal mining operations covered by the permit within
three years after the issuance of the permit, except that the
chief may grant reasonable extensions of the time upon a showing
that the extensions are necessary by reason of litigation
precluding the commencement or threatening substantial economic
loss to the permittee, or by reason of conditions beyond the
control and without the fault or negligence of the permittee, and
except that with respect to coal to be mined for use in a
synthetic fuel facility or specified major electric generating
facility, the permittee shall be deemed to have commenced coal
mining operations at the time construction of the synthetic fuel
or generating facility is initiated.
(4)(a) Any permit issued pursuant to this chapter shall
carry with it the right of successive renewal upon expiration
with respect to areas within the boundaries of the permit. The
holders of the permit may apply for renewal and the renewal shall
be issued, unless the chief determines by written findings,
subsequent to fulfillment of the public notice requirements of
this section and section 1513.071 of the Revised Code through
demonstrations by opponents of renewal or otherwise, that one or
more of the following circumstances exists:
(i) The terms and conditions of the existing permit are
not being satisfactorily met;.
(ii) The present coal mining and reclamation operation is
not in compliance with the environmental protection standards of
this chapter;.
(iii) The renewal requested substantially jeopardizes the
operator's continuing responsibilities on existing permit areas;.
(iv) The applicant has not provided evidence that the
performance bond in effect for the operation will continue in
effect for any renewal requested in the application;.
(v) Any additional, revised, or updated information
required by the chief has not been provided. Prior to the
approval of any renewal of a permit, the chief shall provide
notice to the appropriate public authorities as prescribed by
rule of the chief.
(b) If an application for renewal of a valid permit
includes a proposal to extend the mining operation beyond the
boundaries authorized in the existing permit, the portion of the
application for renewal of a valid permit that addresses any new
land areas shall be subject to the full standards applicable to
new applications under this chapter.
(c) A permit renewal shall be for a term not to exceed the
period of the original permit established by this chapter.
Application for permit renewal shall be made at least one hundred
twenty days prior to the expiration of the valid permit.
(5) A permit issued pursuant to this chapter does not
eliminate the requirements for obtaining a permit to install or
modify a disposal system or any part thereof or to discharge
sewage, industrial waste, or other wastes into the waters of the
state in accordance with Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) Each application for a coal mining and reclamation
permit or renewal of such a permit shall be accompanied by a
permit or renewal fee in an amount equal to the product of
seventy-five dollars multiplied by the number of acres, estimated
in the application, that will comprise the area of land to be
affected within the permit or renewal period by the coal mining
operation for which the permit or renewal is requested.
(2) The permit application shall be submitted in a manner
satisfactory to the chief and shall contain, among other things, all of the
following:
(a) The names and addresses of all of the following:
(i) The permit applicant;
(ii) Every legal owner of record of the property, surface
and mineral, to be mined;
(iii) The holders of record of any leasehold interest in
the property;
(iv) Any purchaser of record of the property under a real
estate contract;
(v) The operator if different from the applicant;
(vi) If any of these are business entities other than a
single proprietor, the names and addresses of the principals,
officers, and statutory agent for service of process.
(b) The names and addresses of the owners of record of all
surface and subsurface areas adjacent to any part of the permit
area;
(c) A statement of any current or previous coal mining
permits in the United States held by the applicant, the permit
identification, and any pending applications;
(d) If the applicant is a partnership, corporation,
association, or other business entity, the following where
applicable: the names and addresses of every officer, partner,
director, or person performing a function similar to a director,
of the applicant, the name and address of any person owning, of
record, ten per cent or more of any class of voting stock of the
applicant, a list of all names under which the applicant,
partner, or principal shareholder previously operated a coal
mining operation within the United States within the five-year
period preceding the date of submission of the application, and a
list of the person or persons primarily responsible for ensuring
that the applicant complies with the requirements of this chapter
and rules adopted pursuant thereto while mining and reclaiming
under the permit;
(e) A statement of whether the applicant, any subsidiary,
affiliate, or persons controlled by or under common control with
the applicant, any partner if the applicant is a partnership, any
officer, principal shareholder, or director if the applicant is a
corporation, or any other person who has a right to control or in
fact controls the management of the applicant or the selection of
officers, directors, or managers of the applicant:
(i) Has ever held a federal or state coal mining permit
that in the five-year period prior to the date of submission of
the application has been suspended or revoked or has had a coal
mining bond or similar security deposited in lieu of bond
forfeited and, if so, a brief explanation of the facts involved;
(ii) Has been an officer, partner, director, principal
shareholder, or person having the right to control or has in fact
controlled the management of or the selection of officers,
directors, or managers of a business entity that has had a coal
mining or surface mining permit that in the five-year period
prior to the date of submission of the application has been
suspended or revoked or has had a coal mining or surface mining
bond or similar security deposited in lieu of bond forfeited and,
if so, a brief explanation of the facts involved.
(f) A copy of the applicant's advertisement to be
published in a newspaper of general circulation in the locality
of the proposed site at least once a week for four successive
weeks, which shall include the ownership of the proposed mine, a
description of the exact location and boundaries of the proposed
site sufficient to make the proposed operation readily
identifiable by local residents, and the location where the
application is available for public inspection;
(g) A description of the type and method of coal mining
operation that exists or is proposed, the engineering techniques
proposed or used, and the equipment used or proposed to be used;
(h) The anticipated or actual starting and termination
dates of each phase of the mining operation and number of acres
of land to be affected;
(i) An accurate map or plan, to an appropriate scale,
clearly showing the land to be affected and the land upon which the applicant
has the legal right to enter and commence coal mining
operations, copies of those documents upon which is based the applicant's
legal right to enter and
commence coal mining
operations, and a statement whether that right is the subject of
pending litigation. This chapter does not authorize the chief to
adjudicate property title disputes.
(j) The name of the watershed and location of the surface
stream or tributary into which drainage from the operation will
be discharged;
(k) A determination of the probable hydrologic
consequences of the mining and reclamation operations, both on
and off the mine site, with respect to the hydrologic regime,
providing information on the quantity and quality of water in
surface and ground water systems including the dissolved and
suspended solids under seasonal flow conditions and the
collection of sufficient data for the mine site and surrounding
areas so that an assessment can be made by the chief of the
probable cumulative impacts of all anticipated mining in the area
upon the hydrology of the area and particularly upon water
availability, but this determination shall not be required until
hydrologic information of the general area prior to mining is
made available from an appropriate federal or state agency;
however, the permit shall not be approved until the information
is available and is incorporated into the application;
(l) When requested by the chief, the climatological
factors that are peculiar to the locality of the land to be
affected, including the average seasonal precipitation, the
average direction and velocity of prevailing winds, and the
seasonal temperature ranges;
(m) Accurate maps prepared by or under the direction of
and certified by a qualified registered professional engineer,
registered surveyor, or licensed landscape architect to an
appropriate scale clearly showing all types of information set
forth on topographical maps of the United States geological
survey of a scale of not more than four hundred feet to the inch,
including all artificial features and significant known
archeological sites. The map, among other things specified
by the chief, shall show all boundaries of the land to be affected, the
boundary lines and names of present owners of record of all
surface areas abutting the permit area, and the location of all
buildings within one thousand feet of the permit area.
(n)(i) Cross-section maps or plans of the land to be
affected including the actual area to be mined, prepared by or
under the direction of and certified by a qualified registered
professional engineer or certified professional geologist with
assistance from experts in related fields such as hydrology,
hydrogeology, geology, and landscape architecture, showing
pertinent elevations and locations of test borings or core
samplings and depicting the following information: the nature
and depth of the various strata of overburden; the nature and
thickness of any coal or rider seam above the coal seam to be
mined; the nature of the stratum immediately beneath the coal
seam to be mined; all mineral crop lines and the strike and dip
of the coal to be mined within the area to be affected; existing
or previous coal mining limits; the location and extent of known
workings of any underground mines, including mine openings to the
surface; the location of spoil, waste, or refuse areas and
topsoil preservation areas; the location of all impoundments for
waste or erosion control; any settling or water treatment
facility; constructed or natural drainways and the location of
any discharges to any surface body of water on the land to be
affected or adjacent thereto; profiles at appropriate cross
sections of the anticipated final surface configuration that will
be achieved pursuant to the operator's proposed reclamation plan;
the location of subsurface water, if encountered; the location
and quality of aquifers; and the estimated elevation of the water
table. Registered surveyors shall be allowed to perform all
plans, maps, and certifications under this chapter as they are
authorized under Chapter 4733. of the Revised Code.
(ii) A statement of the quality and locations of
subsurface water. The chief shall provide by rule the number of
locations to be sampled, frequency of collection, and parameters
to be analyzed to obtain the statement required.
(o) A statement of the results of test borings or core
samplings from the permit area, including logs of the drill
holes, the thickness of the coal seam found, an analysis of the
chemical properties of the coal, the sulfur content of any coal
seam, chemical analysis of potentially acid or toxic forming
sections of the overburden, and chemical analysis of the stratum
lying immediately underneath the coal to be mined, except that
this division may be waived by the chief with respect to the
specific application by a written determination that its
requirements are unnecessary;
(p) For those lands in the permit application that a
reconnaissance inspection suggests may be prime farmlands, a soil
survey shall be made or obtained according to standards
established by the secretary of the United States department of
agriculture in order to confirm the exact location of the prime
farmlands, if any;
(q) A certificate issued by an insurance company
authorized to do business in this state certifying that the
applicant has a public liability insurance policy in force for
the coal mining and reclamation operations for which the permit
is sought or evidence that the applicant has satisfied other
state self-insurance requirements. The policy shall provide for
personal injury and property damage protection in an amount
adequate to compensate any persons damaged as a result of coal
mining and reclamation operations, including the use of
explosives, and entitled to compensation under the applicable
provisions of state law. The policy shall be maintained in
effect during the term of the permit or any renewal, including
the length of all reclamation operations. The insurance company
shall give prompt notice to the permittee and the chief if the public
liability insurance policy lapses for any reason, including the
nonpayment of insurance premiums. Upon the lapse of the policy,
the chief may suspend the permit and all other outstanding
permits until proper insurance coverage is obtained.
(r) The business telephone number of the applicant;
(s) If the applicant seeks an authorization under division
(E)(7) of this section to conduct coal mining and reclamation
operations on areas to be covered by the permit that were
affected by coal mining operations before August 3, 1977, that
have resulted in continuing water pollution from or on the
previously mined areas, such additional information pertaining to
those previously mined areas as may be required by the chief,
including, without limitation, maps, plans, cross sections, data
necessary to determine existing water quality from or on those
areas with respect to pH, iron, and manganese, and a pollution
abatement plan that may improve water quality from or on those
areas with respect to pH, iron, and manganese.
(3)(2) Information pertaining to coal seams, test borings,
core samplings, or soil samples as required by this section shall
be made available by the chief to any person with an interest
that is or may be adversely affected, except that information
that pertains only to the analysis of the chemical and physical
properties of the coal, excluding information regarding mineral
or elemental content that is potentially toxic in the
environment, shall be kept confidential and not made a matter of
public record.
(4)(3)(a) If the chief finds that the probable total annual
production at all locations of any operator will not exceed three
hundred thousand tons, the
following activities, upon the
written request of the operator in connection with a permit application, shall
be performed by a qualified
public or private laboratory or another public or private qualified entity
designated by the chief, and the cost of the activities shall be assumed by
the chief, provided that sufficient moneys for such assistance are available:
(i) The determination of probable hydrologic consequences required under
division (B)(2)(1)(k) of this section;
(ii) The development of cross-section maps and plans required under division
(B)(2)(1)(n)(i) of this section;
(iii) The geologic drilling and statement of results of test borings and core
samplings required under division (B)(2)(1)(o) of this section;
(iv) The collection of archaeological information required under division
(B)(2)(1)(m) of this section and any other archaeological and historical
information required by the chief, and the preparation of plans necessitated
thereby;
(v) Pre-blast surveys required under division (E) of section 1513.161 of the
Revised Code;
(vi) The collection of site-specific resource information and production of
protection and enhancement plans for fish and wildlife habitats and other
environmental values required by the chief under this chapter.
(b) A coal operator that has received assistance under division (B)(4)(3)(a) of
this section shall reimburse the chief for the cost of the services rendered,
if the chief finds that the operator's actual and attributed annual production
of coal for all locations exceeds three hundred thousand tons during the
twelve months immediately following the date on which the operator was issued
a coal mining and reclamation permit.
(5)(4) Each applicant for a permit shall submit to the chief
as part of the permit application a reclamation plan that meets
the requirements of this chapter.
(6)(5) Each applicant for a coal mining and reclamation
permit shall file a copy of the application for a permit,
excluding that information pertaining to the coal seam itself,
for public inspection with the county recorder or an appropriate
public office approved by the chief in the county where the
mining is proposed to occur.
(7)(6) Each applicant for a coal mining and reclamation
permit shall submit to the chief as part of the permit
application a blasting plan that describes the procedures and
standards by which the operator will comply
with section 1513.161 of the Revised Code.
(C) Each reclamation plan submitted as part of a permit
application shall include, in the detail necessary to demonstrate
that reclamation required by this chapter can be accomplished, a
statement of:
(1) The identification of the lands subject to coal mining
operations over the estimated life of those operations and the
size, sequence, and timing of the subareas for which it is
anticipated that individual permits for mining will be sought;
(2) The condition of the land to be covered by the permit
prior to any mining, including all of the following:
(a) The uses existing at the time of the application and,
if the land has a history of previous mining, the uses that
preceded any mining;
(b) The capability of the land prior to any mining to
support a variety of uses, giving consideration to soil and
foundation characteristics, topography, and vegetative cover and,
if applicable, a soil survey prepared pursuant to division
(B)(2)(1)(p) of this section;
(c) The productivity of the land prior to mining,
including appropriate classification as prime farmlands as well
as the average yield of food, fiber, forage, or wood products
obtained from the land under high levels of management.
(3) The use that is proposed to be made of the land
following reclamation, including information regarding the
utility and capacity of the reclaimed land to support a variety
of alternative uses, the relationship of the proposed use to
existing land use policies and plans, and the comments of any
owner of the land and state and local governments or agencies
thereof that would have to initiate, implement, approve, or
authorize the proposed use of the land following reclamation;
(4) A detailed description of how the proposed postmining
land use is to be achieved and the necessary support activities
that may be needed to achieve the proposed land use;
(5) The engineering techniques proposed to be used in
mining and reclamation and a description of the major equipment;
a plan for the control of surface water drainage and of water
accumulation; a plan, where appropriate, for backfilling, soil
stabilization, and compacting, grading, and appropriate
revegetation; a plan for soil reconstruction, replacement, and
stabilization, pursuant to the performance standards in section
1513.16 of the Revised Code, for those food, forage, and forest
lands identified in that section; and an
estimate of the cost per acre of the reclamation, including a
statement as to how the permittee plans to comply with each of
the requirements set out in section 1513.16 of the Revised Code;
(6) A description of the means by which the utilization
and conservation of the solid fuel resource being recovered will
be maximized so that reaffecting the land in the future can be
minimized;
(7) A detailed estimated timetable for the accomplishment
of each major step in the reclamation plan;
(8) A description of the degree to which the coal mining
and reclamation operations are consistent with surface owner
plans and applicable state and local land use plans and programs;
(9) The steps to be taken to comply with applicable air
and water quality laws and regulations and any applicable health
and safety standards;
(10) A description of the degree to which the reclamation
plan is consistent with local physical, environmental, and
climatological conditions;
(11) A description of all lands, interests in lands, or
options on such interests held by the applicant or pending bids
on interests in lands by the applicant, which lands are
contiguous to the area to be covered by the permit;
(12) The results of test borings that the applicant has
made at the area to be covered by the permit, or other equivalent
information and data in a form satisfactory to the chief,
including the location of subsurface water, and an analysis of
the chemical properties, including acid forming properties of the
mineral and overburden; except that information that pertains
only to the analysis of the chemical and physical properties of
the coal, excluding information regarding mineral or elemental
contents that are potentially toxic in the environment, shall be
kept confidential and not made a matter of public record;
(13) A detailed description of the measures to be taken
during the mining and reclamation process to ensure the
protection of all of the following:
(a) The quality of surface and ground water systems, both
on- and off-site, from adverse effects of the mining and
reclamation process;
(b) The rights of present users to such water;
(c) The quantity of surface and ground water systems, both
on- and off-site, from adverse effects of the mining and
reclamation process or, where such protection of quantity cannot
be assured, provision of alternative sources of water.
(14) Any other requirements the chief prescribes by rule.
(D)(1) Any information required by division (C) of this
section that is not on public file pursuant to this chapter shall
be held in confidence by the chief.
(2) With regard to requests for an exemption from the requirements of this
chapter for coal extraction incidental to the extraction of other minerals, as
described in division (H)(1)(a) of section 1513.01 of the Revised Code,
confidential information includes and is limited to information concerning
trade secrets or privileged commercial or financial information relating to
the competitive rights of the persons intending to conduct the extraction of
minerals.
(E)(1) Upon the basis of a complete mining application and
reclamation plan or a revision or renewal thereof, as required by
this chapter, and information obtained as a result of public
notification and public hearing, if any, as provided by section
1513.071 of the Revised Code, the chief shall grant, require
modification of, or deny the application for a permit in a
reasonable time set by the chief and notify the applicant in
writing. The applicant for a permit or revision of a permit has
the burden of establishing that the application is in
compliance
with all the requirements of this chapter. Within ten days after
the granting of a permit, the chief shall notify the boards of
township trustees and county commissioners, the mayor, and the
legislative authority in the township, county, and municipal
corporation in which the area of land to be affected is located
that a permit has been issued and shall describe the location of
the land. However, failure of the chief to notify the local
officials shall not affect the status of the permit.
(2) No permit application or application for revision of
an existing permit shall be approved unless the application
affirmatively demonstrates and the chief finds in writing on the
basis of the information set forth in the application or from
information otherwise available, which shall be documented
in the
approval and made available to the applicant, all of the
following:
(a) The application is accurate and complete and all
the requirements of this chapter have been complied with.
(b) The applicant has demonstrated that the reclamation
required by this chapter can be accomplished under the
reclamation plan contained in the application.
(c)(i) Assessment of the probable cumulative impact of all
anticipated mining in the general and adjacent area on the
hydrologic balance specified in division (B)(2)(1)(k) of this
section has been made by the chief, and the proposed operation
has been designed to prevent material damage to hydrologic
balance outside the permit area.
(ii) There shall be an ongoing process conducted by the
chief in cooperation with other state and federal agencies to
review all assessments of probable cumulative impact of coal
mining in light of post-mining data and any other hydrologic
information as it becomes available to determine if the
assessments were realistic. The chief shall take appropriate
action as indicated in the review process.
(d) The area proposed to be mined is not included within
an area designated unsuitable for coal mining pursuant to section
1513.073 of the Revised Code or is not within an area under study
for such designation in an administrative proceeding commenced
pursuant to division (A)(3)(c) or (B) of section 1513.073 of the
Revised Code, unless in an area as to which an administrative
proceeding has commenced pursuant to division (A)(3)(c) or (B) of
section 1513.073 of the Revised Code, the operator making the
permit application demonstrates that, prior to January 1, 1977,
the operator made substantial legal and financial commitments
in relation
to the operation for which a permit is
sought.
(e) In cases where the private mineral estate has been
severed from the private surface estate, the applicant has
submitted to the chief one of the following:
(i) The written consent of the surface owner to the
extraction of coal by strip mining methods;
(ii) A conveyance that expressly grants or reserves the
right to extract the coal by strip mining methods;
(iii) If the conveyance does not expressly grant the right
to extract coal by strip mining methods, the surface-subsurface
legal relationship shall be determined under the law of this
state. This chapter does not authorize the chief to adjudicate
property rights disputes.
(3)(a) The applicant shall file with the permit application
a schedule listing all notices of violations of any law, rule, or
regulation of the United States or of any department or agency
thereof or of any state pertaining to air or water environmental
protection incurred by the applicant in connection with any coal
mining operation during the three-year period prior to the date
of application. The schedule also shall indicate the final
resolution of such a notice of violation. Upon receipt of an
application, the chief shall provide a schedule listing all
notices of violations of this chapter pertaining to air or water
environmental protection incurred by the applicant during the
three-year period prior to receipt of the application and the
final resolution of all such notices of violation. The chief
shall provide this schedule to the applicant for filing by the
applicant with the application filed for public review, as
required by division (B)(6)(5) of this section. When the schedule
or other information available to the chief indicates that any
coal mining operation owned or controlled by the applicant is
currently in violation of such laws, the permit shall not be
issued until the applicant submits proof that the violation has
been corrected or is in the process of being corrected to the
satisfaction of the regulatory authority, department, or agency
that has jurisdiction over the violation and that any civil
penalties owed to the state for a violation and not the subject
of an appeal have been paid. No permit shall be issued to an
applicant after a finding by the chief that the applicant or the
operator specified in the application controls or has controlled
mining operations with a demonstrated pattern of willful
violations of this chapter of a nature and duration to result in
irreparable damage to the environment as to indicate an intent
not to comply with or a disregard of this chapter.
(b) For the purposes of division
(E)(3)(a) of this
section, any violation resulting from an unanticipated event or condition at a
surface coal mining operation on lands eligible for remining under a permit
held by the person submitting an application for a coal mining permit under
this section shall not prevent issuance of that permit. As used in this
division, "unanticipated event or condition" means an event or condition
encountered in a remining operation that was not contemplated by the
applicable surface coal mining and reclamation permit.
(4)(a) In addition to finding the application in
compliance with division (E)(2) of this section, if the area
proposed to be mined contains prime farmland as determined
pursuant to division (B)(2)(1)(p) of this section, the chief,
after consultation with the secretary of the United States
department of agriculture and pursuant to regulations issued by
the secretary of the interior with the concurrence of the
secretary of agriculture, may grant a permit to mine on prime
farmland if the chief finds in writing that the operator has the
technological capability to restore the mined area, within a
reasonable time, to equivalent or higher levels of yield as
nonmined prime farmland in the surrounding area under equivalent
levels of management and can meet the soil reconstruction
standards in section 1513.16 of the Revised Code.
(b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not apply to a
permit issued prior to August 3, 1977, or revisions or renewals
thereof.
(5) The chief shall issue an order denying a permit after finding that
the applicant has misrepresented or
omitted any
material fact in the application for the permit.
(6) The chief may issue an order denying a permit after finding that the
applicant, any partner, if the
applicant is a
partnership, any officer, principal shareholder, or director, if
the applicant is a corporation, or any other person who has a
right to control or in fact controls the management of the
applicant or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of
the applicant has been a sole proprietor or partner, officer,
director, principal shareholder, or person having the right to
control or has in fact controlled the management of or the
selection of officers, directors, or managers of a business
entity that ever has had a coal mining license or permit issued
by this or any other state or the United States suspended or
revoked, ever has forfeited a coal or surface mining bond or
security deposited in lieu of bond in this or any other state or
with the United States, or ever has substantially or materially
failed to comply with this chapter.
(7) When issuing a permit under this section, the chief
may authorize an applicant to conduct coal mining and reclamation
operations on areas to be covered by the permit that were
affected by coal mining operations before August 3, 1977, that
have resulted in continuing water pollution from or on the
previously mined areas for the purpose of potentially reducing
the pollution loadings of pH, iron, and manganese from discharges
from or on the previously mined areas. Following the chief's
authorization to conduct such operations on those areas, the
areas shall be designated as pollution abatement areas for the
purposes of this chapter.
The chief shall not grant an authorization under division
(E)(7) of this section to conduct coal mining and reclamation
operations on any such previously mined areas unless the
applicant demonstrates to the chief's satisfaction that all of
the following conditions are met:
(a) The applicant's pollution abatement plan for mining
and reclaiming the previously mined areas represents the best
available technology economically achievable;.
(b) Implementation of the plan will potentially reduce
pollutant loadings of pH, iron, and manganese resulting from
discharges of surface waters or ground water from or on the
previously mined areas within the permit area;.
(c) Implementation of the plan will not cause any
additional degradation of surface water quality off the permit
area with respect to pH, iron, and manganese;.
(d) Implementation of the plan will not cause any
additional degradation of ground water;.
(e) The plan meets the requirements governing mining and
reclamation of such previously mined pollution abatement areas
established by the chief in rules adopted under section 1513.02
of the Revised Code;.
(f) Neither the applicant; any partner, if the applicant
is a partnership; any officer, principal shareholder, or
director, if the applicant is a corporation; any other person who
has a right to control or in fact controls the management of the
applicant or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of
the applicant; nor any contractor or subcontractor of the
applicant, has any of the following:
(i) Responsibility or liability under this chapter or
rules adopted under it as an operator for treating the discharges
of water pollutants from or on the previously mined areas for
which the authorization is sought;
(ii) Any responsibility or liability under this chapter or
rules adopted under it for reclaiming the previously mined areas
for which the authorization is sought;
(iii) During the eighteen months prior to submitting the
permit application requesting an authorization under division
(E)(7) of this section, had a coal mining and reclamation permit
suspended or revoked under division (D)(3) of section 1513.02 of
the Revised Code for violating this chapter or Chapter 6111. of
the Revised Code or rules adopted under them with respect to
water quality, effluent limitations, or surface or ground water
monitoring;
(iv) Ever forfeited a coal or surface mining bond or
security deposited in lieu of a bond in this or any other state
or with the United States.
(F)(1) During the term of the permit, the permittee may
submit an application for a revision of the permit, together with
a revised reclamation plan, to the chief.
(2) An application for a revision of a permit shall not be
approved, unless the chief finds that reclamation required by this
chapter can be accomplished under the revised reclamation plan.
The revision shall be approved or disapproved within ninety days
after receipt of a complete revision application. The chief
shall establish, by rule, criteria for determining the extent to
which all permit application information requirements and
procedures, including notice and hearings, shall apply to the
revision request, except that any revisions that propose
significant alterations in the reclamation plan, at a
minimum, shall be subject to notice and hearing requirements.
(3) Any extensions to the area covered by the permit
except incidental boundary revisions shall be made by application
for a permit.
(G) No transfer, assignment, or sale of the rights granted
under a permit issued pursuant to this chapter shall be made
without the written approval of the chief.
(H) The chief, within a time limit prescribed in the chief's rules, shall
review outstanding permits and may
require reasonable revision or modification of a permit. A
revision or modification shall be based upon a written finding
and subject to notice and hearing requirements established by
rule of the chief.
(I)(1) If an informal conference has been held pursuant to
section 1513.071 of the Revised Code, the chief shall issue and
furnish the applicant for a permit, persons who participated in
the informal conference, and persons who filed written objections
pursuant to division (B) of section 1513.071 of the Revised Code,
with the written finding of the chief granting or denying the
permit in whole or in part and stating the reasons therefor
within sixty days of the conference.
(2) If there has been no informal conference held pursuant
to section 1513.071 of the Revised Code, the chief shall notify
the applicant for a permit within a reasonable time as provided
by rule of the chief, taking into account the time needed for
proper investigation of the site, the complexity of the permit
application, whether or not a written objection to the
application has been filed, and whether the application has been
approved or disapproved in whole or in part.
(3) If the application is approved, the permit shall be
issued. If the application is disapproved, specific reasons
therefor shall be set forth in the notification. Within thirty
days after the applicant is notified of the final decision of the
chief on the permit application, the applicant or any person with
an interest that is or may be adversely affected may appeal the
decision to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant
to section
1513.13 of the Revised Code.
(4) Any applicant or any person with an interest that is
or may be adversely affected who has participated in the
administrative proceedings as an objector and is aggrieved by the
decision of the reclamation environmental review appeals commission, or if
the commission
fails to act within the time limits specified in this chapter,
may appeal in accordance with section 1513.14 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1513.13. (A)(1)
Any
person having an
interest that
is or may be adversely affected by a notice of
violation, order,
or decision of the chief
of the division of
mineral resources
management,
other than a
decision made under section 1509.06 or 1509.08 of the Revised Code or a show cause order or an
order that adopts
a rule, or by any
modification, vacation, or
termination of such a
notice, order,
or decision, may appeal by
filing a notice of
appeal with the
reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code for
review of the notice,
order, or
decision within thirty days after
the notice, order, or
decision
is served upon the person or within
thirty days after its
modification, vacation, or termination and
by filing a copy of
the
notice of appeal with the chief within
three days after
filing the
notice of appeal with the commission.
The
notice of appeal
shall
contain a copy of the notice of
violation, order, or
decision
complained of and the grounds upon
which the appeal is
based. The
commission has exclusive original
jurisdiction
to hear and
decide
such appeals. The filing of a
notice of appeal under
division
(A)(1) of this section does not
operate as a stay of
any order,
notice of
violation, or decision
of the chief.
(2) The permittee, the chief, and other interested persons
shall be given written notice of the time and place of the
hearing
at least five days prior thereto. The hearing shall be
of record.
(3) Any person authorized under this section to appeal to
the commission may request an informal review by the chief
or the
chief's designee by filing a written request with the chief within
thirty
days after a notice, order, decision, modification,
vacation, or termination
is served upon the person. Filing of the
written request shall toll the time
for appeal before the
commission, but shall not operate as
a stay of any order,
notice
of violation, or decision of the chief. The chief's determination
of
an informal review is appealable to the commission under
this
section.
(B) The commission shall affirm the notice of violation,
order, or decision of the chief unless the commission
determines
that
it is arbitrary, capricious, or otherwise inconsistent with
law;
in that case the commission may modify the notice of
violation,
order, or decision or vacate it and remand it to the
chief for
further proceedings that the commission may
direct.
The commission shall conduct hearings and render decisions
in
a timely fashion, except that all of the following apply:
(1) When the appeal concerns an order for the cessation of
coal mining and reclamation operations issued pursuant to
division
(D)(1) or (2) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code,
the
commission shall issue its written decision within
thirty days
after the receipt of the appeal unless temporary relief has been
granted by the chairperson pursuant to division (C) of
this
section.
(2) When the appeal concerns an application for a permit
under division (I) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code, the
commission shall hold a hearing within thirty days after
receipt
of
the notice of appeal and issue its decision within thirty days
after the hearing.
(3) When the appeal concerns a decision of the chief
regarding release of bond under division (F) of section 1513.16
of
the Revised Code, the commission shall hold a hearing
within
thirty
days after receipt of the notice of appeal and issue its
decision
within sixty days after the hearing.
(4) When the appeal concerns a decision of the chief
regarding the location of a well in a coal bearing township under
section 1509.08 of the Revised Code, the commission shall hold a
hearing and issue its decision within thirty days after receipt of
the notice of appeal.
(C) The chairperson of the
commission, under conditions
the
chairperson prescribes, may grant temporary relief
the chairperson
considers appropriate
pending final determination of an appeal if
all of the following
conditions are met:
(1) All parties to the appeal have been notified and given
an opportunity for a hearing to be held in the locality of the
subject site on the request for temporary relief and the
opportunity to be heard on the request.
(2) The person requesting relief shows that there is a
substantial likelihood that the person will prevail on the
merits.
(3) The relief will not adversely affect public health or
safety or cause significant imminent environmental harm to land,
air, or water resources.
The chairperson shall issue a decision expeditiously,
except
that when the applicant requests relief from an order for the
cessation of coal mining and reclamation operations issued
pursuant to division (D)(1) or (2) of section 1513.02 of the
Revised Code, the decision shall be issued within five days after
its receipt.
Any party to an appeal filed with the commission who is
aggrieved or adversely
affected by a decision of the chairperson
to grant or
deny temporary relief under this section may appeal
that decision to the
commission. The commission may
confine its
review to the record developed at the
hearing before the
chairperson.
The appeal shall be filed with the commission within
thirty
days
after the chairperson issues the
decision on the request for
temporary relief. The
commission shall issue a
decision as
expeditiously as possible, except that when the
appellant requests
relief from an order for the cessation of coal
mining and
reclamation operations issued pursuant to division
(D)(1) or (2)
of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code, the
decision of the
commission shall be issued within five
days after
receipt of the
notice of appeal.
The commission shall affirm the decision of the
chairperson
granting or denying temporary relief unless it determines that the
decision is
arbitrary, capricious, or otherwise inconsistent
with
law.
(D) Following the issuance of an order to show cause as to
why a permit should not be suspended or revoked pursuant to
division (D)(3) of section 1513.02 of the Revised Code, the chief
or a representative of the chief shall hold a public
adjudicatory
hearing after giving written notice of the time, place, and date
thereof. The hearing shall be of record.
Within sixty days following the public hearing, the chief
shall issue and furnish to the permittee and all other parties to
the hearing a written decision, and the reasons therefor,
concerning suspension or revocation of the permit. If the chief
revokes the permit, the permittee immediately shall cease coal
mining operations on the permit area and shall complete
reclamation within a period specified by the chief, or the chief
shall declare as forfeited the performance bonds for the
operation.
(E)(1) Whenever an enforcement order or permit decision is issued under this chapter and is
appealed under this section or any action is filed under division
(B) of section 1513.15 or 1513.39 of the Revised Code, at the
request of a prevailing party, a sum
equal to the aggregate amount
of all costs and
expenses, including attorney's fees, as
determined to have been
necessary and reasonably incurred by the
prevailing party for or
in connection with participation in the
enforcement
proceedings before the commission, the court under
section
1513.15 of
the Revised Code, or the chief under section
1513.39 of the
Revised Code, may be awarded, as considered proper,
in accordance with
divisions (E)(1)(a) to (c) of this section. In
no event shall
attorney's fees awarded under this section exceed,
for the kind
and quality of services, the prevailing market rates
at the time
the services were furnished under division (A) of this
section. A
party may be entitled to costs and expenses related
solely to the
preparation, defense, and appeal of a petition for
costs and
expenses, provided that the costs and expenses are
limited and
proportionate to costs and expenses otherwise allowed
under
division (E) of this section.
(a) A party, other than the permittee or the division of
mineral resources management, shall may file a
petition, if any, for
an award of costs and
expenses, including attorney's fees, with
the chief, who shall
review the petition. If the chief finds that
the party, other
than the permittee or the division, prevailed
in
whole or in part, made a substantial contribution to a full and
fair determination of the issues, and made a contribution
separate
and distinct from the contribution made by any other
party, the
chief may award to that party the party's those costs
and expenses,
including attorney's fees that were necessary and reasonably
incurred by the petitioning party for, or in connection with,
participation in
the proceeding before the commission.
(b) If a permittee who made a request under division
(E)(1)
of this section demonstrates that a party other than a
A permittee
who initiated an
appeal under this section or participated in such
may file, with the chief, a request for an award to the permittee of the costs and expenses, including attorney's fees, reasonably incurred by the permittee in connection with an appeal
initiated or participated in the appeal in bad faith and
for the
purpose of harassing or embarrassing the permittee, the
permittee
may file a petition with the chief under this section. The chief may award
to the
permittee the assess those costs and expenses reasonably incurred by the
permittee in connection with participation in the appeal and
assess those costs and expenses against the a party who initiated or participated in
the appeal if the permittee demonstrates that the party initiated or participated in the appeal in bad faith and for the purpose of harassing or embarrassing the permittee.
(c) The division may file, with the
commission, a request
for an award to the division of the
costs and
expenses, including attorney's fees, reasonably
incurred by the division in connection with
an appeal initiated
under this section. The commission
may assess
those costs and
expenses against the a party who initiated or participated in the
appeal if the
division demonstrates that the party initiated or
participated in
the appeal in bad faith and for the purpose of
harassing or
embarrassing the division.
(2) Whenever an If a final order involving this chapter is issued by the commission as a decision under division (B) of this section or as a
result of any administrative proceeding under this chapter is by a court of common pleas under division (B) of section 1513.15 of the Revised Code or by the chief under section 1513.39 of the Revised Code and the final order becomes the
subject of judicial review, at the request of any party, a sum
equal to the aggregate amount of all costs and expenses,
including
attorney's fees, as determined by the court
to have been
necessary
and reasonably incurred by the party for or in connection with
participation in the proceedings, may be awarded to either party,
in accordance with division (E)(1) of this section, as the court,
on the basis of judicial review, considers proper.
Sec. 1513.131. For the purpose of conducting any public
adjudicatory hearing under this chapter or Chapter 1514. of the Revised Code, the chief, of the division of mineral resources management or the
reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code may require the
attendance of
witnesses and the production of books, records, and papers, and
may, and at the request of any party, shall issue subpoenas for
witnesses or subpoenas duces tecum to compel the production of
any books, records, papers, or other material relevant to the
inquiry, directed to the sheriff of the counties where the
witnesses or materials are found, which subpoenas shall be served
and returned in the same manner as subpoenas issued by courts of
common pleas are served and returned. The fees and mileage of
sheriffs and witnesses shall be the same as those allowed by the
court of common pleas in criminal cases.
In cases of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served
on any person or the refusal of any witness to testify to any
matter regarding which the witness may lawfully be
interrogated, the court of common pleas of the county in which such
disobedience, neglect, or refusal occurs, or any judge thereof, on application
of the chief or the commission or any member
thereof, shall compel obedience by attachment procedures for
contempt as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a
subpoena issued from the court or a refusal to testify therein.
A witness at any hearing shall testify under oath or
affirmation, which the chief or any member of the
commission may administer.
Hearing officers designated by the commission shall have
the same powers and
authority in conducting the
hearings as granted to the commission. Whenever a hearing
officer
conducts a hearing, the officer shall prepare a report setting
forth the hearing officer's findings of fact and conclusions
of law and a recommendation of the action to be taken by the
commission.
The hearing officer shall
file the report with the secretary of the commission and
shall mail a
copy by certified mail to the parties. A party may, within
fourteen days after receipt of the report, serve and file written
objections to the hearing officer's report with the secretary of
the commission. Objections shall be specific and state
with
particularity the grounds therefor. Upon consideration of the
objections, the commission may adopt,
reject, or
modify the report; hear additional evidence; return the report to
the hearing officer with instructions; or hear the matter itself.
Sec. 1513.14. (A) Any party aggrieved or adversely
affected
by a decision of the reclamation
environmental review appeals commission
that is made under this chapter or Chapter 1514. of the Revised Code may
appeal to the
court of appeals for the county in which the
activity addressed by
the decision of the commission
occurred, is
occurring, or will
occur, which court has exclusive jurisdiction
over the appeal.
The
appeal shall be filed within thirty days of
issuance of the
decision of the commission. The court
shall confine
its review to
the record certified by the commission. The
court may, upon
motion,
grant such temporary relief
as it
considers
appropriate
pending final disposition of the appeal
if
all of the
following
apply:
(1) All parties to the appeal have been notified and given
an opportunity to be heard on a request for temporary relief.
(2) The person requesting the relief shows that there is a
substantial likelihood that the person will prevail on the
merits.
(3) The relief will not adversely affect public health or
safety
or the health or safety of miners or cause significant
imminent environmental harm to land,
air, or water resources.
The court shall affirm the decision of the commission
unless
the
court determines that it is arbitrary, capricious, or
otherwise
inconsistent with law, in which case the court shall
vacate the
decision and remand to the commission for such further
proceedings as
it may direct.
(B) Any order of the chief
of the division of mineral
resources management adopting a rule shall be
subject to judicial
review in the Franklin county court of
appeals, which court has
exclusive original jurisdiction to
review the order. A petition
for review of the order shall be
filed within thirty days from the
date of such order. The
petition may be made by any person who
participated in the
rule-making proceedings and who is aggrieved
by the order. The
court shall confine its review to the record of
the rule-making
proceedings. The order shall be affirmed unless
the court
concludes that the order is arbitrary, capricious, or
otherwise
inconsistent with law, in which case the court shall
vacate the
order or portion thereof and remand to the chief for
such further
proceedings as it may direct.
Sec. 1513.16. (A) Any permit issued under this chapter to
conduct coal mining operations shall require that the operations
meet all applicable performance standards of this chapter and
such other requirements as the chief of the division of mineral resources
management shall
adopt by rule. General performance standards
shall apply to all coal mining and reclamation operations and
shall require the operator at a minimum to do all of the
following:
(1) Conduct coal mining operations so as to maximize the
utilization and conservation of the solid fuel resource being
recovered so that reaffecting the land in the future through coal
mining can be minimized;
(2) Restore the land affected to a condition capable of
supporting the uses that it was capable of supporting prior to
any mining, or higher or better uses of which there is reasonable
likelihood, so long as the uses do not present any actual or
probable hazard to public health or safety or pose any actual or
probable threat of diminution or pollution of the waters of the
state, and the permit applicants' declared proposed land uses
following reclamation are not considered to be impractical or
unreasonable, to be inconsistent with applicable land use
policies and plans, to involve unreasonable delay in
implementation, or to violate federal, state, or local law;
(3) Except as provided in division (B) of this section,
with respect to all coal mining operations, backfill, compact
where advisable to ensure stability or to prevent leaching of
toxic materials, and grade in order to restore the approximate
original contour of the land with all highwalls, spoil piles, and
depressions eliminated unless small depressions are needed in
order to retain moisture to assist revegetation or as otherwise
authorized pursuant to this chapter, provided that if the
operator demonstrates that due to volumetric expansion the amount
of overburden and the spoil and waste materials removed in the
course of the mining operation are more than sufficient to restore
the approximate original contour, the operator shall backfill,
grade, and compact the excess overburden and other spoil and
waste materials to attain the lowest grade, but not more than the
angle of repose, and to cover all acid-forming and other toxic
materials in order to achieve an ecologically sound land use
compatible with the surrounding region in accordance with the
approved mining plan. The overburden or spoil shall be shaped
and graded in such a way as to prevent slides, erosion, and water
pollution and shall be revegetated in accordance with this
chapter.
(4) Stabilize and protect all surface areas, including
spoil piles affected by the coal mining and reclamation
operation, to control erosion and attendant air and water
pollution effectively;
(5) Remove the topsoil from the land in a separate layer,
replace it on the backfill area, or, if not utilized immediately,
segregate it in a separate pile from the spoil, and when the
topsoil is not replaced on a backfill area within a time short
enough to avoid deterioration of the topsoil, maintain a
successful cover by quick-growing plants or other means
thereafter so that the topsoil is preserved from wind and water
erosion, remains free of any contamination by acid or other toxic
material, and is in a usable condition for sustaining vegetation
when restored during reclamation. If the topsoil is of
insufficient quantity or of poor quality for sustaining
vegetation or if other strata can be shown to be more suitable
for vegetation requirements, the operator shall remove,
segregate, and preserve in a like manner such other strata as are
best able to support vegetation.
(6) Restore the topsoil or the best available subsoil that
is best able to support vegetation;
(7) For all prime farmlands as identified in division
(B)(2)(1)(p) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code to be mined and
reclaimed, perform soil removal, storage, replacement, and reconstruction
in accordance with specifications established
by the secretary of the United States department of agriculture
under the "Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977,"
91 Stat. 445, 30 U.S.C.A. 1201. The operator, at a
minimum, shall be required to do all of the following:
(a) Segregate the A horizon of the natural soil, except
where it can be shown that other available soil materials will
create a final soil having a greater productive capacity, and, if
not utilized immediately, stockpile this material separately from
the spoil and provide needed protection from wind and water
erosion or contamination by acid or other toxic material;
(b) Segregate the B horizon of the natural soil, or
underlying C horizons or other strata, or a combination of such
horizons or other strata that are shown to be both texturally and
chemically suitable for plant growth and that can be shown to be
equally or more favorable for plant growth than the B horizon, in
sufficient quantities to create in the regraded final soil a root
zone of comparable depth and quality to that which existed in the
natural soil, and, if not utilized immediately, stockpile this
material separately from the spoil and provide needed protection
from wind and water erosion or contamination by acid or other
toxic material;
(c) Replace and regrade the root zone material described
in division (A)(7)(b) of this section with proper compaction and
uniform depth over the regraded spoil material;
(d) Redistribute and grade in a uniform manner the surface
soil horizon described in division (A)(7)(a) of this section.
(8) Create, if authorized in the approved mining and
reclamation plan and permit, permanent impoundments of water on
mining sites as part of reclamation activities only when it is
adequately demonstrated by the operator that all of the following
conditions will be met:
(a) The size of the impoundment is adequate for its
intended purposes.
(b) The impoundment dam construction will be so designed
as to achieve necessary stability with an adequate margin of
safety compatible with that of structures constructed under the
"Watershed Protection and Flood Prevention Act," 68 Stat. 666
(1954), 16 U.S.C. 1001, as amended.
(c) The quality of impounded water will be suitable on a
permanent basis for its intended use and discharges from the
impoundment will not degrade the water quality below water
quality standards established pursuant to applicable federal and
state law in the receiving stream.
(d) The level of water will be reasonably stable.
(e) Final grading will provide adequate safety and access
for proposed water users.
(f) The water impoundments will not result in the
diminution of the quality or quantity of water utilized by
adjacent or surrounding landowners for agricultural, industrial,
recreational, or domestic uses.
(9) Conduct any augering operation associated with strip
mining in a manner to maximize recoverability of mineral reserves
remaining after the operation and reclamation are complete and
seal all auger holes with an impervious and noncombustible
material in order to prevent drainage, except where the chief
determines that the resulting impoundment of water in such auger
holes may create a hazard to the environment or the public health
or safety. The chief may prohibit augering if necessary to
maximize the utilization, recoverability, or conservation of the
solid fuel resources or to protect against adverse water quality
impacts.
(10) Minimize the disturbances to the prevailing
hydrologic balance at the mine site and in associated offsite
areas and to the quality and quantity of water in surface and
ground water systems both during and after coal mining operations
and during reclamation by doing all of the following:
(a) Avoiding acid or other toxic mine drainage by such
measures as, but not limited to:
(i) Preventing or removing water from contact with toxic
producing deposits;
(ii) Treating drainage to reduce toxic content that
adversely affects downstream water upon being released to water
courses in accordance with rules adopted by the chief in
accordance with section 1513.02 of the Revised Code;
(iii) Casing, sealing, or otherwise managing boreholes,
shafts, and wells, and keeping acid or other toxic drainage from
entering ground and surface waters.
(b)(i) Conducting coal mining operations so as to prevent,
to the extent possible using the best technology currently
available, additional contributions of suspended solids to
streamflow or runoff outside the permit area, but in no event
shall contributions be in excess of requirements set by
applicable state or federal laws;
(ii) Constructing any siltation structures pursuant to
division (A)(10)(b)(i) of this section prior to commencement of
coal mining operations. The structures shall be certified by
persons approved by the chief to be constructed as designed and
as approved in the reclamation plan.
(c) Cleaning out and removing temporary or large settling
ponds or other siltation structures from drainways after
disturbed areas are revegetated and stabilized, and depositing
the silt and debris at a site and in a manner approved by the
chief;
(d) Restoring recharge capacity of the mined area to
approximate premining conditions;
(e) Avoiding channel deepening or enlargement in
operations requiring the discharge of water from mines;
(f) Such other actions as the chief may prescribe.
(11) With respect to surface disposal of mine wastes,
tailings, coal processing wastes, and other wastes in areas other
than the mine working areas or excavations, stabilize all waste
piles in designated areas through construction in compacted
layers, including the use of noncombustible and impervious
materials if necessary, and ensure that the final contour of the
waste pile will be compatible with natural surroundings and that
the site can and will be stabilized and revegetated according to
this chapter;
(12) Refrain from coal mining within five hundred feet of
active and abandoned underground mines in order to prevent
breakthroughs and to protect the health or safety of miners. The
chief shall permit an operator to mine near, through, or
partially through an abandoned underground mine or closer than
five hundred feet to an active underground mine if both of
the following
conditions are met:
(a) The nature, timing, and sequencing of the approximate
coincidence of specific strip mine activities with specific
underground mine activities are approved by the chief;.
(b) The operations will result in improved resource
recovery, abatement of water pollution, or elimination of hazards
to the health and safety of the public.
(13) Design, locate, construct, operate, maintain,
enlarge, modify, and remove or abandon, in accordance with the
standards and criteria developed pursuant to rules adopted by the
chief, all existing and new coal mine
waste
piles consisting of
mine wastes, tailings, coal processing wastes, or other liquid
and solid wastes, and used either temporarily or permanently as
dams or embankments;
(14) Ensure that all debris, acid-forming materials, toxic
materials, or materials constituting a fire hazard are treated or
buried and compacted or otherwise disposed of in a manner
designed to prevent contamination of ground or surface waters and
that contingency plans are developed to prevent sustained
combustion;
(15) Ensure that all reclamation efforts proceed in an
environmentally sound manner and as contemporaneously as
practicable with the coal mining operations, except that where
the applicant proposes to combine strip mining operations with
underground mining operations to ensure maximum practical
recovery of the mineral resources, the chief may grant a variance
for specific areas within the reclamation plan from the
requirement that reclamation efforts proceed as contemporaneously
as practicable to permit underground mining operations prior to
reclamation if:
(a) The chief finds in writing that:
(i) The applicant has presented, as part of the permit
application, specific, feasible plans for the proposed
underground mining operations.
(ii) The proposed underground mining operations are
necessary or desirable to ensure maximum practical recovery of
the mineral resource and will avoid multiple disturbance of the
surface.
(iii) The applicant has satisfactorily demonstrated that
the plan for the underground mining operations conforms to
requirements for underground mining in this state and that
permits necessary for the underground mining operations have been
issued by the appropriate authority.
(iv) The areas proposed for the variance have been shown
by the applicant to be necessary for the implementing of the
proposed underground mining operations.
(v) No substantial adverse environmental damage, either
on-site or off-site, will result from the delay in completion of
reclamation as required by this chapter.
(vi) Provisions for the off-site storage of spoil will
comply with division (A)(21) of this section.
(b) The chief has adopted specific rules to govern the
granting of such variances in accordance with this division and
has imposed such additional requirements as the chief
considers necessary.
(c) Variances granted under this division shall be
reviewed by the chief not more than three years from the date of
issuance of the permit.
(d) Liability under the bond filed by the applicant with
the chief pursuant to section 1513.08 of the Revised Code shall
be for the duration of the underground mining operations and
until the requirements of this section and section 1513.08 of the
Revised Code have been fully complied with.
(16) Ensure that the construction, maintenance, and
postmining conditions of access roads into and across the site of
operations will control or prevent erosion and siltation,
pollution of water, and damage to fish or wildlife or their
habitat, or to public or private property;
(17) Refrain from the construction of roads or other
access ways up a stream bed or drainage channel or in such
proximity to the channel as to seriously alter the normal flow of
water;
(18) Establish, on the regraded areas and all other lands
affected, a diverse, effective, and permanent vegetative cover of
the same seasonal variety native to the area of land to be
affected and capable of self-regeneration and plant succession at
least equal in extent of cover to the natural vegetation of the
area, except that introduced species may be used in the
revegetation process where desirable and necessary to achieve the
approved postmining land use plan;
(19)(a) Assume the responsibility for successful
revegetation, as required by division (A)(18) of this section,
for a period of five full years after the last year of augmented
seeding, fertilizing, irrigation, or other work in order to
ensure compliance with that division, except that when the chief
approves a long-term intensive agricultural postmining land use,
the applicable five-year period of responsibility for
revegetation shall commence at the date of initial planting for
that long-term intensive agricultural postmining land use, and
except that when the chief issues a written finding approving a
long-term intensive agricultural postmining land use as part of
the mining and reclamation plan, the chief may grant an exception
to division (A)(18) of this section;
(b) On lands eligible for remining, assume the responsibility for successful
revegetation, as required by division (A)(18) of this section, for a period of
two full years after the last year of augmented seeding, fertilizing,
irrigation, or other work in order to ensure compliance with that division.
(20) Protect off-site areas from slides or damage
occurring during the coal mining and reclamation operations and
not deposit spoil material or locate any part of the operations
or waste accumulations outside the permit area;
(21) Place all excess spoil material resulting from coal
mining and reclamation operations in such a manner that all of
the following apply:
(a) Spoil is transported and placed in a controlled manner
in position for concurrent compaction and in such a way as to
ensure mass stability and to prevent mass movement.
(b) The areas of disposal are within the bonded permit
areas. All organic matter shall be removed immediately prior to
spoil placement except in the zoned concept method.
(c) Appropriate surface and internal drainage systems and
diversion ditches are used so as to prevent spoil erosion and
mass movement.
(d) The disposal area does not contain springs, natural
watercourses, or wet weather seeps unless lateral drains are
constructed from the wet areas to the main underdrains in such a
manner that filtration of the water into the spoil pile will be
prevented unless the zoned concept method is used.
(e) If placed on a slope, the spoil is placed upon the
most moderate slope among those slopes upon which, in the
judgment of the chief, the spoil could be placed in compliance
with all the requirements of this chapter and is placed, where
possible, upon, or above, a natural terrace, bench, or berm if
that placement provides additional stability and prevents mass
movement.
(f) Where the toe of the spoil rests on a downslope, a
rock toe buttress of sufficient size to prevent mass movement is
constructed.
(g) The final configuration is compatible with the natural
drainage pattern and surroundings and suitable for intended
uses.
(h) Design of the spoil disposal area is certified by a
qualified registered professional engineer in conformance with
professional standards.
(i) All other provisions of this chapter are met.
(22) Meet such other criteria as are necessary to achieve
reclamation in accordance with the purpose of this chapter,
taking into consideration the physical, climatological, and other
characteristics of the site;
(23) To the extent possible, using the best technology
currently available, minimize disturbances and adverse impacts of
the operation on fish, wildlife, and related environmental
values, and achieve enhancement of such resources where
practicable;
(24) Provide for an undisturbed natural barrier beginning
at the elevation of the lowest coal seam to be mined and
extending from the outslope for such distance as the chief shall
determine to be retained in place as a barrier to slides and
erosion.
(B)(1) The chief may permit mining operations for the
purposes set forth in division (B)(3) of this section.
(2) When an applicant meets the requirements of divisions
(B)(3) and (4) of this section, a permit without regard to the
requirement to restore to approximate original contour known as
mountain top removal set forth in divisions (A)(3) or (C)(2) and
(3) of this section may be granted for the mining of coal where
the mining operation will remove an entire coal seam or seams
running through the upper fraction of a mountain, ridge, or hill,
except as provided in division (B)(4)(a) of this section, by
removing all of the overburden and creating a level plateau or a
gently rolling contour with no highwalls remaining, and capable
of supporting postmining uses in accordance with this division.
(3) In cases where an industrial, commercial,
agricultural, residential, or public facility use, including
recreational facilities, is proposed for the postmining use
of the affected land, the chief may grant a permit for a mining
operation of the nature described in division (B)(2) of this
section when all of the following apply:
(a) After consultation with the appropriate land use
planning agencies, if any, the proposed postmining land use is
considered to constitute an equal or better economic or public
use of the affected land, as compared with premining use.
(b) The applicant presents specific plans for the proposed
postmining land use and appropriate assurances that the use will
be all of the following:
(i) Compatible with adjacent land uses;
(ii) Obtainable according to data regarding expected need
and market;
(iii) Assured of investment in necessary public
facilities;
(iv) Supported by commitments from public agencies where
appropriate;
(v) Practicable with respect to private financial
capability for completion of the proposed use;
(vi) Planned pursuant to a schedule attached to the
reclamation plan so as to integrate the mining operation and
reclamation with the postmining land use;
(vii) Designed by a registered engineer in conformity with
professional standards established to ensure the stability,
drainage, and configuration necessary for the intended use of the
site.
(c) The proposed use is consistent with adjacent land uses
and existing state and local land use plans and programs.
(d) The chief provides the governing body of the unit of
general-purpose local government in which the land is located,
and any state or federal agency that the chief, in the
chief's discretion, determines to have an interest in the proposed use,
an opportunity of not more than sixty days to review and comment
on the proposed use.
(e) All other requirements of this chapter will be met.
(4) In granting a permit pursuant to this division, the
chief shall require that each of the following is met:
(a) The toe of the lowest coal seam and the overburden
associated with it are retained in place as a barrier to slides
and erosion.
(b) The reclaimed area is stable.
(c) The resulting plateau or rolling contour drains inward
from the outslopes except at specified points.
(d) No damage will be done to natural watercourses.
(e) Spoil will be placed on the mountaintop bench as is
necessary to achieve the planned postmining land use, except that
all excess spoil material not retained on the mountaintop bench
shall be placed in accordance with division (A)(21) of this
section.
(f) Stability of the spoil retained on the mountaintop
bench is ensured and the other requirements of this chapter are
met.
(5) The chief shall adopt specific rules to govern the
granting of permits in accordance with divisions (B)(1) to (4) of
this section and may impose such additional requirements as the
chief considers necessary.
(6) All permits granted under divisions (B)(1) to (4) of
this section shall be reviewed not more than three years from the
date of issuance of the permit unless the applicant affirmatively
demonstrates that the proposed development is proceeding in
accordance with the terms of the approved schedule and
reclamation plan.
(C) All of the following performance standards apply to
steep-slope coal mining and are in addition to those general
performance standards required by this section, except that this
division does not apply to those situations in which an operator
is mining on flat or gently rolling terrain on which an
occasional steep slope is encountered through which the mining
operation is to proceed, leaving a plain or predominantly flat
area, or where an operator is in compliance with division (B) of
this section:
(1) The operator shall ensure that when performing coal
mining on steep slopes, no debris, abandoned or disabled
equipment, spoil material, or waste mineral matter is placed on
the downslope below the bench or mining cut. Spoil material in
excess of that required for the reconstruction of the approximate
original contour under division (A)(3) or (C)(2) of this section
shall be permanently stored pursuant to division (A)(21) of this
section.
(2) The operator shall complete backfilling with spoil
material to cover completely the highwall and return the site to
the approximate original contour, which material will maintain
stability following mining and reclamation.
(3) The operator shall not disturb land above the top of
the highwall unless the chief finds that the disturbance will
facilitate compliance with the environmental protection standards
of this section, except that any such disturbance involving land
above the highwall shall be limited to that amount of land
necessary to facilitate compliance.
(D)(1) The chief may permit variances for the purposes set
forth in division (D)(3) of this section, provided that the
watershed control of the area is improved and that complete
backfilling with spoil material shall be required to cover
completely the highwall, which material will maintain stability
following mining and reclamation.
(2) Where an applicant meets the requirements of divisions
(D)(3) and (4) of this section, a variance from the requirement
to restore to approximate original contour set forth in division
(C)(2) of this section may be granted for the mining of coal
when the owner of the surface knowingly requests in writing, as
a part of the permit application, that such a variance be granted
so as to render the land, after reclamation, suitable for an
industrial, commercial, residential, or public use, including
recreational facilities, in accordance with divisions (D)(3) and (4) of this
section.
(3) A variance pursuant to division (D)(2) of this section
may be granted if:
(a) After consultation with the appropriate land use
planning agencies, if any, the potential use of the affected land
is considered to constitute an equal or better economic or public
use.
(b) The postmining land condition is designed and
certified by a registered professional engineer in conformity
with professional standards established to ensure the stability,
drainage, and configuration necessary for the intended use of the
site.
(c) After approval of the appropriate state environmental
agencies, the watershed of the affected land is considered to be
improved.
(4) In granting a variance pursuant to division (D) of
this section, the chief shall require that only such amount of
spoil will be placed off the mine bench as is necessary to
achieve the planned postmining land use, ensure stability of the
spoil retained on the bench, and meet all other requirements of
this chapter. All spoil placement off the mine bench shall comply
with division (A)(21) of this section.
(5) The chief shall adopt specific rules to govern the
granting of variances under division (D) of this section and may
impose such additional requirements as the chief considers
necessary.
(6) All variances granted under division (D) of this
section shall be reviewed not more than three years from the date
of issuance of the permit unless the permittee affirmatively
demonstrates that the proposed development is proceeding in
accordance with the terms of the reclamation plan.
(E) The chief shall establish standards and criteria
regulating the design, location, construction, operation,
maintenance, enlargement, modification, removal, and abandonment
of new and existing coal mine waste piles referred to in division
(A)(13) of this section and division (A)(5) of section 1513.35 of
the Revised Code. The standards and criteria shall conform to
the standards and criteria used by the chief of the United States
army corps of engineers to ensure that flood control structures
are safe and effectively perform their intended function. In
addition to engineering and other technical specifications, the
standards and criteria developed pursuant to this division shall
include provisions for review and approval of plans and
specifications prior to construction, enlargement, modification,
removal, or abandonment; performance of periodic inspections
during construction; issuance of certificates of approval upon
completion of construction; performance of periodic safety
inspections; and issuance of notices for required remedial or
maintenance work.
(F)(1) The permittee may file a request with the chief for
release of a part of a performance bond or deposit under division
(F)(3) of this section. Within thirty days after any request for
bond or deposit release under this section has been filed with
the chief, the operator shall submit a copy of an advertisement
placed at least once a week for four successive weeks in a
newspaper of general circulation in the locality of the coal
mining operation. The advertisement shall be considered part of
any bond release application and shall contain a notification of
the precise location of the land affected, the number of acres,
the permit number and the date approved, the amount of the bond filed
and the portion sought to be released, the type and appropriate
dates of reclamation work performed, and a description of the
results achieved as they relate to the operator's approved
reclamation plan and, if applicable, the operator's pollution
abatement plan. In addition, as part of any bond release
application, the applicant shall submit copies of the letters sent to
adjoining property owners, local governmental bodies,
planning agencies, and sewage and water treatment authorities or
water companies in the locality in which the coal mining and
reclamation activities took place, notifying them of the
applicant's intention to seek release from the bond.
(2) Upon receipt of a copy of the advertisement and
request for release of a bond or deposit under division (F)(3)(c)
of this section, the chief, within thirty days, shall conduct an
inspection and evaluation of the reclamation work involved. The
evaluation shall consider, among other things, the degree of
difficulty to complete any remaining reclamation, whether
pollution of surface and subsurface water is occurring, the
probability of continuation or future occurrence of the
pollution, and the estimated cost of abating the pollution. The
chief shall notify the permittee in writing of the decision to
release or not to release all or part of the performance bond or
deposit within sixty days after the filing of the request if no
public hearing is held pursuant to division (F)(6) of this
section or, if there has been a public hearing held pursuant to
division (F)(6) of this section, within thirty days thereafter.
(3) The chief may release the bond or deposit if the
reclamation covered by the bond or deposit or portion thereof has
been accomplished as required by this chapter and rules adopted
under it according to the following schedule:
(a) When the operator completes the backfilling,
regrading, and drainage control of a bonded area in accordance
with the approved reclamation plan, and, if the area covered
by
the bond or deposit is one for which an authorization was made
under division (E)(7) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code, the
operator has complied with the approved pollution abatement plan
and all additional requirements established by the chief in rules
adopted under section 1513.02 of the Revised Code governing coal
mining and reclamation operations on pollution abatement areas,
the chief shall grant a release of fifty per cent of the bond or
deposit for the applicable permit area.
(b) After resoiling and revegetation have been established
on the regraded mined lands in accordance with the approved
reclamation plan, the chief shall grant a release in an amount
not exceeding thirty-five per cent of the original bond or
deposit for all or part of the affected area under the permit.
When determining the amount of bond to be released after
successful revegetation has been established, the chief shall
retain that amount of bond for the revegetated area that would be
sufficient for a third party to cover the cost of reestablishing
revegetation for the period specified for operator responsibility
in this section for reestablishing revegetation. No part of the
bond or deposit shall be released under this division so long as
the lands to which the release would be applicable are
contributing suspended solids to streamflow or runoff outside the
permit area in excess of the requirements of this section or
until soil productivity for prime farmlands has returned to
equivalent levels of yield as nonmined land of the same soil type
in the surrounding area under equivalent management practices as
determined from the soil survey performed pursuant to section
1513.07 of the Revised Code. If the area covered by the bond or
deposit is one for which an authorization was made under division
(E)(7) of section 1513.07 of the Revised Code, no part of the
bond or deposit shall be released under this division until the
operator has complied with the approved pollution abatement plan
and all additional requirements established by the chief in rules
adopted under section 1513.02 of the Revised Code governing coal
mining and reclamation operations on pollution abatement areas.
Where a silt dam is to be retained as a permanent impoundment
pursuant to division (A)(10) of this section, the portion of bond
may be released under this division so long as provisions for
sound future maintenance by the operator or the landowner have
been made with the chief.
(c) When the operator has completed successfully all coal
mining and reclamation activities, including, if applicable, all
additional requirements established in the pollution abatement
plan approved under division (E)(7) of section 1513.07 of the
Revised Code and all additional requirements established by the
chief in rules adopted under section 1513.02 of the Revised Code
governing coal mining and reclamation operations on pollution
abatement areas, the chief shall release all or any of the
remaining portion of the bond or deposit for all or part of the
affected area under a permit, but not before the expiration of
the period specified for operator responsibility in this section,
except that the chief may adopt rules for a variance to the operator
period of responsibility considering vegetation success and
probability of continued growth and consent of the landowner,
provided that no bond shall be fully released until all
reclamation requirements of this chapter are fully met.
(4) If the chief disapproves the application for release
of the bond or deposit or portion thereof, the chief shall notify
the permittee, in writing, stating the reasons for disapproval
and recommending corrective actions necessary to secure the
release, and allowing the opportunity for a public adjudicatory
hearing.
(5) When any application for total or partial bond release
is filed with the chief under this section, the chief shall
notify the municipal corporation in which the coal mining
operation is located by certified mail at least thirty days prior
to the release of all or a portion of the bond.
(6) A person with a valid legal interest that might be
adversely affected by release of a bond under this section or the
responsible officer or head of any federal, state, or local
government agency that has jurisdiction by law or special
expertise with respect to any environmental, social, or economic
impact involved in the operation or is authorized to develop and
enforce environmental standards with respect to such operations
may file written objections to the proposed release from the bond
with the chief within thirty days after the last publication of
the notice required by division (F)(1) of this section. If
written objections are filed and an informal conference is
requested, the chief shall inform all interested parties of the
time and place of the conference. The date, time, and location
of the informal conference shall be advertised by the chief in a
newspaper of general circulation in the locality of the coal
mining operation proposed for bond release for at least once a
week for two consecutive weeks. The informal conference shall be
held in the locality of the coal mining operation proposed for
bond release or in Franklin county, at the option of the
objector, within thirty days after the request for the
conference. An electronic or stenographic record shall be made
of the conference proceeding unless waived by all parties. The
record shall be maintained and shall be accessible to the parties
until final release of the performance bond at issue. In the
event all parties requesting the informal conference stipulate
agreement prior to the requested informal conference and withdraw
their request, the informal conference need not be held.
(7) If an informal conference has been held pursuant to
division (F)(6) of this section, the chief shall issue and
furnish the applicant and persons who participated in the
conference with the written decision regarding the release within
sixty days after the conference. Within thirty days after
notification of the final decision of the chief regarding the
bond release, the applicant or any person with an interest that
is or may be adversely affected by the decision may appeal the
decision to the reclamation environmental review appeals commission pursuant
to section 1513.13 of the Revised Code.
(G) The chief shall adopt rules governing the criteria for
forfeiture of bond, the method of determining the forfeited
amount, and the procedures to be followed in the event of
forfeiture. Cash received as the result of such forfeiture is
the property of the state.
Sec. 1514.021. (A) A permit holder who wishes to continue
surface
or in-stream mining operations after the expiration date
of the
existing permit or renewal permit shall file with the chief
of
the
division of mineral resources
management an application for
renewal of a
surface
or in-stream mining permit or renewal permit
at least
ninety days
before the expiration date of the existing
permit or
renewal
permit. The application shall be upon the form
that the
chief
prescribes and provides and shall be accompanied by
a
permit
renewal fee. The amount of the fee for
renewal of a
surface mining permit or renewal permit shall be one
thousand
dollars, and the amount of the fee for renewal of an
in-stream
mining permit or renewal permit shall be five hundred
dollars.
(B) Upon receipt of an application for renewal and the
permit
renewal fee under division (A) of this section, the chief
shall
notify the applicant to submit a map that is a composite of
the
information required to be contained in the most recent annual
report map under section 1514.03 of the Revised Code and of all
surface
or in-stream mining and reclamation activities conducted
under the
existing permit or renewal permit; the annual report
required
under section 1514.03 of the Revised Code;
in the case of
an
applicant proposing a significant change to the
plan of mining
and
reclamation, as "significant" is defined by
rule, a copy of
the
advertisement that the applicant is required
to have published
in
accordance with section 1514.022 of the
Revised Code; and
additional
maps, plans, and revised or updated information that
the
chief determines to be necessary for permit renewal. Within
sixty days
after receipt of this notification, the applicant shall
submit
all the required information to the chief.
(C)(1) Upon receipt of the information required under
division (B) of this section
and except as otherwise provided in
division
(C)(2) of this section, the chief
shall approve
the
application for renewal and issue an order granting a renewal
permit
unless the chief finds that
any of
the following
applies:
(a) The permit holder's operation is
not in
substantial
or
material compliance with
this chapter, rules adopted and orders
issued under it, and the
plan of mining and reclamation under the
existing permit or
renewal permit.
(b) The permit holder has
not provided evidence
that a
performance
bond filed under section 1514.04 of the Revised Code
applicable
to lands affected under the existing permit or renewal
permit
will remain effective until released under section 1514.05
of the
Revised Code.
(c) The permit holder, any partner if the applicant is a
partnership, any officer or director if the applicant is a
corporation, or any
other person who has a right to control or in
fact controls the management of
the applicant or the selection of
officers, directors, or managers of the
applicant has failed
substantially or materially to comply or continues to
fail to
comply with this chapter as provided in section 1514.02 of the
Revised Code.
(2) If the application for renewal proposes significant
changes
to the plan of mining and reclamation, as "significant" is
defined
by rule, the chief may, but is not required to, approve
the
application for renewal.
(D) Within sixty days after receiving the information and
permit
renewal fees required under divisions (A) and (B) of this
section,
the chief shall approve the application for renewal and
issue an
order granting a renewal permit, issue an order denying
the
application, or notify the applicant that the time limit for
issuing such an order has been extended. This extension of time
shall not exceed sixty days.
(E) If an applicant for a renewal permit has complied with
division (A) of this section, the applicant may continue surface
or in-stream mining operations under the existing permit or
renewal permit
after its expiration date until the sixty-day
period for filing
the information required by the chief under
division (B) of this
section has expired or until the chief issues
an order under
division (D) of this section denying the renewal
permit.
(F) A permit holder who fails to submit an application and
required permit
renewal fees within the time prescribed by
division (A)
of
this section shall cease surface
or in-stream
mining operations on the
expiration date of the existing permit or
renewal permit. If
such
a permit holder then submits an
application for renewal and
the
permit
renewal fees otherwise
required by division (A) of this
section on
or before the
thirtieth day after the expiration date
of the
expired permit or
renewal permit and provides the
information
required by the chief
under division (B) of this
section within
sixty days after being
notified of the information
required under
that division, the
permit holder need not
submit the final map
and
report required by
section 1514.03 of the Revised Code until
the
later of thirty days
after the chief issues an order denying
the
application for
renewal or thirty days after the chief's
order is
affirmed upon
appeal under section 1513.13 or 1513.14 of
the
Revised Code. An
applicant under this division who fails to
provide the information
required by the chief under division (B)
of this section within
the prescribed time period shall
submit
the
final map and report
required by section 1514.03 of the
Revised
Code within thirty days
after the expiration of that
prescribed
period.
(G) If the chief issues an order denying an application
for
renewal of a permit or renewal permit after the expiration
date of
the permit, the permit holder shall cease surface
or in-stream
mining
operations immediately and, within thirty days after the
issuance
of the order, shall submit the final report and map
required
under
section 1514.03 of the Revised Code. The chief
shall state
the
reasons for denial in the order denying renewal of
the
application. An applicant may appeal the chief's order
denying
the renewal under section 1513.13 of the Revised Code and
may
continue surface
or in-stream mining and reclamation
operations under the
expired permit until the reclamation
environmental review appeals commission
affirms the
chief's order under that section
and, if
the applicant elects to
appeal the order of the commission
under
section 1513.14 of the
Revised Code, until the court of appeals
affirms the order.
(H) The approval of an application for renewal under this
section authorizes the continuation of
an existing
surface
mining
permit or renewal permit for a term of
fifteen years
from the
expiration date of the existing permit.
The approval of an application
for renewal under this
section
authorizes the continuation of an
existing in-stream
mining permit
or renewal permit for a term of
two years from the
expiration date
of the existing permit.
(I) Any renewal permit is subject to all the requirements
of
this chapter and rules adopted under it.
Sec. 1514.071. (A) In addition to any other penalties
established
under this chapter, the chief of the division of
mineral resources management
may
assess a civil penalty
against
any person who fails to comply with an order issued by the chief
under section 1514.07 of the Revised Code by the date
specified in
the order or as subsequently extended by the chief.
(B) Civil penalties assessed under this section shall not
exceed
one thousand dollars for each occurrence of noncompliance
with an order. Each
day of continuing noncompliance, up to a
maximum of thirty days, may
be deemed a separate occurrence for
purposes of
penalty assessments. In determining the amount of the
assessment, the chief
shall consider the seriousness of the
noncompliance, the effect of the
noncompliance, and the operator's
history of noncompliance.
(C) Upon issuance of a notice of noncompliance with an
order,
the
chief shall inform the person to whom the notice of
noncompliance is issued of
the amount of any civil penalty to be
assessed and provide an
opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing
with the reclamation
environmental review appeals commission pursuant to section 1514.09 1513.13 of the
Revised Code.
The person charged with the penalty shall have
thirty days from receipt of the
assessment to pay
the penalty in
full or, if the person wishes to contest
the amount of the
penalty, file a
petition for review of the assessment with the
commission
pursuant to section 1514.09 1513.13 of the Revised Code and
forward
the
amount of the penalty to the secretary of the
commission as required by this
division. Failure to forward the
money to the
secretary within thirty days after the chief informs
the person of
the amount of the penalty shall result in a waiver
of all
legal rights to contest the amount of the
penalty.
If, after a hearing, the commission affirms or modifies the
amount of the penalty, the person charged with the penalty
shall
have thirty days after receipt of the written decision to
file an
appeal from the commission's order in
accordance with section
1514.09 1513.14 of the Revised Code.
At the time that the petition for review
of the assessment is
filed with the secretary, the person
shall forward the amount of
the penalty to the secretary for
placement in the reclamation
penalty fund created in division
(F)(3) of section 1513.02 of the
Revised Code. Pursuant to administrative or
judicial review of
the penalty, the secretary shall do either of the
following:
(1) If it is determined that the amount of the penalty
should be
reduced, within thirty days, remit the appropriate
amount of the penalty
to the person, with interest, and forward
any balance of the
penalty, with interest, to the chief for
deposit in the surface mining
fund created in
section 1514.06 of
the Revised Code for reclamation of
abandoned surface or in-stream
mining
operations in the state;
(2) If the penalty was not reduced, forward the entire
penalty,
with interest, to the chief for deposit in the surface
mining
fund for reclamation of abandoned surface or in-stream
mining operations
in
the state.
(D) Civil penalties owed under this section may be recovered
in a
civil action brought by the attorney general upon the request
of the
chief.
Sec. 1514.09. The reclamation In accordance with procedures established under this chapter and Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code, the environmental review appeals commission
established
pursuant to in section 1513.05 3745.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as
the
reclamation commission pursuant to this
chapter.
However,
whenever the commission is considering
any appeal pertaining to
surface
or in-stream mining, as distinguished from
coal strip
mining, the
member representing the coal strip mine
operators
shall be
replaced by a person who, by reason of the
person's
previous
vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as
a
representative of surface
or in-stream mine operators, as
applicable. The appointment of
that person shall be made in
accordance with section
1513.05 of
the Revised Code, and the
person's term shall be concurrent
with
that of
the representative
of the coal strip mine operators consider appeals of actions of the chief of the division of mineral resources management under this chapter.
No party to an appeal brought under
this section shall be
eligible for an award of attorney's fees, costs, or
expenses from
the commission or any court.
Notwithstanding section 1513.14 of the Revised Code,
appeals
from an order of the commission pertaining to
surface
or in-stream
mining
may
be taken to the court of common pleas of the county in
which
the
operation is located, or to the court of common pleas of
Franklin
county.
Sec. 1514.10. No person shall:
(A)(1) Engage in surface mining without a permit;
(2) Engage in in-stream mining or conduct an in-stream
mining operation without an in-stream mining permit issued
by the
chief of the division of mineral resources management. A
person
who, on
the effective date of this amendment
March 15, 2002, holds a valid
permit
to conduct in-stream mining that is issued under section 10
of the
"Rivers and
Harbors
Appropriation
Act of 1899," 30
Stat. 1151, 33
U.S.C. 403, as
amended, shall not be required to obtain an
in-stream mining permit from
the chief under this chapter until
the existing permit expires.
(B) Exceed the limits of a surface
or in-stream mining
permit or
amendment to a permit by
mining land contiguous to an
area of land
affected under a permit or
amendment, which
contiguous land is not
under
a permit or amendment;
(C) Purposely misrepresent or omit any material fact in an
application for a
surface
or in-stream mining permit or amendment,
an annual or
final report, or
any
hearing or investigation
conducted by the
chief
or the
reclamation
environmental review appeals commission;
(D) Fail to perform any measure set forth in the approved
plan of mining and
reclamation that is necessary to prevent damage
to adjoining property or to
achieve a performance standard
required in division (A)(10) of section
1514.02 of the
Revised
Code, or violate any other requirement of this chapter, a rule
adopted
thereunder, or an order of the chief;
(E) Conduct surface excavations of minerals within any of
the
following:
(1) One hundred twenty feet horizontal distance outward from
the highwater
mark on each bank of an area designated as a wild,
scenic, or recreational
river area under sections 1517.14 to
1517.18 of the Revised Code or of a portion of a river
designated
as a component of the national wild and scenic river system under
the "Wild and Scenic Rivers Act," 82
Stat. 906 (1968), 16 U.S.C.
1274, as
amended;
(2) Seventy-five feet horizontal distance outward from the
highwater mark
on each bank of a watercourse that drains a surface
area of more than one
hundred square miles;
(3) Fifty feet horizontal distance outward from the
highwater mark on each
bank of a watercourse that drains a surface
area of more than twenty-five
square miles, but fewer than one
hundred square miles unless a variance is
obtained under rules
adopted by the chief.
(F) Conduct any surface mining activity within any of the
following:
(1) Seventy-five feet horizontal distance outward from the
highwater mark
on each bank of an area designated as a wild,
scenic, or recreational river
area under sections 1517.14 to
1517.18 of the Revised Code or of a portion of a river
designated
as a component of the national wild and scenic river system under
the "Wild and Scenic Rivers Act," 82
Stat. 906 (1968), 16 U.S.C.
1274, as
amended;
(2) Seventy-five feet horizontal distance outward from the
highwater mark
on each bank of a watercourse that drains a surface
area of more than one
hundred square miles;
(3) Fifty feet horizontal distance outward from the
highwater mark on each
bank of a watercourse that drains a surface
area of more than twenty-five
square miles, but fewer than one
hundred square miles unless a variance is
obtained under rules
adopted by the chief.
A person who has been issued a surface mining permit prior to
the effective
date of this amendment
March 15, 2002, may continue to operate under
that permit and shall not
be subject to the prohibitions
established in divisions (E) and
(F) of this section until the
permit is renewed.
The number of square miles of surface area that a watercourse
drains shall
be determined by consulting the "gazetteer of Ohio
streams," which is
a portion of the Ohio water plan inventory
published in 1960 by the
division of water in the department of
natural resources, or its successor, if
any.
(G)
Engage in any part of a process that is followed in the
production of minerals from the bottom of the channel of a
watercourse in any
of the following circumstances or areas:
(1) In an area designated as a wild, scenic, or recreational
river area under sections 1517.14 to 1517.18 of the Revised Code,
in a portion of a river designated as a component of the national
wild and
scenic river system under the
"Wild and
Scenic
Rivers
Act," 82
Stat. 906 (1968), 16 U.S.C. 1274,
as amended, or within
one-half
mile upstream of any portion of such an
area or
component;
(2) During periods other than periods of low flow, as
determined
by rules adopted under section 1514.08 of the Revised
Code;
(3) During critical fish or mussel spawning seasons as
determined by
the
chief of the division of wildlife under Chapter
1531. of the
Revised Code and rules
adopted
under it;
(4) In an area known to possess critical spawning habitat
for a
species of fish or mussel that is on the federal endangered
species
list
established in accordance with the "Endangered
Species
Act of
1973," 87 Stat. 884, 16 U.S.C. 1531-1543,
as
amended, or the state
endangered species list established in rules
adopted under section
1531.25 of the Revised Code.
Division (G) of this section does not apply to the activities
described in divisions (M)(1) and (2) of section 1514.01
of the
Revised Code.
Sec. 1519.05. (A) As used in this section, "local political
subdivision" and "nonprofit organization" have the same meanings
as in section 164.20 of the Revised Code.
(B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the clean
Ohio trail fund. Twelve and
one-half
per cent of the net proceeds
of obligations issued and
sold
pursuant to sections 151.01 and
151.09 of the Revised Code
shall
be deposited into the fund.
Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the
fund.
For two years after
the effective date of this section,
investment earnings credited to the fund and may be used to pay
costs
incurred by the director
of natural resources in
administering
this section.
Money in the clean Ohio trail fund shall not be used for the
appropriation of land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises,
easements, or other property through the exercise of the right of
eminent domain.
The director shall use moneys in the fund exclusively to
provide matching grants to nonprofit organizations and to local
political
subdivisions for the purposes of purchasing land or
interests in
land for recreational trails and for the construction
of such
trails. A matching grant may provide up to seventy-five
per cent
of the cost of a recreational trail project, and the
recipient of
the matching grant shall provide not less than
twenty-five per
cent of that cost.
(C) The director shall establish policies for the purposes
of this section.
The policies shall establish all of the
following:
(1) Procedures for providing matching grants to nonprofit
organizations and local political subdivisions for the purposes of
purchasing land or interests in land for recreational trails and
for the construction of such trails, including, without
limitation, procedures for both of the following:
(a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting,
accepting, and approving grant applications;
(b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local
political subdivisions in the application process.
(2) A requirement that an application for a matching grant
for a recreational trail project include a copy of a resolution
supporting the project from each county in which the proposed
project is to be conducted and whichever of the following is
applicable:
(a) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly
within
the geographical boundaries of one township, a copy of a
resolution supporting the project from the township;
(b) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly
within
the geographical boundaries of one municipal corporation, a
copy
of a resolution supporting the project from the municipal
corporation;
(c) If the proposed project is to be conducted in more than
one, but fewer than five townships or municipal corporations, a
copy of a resolution supporting the project from at least one-half
of the total number of townships and municipal corporations in
which the proposed project is to be conducted;
(d) If the proposed project is to be conducted in five or
more municipal corporations, a copy of a resolution supporting the
project from at least three-fifths of the total number of
townships and municipal corporations in which the proposed project
is to be conducted.
(3)
Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an
applicant in order to receive a matching grant and that emphasize
the following:
(a) Synchronization with the statewide trail plan;
(b) Complete regional systems and links to the statewide
trail system;
(c) A combination of funds from various state agencies;
(d) The provision of links in urban areas that support
commuter access and show economic impact on local communities;
(e) The linkage of population centers with public outdoor
recreation areas and facilities;
(f) The purchase of rail lines that are linked to the
statewide trail plan;
(g) The preservation of natural corridors.
(4) Items of value, such as in-kind contributions of land,
easements or other interests in land, labor, or materials, that
may be considered as contributing toward the percentage of the
cost of a recreational trails project that must be provided by a
matching grant recipient.
Sec. 1521.06. (A) No dam may be constructed for the
purpose of storing, conserving, or retarding water, or for any
other purpose, nor shall any dike or levee be constructed for the
purpose of diverting or retaining flood water, unless the person
or governmental agency desiring the construction has a
construction permit for the dam, dike, or levee issued by the
chief of the division of water.
A construction permit is not required under this section
for:
(1) A dam which that is or will be less than ten feet in height
and which that has or will have a storage capacity of not more than
fifty acre-feet at the elevation of the top of the dam, as
determined by the chief. For the purposes of this section, the
height of a dam shall be measured from the natural stream bed or
lowest ground elevation at the downstream or outside limit of the
dam to the elevation of the top of the dam.
(2) A dam, regardless of height, which that has or will have a
storage capacity of not more than fifteen acre-feet at the
elevation of the top of the dam, as determined by the chief;
(3) A dam, regardless of storage capacity, which that is or
will be six feet or less in height, as determined by the chief;
(4) A dam, dike, or levee which that belongs to a class
exempted by the chief;
(5) The repair, maintenance, improvement, alteration, or
removal of a dam, dike, or levee which that is subject to section
1521.062 of the Revised Code, unless the construction constitutes
an enlargement of the structure as determined by the chief;
(6) A dam or impoundment constructed under Chapter 1513.
of the Revised Code.
(B) Before a construction permit may be issued, three
copies of the plans and specifications, including a detailed cost
estimate, for the proposed construction, prepared by a registered
professional engineer, together with the filing fee specified by
this section and the bond or other security required by section
1521.061 of the Revised Code, shall be filed with the chief. The
detailed estimate of the cost shall include all costs associated
with the construction of the dam, dike, or levee, including
supervision and inspection of the construction by a registered
professional engineer. Except for a political subdivision, the
The filing fee shall be based on the detailed cost estimate for the
proposed construction as filed with and approved by the chief,
and shall be determined by the following schedule unless otherwise provided by rules adopted under this section:
(1) For the first one hundred thousand dollars of
estimated cost, a fee of two four per cent;
(2) For the next four hundred thousand dollars of
estimated cost, a fee of one and one-half three per cent;
(3) For the next five hundred thousand dollars of
estimated cost, a fee of one two per cent;
(4) For all costs in excess of one million dollars, a fee
of one-quarter one-half of one per cent.
In no case shall the filing fee be less than two hundred
one thousand dollars or more than fifty one hundred thousand dollars. If the actual cost
exceeds the estimated cost by more than fifteen per cent, an
additional filing fee shall be required equal to the fee
determined by the preceding schedule less the original filing
fee. The filing fee for a political subdivision shall be two
hundred dollars. All fees collected pursuant to this section,
and all fines collected pursuant to section 1521.99 of the
Revised Code, shall be deposited in the state treasury to the
credit of the dam safety fund, which is hereby created.
Expenditures from the fund shall be made by the chief for the
purpose of administering this section and sections 1521.061 and
1521.062 of the Revised Code.
(C) The chief shall, within thirty days from the date of
the receipt of the application, fee, and bond or other security,
issue or deny a construction permit for the construction or may
issue a construction permit conditioned upon the making of such
changes in the plans and specifications for the construction as
he the chief considers advisable if he the chief
determines that the construction of
the proposed dam, dike, or levee, in accordance with the plans
and specifications filed, would endanger life, health, or
property.
(D) The chief may deny a construction permit if he finds after
finding
that a dam, dike, or levee built in accordance with the plans and
specifications would endanger life, health, or property, because
of improper or inadequate design, or for such other reasons as
the chief may determine.
In the event the chief denies a permit for the construction
of the dam, dike, or levee, or issues a permit conditioned upon a
making of changes in the plans or specifications for the
construction, he the chief shall state his the reasons
therefor and
so notify,
in writing, the person or governmental agency making the
application for a permit. If the permit is denied, the chief
shall return the bond or other security to the person or
governmental agency making application for the permit.
The decision of the chief conditioning or denying a
construction permit is subject to appeal as provided in Chapter
119. of the Revised Code. A dam, dike, or levee built
substantially at variance from the plans and specifications upon
which a construction permit was issued is in violation of this
section. The chief may at any time inspect any dam, dike, or
levee, or site upon which any dam, dike, or levee is to be
constructed, in order to determine whether it complies with this
section.
(E) A registered professional engineer shall inspect the
construction for which the permit was issued during all phases of
construction and shall furnish to the chief such regular reports
of his the engineer's inspections as the chief may require.
When the chief
finds that construction has been fully completed in accordance
with the terms of the permit and the plans and specifications
approved by him the chief, he the chief shall
approve the construction. When one
year has elapsed after approval of the completed construction,
and the chief finds that within this period no fact has become
apparent to indicate that the construction was not performed in
accordance with the terms of the permit and the plans and
specifications approved by the chief, or that the construction as
performed would endanger life, health, or property, he the chief
shall
release the bond or other security. No bond or other security
shall be released until one year after final approval by the
chief, unless the dam, dike, or levee has been modified so that
it will not retain water and has been approved as nonhazardous
after determination by the chief that the dam, dike, or levee as
modified will not endanger life, health, or property.
(F) When inspections required by this section are not
being performed, the chief shall notify the person or
governmental agency to which the permit has been issued that
inspections are not being performed by the registered
professional engineer and that the chief will inspect the
remainder of the construction. Thereafter, the chief shall
inspect the construction and the cost of inspection shall be
charged against the owner. Failure of the registered
professional engineer to submit required inspection reports shall
be deemed notice that his the engineer's inspections are not
being performed.
(G) The chief may order construction to cease on any dam,
dike, or levee which that is being built in violation of the
provisions of this section, and may prohibit the retention of
water behind any dam, dike, or levee which that has been built in
violation of the provisions of this section. The attorney
general, upon written request of the chief, may bring an action
for an injunction against any person who violates this section or
to enforce an order or prohibition of the chief made pursuant to
this section.
(H) The chief may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter
119. of the Revised Code, for the design and construction of
dams, dikes, and levees for which a construction permit is
required by this section or for which periodic inspection is
required by section 1521.062 of the Revised Code, for establishing a filing fee schedule in lieu of the schedule established under division (B) of this section, for deposit and
forfeiture of bonds and other securities required by section
1521.061 of the Revised Code, for the periodic inspection,
operation, repair, improvement, alteration, or removal of all
dams, dikes, and levees, as specified in section 1521.062 of the
Revised Code, and for establishing classes of dams, dikes, or
levees which that are exempt from the requirements of sections 1521.06
and 1521.062 of the Revised Code as being of a size, purpose, or
situation which that does not present a substantial hazard to life,
health, or property. The chief may, by rule, limit the period
during which a construction permit issued under this section is
valid. If a construction permit expires before construction is
completed, the person or agency shall apply for a new permit, and
shall not continue construction until the new permit is issued.
(I) As used in this section and section 1521.063 of the
Revised Code, "political subdivision" includes townships,
municipal corporations, counties, school districts, municipal
universities, park districts, sanitary districts, and conservancy
districts and subdivisions thereof.
Sec. 1521.063. (A) Except for a political subdivision the federal government,
the owner of any dam subject to section 1521.062 of the Revised
Code shall pay an annual fee, based upon the height of the dam,
to the division of water on or before June 30, 1988, and on or
before the thirtieth day of June of each succeeding year. The
annual fee shall be as follows until otherwise provided by rules adopted under this section:
(1) For any dam classified as a class I dam under rules
adopted by the chief of the division of water under section
1521.06 of the Revised Code, thirty dollars plus three ten dollars
per foot of height of dam;
(2) For any dam classified as a class II dam under those
rules, thirty dollars plus one dollar per foot of height of dam;
(3) For any dam classified as a class III dam under those
rules, thirty dollars.
For purposes of this section, the height of a dam is the
vertical height, to the nearest foot, as determined by the
division under section 1521.062 of the Revised Code. All fees
collected under this section shall be deposited in the dam safety
fund created in section 1521.06 of the Revised Code. Any owner
who fails to pay any annual fee required by this section within
sixty days after the due date shall be assessed a penalty of ten
per cent of the annual fee plus interest at the rate of one-half
per cent per month from the due date until the date of payment.
(B) The chief shall, in accordance with Chapter 119. of
the Revised Code, adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules for the
collection of fees and the administration, implementation, and
enforcement of this section and for the establishment of an annual fee schedule in lieu of the schedule established under division (A) of this section.
(C)(1) No person, political subdivision, or state governmental agency shall violate or
fail to comply with this section or any rule or order adopted or
issued under it.
(2) The attorney general, upon written request of the
chief, may commence an action against any such violator. Any
action under division (C)(2) of this section is a civil action.
(D) As used in this section, "political subdivision" includes townships,
municipal corporations, counties, school districts, municipal
universities, park districts, sanitary districts, and conservancy
districts and subdivisions thereof.
Sec. 1531.26. There is hereby created in the state
treasury the nongame and endangered wildlife fund, which shall
consist of moneys paid into it by the tax commissioner under
section 5747.113 of the Revised Code, moneys deposited in the fund
from the issuance of wildlife conservation license plates under section
4503.57 of the Revised Code,
moneys deposited in the fund from the issuance of bald eagle license plates
under section 4503.572 of the Revised Code,
moneys credited to the fund under section 1533.151 of the Revised Code, and of contributions made
directly to it. Any person may contribute directly to the fund
in addition to or independently of the income tax refund
contribution system established in section 5747.113
of the Revised Code. Moneys in the
fund shall be disbursed pursuant to vouchers approved by the
director of natural resources for use by the division of wildlife
solely for the purchase, management, preservation, propagation,
protection, and stocking of wild animals that are not commonly
taken for sport or commercial purposes, including the acquisition of title and
easements to lands, biological investigations, law
enforcement, production of educational materials, sociological surveys,
habitat development, and personnel and equipment costs; and for carrying out
section 1531.25 of the Revised
Code. Moneys in the fund also may be used to promote and develop
nonconsumptive wildlife recreational opportunities involving wild animals.
Moneys in the fund from the issuance of bald eagle license
plates under section 4503.572 of the Revised Code shall be expended by the division only to
pay the costs of acquiring, developing, and restoring habitat for bald eagles
within this
state. Moneys in the fund from any other source also may be used to pay the
costs of acquiring, developing, and restoring habitat for bald eagles within
this state.
All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to
the fund. Subject to the approval of the director, the chief of
the division of wildlife may enter into agreements that the chief considers
appropriate to obtain additional moneys for the protection of
nongame native wildlife under the "Endangered Species Act of
1973," 87 Stat. 884, 16 U.S.C.A. 1541-1543, as amended, and the
"Fish and Wildlife Conservation Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 1322, 16
U.S.C.A. 2901-2911, as amended. Moneys appropriated from the
fund are not intended to replace other moneys appropriated for
these purposes.
Sec. 1533.08. Except as otherwise provided by division rule, any person
desiring to collect wild animals that are protected by law or their nests or
eggs for scientific
study, school instruction, other educational uses, or rehabilitation shall
make application to the chief of the division of wildlife for a
wild animal collecting permit on a form furnished by the chief. Each
applicant for a wild animal collecting permit, other than an
applicant desiring to rehabilitate wild animals, shall pay an
annual fee of ten twenty-five dollars for each permit. No fee shall be charged to an
applicant desiring to rehabilitate wild animals. When it appears
that the application is made in good faith, the chief shall issue to the
applicant a permit to take, possess, and transport at any time
and in any manner specimens of wild animals protected by law or
their nests and eggs for scientific study, school instruction,
other educational uses, or rehabilitation and under any additional
rules recommended by the wildlife council. Upon the receipt of a
permit, the holder may take, possess, and transport those
wild animals in accordance with the permit.
Each holder of a permit engaged in collecting such wild
animals shall carry the permit at all times
and shall exhibit it upon demand to any wildlife officer, constable, sheriff,
deputy sheriff, or police officer, to the owner or person in
lawful control of the land upon which the permit holder is
collecting, or to any other person. Failure to so carry or exhibit the permit
constitutes an offense under this section.
Each permit holder shall keep a daily record of all
specimens collected under the permit and the disposition of the
specimens and shall exhibit the daily record to any official of
the division upon demand.
Each permit shall remain in effect for one year from
the date of issuance unless it is revoked sooner by the chief.
All moneys received as fees for the issuance of a wild
animal collecting permit shall be transmitted to the director
of natural resources to be paid into the state treasury to the
credit of the fund created by section 1533.15 of the Revised
Code.
Sec. 1533.10. Except as provided in this section or
division (A) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person
shall hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped without a hunting
license. Each day that any person hunts within the state without
procuring such a license constitutes a separate offense. Every
Except as otherwise provided in this section, every applicant for a hunting license who is a resident of the state
and sixteen years of age or more shall
procure a resident hunting license,
the fee for which shall be fourteen eighteen dollars, unless the rules
adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code
provide for issuance of a resident hunting license to the
applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a special senior hunting license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. Every applicant who is a resident of
the state and under the age of sixteen years shall procure a
special youth hunting license, the fee for which shall be
one-half of the regular hunting license fee. The owner of lands in the
state and the
owner's children of any
age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt
on the lands
without a hunting license. The tenant or manager and children of
the tenant or manager, residing on lands in the state, may hunt
on them without a hunting license. Every applicant for
a hunting
license who is a nonresident of the state shall procure a
nonresident hunting license, the fee for which shall be ninety
one hundred twenty-four dollars, unless the applicant is a resident of a state that is a
party to an agreement under section 1533.91 of the Revised Code,
in which case the fee shall be fourteen eighteen dollars.
The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a tourist's
small game hunting license expiring three days from the effective
date of the license to a nonresident of the state, the fee for
which shall be twenty-four thirty-nine dollars. No person shall take or
possess deer, wild turkeys, fur-bearing animals, ducks, geese, brant,
or any nongame animal while
possessing only a
tourist's small game hunting license. A tourist's
small game hunting license does not authorize the taking or possessing of
ducks, geese, or brant without having obtained, in addition to
the tourist's small game hunting license, a wetlands habitat
stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code. A tourist's
small game hunting license does not authorize the taking
or possessing of deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals. A
nonresident of the state who wishes to take or possess deer,
wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals in this state shall
procure, respectively, a special deer or wild turkey permit as
provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code or a fur
taker permit as provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised
Code in addition to a nonresident hunting license as provided in this
section.
No person shall procure or attempt to procure a hunting
license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false
statement.
This section does not authorize the taking and possessing
of deer or wild turkeys without first having obtained, in
addition to the hunting license required by this section, a
special deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11
of the Revised Code or the taking and possessing of ducks, geese,
or brant without first having obtained, in addition to the
hunting license required by this section, a wetlands habitat
stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code.
This section does not authorize the hunting or trapping of
fur-bearing animals without first having obtained, in addition to
a hunting license required by this section, a fur taker permit as
provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code.
No hunting license shall be issued unless it is accompanied by a written
explanation of the law in section 1533.17
of the Revised Code and the penalty for its
violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may
be imposed.
No hunting license shall be issued unless the applicant
presents to the agent authorized to issue the license a
previously held hunting license or evidence of having held such a
license in content and manner approved by the chief, a
certificate of completion issued upon completion of a hunter
education and conservation course approved by the chief, or
evidence of equivalent training in content and manner approved by
the chief.
No person shall issue a hunting license to any person who
fails to present the evidence required by this section. No
person shall purchase or obtain a hunting license without
presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this
section. Issuance of a hunting license in violation of the
requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser
of the illegally obtained hunting license and the clerk or agent
who issued the hunting license. Any hunting license issued in
violation of this section is void.
The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall
adopt rules prescribing a hunter education and conservation
course for first-time hunting license buyers and for volunteer
instructors. The course shall consist of subjects including, but
not limited to, hunter safety and health, use of hunting
implements, hunting tradition and ethics, the hunter and
conservation, the law in section 1533.17
of the Revised Code along with the penalty for
its
violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may
be imposed, and other law relating to hunting.
Authorized
personnel of the division or volunteer instructors approved by
the chief shall conduct such courses with such frequency and at
such locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the
needs of license applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate
of completion to each person who successfully completes the
course and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.
Sec. 1533.101. Any person who has been issued a hunting or
fishing license, a wetlands habitat stamp, a deer or wild turkey
permit, or a fur taker
permit for the current license, stamp, or permit year or
for the license, stamp,
or permit year next preceding the current such year pursuant to
this chapter, and if the license, stamp, or permit has
been lost,
destroyed, or stolen, may be issued a reissued hunting or fishing
license, wetlands habitat stamp, deer or wild turkey permit, or
fur taker permit. The
person shall file with the clerk of the court of common pleas an
application in affidavit form or, if the chief of the division of wildlife
authorizes it, apply for a reissued license, stamp, or permit to an authorized
agent designated by the chief, and pay a fee for each
license, stamp, or
permit of two four dollars plus one dollar to the clerk
or agent, who shall
issue a reissued license, stamp, or permit that shall allow
the applicant
to hunt, fish, or trap, as the case may be. The clerk or agent shall
administer the oath to the applicant and shall send a copy of the
reissued license, stamp, or permit to the division of
wildlife.
All moneys received as fees for the issuance of reissued
licenses, stamps, or permits shall be transmitted to the
director of
natural resources to be paid into the state treasury to the
credit of the funds to which the fees for the original licenses,
stamps,
and permits were credited.
No person shall knowingly or willfully secure, attempt to
secure, or use a reissued hunting or fishing license, wetlands habitat
stamp, deer or
wild turkey permit, or fur taker permit to which the person
is not entitled. No person shall knowingly or willfully issue a
reissued hunting or fishing license, wetlands habitat stamp,
deer or wild turkey permit,
or fur taker permit under this section to any person who is not
entitled to receive and use such a reissued license, stamp,
or permit.
Sec. 1533.11. (A) Except as provided in this section, no
person shall hunt deer on lands of another without first
obtaining an annual special deer permit. Except as provided in
this section, no person shall hunt wild turkeys on lands of
another without first obtaining an annual special wild turkey
permit. Each applicant for a special deer or wild turkey permit
shall pay an annual fee of nineteen twenty-three dollars for each permit,
together with the one-dollar as a fee to the clerk or other issuing
agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code, for the permit unless the rules adopted under division (B)
of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a
deer or wild turkey permit to the applicant free of charge.
Except as provided in division (A) of section 1533.12 of the
Revised Code, a deer or wild turkey permit shall run concurrently
with the hunting license. The money received, other than the
one-dollar issuing agent's fee provided for above, shall be paid into the state
treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund, created in section
1531.17 of the Revised Code, exclusively for the use of the
division of wildlife in the acquisition and development of land
for deer or wild turkey management, for investigating deer or
wild turkey problems, and for the stocking, management, and
protection of deer or wild turkey. Every person, while hunting
deer or wild turkey on lands of another, shall carry the
person's special deer or wild turkey permit and exhibit it
to any enforcement officer so requesting. Failure to so carry and
exhibit such a permit constitutes an offense under this section.
The chief of the division of wildlife shall adopt any additional
rules the chief considers necessary to carry out this section
and section 1533.10 of the Revised Code.
The owner and the children of the owner of lands in this
state may hunt deer or wild turkey thereon without a special deer
or wild turkey permit. The tenant or manager and children of the
tenant or manager may hunt deer or wild turkey on lands where
they reside without a special deer or wild turkey permit.
(B) A special deer or wild turkey permit is not
transferable. No person shall carry a special deer or wild
turkey permit issued in the name of another person.
(C) The wildlife refunds fund is hereby created in the
state treasury. The fund shall consist of money received from
application fees for special deer permits that are not issued.
Money in the fund shall be used to make refunds of such
application fees.
Sec. 1533.111. Except as provided in this section or
division (A) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person
shall hunt or trap fur-bearing animals on land of another without
first obtaining an annual fur taker permit. Each applicant for a
fur taker permit shall pay an annual fee of ten fourteen dollars, together
with one dollar as a fee to the clerk or other issuing agent, for
the permit, except as otherwise provided in this section or
unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of
the Revised Code provide for issuance of a fur taker permit to
the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a special senior fur taker permit, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular fur taker permit fee and which shall be paid together with the one-dollar fee to the clerk or other issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code. Each applicant who is a resident
of the state and under the age of sixteen years shall procure a
special youth fur taker permit, the fee for which shall be
one-half of the regular fur taker permit fee and which shall be
paid together with the one-dollar as a fee to the clerk or other
issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code. The fur taker permit shall run concurrently with
the hunting license. The money received, other than the one-
dollar issuing agent's fee provided for in this section, shall be paid into the
state treasury to the credit of the fund established in section
1533.15 of the Revised Code.
No fur taker permit shall be issued unless it is accompanied by a written
explanation of the law in section 1533.17
of the Revised Code and the penalty for its
violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may
be imposed.
No fur taker permit shall be issued unless the applicant
presents to the agent authorized to issue a fur taker permit a
previously held hunting license or trapping or fur taker permit
or evidence of having held such a license or permit in content and
manner approved by the chief of the division of wildlife, a
certificate of completion issued upon completion of a trapper
education course approved by the chief, or evidence of equivalent
training in content and manner approved by the chief.
No person shall issue a fur taker permit to any person who
fails to present the evidence required by this section. No
person shall purchase or obtain a fur taker permit without
presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this
section. Issuance of a fur taker permit in violation of the
requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser
of the illegally obtained permit and the clerk or agent who
issued the permit. Any fur taker permit issued in violation of
this section is void.
The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall
adopt rules prescribing a trapper education course for first-time
fur taker permit buyers and for volunteer instructors. The
course shall consist of subjects that include, but are not
limited to, trapping techniques, animal habits and
identification, trapping tradition and ethics, the trapper and
conservation, the law in section 1533.17
of the Revised Code along with the penalty for
its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that
may be imposed, and other law relating to
trapping. Authorized
personnel of the division of wildlife or volunteer instructors
approved by the chief shall conduct the courses with such
frequency and at such locations throughout the state as to
reasonably meet the needs of permit applicants. The chief shall
issue a certificate of completion to each person who successfully
completes the course and passes an examination prescribed by the
chief.
Every person, while hunting or trapping fur-bearing
animals on lands of another, shall carry the person's fur
taker permit affixed to the person's hunting license with
the person's signature written across
the face of the permit. Failure to carry such a signed permit
constitutes an offense under this section. The chief shall adopt any
additional rules the chief considers necessary to carry
out this section.
The owner and the children of the owner of lands in this
state may hunt or trap fur-bearing animals thereon without a fur
taker permit. The tenant or manager and children of the tenant
or manager may hunt or trap fur-bearing animals on lands
where they reside without a fur taker permit.
A fur taker permit is not transferable. No person shall
carry a fur taker permit issued in the name of another person.
A fur taker permit entitles a nonresident to take
from this state fur-bearing animals taken and possessed by the
nonresident as provided by law or division rule.
Sec. 1533.112. Except as provided in this
section or unless otherwise provided by division rule, no
person shall hunt ducks, geese, or brant on the lands of another
without first obtaining an annual wetlands habitat stamp. The
annual fee for the wetlands habitat stamp shall be ten fourteen dollars
for each stamp, together with the one-dollar as a fee to the clerk or
other issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code, unless the rules adopted under division (B)
of section 1533.12 provide for issuance of a wetlands habitat
stamp to the applicant free of charge.
Moneys received from the stamp fee, other than the one-
dollar clerk's issuing agent's fee, shall be paid into the state treasury to the
credit of the wetlands habitat fund, which is hereby established.
Moneys shall be paid from the fund on the order of the director
of natural resources for the following purposes:
(A) Sixty per cent for projects that the division approves
for the acquisition, development, management, or preservation of
waterfowl areas within the state;
(B) Forty per cent for contribution by the division to an
appropriate nonprofit organization for the acquisition,
development, management, or preservation of lands and waters
within the United States or Canada that provide or will provide habitat for waterfowl
with migration routes that cross this state.
No moneys derived from the issuance of wetlands habitat
stamps shall be spent for purposes other than those specified by
this section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be
credited to the fund.
Wetlands habitat stamps shall be furnished by and in a form prescribed
by the chief of
the division of wildlife and issued by clerks and other agents
authorized to issue licenses and permits under section 1533.13 of
the Revised Code. The record of stamps kept by the clerks and
other agents shall be uniform throughout the state, in such form
or manner as the director prescribes, and open at all reasonable
hours to the inspection of any person. Unless otherwise
provided by rule, each stamp
shall remain
in force until midnight of the thirty-first day of August next
ensuing. Wetlands habitat stamps may be issued in any manner to
any person on any date, whether or not that date is within the
period in which they are effective.
Every person to whom this section applies, while hunting
ducks, geese, or brant, shall carry an unexpired wetlands habitat
stamp that is validated by the person's signature written on
the stamp in
ink and shall exhibit the stamp to any enforcement officer so
requesting. No person shall fail to carry and exhibit the
person's stamp.
A wetlands habitat stamp is not transferable.
The chief shall establish a procedure to obtain subject
matter to be printed on the wetlands habitat stamp and shall use,
dispose of, or distribute the subject matter as the chief
considers
necessary. The chief also shall adopt
rules necessary to
administer this section.
This section does not apply to persons under sixteen years
of age nor to persons exempted from procuring a hunting license
under section 1533.10 or division (A) of section 1533.12 of the
Revised Code.
Sec. 1533.12. (A) Every person on active duty in the
armed forces of the United States, while on leave or furlough,
may take or catch fish of the kind lawfully permitted to be taken
or caught within the state, may hunt any wild bird or wild
quadruped lawfully permitted to be hunted within the state, and
may trap fur-bearing animals lawfully permitted to be trapped
within the state, without procuring a fishing license, a hunting
license, a fur taker permit, or a wetlands habitat stamp required
by this chapter, provided that the person shall carry on self the person when
fishing, hunting, or trapping, a card or other
evidence identifying the person as
being on active duty in the armed
forces of the United States, and provided that the person is not
otherwise violating any of the hunting, fishing, and trapping
laws of this state.
In order to hunt deer or wild turkey, any such person shall
obtain a special deer or wild turkey permit, as applicable, under
section 1533.11 of the Revised Code. However, the person need
not obtain a hunting license in order to obtain such a permit.
(B) The chief of the division of wildlife shall provide by
rule adopted under section 1531.10 of the Revised Code all of
the following:
(1) Every resident of this state with a disability that
has been determined by the veterans administration to be
permanently and totally disabling, who receives a pension or
compensation from the veterans administration, and who received
an honorable discharge from the armed forces of the United
States, and every veteran to whom the registrar of motor vehicles
has issued a set of license plates under section 4503.41 of the
Revised Code, shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting
license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or
wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses,
permits, and stamp, free of charge when application is made to
the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by
the chief.
(2) Every resident of the state who is sixty-six years of
age or older was born on or before December 31, 1937, shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting
license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or
wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses,
permits, and stamp, free of charge when application is made to
the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by
the chief.
(3) Every resident of state or county institutions,
charitable institutions, and military homes in this state shall
be issued an annual fishing license free of charge when
application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and
on forms provided by the chief.
(4) Any mobility impaired or blind person, as defined in
section 955.011 of the Revised Code, who is a resident of this state and who is
unable to engage in fishing without the assistance of another
person shall be issued an annual
fishing license free of charge when application is made to the
chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the
chief. The person who is assisting the mobility
impaired or blind person may
assist in taking or catching fish of the kind permitted to be
taken or caught without procuring the license required under
section 1533.32 of the Revised Code, provided that only one line
is used by both persons.
(5) As used in division (B)(5) of this section,
"prisoner of war" means any regularly appointed, enrolled, enlisted, or
inducted member of the military forces of the United States who was captured,
separated, and incarcerated by an enemy of the United States.
Any person who has been a prisoner of war, was honorably
discharged from the military forces, and is a resident of this
state shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting license,
fur taker permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination
of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge when
application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and
on forms provided by the chief.
(C) The chief shall adopt rules pursuant to section
1531.08 of the Revised Code designating not more than two days,
which need not be consecutive, in each year as "free sport
fishing days" on which any resident may exercise the privileges
accorded the holder of a fishing license issued under section
1533.32 of the Revised Code without procuring such a license,
provided that the person is not otherwise violating any of the
fishing laws of this state.
Sec. 1533.13. Hunting and fishing licenses, wetlands habitat
stamps, deer and wild
turkey permits, and fur taker permits shall
be issued by the
clerk of the court of common pleas, village and
township clerks,
and other authorized agents designated by the
chief of the
division of wildlife. When
required by the chief, a
clerk or agent shall give bond in the
manner provided by the
chief. All bonds, reports, except records
prescribed by the
auditor of state, and moneys received by those
persons shall be
handled under rules adopted by the director of
natural resources.
The premium
of any bond prescribed by the chief
under this
section may be paid by the chief. Any person who is
designated
and authorized by the chief to issue licenses,
stamps,
and
permits
as provided in this section, except the clerk of the
court of
common pleas and the village and township clerks, shall
pay to the
chief a premium in an amount that represents the
person's portion
of the premium paid by the chief under this
section,
which amount
shall be established by the chief and
approved by
the wildlife
council created under section 1531.03 of
the Revised
Code. The
chief shall pay all moneys that the chief
receives as premiums
under this section into the state treasury to
the credit
of the
wildlife fund created under section 1531.17 of
the Revised
Code.
Every authorized agent, for the purpose of issuing hunting
and fishing licenses, deer and wild
turkey permits, and fur taker
permits, may administer oaths to and
take affidavits from
applicants for the licenses or permits when
required. An
authorized agent may appoint deputies to perform any
acts that
the
agent is authorized to perform, consistent with
division
rules.
Every applicant for a hunting or fishing license, deer or
wild turkey permit, or fur taker permit,
unless otherwise provided
by division rule, shall make and
subscribe
an affidavit setting
forth the applicant's name, age,
weight, height,
occupation, place
of residence, personal
description, and
citizenship. The clerk or
other agent authorized
to issue
licenses, stamps, and permits shall charge
each applicant
a fee of one
dollar
for taking the affidavit and
issuing the license, stamp, or
permit unless a different fee for the issuance of a fishing license is established in division rule as authorized by section 1533.32 of the Revised Code. The application, license, permit,
and other blanks
required by this section shall be prepared and
furnished by the
chief, in
such form as the chief provides, to the
clerk or other
agent
authorized to issue them. The licenses and
permits
shall be
issued to applicants by the clerk or other agent.
The
record of
licenses and permits kept by the clerk and
other
authorized
agents
shall be uniform throughout the state and
in
such form or
manner
as the auditor of state prescribes and
shall
be open at
all
reasonable hours to the inspection of any
person.
Unless
otherwise provided by division rule, each
hunting
license,
deer or
wild turkey permit, and
fur taker permit
issued shall
remain in
force until midnight of
the thirty-first
day of August
next
ensuing. Application for any
such license or
permit may be
made
and a license
or permit issued prior to the
date upon which
it
becomes
effective.
The chief may require an applicant who wishes to purchase a
license, stamp,
or permit by mail or telephone to pay a nominal
fee for postage and handling.
The court before whom a violator of any laws or division
rules for the protection of wild animals is tried, as a part of
the punishment, shall revoke the license, stamp, or
permit of any
person
convicted. The license, stamp, or permit fee paid by
that
person shall
not be returned to the person. The person shall not
procure or
use any other license, stamp, or permit or engage in
hunting wild animals
or trapping fur-bearing animals during the
period of revocation
as ordered by the court.
No person under sixteen years of age shall engage in
hunting
unless accompanied by the person's parent or another
adult person.
Sec. 1533.151. The chief of the division of wildlife, with
the approval of the director of natural resources, is hereby
authorized to may print and issue stamps portraying wild animals of
the state. This stamp shall be identified as a wildlife
conservation stamp and the. The fee for each stamp shall be five
dollars not more than the fee for a wetlands habitat stamp issued under section 1533.112 of the Revised Code together with the one-dollar fee to the issuing agent established in section 1533.13 of the Revised Code unless otherwise provided by division rule.
The purchase of wildlife conservation stamps shall provide
no privileges to the purchaser, but merely recognizes such the person
as voluntarily contributing to the management, protection, and
the perpetuation of the wildlife resources of the state. All
moneys received from the sale of wildlife conservation stamps
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the nongame and endangered
wildlife fund to be used exclusively by the division of wildlife
for the purposes outlined in section 1533.15 1531.26 of the Revised Code
and for the management of all forms of wildlife for its
ecological and non-consumptive recreational value.
Sec. 1533.19. Except as otherwise provided by division
rule, recognized field trial clubs may shoot domestically raised
quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, or other game birds
and common pigeons at any time during the daylight hours from
the first day of September to the thirtieth day of April of the
following year, both dates inclusive. Such domestically raised
quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, and other game birds
shall be banded prior to release and approved by the division of
wildlife for field trial use, provided that permission
for the holding of such a trial shall be obtained from the division.
Permission shall be requested in writing at least thirty days in
advance of the trial. The request shall contain the name of
the recognized field trial club and the names of its officers,
the date and location of the trial, and the name of the licensed
breeders from whom the quails, chukar partridges, ducks,
pheasants, or other game birds will be obtained. The division
may grant a written permit when it is satisfied that the trial is
a bona fide one conducted by a bona fide club under this section.
When an application is approved, a permit shall be issued after
the payment of a fee of twenty-five fifty dollars for each day upon
which the trials are conducted. Participants in such trials
need not possess a hunter's license while participating in the
trials. The division shall supervise all such trials and shall
enforce all laws and division rules governing them. If unbanded
quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, or other game birds
are accidentally shot during such trials, they immediately shall be replaced
by the club by the releasing of an equal number of
live quails, chukar partridges, ducks, pheasants, or other game
birds under the supervision of the division.
Sec. 1533.23. No person shall deal in or buy green or
dried furs, skins, or parts thereof, taken from fur-bearing
animals of the state, except domesticated rabbits, without a fur
dealer's permit. Every applicant for a fur dealer's permit shall
make and subscribe a statement setting forth his the applicant's
name, place of
residence, and whom he the applicant represents. Every
applicant for a
dealer's permit who is a nonresident of the state, or who is a
resident of the state and is an agent or representative of a
nonresident person, firm, or corporation, shall pay an annual fee
of two hundred dollars to the chief of the division of wildlife
issuing such permit, and every applicant for a dealer's permit who
is a resident of the state shall pay an annual fee of fifty
seventy-five dollars to the chief of the division of wildlife issuing such
permit, and every. Every fur dealer shall operate under such additional
regulations rules as are provided by the chief of the division of
wildlife. The chief shall pay such the fees into the state treasury
to the credit of the fund created by section 1533.15 of the
Revised Code for the use of the division of wildlife in the purchase,
preservation, protection, and stocking of fur-bearing animals and
for the necessary clerical help and forms required by this
section and section 1533.24 of the Revised Code.
All permits shall be procured from the chief and the
application, license, and other blanks required by this section
and section 1533.24 of the Revised Code shall be in such form as
the chief prescribes. Each such permit shall expire on the
thirtieth day of April next after its issuance.
Sec. 1533.301. Any person may apply for a permit to
transport fish that are for sale, sold, or purchased. The chief
of the division of wildlife shall issue an annual permit granting
the applicant the privilege to transport such fish, upon filing
of an application on a form prescribed by the chief and payment
of a fee of fifty sixty-five dollars. No person shall transport any fish or
part thereof that is for sale, sold, or purchased, whether
acquired in or outside this state, unless the consignor has a
permit issued to him for the calendar year in which the fish is
transported, except that no such permit is required for any of the following:
(A) Fish transported from a point outside this state to
another point outside this state if the fish are not unloaded
in this state. A fish is not to be considered unloaded for
purposes of this section if it remains under the control of a
common carrier.
(B) Fish being transported by a person holding a valid
license under section 1533.34 of the Revised Code from the place
of taking to his the person's usual place of processing or
temporary storage as designated by him the person in the
application for the license under that section;
(C) Fish being transported from a premises designated in a
valid permit issued under section 1533.631 of the Revised Code to
a premises where fish are to be sold at retail, sold for
immediate consumption, or consumed if inspection of the
designated premises as required by that section
has not been denied during the preceding thirty
days;
(D) Any quantity of fish the total weight of which does
not exceed five hundred pounds in one vehicle;
(E) Minnows for which a permit is required under section
1533.40 of the Revised Code.
If a fish for which a permit is required under this section
is transported in this state from a consignor who does not have a
valid permit at the time of transportation, or if such a fish is
transported in this state from a consignor who has a valid permit
at the time of transportation, but the fish is part of the
contents of a box, package, or receptacle that was or could be
the basis for conviction of a violation of this chapter or a
division rule, the fish may be seized by any law enforcement
officer authorized by section 1531.13 of the Revised Code to
enforce laws and division rules, and the fish shall escheat to the state
unless a court of this state makes a specific finding that the
consignor at the time of seizure had a valid permit under this section
1533.301 of the Revised Code and that the fish are lawful under
the requirements of this chapter or a division rule relating
thereto.
A fish for which a permit is required under this section
may be transported only if each box, package, or other receptacle
bears a label showing the total weight in pounds, the species of
the fish, the name of the consignor and consignee, the initial
point of billing, the destination, and a statement that each
species of fish by weight in the box, package, or other
receptacle that are undersized under the provisions of section
1533.63 of the Revised Code or division rule is ten per cent or
less or is in excess of ten per cent, whichever the fact may be.
If fish are not boxed or packaged, each compartment of a tank or
other receptacle shall be considered a separate receptacle, but
in lieu of a label on the compartment or tank a written
statement containing the same information required to be
contained on a label, and clearly identifying the tank or
receptacle concerned, may be carried in the vehicle. Species may
be designated in any manner, but the label also shall bear either
the common name indicated in section 1533.63 of the Revised Code
or the scientific name contained in section
1531.01 of the Revised Code. The consignor shall ascertain that
labels are attached or statements carried as required herein and
that the facts stated thereon are true.
The permit required by this section may be suspended by the
chief for a period not to exceed five days upon conviction of the
permittee of a violation of this chapter or Chapter 1531. of the Revised
Code or a division rule if the permittee has been convicted of
another such violation during the preceding twelve-month period. If the
permittee has had two or more such convictions during the
twelve-month period preceding such a conviction, his the
permittee's permit may be suspended as provided herein for a period not to
exceed twenty
days. A permit is invalid during the period of suspension, but
in no case is a permit invalid until fifteen days after mailing
by certified mail a notice of the rule of suspension by the chief.
The chief may not suspend more than one permit of the same permittee, or
suspend a permit of the same permittee more than once, for convictions
resulting from violations that occur in a load in one vehicle.
A driver or other person in charge of a vehicle
transporting fish that are for sale, sold, or purchased, upon
demand by any law enforcement officer authorized by section
1531.13 of the Revised Code to enforce laws and division
rules, shall stop and
open the vehicle and allow inspection of the load, and any box,
package, or receptacle, and the contents thereof, for the purpose
of determining whether this chapter or a division rule is being
violated.
The word "fish" in the English language, at least eight
inches high and maintained in a clear, conspicuous, and legible condition at
all times, shall appear on
both sides of the vehicle body of all vehicles transporting fresh
water fish in this state when the fish are for sale or sold,
except those fish exempt from a transportation permit in
divisions (A), (B), and (E) of this section.
The chief may refuse to issue a permit to any person whose
purpose in applying for the permit is to allow it to be used by
another person to whom a permit has been refused or revoked. The
chief also may revoke a person's permit when it is used for
that purpose.
No civil action may be brought in any court in the state
for the value or agreed price of fish that have escheated to the
state under this section.
No person shall fail to comply with any provision of this
section or a division rule adopted pursuant thereto.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised
Code, the permit of any person who is convicted of two violations
of this section that occurred within a twelve-month
period is suspended upon the second such conviction by operation of law for
a period of five fishing season days immediately following
that conviction.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised
Code, the permit of any person who is convicted of three or more
violations of this section that occurred within a
twelve-month period is suspended upon the third or subsequent conviction by
operation of law for a period of twenty fishing season days
immediately following that conviction.
During any period of suspension, no person shall use or
engage in hauling or transporting fish with equipment owned,
used, or controlled at the time of conviction by the permittee
whose permit has been suspended.
Sec. 1533.32. Except as provided in this section or
division (A) or (C) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no
person, including nonresidents, shall take or catch any fish by
angling in any of the waters in the state or engage in fishing in
those waters without a license. No person shall take or catch
frogs or turtles without a valid
fishing license, except as provided in this section. Persons
fishing in privately owned ponds, lakes, or reservoirs to or from
which fish are not accustomed to migrate are exempt from the
license requirements set forth in this section. Persons fishing
in privately owned ponds, lakes, or reservoirs that are open to
public fishing through an agreement or lease with the division of
wildlife shall comply with the license requirements set forth in
this section.
The fee for an annual license shall be twenty-three thirty-nine dollars, unless otherwise provided by division rule, for a
resident of a
state that is not a party to an agreement under section 1533.91
of the Revised Code. The fee for an annual license shall be fourteen
eighteen dollars, unless otherwise provided by division rule, for a
resident of a state that is a party to such an agreement. The
fee for an annual license for residents of this state shall be fourteen
eighteen dollars unless
otherwise provided by division rule or unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the
Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident fishing license
to the applicant free of charge.
Any person under the age of
sixteen years may take or catch frogs and turtles and take or catch fish by
angling without a
license. Any Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or
older may take or catch frogs and turtles without shall procure a special senior fishing license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the annual resident fishing license fee.
The chief of the division of
wildlife may issue a tourist's license expiring three days from
the effective date of the license to a resident of a state that
is not a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 of the
Revised Code. The fee for a
tourist's license shall be fourteen eighteen dollars unless otherwise provided by division rule.
The chief shall adopt rules under section 1531.10 of the
Revised Code
providing for the issuance of a one-day fishing license to a resident of this
state or of any other state. The fee for such a license shall be forty fifty-five per
cent of the amount established under this section for a tourist's license,
rounded up to the nearest whole dollar. A one-day fishing license
shall allow the holder to
take or catch fish by angling in the waters in the state, engage in fishing in
those waters, or take or catch frogs or turtles
in those waters for one day without obtaining an annual license or a tourist's
license under this section.
At the request of a holder of a one-day fishing license
who wishes to obtain an annual license, a clerk or agent
authorized to issue licenses under section 1533.13 of the
Revised
Code, not later than the last
day on which the one-day license would be valid if it were an
annual license, shall credit the amount of the fee paid for the
one-day license toward the fee charged for the annual license if so authorized
by the chief.
The clerk or agent shall issue the annual license upon
presentation of the one-day license and payment of a fee in an
amount equal to the difference between the fee for the annual
license and the fee for the one-day license.
A fee of one dollar for each license issued under this
section shall be paid to the issuing clerk or agent in
accordance with section 1533.13 of the
Revised
Code unless otherwise provided by division rule.
Unless otherwise provided by division rule, each annual license shall
begin on the first day of March of the
current year and expire on the last day of February of the
following year.
No person shall alter a fishing license or possess a
fishing license that has been altered.
No person shall procure or attempt to procure a fishing
license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false
statement.
Owners of land over, through, upon, or along which any
water flows or stands, except where the land is in or borders on
state parks or state-owned lakes, together with the members of
the immediate families of such owners, may take frogs and
turtles and may take or catch
fish of the kind permitted to be taken or caught therefrom
without procuring a license provided for in this section.
This
exemption extends to tenants actually residing upon such lands
and to the members of the immediate families of the tenants.
Residents of state or county institutions, charitable
institutions, and military homes in this state may take frogs and
turtles without procuring the
required license, provided that a member of the institution or
home has an identification card, which shall be carried on
that
person when fishing.
Every fisher required to be licensed, while
fishing
or taking or attempting to take frogs or turtles, shall carry
the license and exhibit it to
any
person. Failure to so carry and exhibit the license
constitutes
an offense under this section.
Sec. 1533.35. (A) Commercial fishing devices shall be
annually licensed as follows:
(1) Trap and fyke nets, for the first twenty nets or any
portion thereof, eight hundred dollars; and for each additional
group of ten such nets or any portion thereof, four hundred
dollars;
(2) For each seine of one hundred fifty rods or less in
length other than an inland fishing district seine, four hundred
dollars;
(3) For each seine over one hundred fifty rods in length
other than an inland fishing district seine, six hundred dollars;
(4) For each inland fishing district seine, one hundred
dollars;
(5) For each carp apron, one hundred dollars;
(6) For one trotline with seventy hooks or less attached
thereto, twenty dollars;
(7) For each trotline, or trotlines, with a total of more
than seventy hooks attached thereto, one hundred dollars;
(8) For each dip net, one hundred dollars.
The license
fee for other commercial fishing gear not mentioned in this
section, as approved by the chief of the division of wildlife,
shall be set by the chief with approval of the wildlife council.
Commercial fishing gear owned or used by a nonresident may
be licensed in this state only if a reciprocal agreement is in
effect as provided for in section 1533.352 of the Revised Code.
All commercial license fees shall be paid upon application
or shall be paid one-fourth upon application with the balance due
and owing within ninety days of the date of application, except
that those license fees of one hundred dollars or less shall be paid in full
at the time of application.
(B) Royalty fees are hereby established as set forth on
the following species of fish when taken commercially: catfish,
white bass, and yellow perch.
The amount of the royalty fees shall be as follows: on
the species taken for which an allowable catch or quota has been
established by division rule, two five cents per pound. On the
species taken for which an allowable catch or quota has not been
established by division rule, one cent two cents per pound on that portion
taken that exceeds one-half of the previous year's taking of the
species.
For the purpose of this section, the previous year's taking
shall be the amount reported for that previous year by the
license holder to the division pursuant to reporting
procedures set forth in this chapter and Chapter 1531. of the Revised
Code.
All royalty fees established or provided for in this
section shall be paid by the license holder to the division. No person may be
issued a commercial fishing license
until all royalty fees due from that person for the preceding
fishing season have been paid in full. The chief may request the
attorney general to recover any royalty fee or amount thereof
that is not paid by the opening date of the next fishing season,
and the attorney general shall commence appropriate legal
proceedings to recover the unpaid fee or amount.
All commercial fishing license moneys and all other fees
collected from commercial fishermen fishers shall be deposited
in the state treasury in accordance with section 1533.33 of the Revised
Code.
No person shall fail to comply with any provision of this
section or a division rule adopted pursuant to it.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised
Code, the license of any person who is convicted of one or more
violations of this section shall be suspended upon the
conviction by operation of law for a period of eighteen fishing
season months immediately following the conviction.
During any period of suspension, no person shall use or
engage in fishing with commercial gear owned, used, or controlled
at the time of conviction by the licensee whose license has been suspended.
Sec. 1533.40. Each person, firm, partnership, association,
or corporation which that buys, sells, or deals in minnows, crayfish,
or hellgrammites or collects the listed species for sale shall
obtain, annually, from the chief of the division of wildlife a
permit and shall operate under such rules as the chief of the
division of wildlife prescribes adopts. Such A permit shall be issued
upon application and the payment of a fee of twenty-five forty dollars. This permit
expires at midnight, on the thirty-first day of December 31. Nonresidents
engaging in the collecting, seining, or picking of minnows,
crayfish, or hellgrammites for bait shall have a nonresident
fishing license as prescribed in section 1533.32 of the Revised
Code.
Sec. 1533.54. No person shall draw, set, place, locate,
maintain, or possess a pound net, crib net, trammel net, fyke
net, set net, seine, bar net, or fish trap, or any part thereof, or
throw or hand line, with more than three hooks attached thereto,
or any other device for catching fish, except a line with not
more than three hooks attached thereto or lure with not more than
three sets of three hooks each, in the inland fishing district of
this state, except for taking carp, mullet, sheepshead, and grass
pike as provided in section 1533.62 of the Revised Code, and
except as provided in section 1533.60 of the Revised Code, or as
otherwise provided for by division rule. No person shall catch
or kill a fish in that fishing district with what are known as
bob lines, trotlines, or float lines, or by grabbing with the hands,
or by spearing or shooting, or with any other device other than by
angling. In the waters of the inland fishing district, except
those lakes, harbors, and reservoirs controlled by the state, a
trotline may be used with not more than fifty hooks, and no two
hooks less than three feet apart, by the owner or person having
the owner's consent in that part of the stream bordering on or
running through that owner's lands.
Notwithstanding this section, any resident who is
licensed to fish with nets in the Ohio river may possess fish
nets for the sole purpose of storage, repair, drying, and tarring
in the area between United States route fifty and the Ohio river
from the Indiana state line to Cincinnati, Ohio, and in the area
between United States route fifty-two and the Ohio river from
Cincinnati, Ohio, to Chesapeake, Ohio, and in the area between
state route seven and the Ohio river from Chesapeake, Ohio, to
East Liverpool, Ohio.
Any person possessing a net in this reserve district shall
have an Ohio permit for each net in his the person's possession.
The permit
shall be issued annually by the chief of the division of wildlife
upon application of the owner of the net and submission of
evidence by him the owner of his possession of a valid
fishing license permitting him the owner to fish with nets in
the Ohio river, and the
payment of ten fifty dollars for each net for which an application is
made and a permit is issued. The permit shall expire at twelve
midnight on the fifteenth day of March of each year.
Sec. 1533.631. Any person may apply for a permit to handle
commercial fish, or other fish that may be bought or sold under
the Revised Code or division rule, at wholesale. The chief of
the division of wildlife shall issue an annual permit granting
the applicant the privilege to handle such fish at wholesale at
one or more designated premises upon filing of an application on
a form prescribed by the chief and payment of a fee of fifty
sixty-five dollars. No person or his a person's agent shall handle at
wholesale any fresh water fish or part thereof unless a permit has been issued
for the calendar year in which the fish is handled at wholesale
for the premises at which the fish is handled.
A fish is handled at wholesale for purposes of this section
when it is on a premises within the state and is being held,
stored, handled, or processed for the purpose of sale to a person
who ordinarily resells the fish.
The permit required by this section shall be issued subject
to the right of entry and inspection of the designated premises
of the permittee by any law enforcement officer authorized by
section 1531.13 of the Revised Code to enforce the laws and rules of the
division of wildlife. Such an
officer may enter and inspect the designated premises and any
box, package, or receptacle, and the contents thereof, for the
purpose of determining whether any provision of this chapter or Chapter 1531.
of the Revised Code or division rule is being violated.
No person holding a permit under this section shall remove
a label required by section 1533.301 of the Revised Code unless
the box, package, or receptacle bearing the label has been
opened or unless the label is replaced with another label that
meets the requirements of that section.
No person shall fail to comply with any provision of this
section or division rule adopted pursuant to it.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised Code,
the permit of any person who is convicted of two violations of
this section that occurred within a twelve-month
period is suspended upon the second such conviction by operation of law for
a period of five fishing season days immediately following
that conviction.
In addition to other penalties provided in the Revised Code,
the permit of any person who is convicted of three or more
violations of this section that occurred within a
twelve-month period is suspended upon the third or subsequent such conviction
by
operation of law for a period of twenty fishing season days
immediately following that conviction.
During any period of suspension, no person shall use or
engage in handling commercial fish at wholesale with equipment or
facilities owned, used, or controlled at the time of conviction
by the permittee whose permit has been suspended.
Sec. 1533.632. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Aquaculture" means a form of agriculture that
involves the propagation and rearing of aquatic species in
controlled environments under private control, including, but not
limited to, for the purpose of sale for consumption as food.
(2) "Aquaculture species" means any aquatic species that
may be raised through aquaculture that is either a class A
aquaculture species or a class B aquaculture species.
(3) "Class A aquaculture species" includes all of the
following:
(a) Trout and salmon (Onchorhynchus sp., Salmo sp.,
Salvelinus sp.);
(b) Walleye (Stizostedion vitreum);
(c) Sauger (Stizostedion canadense);
(d) Bluegill (Lepomis machrochirus);
(e) Redear sunfish (Lepomis microlophus);
(f) Green sunfish (Lepomis cyanellus);
(g) White crappie (Pomoxis annularis);
(h) Black crappie (Pomoxis nigromaculatus);
(i) Blue catfish (Ictalurus furcatus);
(j) Any species added by rule under division (B) of this
section or listed as commercial fish under section 1531.01 of the
Revised Code except white perch (Morone americana).
(4) "Class B aquaculture species" includes any species,
except for class A aquaculture species, designated as such by the
chief of the division of wildlife.
(5) "Aquaculture production facility" means a facility
used for aquaculture.
(B) The chief, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code, shall adopt rules for the regulation of aquaculture
and may issue permits to persons wishing to engage in aquaculture
for the production of aquaculture species. Rules adopted under
this section shall ensure the protection and preservation of the
wildlife and natural resources of this state. The legal length
and weight limitations established under section 1533.63 of the
Revised Code do not apply to class A or class B aquaculture
species.
A permit may be issued upon application to any person who
satisfies the chief that the person has suitable equipment, of
which he the person is the owner or lessee, to engage in
aquaculture for a
given aquaculture species or group of aquaculture species. Each
permit shall be in such form as the chief prescribes. The
permits shall be classified as either class A or class B. A
class A permit shall be required for all class A aquaculture
species that are specified in this section or designated by rule
as a class A aquaculture species. Class B permits shall be
issued on a case-by-case basis. In determining whether to issue
a class B permit, the chief shall take into account the species
for which the class B permit is requested, the location of the
aquaculture production facility, and any other information
determined by the chief to be necessary to protect the wildlife
and natural resources of this state. The annual fee for a class
A permit shall be fifty dollars unless otherwise provided by rule
by the chief. The annual fee for a class B permit shall be set
by the chief at a level between one hundred and five hundred
dollars. In determining the fee to be charged for a class B
permit, the chief shall take into account the additional costs to
the division for the inspection of aquaculture facilities used to
raise a given class B aquaculture species.
The chief may revoke a permit upon a determination that the
person to whom the permit was issued has violated any rule
adopted under this section. The permit shall be reissued upon a
showing by the person that he the person is in compliance with
the rules
adopted under this section. A holder of an aquaculture permit
may receive a permit issued under section 1533.301, 1533.39, or
1533.40 of the Revised Code without payment of the fee for that
permit if the conditions for the issuance of the permit have been
met.
(C) No person shall knowingly sell any aquatic species
under an aquaculture permit issued under this section that was
not raised in an aquaculture production facility. In addition to
any other penalties prescribed for violation of this division,
the chief may revoke the permit of any person convicted of a
violation of this division for any period of time he the chief
considers necessary.
(D) No person who does not hold a current valid
aquaculture permit shall knowingly sell an aquaculture species
while claiming to possess an aquaculture permit.
Sec. 1533.71. Unless otherwise provided by division rule,
any person desiring to engage in the business of raising and selling game
birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians, or
fur-bearing animals in a wholly enclosed preserve of which the
person is the owner or lessee, or to have game birds, game quadrupeds,
reptiles, amphibians, or fur-bearing animals in captivity,
shall apply in writing to the
division of wildlife for a license to do so.
The division, when it appears that the application is made
in good faith and upon the payment of the fee for each
license, shall may issue to the applicant any of the
following
licenses that may be applied for:
(A) "Commercial propagating license" permitting the
licensee to propagate game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles,
amphibians, or fur-bearing animals in the wholly enclosed preserve
the location of which is
stated in the license and the application therefor, and to sell
the propagated game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles,
amphibians, or fur-bearing animals and ship them from the state
alive at any time, and permitting the licensee and the licensee's
employees to kill the propagated game birds, game
quadrupeds, or fur-bearing
animals and sell the carcasses for food subject to sections
1533.70 to 1533.80 of the Revised Code. The fee for such a
license is twenty-five forty dollars per annum.
(B) "Noncommercial propagating license" permitting the
licensee to propagate game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles,
amphibians, or fur-bearing animals and to hold
the
animals in
captivity. Game birds, game quadrupeds, reptiles, amphibians,
and fur-bearing animals propagated or held in captivity by authority of a
noncommercial propagating license are for the licensee's own use and shall not
be sold. The fee for such a license is ten twenty-five dollars per annum.
(C) A free "raise to release license" permitting duly
organized clubs, associations, or individuals approved by the
division to engage in the raising of game birds, game quadrupeds,
or fur-bearing animals for release only and not for sale or
personal use.
Except as provided by law, no person shall possess game
birds, game quadrupeds, or fur-bearing animals in closed season,
provided that municipal or governmental zoological parks
are not required to obtain the licenses provided for in this
section.
All licenses issued under this section shall expire on the
fifteenth day of March of each year.
The chief of the division of wildlife shall pay all moneys received as
fees for the issuance of licenses under this section into
the state treasury to the credit
of the fund created by section 1533.15 of the Revised Code for
the use of the division in the purchase, preservation, and
protection of wild animals and for the necessary clerical help
and forms required by sections 1533.70 to 1533.80 of the Revised Code.
This section does not authorize the taking or the
release for taking of the following:
(1) Game birds, without first obtaining a commercial
bird shooting preserve license issued under section 1533.72 of
the Revised Code;
(2) Game or nonnative wildlife, without first
obtaining a wild animal hunting preserve license issued under
section 1533.721 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1533.82. (A) On receipt of a notice pursuant to
section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the chief of the
division of wildlife shall comply with
sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under
section 3123.63 of the Revised Code
with respect to a license, permit, or
certificate issued pursuant to section
1533.23, 1533.34, 1533.342, 1533.39, 1533.40, 1533.51, 1533.631, 1533.71,
1533.72, 1533.81, 1533.88, or 1533.881 of
the Revised Code.
(B) On receipt of a notice pursuant to section
3123.62 of the Revised Code, the chief shall comply with that section
and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with
respect to a license, permit, or stamp issued pursuant to section 1533.10,
1533.11, 1533.111, 1533.112, or 1533.32 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1561.31. Each As used in this section, "mineral" means "minerals" as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.
Each deputy mine inspector shall inspect
each mine in the inspector's district, the owner, lessee, agent,
or operator of which is an employer as defined in section
4123.01 of the Revised
Code, or any other mine at
which three or more persons work, at intervals not exceeding
three months between inspections. The inspector shall inspect each underground coal or mineral mine not less than four times per calendar year, each surface coal or mineral mine not less than two times per calendar year, and all other mines in the
inspector's district as often as practical, noting particularly. During each inspection, the inspector shall provide to the superintendent of the mine information concerning the health and safety conditions of the mine operation and shall determine whether the mine operation complies with applicable health and safety standards and with any citation, order, or decision issued under this chapter or Chapter 1509., 1563., 1565., or 1567. of the Revised Code. The inspector shall examine
the location and condition of buildings, the condition of the
boiler, machinery, the workings of the mine, the roof control measures, the traveling ways and
haulageways, the circulation and condition of the air and
drainage, and the condition of electrical circuits and
appliances, as applicable. The inspector shall make tests for poisonous,
explosive, and noxious gases, and shall specifically order
compliance with any section of this chapter and Chapters
1563., 1565., and
1567. and sections 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13, 1509.14, 1509.15,
1509.17, and 1509.18 of the
Revised
Code that the inspector finds
is being violated.
Upon completion of the inspection of a mine, the inspector
shall fill out a report of the conditions found during
inspections on a form provided by the chief of the division of
mineral resources management, which form
shall provide for statements
as to whether the laws are being observed or violated, and if
violated, the nature and extent thereof, the date of the
inspection, the number of persons employed in and about the
mine, whether or not a certificate of compliance issued pursuant
to section 4123.35 of the
Revised
Code is posted and the date of
expiration thereof, and matters, things, and practices that
specifically are covered by law, order of the chief, or previous
order of the inspector. The inspector shall make this report in
quadruplicate or quintuplicate, and send the original to the
chief, post a copy at the mine, give a copy to the mine
superintendent, and retain a copy for the inspector's files.
Where the miners of a mine have a mine safety committee, the
inspector shall post one additional copy of the report of that
mine at that mine for the use and possession of the committee.
The report required by this section shall be known as the
inspector's routine report.
If an inspector orders compliance with
this chapter and Chapters 1563., 1565., and
1567. and sections 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13, 1509.14, 1509.15,
1509.17, and 1509.18 of the Revised Code, and is assured by the
superintendent of the mine to which the order applies that the
order will be complied with, the inspector shall revisit the
mine within a reasonable period of time and ascertain whether or
not the order has been complied with. The inspector shall
report the inspector's findings to the chief on a form to be
provided by the chief, and take action to enforce
compliance.
Sec. 1561.35. If the deputy mine inspector finds that any
matter, thing, or practice connected with any mine and not
prohibited specifically by law is dangerous or hazardous, or
that
from a rigid enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 1509.,
1563., 1565., and 1567. of the Revised Code, the matter,
thing, or
practice would become dangerous and hazardous so as to tend to
the
bodily injury of any person, the deputy mine inspector
forthwith
shall give notice in writing to the owner,
lessee, or agent
of the
mine of the particulars in which the deputy mine
inspector
considers the mine
or any matter, thing, or practice connected
therewith is
dangerous or hazardous and recommend changes that
the
conditions require, and forthwith shall mail a copy of
the report
and the deputy mine
inspector's recommendations to the chief of
the
division of mineral resources management.
Upon receipt of the
report and recommendations, the
chief forthwith shall make a
finding thereon and mail a
copy to the owner, operator, lessee, or
agent of the mine, and to
the deputy mine inspector; a copy of the
finding of the chief
shall be posted upon the bulletin board of
the mine. Where the miners
have a mine safety committee, one
additional copy shall be posted
on the bulletin board for the use
and possession of the
committee.
The owner, operator, lessee, or agent of the mine, or the
authorized representative of the workers of the mine,
within ten
days may appeal to the
reclamation environmental review appeals commission
created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code for a
review and
redetermination of the finding of the chief in
the matter
in
accordance with section
1513.13 of the
Revised Code,
notwithstanding division (A)(1) of that section,
which provides
for appeals within thirty days. A
copy of the
decision of the
commission shall be mailed as
required by
this section for the
mailing of the finding by the chief on the
deputy mine inspector's
report.
Sec. 1561.351. A deputy mine inspector who makes a finding
concerning a
violation of this chapter or Chapter
1563., 1565., or
1567. or section 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13,
1509.14, 1509.15,
1509.17, or 1509.18 of the Revised
Code that involves mining
safety shall notify the
owner, operator, lessee, agent, and representative of
the miners of the mine involved of the finding. The
owner,
operator, lessee, or agent of the mine involved may request a
review of the inspector's finding by the chief of the division of
mineral resources management. Upon receipt of such a request, the
chief
shall review the
inspector's
finding, make a written
determination regarding it, and
provide a
copy of the written
determination to the owner, operator,
lessee,
or agent of the mine
involved. The chief shall provide a copy of
the
written
determination to any other interested party upon
request.
A person, such as an owner, operator,
lessee, or agent of the
mine or the authorized representative of
the
miners of the
mine,
who has an interest that is or may be
adversely affected by
the
chief's determination
may appeal the determination, not later
than
ten days after receiving
notice of the determination, to the
reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code by filing a copy of the
chief's written
determination with
the
commission,
notwithstanding division
(A)(1) of section 1513.13 of the Revised
Code, which provides for
appeals within thirty days. The
commission shall hear the appeal
in accordance with section
1513.13
of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1561.51. When written charges of neglect of
duty,
incompetency, or
malfeasance in office against the deputy mine
inspector are filed with the
chief of the division of mineral
resources
management, signed by not less than
fifteen employees,
or
otherwise as provided in section 1561.50 of the
Revised Code,
or the owner,
lessee, or agent of a mine, and the signers of the
charges
are dissatisfied with the result of the investigation made
by the chief, they
may appeal to the
reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code by
filing the same charges against the
deputy mine
inspector and a
copy of the report of the
investigation made by the chief in
the
matter with the
commission, and the
commission shall hear the
appeal in
accordance with section
1513.13 of the Revised Code.
The
commission shall mail a copy of
its decision to the
complainant whose name appears first
in the charges.
Sec. 1563.13. When a deputy mine inspector considers that
the ways and means of egress in any underground mine from the
interior working places to the surface are inadequate as a safe
and ready means of escape in case of emergency, from danger of
fire at any point, or any other cause that may result in the
entombment of persons working in the mine,
the deputy mine
inspector shall give notice in
writing to the owner, lessee, or
agent of the mine of the
particular in which the deputy mine
inspector considers
the conditions dangerous,
recommending any
changes that the
conditions require, and forthwith shall mail a
copy of
the deputy mine inspector's
recommendations to the chief
of the
division of mineral resources management.
Upon receipt of
the
recommendations, the
chief forthwith shall make a finding
concerning them and mail a copy to
the operator of the mine and to
the deputy mine
inspector. A
copy of the finding of the chief
shall be posted upon the
bulletin board at the time.
The operator of the mine, or the authorized representative
of
the workers of the mine, within ten days
may appeal to the
reclamation environmental review appeals commission created in section 3745.02 of the Revised Code for a review and
redetermination of the
finding of the chief in the matter in
accordance with
section
1513.13 of the Revised Code,
notwithstanding division (A)(1) of
that section, which provides
for appeals within thirty days. A
copy of the decision of
the
commission shall be mailed as
required by this section for
the
mailing of the finding by the
chief on the deputy mine
inspector's report.
No operator of a mine shall refuse or neglect to comply
with
this section.
Sec. 1563.42. The operator of a mine, before the
pillars
are drawn previous to the abandonment of any part of the mine,
shall have a correct map of such part of the mine made, showing
its area and workings to the day of the abandonment and the
pillars drawn previous to abandonment, and file such map within
ninety days after the abandonment of such mine, in the office of
the county recorder of the county where such mine is located, and
with the chief of the division of mineral
resources management. Such map shall have
attached the usual certificate of the mining engineer making it,
and the mine foreperson in charge of the underground
workings of the
mine, and such operator shall pay to the recorder for filing such
map, a base fee of five dollars for services and a housing trust fee of five dollars pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.
No operator of a mine shall refuse or neglect to comply
with this section.
Sec. 1702.59. (A) Every nonprofit corporation, incorporated
under the general corporation laws of this state, or previous
laws, or under special provisions of the Revised Code, or created
before September 1, 1851, which corporation has expressedly or
impliedly elected to be governed by the laws passed since that
date, and whose articles or other documents are filed with the
secretary of state, shall file with the secretary of state a
verified statement of continued existence, signed by a
director,
officer, or three members in good standing, setting forth the
corporate name, the place where the principal office of the
corporation is located, the date of incorporation, the fact that
the corporation is still actively engaged in exercising its
corporate privileges, and the name and address of its agent
appointed pursuant to section 1702.06 of the Revised Code.
(B) Each corporation required to file
a statement of
continued existence shall file it
with the secretary of state
within each five years after the date of
incorporation or of the
last corporate filing.
(C) Corporations specifically exempted by division (N) of
section 1702.06 of the Revised Code, or whose activities are
regulated or supervised by another state official, agency,
bureau,
department, or commission are exempted from this section.
(D) The secretary of state shall give notice in writing and
provide a form for compliance with this section to each
corporation required by this section to file the statement of
continued existence, such notice and form to be mailed to the
last
known address of the corporation as it appears on the
records of
the secretary of state or which the secretary of
state may
ascertain upon
a reasonable search.
(E)
If any nonprofit corporation required by
this
section to
file a statement of continued existence fails to
file
the
statement required every fifth year, then the secretary
of
state
shall cancel the articles of such corporation, make a
notation of
the cancellation on the records, and mail to the
corporation a
certificate of the action so taken.
(F) A corporation whose articles have been canceled may be
reinstated by filing an application for reinstatement and paying
to the secretary of state
the fee
specified in division (Q) of
section 111.16 of the Revised Code. The name of a
corporation
whose articles have been canceled shall be reserved
for a period
of one year
after the date of cancellation. If the
reinstatement
is not made within one year from the date of the
cancellation of
its articles of incorporation and it appears that
a corporate
name, limited liability company
name, limited
liability
partnership name, limited partnership name, or trade
name has been
filed, the name of which is not distinguishable
upon
the record as
provided in section 1702.06 of the Revised Code, the
applicant
for
reinstatement shall
be required by the secretary of
state, as a
condition
prerequisite to such reinstatement, to amend
its
articles by
changing its name. A certificate of reinstatement
may
be filed
in the recorder's office of any county in the state,
for
which
the recorder shall charge and collect a base fee of one
dollar for services and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.
The rights,
privileges, and franchises of a corporation
whose
articles have been
reinstated are subject to section 1702.60
of
the Revised Code.
(G) The secretary of state shall furnish the tax
commissioner a
list of all corporations failing to file the
required statement of
continued existence.
Sec. 2101.16. (A) The fees enumerated in this division
shall be charged and collected, if possible, by the probate judge
and shall be in full for all services rendered in the respective
proceedings:
| (1) |
|
Account, in addition to advertising charges .......... |
$12.00 |
|
|
Waivers and proof of notice of hearing on account, per |
|
|
|
page,
minimum one dollar ............................. |
$ 1.00 |
| (2) |
|
Account of distribution, in addition to |
|
|
|
advertising charges .................................. |
$ 7.00 |
| (3) |
|
Adoption of child, petition for ...................... |
$50.00 |
| (4) |
|
Alter or cancel contract for sale or purchase of |
|
|
|
real estate, petition
to ............................. |
$20.00 |
| (5) |
|
Application and order not otherwise provided |
|
|
|
for in
this section or by rule adopted pursuant to |
|
|
|
division (E) of this
section ......................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (6) |
|
Appropriation suit, per day, hearing in .............. |
$20.00 |
| (7) |
|
Birth, application for registration of ............... |
$ 7.00 |
| (8) |
|
Birth record, application to correct ................. |
$ 5.00 |
| (9) |
|
Bond, application for new or additional .............. |
$ 5.00 |
| (10) |
|
Bond, application for release of surety or |
|
|
|
reduction of ......................................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (11) |
|
Bond, receipt for securities deposited in lieu of .... |
$ 5.00 |
| (12) |
|
Certified copy of journal entry, record, or proceeding, |
|
|
|
per page,
minimum fee one dollar ..................... |
$ 1.00 |
| (13) |
|
Citation and issuing citation, application for ....... |
$ 5.00 |
| (14) |
|
Change of name, petition for ......................... |
$20.00 |
| (15) |
|
Claim, application of administrator or executor for |
|
|
|
allowance of
administrator's or executor's own ....... |
$10.00 |
| (16) |
|
Claim, application to compromise or
settle ........... |
$10.00 |
| (17) |
|
Claim, authority to present .......................... |
$10.00 |
| (18) |
|
Commissioner, appointment of ......................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (19) |
|
Compensation for extraordinary services and attorney's
|
|
|
|
fees for fiduciary, application for .................. |
$ 5.00 |
| (20) |
|
Competency, application to procure adjudication of ... |
$20.00 |
| (21) |
|
Complete contract, application to .................... |
$10.00 |
| (22) |
|
Concealment of assets, citation for .................. |
$10.00 |
| (23) |
|
Construction of will, petition for ................... |
$20.00 |
| (24) |
|
Continue decedent's business, application to ......... |
$10.00 |
|
|
Monthly reports of operation ......................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (25) |
|
Declaratory judgment, petition for ................... |
$20.00 |
| (26) |
|
Deposit of will ...................................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (27) |
|
Designation of heir .................................. |
$20.00 |
| (28) |
|
Distribution in kind, application, assent, and |
|
|
|
order for ............................................ |
$ 5.00 |
| (29) |
|
Distribution under section 2109.36 of the Revised |
|
|
|
Code, application
for an order of .................... |
$ 7.00 |
| (30) |
|
Docketing and indexing proceedings, including the |
|
|
|
filing and noting of
all necessary documents, maximum |
|
|
|
fee, fifteen dollars ................................. |
$15.00 |
| (31) |
|
Exceptions to any proceeding named in this section, |
|
|
|
contest of
appointment or ............................ |
$10.00 |
| (32) |
|
Election of surviving partner to purchase assets of |
|
|
|
partnership,
proceedings relating to ................. |
$10.00 |
| (33) |
|
Election of surviving spouse under will .............. |
$ 5.00 |
| (34) |
|
Fiduciary, including an assignee or trustee of an |
|
|
|
insolvent debtor or
any guardian or conservator |
|
|
|
accountable to the probate court, appointment
of ..... |
$35.00 |
| (35) |
|
Foreign will, application to record .................. |
$10.00 |
|
|
Record of foreign will, additional, per page ......... |
$ 1.00 |
| (36) |
|
Forms when supplied by the probate court, not to
|
|
|
|
exceed ............................................... |
$10.00 |
| (37) |
|
Heirship, petition to determine ...................... |
$20.00 |
| (38) |
|
Injunction proceedings ............................... |
$20.00 |
| (39) |
|
Improve real estate, petition to ..................... |
$20.00 |
| (40) |
|
Inventory with appraisement .......................... |
$10.00 |
| (41) |
|
Inventory without appraisement ....................... |
$ 7.00 |
| (42) |
|
Investment or expenditure of funds, application for .. |
$10.00 |
| (43) |
|
Invest in real estate, application
to ................ |
$10.00 |
| (44) |
|
Lease for oil, gas, coal, or other mineral, petition |
|
|
|
to ................................................... |
$20.00 |
| (45) |
|
Lease or lease and improve real estate, petition to .. |
$20.00 |
| (46) |
|
Marriage license ..................................... |
$10.00 |
|
|
Certified abstract of each marriage .................. |
$ 2.00 |
| (47) |
|
Minor or mentally ill person, etc., disposal of estate |
|
|
|
under ten
thousand dollars of ........................ |
$10.00 |
| (48) |
|
Mortgage or mortgage and repair or improve real |
|
|
|
estate, petition
to .................................. |
$20.00 |
| (49) |
|
Newly discovered assets, report of ................... |
$ 7.00 |
| (50) |
|
Nonresident executor or administrator to bar |
|
|
|
creditors' claims,
proceedings by .................... |
$20.00 |
| (51) |
|
Power of attorney or revocation of power, |
|
|
|
bonding company ...................................... |
$10.00 |
| (52) |
|
Presumption of death, petition to establish .......... |
$20.00 |
| (53) |
|
Probating will ....................................... |
$15.00 |
|
|
Proof of notice to beneficiaries ..................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (54) |
|
Purchase personal property, application of surviving |
|
|
|
spouse to ............................................ |
$10.00 |
| (55) |
|
Purchase real estate at appraised value, petition of |
|
|
|
surviving spouse
to .................................. |
$20.00 |
| (56) |
|
Receipts in addition to advertising charges, |
|
|
|
application and order to
record ...................... |
$ 5.00 |
|
|
Record of those receipts, additional, per page ....... |
$ 1.00 |
| (57) |
|
Record in excess of fifteen hundred words in any |
|
|
|
proceeding in the
probate court, per page ............ |
$ 1.00 |
| (58) |
|
Release of estate by mortgagee or other lienholder ... |
$ 5.00 |
| (59) |
|
Relieving an estate from
administration under section |
|
|
|
2113.03 of the Revised Code or granting an order
for a |
|
|
|
summary release from administration under section |
|
|
|
2113.031 of the
Revised Code ......................... |
$60.00 |
| (60) |
|
Removal of fiduciary, application for ................ |
$10.00 |
| (61) |
|
Requalification of executor or administrator ......... |
$10.00 |
| (62) |
|
Resignation of fiduciary ............................. |
$ 5.00 |
| (63) |
|
Sale bill, public sale of personal property .......... |
$10.00 |
| (64) |
|
Sale of personal property and report, application |
|
|
|
for .................................................. |
$10.00 |
| (65) |
|
Sale of real estate, petition for .................... |
$25.00 |
| (66) |
|
Terminate guardianship, petition to .................. |
$10.00 |
| (67) |
|
Transfer of real estate, application, entry, and |
|
|
|
certificate
for ...................................... |
$ 7.00 |
| (68) |
|
Unclaimed money, application to invest ............... |
$ 7.00 |
| (69) |
|
Vacate approval of account or order of distribution,
|
|
|
|
motion to ............................................ |
$10.00 |
| (70) |
|
Writ of execution .................................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (71) |
|
Writ of possession ................................... |
$ 5.00 |
| (72) |
|
Wrongful death, application and settlement of claim |
|
|
|
for .................................................. |
$20.00 |
| (73) |
|
Year's allowance, petition to review ................. |
$ 7.00 |
| (74) |
|
Guardian's report, filing and review of .............. |
$ 5.00 |
(B)(1) In relation to an application for the appointment of a
guardian or the review of a report of a guardian under section
2111.49 of the Revised Code, the probate court, pursuant to court
order or in accordance with a court rule, may direct that the
applicant or the estate pay any or all of the expenses of an
investigation conducted pursuant to section 2111.041 or division
(A)(2) of section 2111.49 of the Revised Code. If the
investigation is conducted by a public employee or investigator
who is paid by the county, the fees for the investigation shall
be paid into the county treasury. If the court finds that an
alleged incompetent or a ward is indigent, the court may waive
the costs, fees, and expenses of an investigation.
(2) In relation to the appointment or functioning of a guardian for a minor or
the guardianship of a minor, the probate court may direct that the applicant
or
the estate pay any or all of the expenses of an investigation conducted
pursuant to section 2111.042 of the Revised Code. If the investigation is
conducted by a public employee or investigator who is paid by the county, the
fees for the investigation shall be paid into the county treasury. If the
court finds that the guardian or applicant is indigent, the court may waive
the
costs, fees, and expenses of an investigation.
(C) Thirty dollars of the thirty-five-dollar fee collected
pursuant to division (A)(34) of this section and twenty dollars
of the sixty-dollar fee collected pursuant to division
(A)(59) of this section shall be deposited by the county
treasurer in the indigent guardianship fund created pursuant to
section 2111.51 of the Revised Code.
(D) The fees of witnesses, jurors, sheriffs, coroners, and
constables for services rendered in the probate court or by order
of the probate judge shall be the same as provided for like
services in the court of common pleas.
(E) The probate court, by rule, may require an advance
deposit for costs, not to exceed one hundred twenty-five dollars,
at the time application is made for an appointment as executor or
administrator or at the time a will is presented for probate.
(F) The probate court, by rule, shall establish a
reasonable fee, not to exceed fifty dollars, for the filing of a
petition for the release of information regarding an adopted
person's name by birth and the identity of the adopted
person's biological parents and biological siblings pursuant to section
3107.41 of the
Revised Code, all proceedings relative to the petition, the entry
of an order relative to the petition, and all services required
to be performed in connection with the petition. The probate
court may use a reasonable portion of a fee charged under
authority of this division to reimburse any agency, as defined in
section 3107.39 of the Revised Code, for any services it renders
in performing a task described in section 3107.41 of the Revised
Code relative to or in connection with the petition for which the
fee was charged.
(G)(1) Thirty dollars of the fifty-dollar fee collected pursuant to division
(A)(3) of this section shall be deposited into the "putative father registry
fund," which is hereby created in the state treasury. The department of job
and family
services shall use the money in the fund to fund the department's costs of
performing its duties related to the putative father registry established
under section 3107.062 of the Revised Code.
(2) If the department determines that money in the putative father registry fund is more than is needed for its duties related to the putative father registry, the department may use the surplus moneys in the fund as permitted in division (C) of section 2151.3529, division (B) of section 2151.3530, or section 5103.155 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2113.041. (A) The administrator of the estate recovery program established pursuant to section 5111.11 of the Revised Code may present an affidavit to a financial institution requesting that the financial institution release account proceeds to recover the cost of services correctly provided to a medicaid recipient. The affidavit shall include all of the following information:
(1) The name of the decedent;
(2) The name of any person who gave notice that the decedent was a medicaid recipient and that person's relationship to the decedent;
(3) The name of the financial institution;
(5) A description of the claim for estate recovery;
(6) The amount of funds to be recovered.
(B) A financial institution may release account proceeds to the administrator of the estate recovery program if all of the following apply:
(1) The decedent held an account at the financial institution that was in the decedent's name only.
(2) No estate has been, and it is reasonable to assume that no estate will be, opened for the decedent.
(3) The decedent has no outstanding debts known to the administrator of the estate recovery program.
(4) The financial institution has received no objections or has determined that no valid objections to release of proceeds have been received.
(C) If proceeds have been released pursuant to division (B) of this section and the department of job and family services receives notice of a valid claim to the proceeds that has a higher priority under section 2117.25 of the Revised Code than the claim of the estate recovery program, the department may refund the proceeds to the financial institution or pay them to the person or government entity with the claim.
Sec. 2117.06. (A) All creditors having claims against an
estate, including claims arising out of contract, out of tort, on
cognovit notes, or on judgments, whether due or not due, secured
or unsecured, liquidated or unliquidated, shall present their
claims in one of the following manners:
(1) To the executor or administrator in a writing;
(2) To the executor or administrator in a writing, and to
the probate court by filing a copy of the writing with it;
(3) In a writing that is sent by ordinary mail addressed
to
the decedent and that is actually received by the executor or
administrator within the appropriate time specified in division
(B) of this section. For purposes of this division, if an
executor or administrator is not a natural person, the writing
shall be considered as being actually received by the executor or
administrator only if the person charged with the primary
responsibility of administering the estate of the decedent
actually receives the writing within the appropriate time
specified in division (B) of this section.
(B) All Except as provided in section 2117.061 of the Revised Code, all claims shall be presented within one year after
the
death of the decedent, whether or not the estate is released
from
administration or an executor or administrator is appointed
during
that one-year period. Every claim presented shall set
forth the
claimant's address.
(C) A Except as provided in section 2117.061 of the Revised Code, a claim that is not presented within one year
after
the
death of the decedent shall be forever barred as to all
parties,
including, but not limited to, devisees, legatees, and
distributees. No payment shall be made on the claim and no
action
shall be maintained on the claim, except as otherwise
provided in
sections 2117.37 to 2117.42 of the Revised Code with
reference to
contingent claims.
(D) In the absence of any prior demand for allowance, the
executor or administrator shall allow or reject all claims,
except
tax assessment claims, within thirty days after their
presentation, provided that failure of the executor or
administrator to allow or reject within that time shall not
prevent
the executor or administrator from doing so after
that
time and shall not prejudice
the rights of any claimant. Upon the
allowance of a claim, the
executor or the administrator, on demand
of the creditor, shall
furnish the creditor with a written
statement or memorandum of
the fact and date of the
allowance.
(E) If the executor or administrator has actual knowledge
of
a pending action commenced against the decedent prior to
the
decedent's
death in a court of record in this state, the
executor
or
administrator shall file a notice of
the
appointment
of the
executor or administrator in the
pending
action within ten days
after acquiring that
knowledge.
If the
administrator or executor
is not a natural person, actual
knowledge of a pending suit
against the decedent shall be limited
to the actual knowledge of
the person charged with the primary
responsibility of
administering the estate of the decedent.
Failure to file the
notice within the ten-day period does not
extend the claim period
established by this section.
(F) This section applies to any person who is required to
give written notice to the executor or administrator of a motion
or application to revive an action pending against the decedent
at
the date of the death of the decedent.
(G) Nothing in this section or in section 2117.07 of the
Revised Code shall be construed to reduce the time mentioned in
section
2125.02, 2305.09,
2305.10,
2305.11,
2305.113, or
2305.12
of
the
Revised Code, provided that no portion of any recovery on a
claim
brought pursuant to any of those sections shall come from
the
assets of an estate unless the claim has been presented
against
the estate in accordance with Chapter 2117. of the Revised
Code.
(H) Any person whose claim has been presented and has not
been rejected after presentment is a
creditor as that
term is used
in
Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code.
Claims that are
contingent need not be presented except as
provided in sections
2117.37 to 2117.42 of the Revised Code, but,
whether presented
pursuant to those sections or this section,
contingent claims may
be presented in any of the manners described
in division (A) of
this section.
(I) If a creditor presents a claim against an estate in
accordance with division (A)(2) of this section, the probate
court
shall not close the administration of the estate until that
claim
is allowed or rejected.
(J) The probate court shall not require an executor or
administrator to make and return into the court a schedule of
claims against the estate.
(K) If the executor or administrator makes a distribution
of
the assets of the estate prior to the expiration of the time
for
the filing of claims as set forth in this section,
the executor
or administrator shall
provide notice
on the account delivered to
each distributee
that the distributee may be liable
to the estate
up to the value of the distribution and may be
required to return
all or any part of the value of the
distribution if a valid claim
is subsequently made against the
estate within the time permitted
under this section.
Sec. 2117.061. (A) As used in this section,
"person responsible for the estate" means the executor, administrator, commissioner, or person who filed pursuant to section 2113.03 of the Revised Code for release from administration of an estate.
(B) If the decedent was fifty-five years of age or older at the time of death, the person responsible for an estate shall determine whether the decedent was a recipient of medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. If the decedent was a recipient, the person responsible for the estate shall give written notice to that effect to the administrator of the estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.11 of the Revised Code not later than thirty days after the occurrence of any of the following:
(1) The granting of letters testamentary;
(2) The administration of the estate;
(3) The filing of an application for release from administration or summary release from administration.
(C) The estate recovery program administrator shall present a claim for estate recovery to the person responsible for the estate or the person's legal representative not later than ninety days after the date on which notice is received under division (B) of this section or one year after the decedent's death, whichever is later.
Sec. 2117.25. (A) Every executor or administrator shall
proceed with diligence to pay the debts of the decedent and
shall
apply the assets in the following order:
(1) Costs and expenses of administration;
(2) An amount, not exceeding two thousand dollars, for
funeral
expenses that are included in the bill of a funeral
director, funeral expenses other than those in the bill of a
funeral director that are approved by the probate court, and
an
amount, not exceeding two
thousand dollars, for burial and
cemetery expenses,
including that portion of the funeral
director's bill allocated to
cemetery expenses that have been paid
to the cemetery by the
funeral director.
For purposes of this division, burial and cemetery
expenses
shall be limited to the following:
(a) The purchase of a place of interment;
(b) Monuments or other markers;
(c) The outer burial container;
(d) The cost of opening and closing the place of
interment;
(3) The allowance for support made to the surviving
spouse,
minor children, or both under section 2106.13 of the
Revised Code;
(4) Debts entitled to a preference under the laws of the
United States;
(5) Expenses of the last sickness of the decedent;
(6) If the total bill of a funeral director for funeral
expenses exceeds
two thousand dollars, then, in addition
to the
amount described in division
(A)(2) of this section, an
amount,
not exceeding one thousand dollars, for funeral expenses that are
included in the bill and that exceed two
thousand dollars;
(7) Personal property taxes, claims made under the estate recovery program instituted pursuant to section 5111.11 of the Revised Code, and obligations for which the
decedent was personally liable to the state or any of its
subdivisions;
(8) Debts for manual labor performed for the decedent
within
twelve months preceding the decedent's death, not
exceeding
three
hundred dollars to any one person;
(9) Other debts for which claims have been presented and
finally allowed.
(B) The part of the bill of a funeral director that
exceeds
the total of three thousand dollars as described in
divisions
(A)(2) and
(6) of this section, and the part of a claim
included
in division
(A)(8) of this section that exceeds three
hundred
dollars shall be included as a debt under division
(A)(9) of this
section,
depending upon the time when the claim
for
the additional
amount is presented.
(C) Any natural person or fiduciary who pays a claim of any
creditor described in division (A) of this section shall be
subrogated to the rights of that creditor proportionate to the
amount of the payment and shall be entitled to reimbursement for
that amount in accordance with the priority of payments set forth
in that division.
(D)(1) Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code, relating
to
the manner in which and the time within which claims shall be
presented, shall apply to claims set forth in divisions
(A)(2),
(6),
and
(8) of this section. Claims for an expense of
administration
or for the allowance for support need not be
presented. The
executor or administrator shall pay debts included
in divisions
(A)(4) and
(7) of this section, of which the
executor
or
administrator has knowledge, regardless of
presentation.
(2) The giving of written notice to an executor or
administrator of a motion or application to revive an action
pending against the decedent at the date of death shall be
equivalent to the presentation of a claim to the executor or
administrator for the purpose of determining the order of payment
of any judgment rendered or decree entered in such an action.
(E) No payments shall be made to creditors of one class
until
all those of the preceding class are fully paid or provided
for.
If the assets are insufficient to pay all the claims of one
class, the creditors of that class shall be paid ratably.
(F) If it appears at any time that the assets have been
exhausted in paying prior or preferred charges, allowances, or
claims,
those payments shall be a bar to an action on any
claim
not entitled to
that priority or preference.
Sec. 2151.3529. (A) The director of job and
family services
shall promulgate forms designed to gather pertinent medical
information concerning a deserted child and the child's parents.
The forms
shall clearly and unambiguously state on each page that
the
information requested is to facilitate medical care for
the
child, that the forms may be fully or partially completed or
left
blank, that completing the forms or parts of the forms is
completely voluntary, and that no adverse legal consequence will
result from failure to complete any part of the forms.
(B) The director shall promulgate written materials to be
given to the parents of a child delivered pursuant to section
2151.3516
of the Revised Code. The materials shall describe
services
available to assist parents and newborns and shall
include
information directly relevant to situations that might
cause
parents to desert a child and information on the procedures
for a
person to follow in order to reunite with a child the person
delivered under section 2151.3516 of the Revised Code, including
notice
that the person will be required to submit to a DNA test,
at that
person's expense, to prove that the person is the parent
of the
child.
(C) If the department of job and family services determines that money in the putative father registry fund created under section 2101.16 of the Revised Code is more than is needed for its duties related to the putative father registry, the department may use surplus moneys in the fund for costs related to the development and publication of forms and materials promulgated pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of this section.
Sec. 2151.3530. (A) The director of job and family services
shall
distribute the medical information forms and written
materials promulgated under section 2151.3529 of the Revised Code
to entities permitted to
receive a deserted child, to
public
children services agencies, and to other public or private
agencies that, in the discretion of the director, are best able to
disseminate the forms and materials to the persons who are most in
need of the forms and materials.
(B) If the department of job and family services determines that money in the putative father registry fund created under section 2101.16 of the Revised Code is more than is needed to perform its duties related to the putative father registry, the department may use surplus moneys in the fund for costs related to the distribution of forms and materials pursuant to this section.
Sec. 2151.83.
(A) A public
children services agency or
private child placing agency, on the request of a young adult,
shall
enter
into a jointly prepared written agreement with the
young adult that obligates the agency to ensure that independent
living services are
provided to the young adult and sets forth the
responsibilities of the young adult regarding the
services. The
agreement shall be developed based on the young
adult's strengths,
needs, and circumstances and the availability of funds provided
pursuant to section 2151.84 of the Revised Code. The agreement
shall
be designed to promote the young adult's successful
transition to
independent adult living and emotional and economic
self-sufficiency.
(B) If the young adult appears to be eligible for services
from one or more of the following entities, the agency must
contact the appropriate entity to determine eligibility:
(1) An entity, other than the agency, that is represented on
a county family and children first council established pursuant to
section 121.37 of the Revised Code.
If the entity is a board of
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, an alcohol
and drug addiction services board, or a community mental health
board, the agency shall contact the provider of alcohol, drug
addiction, or mental health services that has been designated by
the board to determine the young adult's eligibility for services.
(2) The rehabilitation services commission;
(3) A metropolitan housing authority established pursuant to
section 3735.27 of the Revised Code.
If an entity described in this division determines that the
young adult qualifies for services from the entity, that entity,
the young adult, and the agency to which
the young adult made the
request for independent living services
shall enter into a written
addendum to the jointly prepared agreement entered into under
division (A) of this section. The addendum shall indicate how
services under the agreement and addendum are to be coordinated
and allocate the service responsibilities among the entities and
agency that signed the addendum.
Sec. 2151.84.
The department of job and family services
shall establish model agreements that may be used by public
children
services agencies and private child placing agencies
required to provide services under an agreement with a young
adult
pursuant to section 2151.83 of the Revised Code. The model
agreements shall include provisions describing the specific
independent living services to be provided to the extent funds are
provided pursuant to this section, the duration of the
services
and the agreement, the duties and responsibilities
of each party
under the
agreement, and grievance procedures
regarding disputes
that arise
regarding the agreement or services
provided under it.
To facilitate the provision of independent living services,
the department shall provide funds to meet the requirement of
state matching funds needed to qualify for federal funds under the
"Foster Care Independence Act of 1999," 113 Stat. 1822 (1999), 42
U.S.C. 677, as amended. The department shall seek controlling
board approval of any fund transfers necessary to meet this
requirement.
Sec. 2305.234. (A) As used in this section:
(1)
"Chiropractic claim,"
"medical claim," and
"optometric
claim"
have the same meanings as in section 2305.11 of the Revised
Code.
(2)
"Dental claim" has the same meaning as in section
2305.11 of the Revised
Code, except that it does not include any
claim arising out of a dental
operation or any derivative claim
for relief that arises out of a dental
operation.
(3)
"Governmental health care program" has the same meaning
as in
section
4731.65 of the Revised Code.
(4)
"Health care professional" means any of the following
who provide medical, dental, or other health-related
diagnosis,
care, or treatment:
(a) Physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised
Code to practice
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and
surgery;
(b) Registered nurses and licensed practical nurses licensed
under Chapter
4723. of the Revised Code;
(c) Physician assistants authorized to practice under
Chapter 4730. of the
Revised Code;
(d) Dentists and dental hygienists licensed under Chapter
4715. of the
Revised Code;
(e) Physical therapists licensed under Chapter 4755. of the
Revised
Code;
(f) Chiropractors licensed under Chapter 4734. of the
Revised Code;
(g) Optometrists licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised
Code;
(h) Podiatrists authorized under Chapter 4731. of the
Revised Code to
practice podiatry;
(i) Dietitians licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised
Code;
(j) Pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the
Revised
Code.
(5)
"Health care worker" means a person other than a health
care
professional who provides medical, dental, or other
health-related care or
treatment under the direction of a health
care professional with the authority
to direct that individual's
activities, including
medical technicians, medical assistants,
dental assistants,
orderlies, aides, and individuals acting in
similar capacities.
(6)
"Indigent and uninsured person" means a person who meets
all of the
following requirements:
(a) The person's income is not greater than one hundred
fifty per
cent of the current poverty line as defined by the
United States office of
management and budget and revised in
accordance with section 673(2) of the
"Omnibus Budget
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as
amended.
(b) The person is not eligible to receive medical assistance
under Chapter
5111., disability assistance medical assistance
under Chapter 5115. of the
Revised Code, or assistance under any
other governmental health care
program.
(c) Either of the following applies:
(i) The person is not a policyholder, certificate
holder,
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member,
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance
or health care policy, contract, or plan.
(ii) The person is a policyholder, certificate holder,
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member,
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance
or health care policy, contract, or plan, but the insurer,
policy,
contract, or plan denies coverage or is the subject of
insolvency
or bankruptcy proceedings in any jurisdiction.
(7)
"Operation" means any procedure that involves cutting or
otherwise
infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means, including
surgery, laser
surgery, ionizing radiation, therapeutic
ultrasound, or the removal of
intraocular foreign bodies.
"Operation" does not include the administration
of medication by
injection, unless the injection is administered in
conjunction
with a procedure infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means
other than the administration of medicine by injection.
(8)
"Nonprofit shelter or health care facility" means
a
charitable nonprofit corporation organized and
operated pursuant
to Chapter 1702. of the Revised
Code, or any charitable
organization not organized and not operated
for profit, that
provides shelter, health care services, or
shelter and health care
services to indigent and uninsured persons,
except that
"shelter
or
health care facility" does not include a hospital as defined in
section
3727.01 of the Revised Code, a facility licensed under
Chapter 3721. of the
Revised Code, or a medical facility that is
operated for profit.
(9)
"Tort action" means a civil action for
damages for
injury, death, or loss to person or property other
than a civil
action for damages for a breach of contract or
another agreement
between persons or government entities.
(10)
"Volunteer" means an individual who provides any
medical, dental, or
other health-care related diagnosis, care, or
treatment without
the expectation of receiving and without receipt
of any compensation or other
form of remuneration from an indigent
and uninsured person,
another person on behalf of an indigent and
uninsured person, any shelter or
health care facility, or any
other person or government entity.
(B)(1) Subject to divisions (E) and (F)(3) of this section,
a health care
professional who is a volunteer and complies with
division (B)(2) of this
section is not liable in damages to any
person or government entity in a tort
or other civil action,
including an action on a medical, dental,
chiropractic,
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or
omission of the volunteer in the provision at a nonprofit shelter
or health
care facility to an indigent and uninsured person of
medical, dental, or other
health-related diagnosis, care, or
treatment, including the provision of samples of medicine and
other medical
products, unless the action or omission constitutes
willful or wanton
misconduct.
(2) To qualify for the immunity described in division
(B)(1)
of this section, a health care professional shall
do all of the
following prior to providing diagnosis, care, or treatment:
(a) Determine, in good faith, that the indigent and
uninsured
person is mentally capable of giving informed consent to
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment and is
not
subject to duress or under undue influence;
(b) Inform the person of the provisions of this section;
(c) Obtain the informed consent of the person and a written
waiver, signed by the person or by
another individual on behalf of
and in the presence of the person, that states
that the person is
mentally competent to give informed consent and,
without being
subject to duress or under undue influence, gives
informed consent
to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or
treatment subject to
the provisions of this section.
(3) A physician or podiatrist who is not covered
by medical
malpractice insurance, but complies with division
(B)(2) of this
section, is not required to comply with division (A) of section
4731.143 of the Revised Code.
(C) Subject to divisions (E) and (F)(3) of this section,
health care workers
who are volunteers are not liable in damages
to any person or government
entity in a tort or other civil
action, including an action upon a medical,
dental, chiropractic,
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury,
death, or
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from
an action or
omission of the health care worker in the
provision at a nonprofit
shelter or health care facility to an indigent and
uninsured
person of medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis,
care,
or treatment, unless the action or omission constitutes
willful or wanton
misconduct.
(D) Subject to divisions (E) and (F)(3) of this section and
section 3701.071
of the Revised Code, a nonprofit shelter or
health care facility associated
with a health care professional
described in division (B)(1) of this section or a health care
worker described in division (C) of this section is
not liable in
damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other
civil action, including an action on a medical, dental,
chiropractic,
optometric, or
other health-related claim, for
injury, death, or loss to person or property
that allegedly arises
from an action or omission of the health care
professional or
worker in providing for the shelter or facility medical,
dental,
or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment to an
indigent
and uninsured person, unless the action or omission
constitutes willful or
wanton misconduct.
(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this
section, the immunities provided by divisions
(B), (C), and (D) of
this section are not
available to an individual or to a
nonprofit
shelter or health care facility if, at the time of an alleged
injury, death, or loss to person or property, the individuals
involved are
providing one of the following:
(a) Any medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis,
care,
or treatment pursuant
to a community service work order
entered by a court under division
(F) of section 2951.02 of the
Revised
Code as a condition of probation or other suspension of a
term of
imprisonment or imposed by a court as a community control
sanction pursuant
to sections 2929.15 and 2929.17 of the Revised
Code.
(b) Performance of an operation.
(2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to an
individual who provides, or a nonprofit shelter or health care
facility at
which the individual provides, diagnosis, care, or
treatment that is
necessary to preserve the life of a person in a
medical emergency.
(F)(1) This section does not create a new cause
of action or
substantive legal right against a health care professional,
health
care worker, or nonprofit
shelter or health care facility.
(2) This section does not affect any immunities from
civil
liability or defenses established by another section of the
Revised Code or available at common law to which
an individual or
a nonprofit shelter or
health care facility may be entitled in
connection with the
provision of emergency or other diagnosis,
care, or
treatment.
(3) This section does not grant an immunity from tort
or
other civil liability to an individual or a nonprofit shelter or
health
care facility for actions that are outside the scope of
authority of health
care professionals or health care workers.
(4) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of
a
health care professional or health care worker to comply with
any applicable law of this state or rule of an agency of this
state.
(5) This section does not affect any legal
responsibility of
a nonprofit shelter or health care facility to comply
with any
applicable law of this state, rule of an agency of this
state, or
local code, ordinance, or regulation that pertains to
or regulates
building, housing, air pollution, water pollution,
sanitation,
health, fire, zoning, or safety.
Sec. 2329.66. (A) Every person who is domiciled in this
state may hold property exempt from execution, garnishment,
attachment, or sale to satisfy a judgment or order, as follows:
(1)(a) In the case of a judgment or order regarding money
owed for health care services rendered or health care supplies
provided to the person or a dependent of the person, one parcel
or
item of real or personal property that the person or a
dependent
of the person uses as a residence. Division (A)(1)(a)
of this
section does not preclude, affect, or invalidate the
creation
under this chapter of a judgment lien upon the exempted
property
but only delays the enforcement of the lien until the
property is
sold or otherwise transferred by the owner or in
accordance with
other applicable laws to a person or entity other
than the
surviving spouse or surviving minor children of the
judgment
debtor. Every person who is domiciled in this state may
hold
exempt from a judgment lien created pursuant to division
(A)(1)(a)
of this section the person's interest, not to exceed five
thousand
dollars, in the exempted property.
(b) In the case of all other judgments and orders, the
person's interest, not to exceed five thousand dollars, in one
parcel or item of real or personal property that the person or a
dependent of the person uses as a residence.
(2) The person's interest, not to exceed one thousand
dollars, in one
motor vehicle;
(3) The person's interest, not to exceed two hundred
dollars
in any particular item, in wearing apparel, beds, and
bedding, and
the person's interest, not to exceed three hundred
dollars in each
item, in one cooking unit and one refrigerator or
other food
preservation unit;
(4)(a) The person's interest, not to exceed four hundred
dollars, in cash on hand, money due and payable, money to become
due within ninety days, tax refunds, and money on deposit with a
bank, savings and loan association, credit union, public utility,
landlord, or other person. Division (A)(4)(a) of this section
applies only in
bankruptcy proceedings. This exemption may
include the portion
of personal earnings that is not exempt under
division (A)(13) of
this section.
(b) Subject to division (A)(4)(d) of this section, the
person's interest, not to exceed two hundred dollars in any
particular item, in household furnishings, household goods,
appliances, books, animals, crops, musical instruments, firearms,
and hunting and fishing equipment, that are held primarily for
the
personal, family, or household use of the person;
(c) Subject to division (A)(4)(d) of this section, the
person's interest in one or more items of jewelry, not to exceed
four hundred dollars in one item of jewelry and not to exceed two
hundred dollars in every other item of jewelry;
(d) Divisions (A)(4)(b) and (c) of this section do not
include items of personal property listed in division (A)(3) of
this section.
If the person does not claim an exemption under division
(A)(1) of this section, the total exemption claimed under
division
(A)(4)(b) of this section shall be added to the total
exemption
claimed under division (A)(4)(c) of this section, and
the total
shall not exceed two thousand dollars. If the person
claims an
exemption under division (A)(1) of this section, the
total
exemption claimed under division (A)(4)(b) of this section
shall
be added to the total exemption claimed under division
(A)(4)(c)
of this section, and the total shall not exceed one
thousand five
hundred dollars.
(5) The person's interest, not to exceed an aggregate of
seven hundred fifty dollars, in all implements, professional
books, or tools of the person's profession, trade, or business,
including
agriculture;
(6)(a) The person's interest in a beneficiary fund set
apart, appropriated, or paid by a benevolent association or
society, as exempted by section 2329.63 of the Revised Code;
(b) The person's interest in contracts of life or
endowment
insurance or annuities, as exempted by section 3911.10
of the
Revised Code;
(c) The person's interest in a policy of group insurance
or
the proceeds of a policy of group insurance, as exempted by
section 3917.05 of the Revised Code;
(d) The person's interest in money, benefits, charity,
relief, or aid to be paid, provided, or rendered by a fraternal
benefit society, as exempted by section 3921.18 of the Revised
Code;
(e) The person's interest in the portion of benefits under
policies of sickness and accident insurance and in
lump
sum payments for dismemberment and other losses insured under
those
policies, as exempted by section 3923.19 of the Revised
Code.
(7) The person's professionally prescribed or medically
necessary health aids;
(8) The person's interest in a burial lot, including, but
not limited to, exemptions under section 517.09 or 1721.07 of the
Revised Code;
(9) The person's interest in the following:
(a) Moneys paid or payable for living maintenance or
rights,
as exempted by section 3304.19 of the Revised Code;
(b) Workers' compensation, as exempted by section
4123.67
of
the Revised Code;
(c) Unemployment compensation benefits, as exempted by
section 4141.32 of the Revised Code;
(d) Cash assistance payments under the Ohio works first
program, as exempted
by
section 5107.75 of the Revised Code;
(e)
Benefits and services under the prevention, retention,
and contingency program, as exempted by section 5108.08 of the
Revised Code;
(f) Disability financial assistance payments, as exempted by section
5115.07 5115.06 of the Revised Code.
(10)(a) Except in cases in which the person was convicted
of
or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2921.41 of the
Revised
Code and in which an order for the withholding of
restitution from
payments was issued under division (C)(2)(b) of
that section or in
cases in which an order for withholding was issued under
section
2907.15 of the Revised Code, and only to the
extent provided
in
the order,
and
except as provided in sections 3105.171, 3105.63,
3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, and
3123.06 of the Revised
Code, the person's right to a pension,
benefit, annuity,
retirement allowance, or accumulated
contributions, the person's
right to a participant account in any
deferred compensation
program offered by the Ohio public
employees deferred compensation
board, a government unit, or a
municipal corporation, or the
person's other accrued or accruing
rights, as exempted by section
145.56, 146.13, 148.09,
742.47,
3307.41, 3309.66, or 5505.22 of
the Revised Code, and
the
person's right to benefits from the Ohio
public safety officers
death benefit
fund;
(b) Except as provided in sections 3119.80, 3119.81,
3121.02, 3121.03, and 3123.06 of
the Revised Code, the person's
right to receive a payment under
any pension, annuity, or similar
plan or contract, not including
a payment from a stock bonus or
profit-sharing plan or a payment
included in division (A)(6)(b) or
(10)(a) of this section, on
account of illness, disability, death,
age, or length of service,
to the extent reasonably necessary for
the support of the person
and any of the person's dependents,
except if all the following
apply:
(i) The plan or contract was established by or under the
auspices of an insider that employed the person at the time the
person's rights under the plan or contract arose.
(ii) The payment is on account of age or length of
service.
(iii) The plan or contract is not qualified under the
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as
amended.
(c) Except for any portion of the assets that were
deposited
for the purpose of evading the payment of any debt and
except as
provided in sections 3119.80, 3119.81,
3121.02, 3121.03, and
3123.06 of the Revised
Code, the person's right in the assets held
in, or to receive
any payment under, any individual retirement
account,
individual retirement annuity,
"Roth IRA," or education
individual retirement
account that provides
benefits by reason of
illness, disability, death, or age, to the extent
that the assets,
payments, or benefits described in division
(A)(10)(c) of this
section are attributable
to any of the following:
(i) Contributions of the person that were less
than or equal
to the applicable limits on deductible
contributions to an
individual retirement account or individual
retirement annuity in
the year that the contributions were made,
whether or not the
person was eligible to deduct the
contributions on the person's
federal tax return for the year in
which the contributions were
made;
(ii) Contributions of the person that were less
than or
equal to the applicable limits on contributions to a
Roth IRA or
education individual
retirement account in the year that the
contributions were made;
(iii) Contributions of the person that are within
the
applicable limits on rollover contributions under
subsections 219,
402(c), 403(a)(4),
403(b)(8), 408(b), 408(d)(3),
408A(c)(3)(B),
408A(d)(3),
and 530(d)(5) of the
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986,"
100
Stat. 2085, 26
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.
(d) Except for any portion of the
assets that were deposited
for the purpose of evading the
payment of any debt and except as
provided in sections
3119.80, 3119.81, 3121.02, 3121.03, and
3123.06 of the Revised Code, the person's
right in the assets held
in, or to receive any payment under,
any Keogh or
"H.R. 10" plan
that provides benefits
by reason of illness, disability, death, or
age, to the extent reasonably
necessary for the support of the
person and any of the person's
dependents.
(11) The person's right to receive spousal support, child
support, an allowance, or other maintenance to the extent
reasonably necessary for the support of the person and any of the
person's
dependents;
(12) The person's right to receive, or moneys received
during the preceding twelve calendar months from, any of the
following:
(a) An award of reparations under sections 2743.51 to
2743.72 of the Revised Code, to the extent exempted by division
(D) of section 2743.66 of the Revised Code;
(b) A payment on account of the wrongful death of an
individual of whom the person was a dependent on the date of the
individual's death, to the extent reasonably necessary for the
support of the person and any of the person's dependents;
(c) Except in cases in which the person who receives the
payment is an
inmate, as defined in section 2969.21 of the Revised
Code, and in which the
payment resulted from a civil action or
appeal against a government entity or
employee, as defined in
section 2969.21 of the Revised Code, a payment, not to
exceed five
thousand dollars, on
account of personal bodily injury, not
including pain and
suffering or compensation for actual pecuniary
loss, of the
person or an individual for whom the person is a
dependent;
(d) A payment in compensation for loss of future earnings
of
the person or an individual of whom the person is or was a
dependent, to the extent reasonably necessary for the support of
the debtor and any of the debtor's dependents.
(13) Except as provided in sections 3119.80, 3119.81,
3121.02, 3121.03, and 3123.06 of the Revised
Code, personal
earnings of
the person owed to the
person for services in an
amount equal to the greater of the following
amounts:
(a) If paid weekly, thirty times the current federal
minimum
hourly wage; if paid biweekly, sixty times the current
federal
minimum hourly wage; if paid semimonthly, sixty-five
times the
current federal minimum hourly wage; or if paid
monthly, one
hundred thirty times the current federal minimum
hourly wage that
is in effect at the time the earnings are
payable, as prescribed
by the
"Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938,"
52 Stat. 1060, 29
U.S.C. 206(a)(1), as amended;
(b) Seventy-five per cent of the disposable earnings owed
to
the person.
(14) The person's right in specific partnership property,
as
exempted by division (B)(3) of section 1775.24 of the Revised
Code;
(15) A seal and official register of a notary public, as
exempted by section 147.04 of the Revised Code;
(16) The person's interest in a tuition credit or a payment
under section
3334.09 of the Revised Code pursuant to a tuition
credit contract, as exempted
by section 3334.15 of the Revised
Code;
(17) Any other property that is specifically exempted from
execution, attachment, garnishment, or sale by federal statutes
other than the
"Bankruptcy Reform Act of 1978," 92 Stat. 2549, 11
U.S.C.A. 101, as amended;
(18) The person's interest, not to exceed four hundred
dollars, in any property, except that division (A)(18) of this
section applies
only in bankruptcy proceedings.
(B) As used in this section:
(1)
"Disposable earnings" means net earnings after the
garnishee has made deductions required by law, excluding the
deductions ordered pursuant to section 3119.80, 3119.81,
3121.02,
3121.03, or 3123.06 of the
Revised Code.
(a) If the person who claims an exemption is an
individual,
a relative of the individual, a relative of a general
partner of
the individual, a partnership in which the individual
is a general
partner, a general partner of the individual, or a
corporation of
which the individual is a director, officer, or in
control;
(b) If the person who claims an exemption is a
corporation,
a director or officer of the corporation; a person
in control of
the corporation; a partnership in which the
corporation is a
general partner; a general partner of the
corporation; or a
relative of a general partner, director,
officer, or person in
control of the corporation;
(c) If the person who claims an exemption is a
partnership,
a general partner in the partnership; a general
partner of the
partnership; a person in control of the
partnership; a partnership
in which the partnership is a general
partner; or a relative in, a
general partner of, or a person in
control of the partnership;
(d) An entity or person to which or whom any of the
following applies:
(i) The entity directly or indirectly owns, controls, or
holds with power to vote, twenty per cent or more of the
outstanding voting securities of the person who claims an
exemption, unless the entity holds the securities in a fiduciary
or agency capacity without sole discretionary power to vote the
securities or holds the securities solely to secure to debt and
the entity has not in fact exercised the power to vote.
(ii) The entity is a corporation, twenty per cent or more
of
whose outstanding voting securities are directly or indirectly
owned, controlled, or held with power to vote, by the person who
claims an exemption or by an entity to which division
(B)(2)(d)(i)
of this section applies.
(iii) A person whose business is operated under a lease or
operating agreement by the person who claims an exemption, or a
person substantially all of whose business is operated under an
operating agreement with the person who claims an exemption.
(iv) The entity operates the business or all or
substantially all of the property of the person who claims an
exemption under a lease or operating agreement.
(e) An insider, as otherwise defined in this section, of a
person or entity to which division (B)(2)(d)(i), (ii), (iii), or
(iv) of this section applies, as if the person or entity were a
person who claims an exemption;
(f) A managing agent of the person who claims an
exemption.
(3)
"Participant account" has the same meaning as in
section
148.01 of the Revised Code.
(4)
"Government unit" has the same meaning as in section
148.06 of the Revised Code.
(C) For purposes of this section,
"interest" shall be
determined as follows:
(1) In bankruptcy proceedings, as of the date a petition
is
filed with the bankruptcy court commencing a case under Title
11
of the United States Code;
(2) In all cases other than bankruptcy proceedings, as of
the date of an appraisal, if necessary under section 2329.68 of
the Revised Code, or the issuance of a writ of execution.
An interest, as determined under division (C)(1) or (2) of
this section, shall not include the amount of any lien otherwise
valid pursuant to section 2329.661 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2505.13. If a supersedeas bond has been executed and
filed and the surety is one other than a surety company, the
clerk of the court with which the bond has been filed, upon
request, shall issue a certificate that sets forth the fact that
the bond has been filed and that states the style and number of
the appeal, the amount of the bond, and the sureties on it. Such
a certificate may be filed in the office of the county recorder
of any county in which the sureties may own land, and, when
filed, the bond shall be a lien upon the land of the sureties in
such county. The lien shall be extinguished upon the
satisfaction, reversal, or vacation of the final order, judgment,
or decree involved, or by an order of the court that entered the
final order, judgment, or decree, that releases the lien or
releases certain land from the operation of the lien.
The clerk, upon request, shall issue a notice of discharge
of such a lien, which may be filed in the office of any recorder
in whose office the certificate of lien was filed. Such notice
shall state that the final order, judgment, or decree involved is
satisfied, reversed, or vacated, or that an order has been
entered that releases the lien or certain land from the operation
of the lien. Such recorder shall properly keep and file such
certificates and notices as are filed with him the recorder and
shall index
them in the book or record provided for in section 2937.27 of the
Revised Code.
The fee for issuing such a certificate or notice shall be
as provided by law, and shall be taxed as part of the costs of
the appeal. A county recorder shall receive a base fee of fifty cents
for filing and indexing such a certificate, which fee shall cover
the filing and the entering on the index of such a the notice and a housing trust fund fee of fifty cents pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2715.041. (A) Upon the filing of a motion for an
order
of attachment pursuant to section 2715.03 of the Revised
Code, the
plaintiff shall file with the clerk of the court a
praecipe
instructing the clerk to issue to the defendant against
whom the
motion was filed a notice of the proceeding. Upon
receipt of the
praecipe, the clerk shall issue the notice which
shall be in
substantially the following form:
|
"(Name and Address of Court) |
|
Case No................... |
NOTICEYou are hereby notified that (name and address of
plaintiff),
the plaintiff in this proceeding, has applied to this
court for
the attachment of property in your possession. The
basis for this
application is indicated in the documents that are
enclosed with
this notice.
The law of Ohio and the United States provides that certain
benefit payments cannot be taken from you to pay a debt. Typical
among the benefits that cannot be attached or executed on by a
creditor are:
(1) Workers' compensation benefits;
(2) Unemployment compensation payments;
(3) Cash assistance payments
under the Ohio works
first
program;
(4)
Benefits and services under the prevention, retention,
and contingency program;
(5) Disability financial assistance administered by the Ohio
department
of job and family services;
(6) Social security benefits;
(7) Supplemental security income (S.S.I.);
Additionally, your wages never can be taken to pay a debt
until a judgment has been obtained against you. There may be
other benefits not included in this list that apply in your case.
If you dispute the plaintiff's claim and believe that you
are
entitled to retain possession of the property because it is
exempt
or for any other reason, you may request a hearing before
this
court by disputing the claim in the request for hearing form
appearing below, or in a substantially similar form, and
delivering the request for the hearing to this court, at the
office of the clerk of this court, not later than the end of the
fifth business day after you receive this notice. You may state
your reasons for disputing the claim in the space provided on the
form, but you are not required to do so. If you do state your
reasons for disputing the claim in the space provided on the
form,
you are not prohibited from stating any other reasons at
the
hearing, and if you do not state your reasons, it will not be
held
against you by the court and you can state your reasons at
the
hearing.
If you request a hearing, it will be conducted in
................... courtroom ........, (address of court), at
.............m. on ............., .....
You may avoid having a hearing but retain possession of the
property until the entry of final judgment in the action by
filing
with the court, at the office of the clerk of this court,
not
later than the end of the fifth business day after you
receive
this notice, a bond executed by an acceptable surety in
the amount
of $............
If you do not request a hearing or file a bond on or before
the end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice,
the court, without further notice to you, may order a law
enforcement officer or bailiff to take possession of the
property.
Notice of the dates, times, places, and purposes of
any subsequent
hearings and of the date, time, and place of the
trial of the
action will be sent to you.
|
.................................. |
|
Clerk of Court |
|
Date:........................" |
(B) Along with the notice required by division (A) of this
section, the clerk of the court also shall deliver to the
defendant, in accordance with division (C) of this section, a
request for hearing form together with a postage-paid,
self-addressed envelope or a request for hearing form on a
postage-paid, self-addressed postcard. The request for hearing
shall be in substantially the following form:
"(Name and Address of Court)
| Case Number .................... |
Date ....................... |
REQUEST FOR HEARINGI dispute the claim for the attachment of property in the
above case and request that a hearing in this matter be held at
the time and place set forth in the notice that I previously
received.
I dispute the claim for the following reasons:
................................................................
................................................................
................................................................
|
............................. |
|
(Name of Defendant) |
|
............................
|
|
(Signature) |
|
............................ |
|
(Date) |
WARNING: IF YOU DO NOT DELIVER THIS REQUEST FOR HEARING OR
A
REQUEST IN A SUBSTANTIALLY SIMILAR FORM TO THE OFFICE OF THE
CLERK
OF THIS COURT WITHIN FIVE (5) BUSINESS DAYS OF YOUR RECEIPT
OF IT,
YOU WAIVE YOUR RIGHT TO A HEARING AT THIS TIME AND YOU MAY
BE
REQUIRED TO GIVE UP THE PROPERTY SOUGHT WITHOUT A HEARING."
(C) The notice required by division (A) of this section
shall be served on the defendant in duplicate not less than seven
business days prior to the date on which the hearing is
scheduled,
together with a copy of the complaint and summons, if
not
previously served, and a copy of the motion for the
attachment of
property and the affidavit attached to the motion,
in the same
manner as provided in the Rules of Civil Procedure
for the service
of process. Service may be effected by
publication as provided in
the Rules of Civil Procedure except
that the number of weeks for
publication may be reduced by the
court to the extent appropriate.
Sec. 2715.045. (A) Upon the filing of a motion for
attachment, a court may issue an order of attachment without
issuing notice to the defendant against whom the motion was filed
and without conducting a hearing if the court finds that there is
probable cause to support the motion and that the plaintiff that
filed the motion for attachment will suffer irreparable injury if
the order is delayed until the defendant against whom the motion
has been filed has been given the opportunity for a hearing. The
court's findings shall be based upon the motion and affidavit
filed pursuant to section 2715.03 of the Revised Code and any
other relevant evidence that it may wish to consider.
(B) A finding by the court that the plaintiff will suffer
irreparable injury may be made only if the court finds the
existence of either of the following circumstances:
(1) There is present danger that the property will be
immediately disposed of, concealed, or placed beyond the
jurisdiction of the court.
(2) The value of the property will be impaired
substantially
if the issuance of an order of attachment is
delayed.
(C)(1) Upon the issuance by a court of an order of
attachment without notice and hearing pursuant to this section,
the plaintiff shall file the order with the clerk of the court,
together with a praecipe instructing the clerk to issue to the
defendant against whom the order was issued a copy of the motion,
affidavit, and order of attachment, and a notice that an order of
attachment was issued and that the defendant has a right to a
hearing on the matter. The clerk then immediately shall serve
upon the defendant, in the manner provided by the Rules of Civil
Procedure for service of process, a copy of the complaint and
summons, if not previously served, a copy of the motion,
affidavit, and order of attachment, and the following notice:
"(Name and Address of the Court)
| (Case Caption) |
Case No. ........................ |
NOTICEYou are hereby notified that this court has issued an order
in the above case in favor of (name and address of plaintiff),
the
plaintiff in this proceeding, directing that property now in
your
possession, be taken from you. This order was issued on the
basis
of the plaintiff's claim against you as indicated in the
documents
that are enclosed with this notice.
The law of Ohio and the United States provides that certain
benefit payments cannot be taken from you to pay a debt. Typical
among the benefits that cannot be attached or executed on by a
creditor are:
(1) Workers' compensation benefits;
(2) Unemployment compensation payments;
(3) Cash assistance payments under the Ohio works
first
program;
(4)
Benefits and services under the prevention, retention,
and contingency program;
(5) Disability financial assistance administered by the Ohio
department of job and family services;
(6) Social security benefits;
(7) Supplemental security income (S.S.I.);
Additionally, your wages never can be taken to pay a debt
until a judgment has been obtained against you. There may be
other benefits not included in this list that apply in your case.
If you dispute the plaintiff's claim and believe that you
are
entitled to possession of the property because it is exempt
or for
any other reason, you may request a hearing before this
court by
disputing the claim in the request for hearing form,
appearing
below, or in a substantially similar form, and
delivering the
request for hearing to this court at the above
address, at the
office of the clerk of this court, no later than
the end of the
fifth business day after you receive this notice.
You may state
your reasons for disputing the claim in the space
provided on the
form; however, you are not required to do so. If
you do state
your reasons for disputing the claim, you are not
prohibited from
stating any other reasons at the hearing, and if
you do not state
your reasons, it will not be held against you by
the court and you
can state your reasons at the hearing. If you
request a hearing,
it will be held within three business days
after delivery of your
request for hearing and notice of the
date, time, and place of the
hearing will be sent to you.
You may avoid a hearing but recover and retain possession
of
the property until the entry of final judgment in the action
by
filing with the court, at the office of the clerk of this
court,
not later than the end of the fifth business day after you
receive
this notice, a bond executed by an acceptable surety in
the amount
of $.........
If you do not request a hearing or file a bond before the
end
of the fifth business day after you receive this notice,
possession of the property will be withheld from you during the
pendency of the action. Notice of the dates, times, places, and
purposes of any subsequent hearings and of the date, time, and
place of the trial of the action will be sent to you.
|
.............................. |
|
Clerk of the Court |
|
.............................. |
|
Date" |
(2) Along with the notice required by division (C)(1) of
this section, the clerk of the court also shall deliver to the
defendant a request for hearing form together with a
postage-paid,
self-addressed envelope or a request for hearing
form on a
postage-paid, self-addressed postcard. The request for
hearing
shall be in substantially the following form:
"(Name and Address of Court)
| Case Number ..................... |
Date ........................ |
REQUEST FOR HEARINGI dispute the claim for possession of property in the above
case and request that a hearing in this matter be held within
three business days after delivery of this request to the court.
I dispute the claim for the following reasons:
..................................................................
..................................................................
..................................................................
|
.............................. |
|
(Name of Defendant) |
|
.............................. |
|
(Signature) |
|
.............................. |
|
(Date) |
WARNING: IF YOU DO NOT DELIVER THIS REQUEST FOR HEARING OR
A
REQUEST IN A SUBSTANTIALLY SIMILAR FORM TO THE OFFICE OF THE
CLERK
OF THIS COURT WITHIN FIVE (5) BUSINESS DAYS OF YOUR RECEIPT
OF IT,
YOU WAIVE YOUR RIGHT TO A HEARING AND POSSESSION OF THE
PROPERTY
WILL BE WITHHELD FROM YOU DURING THE PENDENCY OF THE
ACTION."
(D) The defendant may receive a hearing in accordance with
section 2715.043 of the Revised Code by delivering a written
request for hearing to the court within five business days after
receipt of the notice provided pursuant to division (C) of this
section. The request may set forth the defendant's reasons for
disputing the plaintiff's claim for possession of property.
However, neither the defendant's inclusion of nor
failure to
include such reasons upon the request constitutes a waiver of any
defense of the defendant or affects the defendant's right to
produce evidence at any hearing or at the trial of the action.
If
the request is made by the defendant, the court shall schedule
a
hearing within three business days after the request is made,
send
notice to the parties of the date, time, and place of the
hearing,
and hold the hearing accordingly.
(E) If, after hearing, the court finds that there is not
probable cause to support the motion, it shall order that the
property be redelivered to the defendant without the condition of
bond.
Sec. 2716.13. (A) Upon the filing of a proceeding in
garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under
section 2716.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall cause the
matter to be set for hearing within twelve days after
that filing.
(B) Upon the scheduling of a hearing relative to a
proceeding in garnishment of property, other than personal
earnings, under division (A) of this section, the clerk of the
court immediately shall issue to the garnishee three copies of
the
order of garnishment of property, other than personal
earnings,
and of a written notice that the garnishee answer as provided in
section 2716.21 of the Revised Code and
the garnishee's fee
required by section
2716.12 of the Revised Code. The copies of
the order and of the notice
shall be served
upon
the garnishee in
the same manner as a summons is
served. The copies of the order
and of the notice shall
not be served later than seven
days prior
to the date on which the hearing is scheduled. The
order shall
bind the property, other than personal earnings, of
the judgment
debtor in the possession of the garnishee at the
time of service.
The order of garnishment of property, other than personal
earnings, and notice to answer shall be in substantially the
following form:
"ORDER AND NOTICE OF GARNISHMENTOF PROPERTY OTHER THAN PERSONAL EARNINGS
AND ANSWER OF GARNISHEE
|
Docket No. ................... |
|
Case No. ..................... |
|
In the ................. Court |
|
........................, Ohio |
County of ............, ss
..................., Judgment Creditor
..................., Judgment Debtor
SECTION A. COURT ORDER AND NOTICE OF GARNISHMENTTo: ...................., GarnisheeThe judgment creditor in the above case has filed an
affidavit, satisfactory to the undersigned, in this
Court stating
that you have money, property, or credits, other
than personal
earnings, in your hands or under your control that
belong to the
judgment debtor, and that some of the
money, property, or credits
may not be exempt from
garnishment under the laws of the State of
Ohio or the laws of
the United States.
You are therefore ordered to complete the
"ANSWER OF
GARNISHEE"
in section (B) of this
form. Return one completed and
signed
copy of this form to the clerk of this court together with
the
amount determined in accordance with the
"ANSWER OF GARNISHEE"
by the following
date on which a hearing is tentatively scheduled
relative to
this order of garnishment: ............ Deliver one
completed and signed
copy of this form to the judgment debtor
prior to that date. Keep the
other completed and signed copy of
this form for your files.
The total probable amount now due on this judgment is
$..........
The total probable amount now due
includes the unpaid
portion of the judgment in favor of the
judgment creditor, which
is $..........; interest on that judgment
and, if applicable,
prejudgment interest relative to that
judgment at the rate of
.....% per annum payable until that
judgment is satisfied in full;
and court costs in the amount of
$...........
You also are ordered to hold safely anything of value that
belongs to the judgment debtor and that has to be paid
to the
court, as determined under the
"ANSWER OF GARNISHEE" in
section
(B) of this form, but that
is of such a nature that it cannot be
so delivered, until further
order of the court.
Witness my hand and the seal of this court this ..........
day of .........., ..........
|
......................... |
|
Judge |
SECTION B. ANSWER OF GARNISHEE
Now comes .................... the garnishee, who says:
1. That the garnishee has money, property, or credits, other
than
personal earnings, of the judgment debtor under the
garnishee's control and in the garnishee's possession.
| ............... |
............... |
................... |
| yes |
no |
if yes, amount |
2. That property is described as:
3. If the answer to line 1 is
"yes" and the amount is less
than the probable amount now due
on the judgment, as indicated in
section (A) of
this form,
sign and return this form and pay the
amount of line 1 to the
clerk of this court.
4. If the answer to line 1 is
"yes" and the amount is
greater than that probable amount now due on the judgment, as
indicated in
section (A) of this form, sign and return this
form
and pay that probable amount now due to the clerk of this
court.
5. If the answer to line 1 is
"yes" but the money,
property,
or credits are of such a nature that they cannot be
delivered to
the clerk of the court, indicate that by placing an
"X" in this
space: ...... Do not dispose of that money,
property, or credits
or give them to anyone else until further
order of the court.
6. If the answer to line 1 is
"no," sign and return this
form to the clerk of this court.
I certify that the statements above are true.
|
.............................. |
|
(Print Name of Garnishee) |
|
.............................. |
|
(Print Name and Title of |
|
Person Who Completed Form) |
Signed........................................................
(Signature of Person Completing Form)
Dated this .......... day of .........., ....."
Section A of the form described in this division shall be
completed before service. Section B of the form shall
be
completed by the garnishee, and the
garnishee shall file one
completed and signed copy of the form with the
clerk of the court
as the garnishee's
answer. The garnishee may keep one completed
and signed copy of the
form and shall
deliver the other completed
and signed copy of the form to the
judgment debtor.
If several affidavits seeking orders of
garnishment of
property,
other than personal earnings, are filed against the same
judgment
debtor in accordance with section 2716.11 of the Revised
Code,
the court involved shall issue the
requested orders in the
same order in which the
clerk
received the associated affidavits.
(C)(1) At the time of the filing of a proceeding in
garnishment of property, other than personal earnings, under
section 2716.11 of the Revised Code, the judgment creditor also
shall file with the clerk of the court a praecipe instructing the
clerk to issue to the judgment debtor a notice to the judgment
debtor
form and a request for hearing form. Upon receipt
of the
praecipe and the scheduling of
a hearing relative to an action in
garnishment of property, other
than personal earnings, under
division (A) of this section, the
clerk of the court immediately
shall serve upon the judgment
debtor, in accordance with division
(D) of this section, two
copies of the notice to the judgment
debtor form and
of the request for hearing form.
The copies of
the notice to the judgment debtor form and
of the request for
hearing form shall not
be served later than seven days prior to
the date on
which the hearing is scheduled.
(a) The notice to the judgment debtor that must be served
upon the judgment debtor shall be in substantially the following
form:
"(Name and Address of the Court)
(Case Caption) ......................... Case No. .............
NOTICE TO THE JUDGMENT DEBTOR
You are hereby notified that this court has issued an order
in the above case in favor of (name and address of judgment
creditor), the judgment creditor in this proceeding, directing
that some of your money, property, or credits, other than
personal
earnings, now in the possession of (name and address of
garnishee), the garnishee in this proceeding, be used to satisfy
your debt to the judgment creditor. This order was issued on the
basis of the judgment creditor's judgment against you that was
obtained in (name of court) in (case number) on (date). Upon
your
receipt of this notice, you are prohibited from removing or
attempting to remove the money, property, or credits until
expressly permitted by the court. Any violation of this
prohibition subjects you to punishment for contempt of court.
The law of Ohio and the United States provides that certain
benefit payments cannot be taken from you to pay a debt. Typical
among the benefits that cannot be attached or executed upon by a
creditor are the following:
(1) Workers' compensation benefits;
(2) Unemployment compensation payments;
(3) Cash assistance payments under the Ohio works
first
program;
(4)
Benefits and services under the prevention, retention,
and contingency program;
(5) Disability financial assistance administered by the Ohio
department
of job and family services;
(6) Social security benefits;
(7) Supplemental security income (S.S.I.);
There may be other benefits not included in the
above list
that apply in your case.
If you dispute the judgment creditor's right to garnish
your
property and believe that the judgment creditor should not be
given your
money, property, or credits, other than personal
earnings, now in the
possession of the garnishee because they are
exempt or
if you feel that this order is improper for any other
reason, you
may request a hearing before this court by disputing
the claim in
the request for hearing form, appearing below, or in
a
substantially similar form, and delivering the request for
hearing to this court at the above address, at the office of the
clerk of this court no later than the end of the fifth business
day after you receive this notice. You may state your reasons
for
disputing the judgment creditor's right to garnish your
property
in the space provided on the form;
however, you are not
required
to do so. If you do state your reasons for disputing
the judgment
creditor's right, you are not prohibited from
stating any other
reason at the hearing. If you
do not state
your reasons, it will
not be held against you by the court, and
you can state your
reasons at the hearing. NO OBJECTIONS TO THE JUDGMENT
ITSELF WILL
BE HEARD OR CONSIDERED AT THE HEARING. If
you request a hearing,
the hearing will be limited to a
consideration of the amount of
your money, property, or credits,
other than personal earnings, in
the possession or control of the
garnishee, if any, that can be
used to satisfy all or
part of the judgment you owe to the
judgment creditor.
If you request a hearing by delivering your request for
hearing no later than the end of the fifth business day after you
receive this notice, it will be conducted in .......... courtroom
.........., (address of court), at ..... m. on ..........,
.......... You may request the court to conduct the hearing
before
this date by indicating your request in the space provided
on the
form; the court then will send you notice of any change in
the
date, time, or place of the hearing. If you do not request a
hearing by delivering your request for a hearing no later than the
end of the fifth business day after you receive this notice, some
of your money, property, or credits, other than personal
earnings,
will be paid to the judgment creditor.
If you have any questions concerning this matter, you may
contact the office of the clerk of this court. If you want legal
representation, you should contact your lawyer immediately. If
you need the name of a lawyer, contact the local bar association.
|
.............................. |
|
Clerk of the Court |
|
.............................. |
|
Date" |
(b) The request for hearing form that must be served
upon
the judgment debtor shall have attached to it a postage-paid,
self-addressed envelope or shall be on a postage-paid
self-addressed postcard, and shall be in substantially the
following form:
"(Name and Address of Court)
Case Number ........................... Date
....................
REQUEST FOR HEARINGI dispute the judgment creditor's right to garnish my
money,
property, or credits, other than personal earnings, in the
above
case and request that a hearing in this matter be held
..................................................................
(Insert
"on" or
"earlier than")
the date and time set forth in the document entitled
"NOTICE TO
THE JUDGMENT DEBTOR" that I received with this request
form.
I dispute the judgment creditor's right to garnish
my
property for the following reasons:
..................................................................
..................................................................
..................................................................
I UNDERSTAND THAT NO OBJECTIONS TO THE JUDGMENT ITSELF WILL
BE HEARD OR
CONSIDERED AT THE HEARING.
|
.............................. |
|
(Name of Judgment Debtor) |
|
.............................. |
|
(Signature) |
|
.............................. |
|
(Date) |
WARNING: IF YOU DO NOT DELIVER THIS REQUEST FOR HEARING OR
A
REQUEST IN A SUBSTANTIALLY SIMILAR FORM TO THE OFFICE OF THE
CLERK
OF THIS COURT WITHIN FIVE (5) BUSINESS DAYS OF YOUR RECEIPT
OF IT,
YOU WAIVE YOUR RIGHT TO A HEARING AND SOME OF YOUR MONEY,
PROPERTY, OR CREDITS, OTHER THAN PERSONAL EARNINGS, NOW IN THE
POSSESSION OF (GARNISHEE'S NAME) WILL BE PAID TO (JUDGMENT
CREDITOR'S NAME) TO SATISFY SOME OF YOUR DEBT TO (JUDGMENT
CREDITOR'S
NAME)."
(2) The judgment debtor may receive a hearing in
accordance
with this division by delivering a written request for
hearing to
the court within five business days after receipt of
the notice
provided pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.
The request
may set forth the judgment debtor's reasons for
disputing the
judgment creditor's right to garnish the money,
property, or
credits, other than personal earnings;
however, neither the
judgment debtor's inclusion of nor failure to include those
reasons upon the request constitutes a waiver of any defense of
the judgment debtor or affects the judgment debtor's right to
produce evidence at the hearing. If the request is made by
the
judgment debtor within the prescribed time, the hearing shall be
limited to a consideration of the amount of money, property, or
credits, other than personal earnings, of the judgment
debtor in
the hands of
the garnishee, if any, that can be used to satisfy
all or part of
the debt owed by the judgment debtor to the
judgment creditor.
If a request for a hearing is not received by
the court within
the prescribed time, the hearing scheduled
pursuant to division
(A) of this section shall be canceled unless
the court grants the
judgment debtor a continuance in accordance
with division (C)(3)
of this section.
(3) If the judgment debtor does not request a hearing in
the
action within the prescribed time pursuant to division (C)(2)
of
this section, the court nevertheless may grant a continuance
of
the scheduled hearing if the judgment debtor, prior to the
time at
which the hearing was scheduled, as indicated on the
notice to the
judgment debtor required by division (C)(1) of this
section,
establishes a reasonable justification for failure
to request the
hearing within the prescribed time. If the court
grants a
continuance of the hearing, it shall cause the
matter to be set
for hearing as soon as practicable thereafter.
The continued
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with
division (C)(2) of
this section.
(4) The court may conduct the hearing on the matter prior
to
the time at which the hearing was scheduled, as indicated on
the
notice to the judgment debtor required by division (C)(1) of
this
section, upon the request of the judgment debtor. The
parties
shall be sent notice, by the clerk of the court, by
regular mail,
of any change in the date, time, or place of the
hearing.
(5) If the scheduled hearing is canceled and no
continuance
is granted, the court shall issue an order to the
garnishee to pay
all or some of the money, property, or credits,
other than
personal earnings, of the judgment debtor in
the possession of the
garnishee at
the time of service of the notice and order into
court if they have not
already been paid to the court. This
order
shall be based on the answer of the garnishee filed
pursuant to
this section. If the scheduled hearing is conducted
or if it is
continued and conducted, the court shall determine at
the hearing
the amount of the money, property, or credits, other
than personal
earnings, of the judgment debtor in the
possession of the
garnishee at the time of service of the notice and order, if any,
that can be
used to satisfy all or part of the
debt owed by the
judgment debtor to the judgment creditor, and
issue an order,
accordingly, to the garnishee to pay that amount
into court if it
has not already been paid to the court.
(D) The notice to the judgment debtor form and
the request
for hearing form described in division (C) of this section shall
be sent by the clerk by ordinary or regular mail service unless
the
judgment creditor requests that service be made in accordance
with the Rules of Civil Procedure, in which case the forms shall
be
served in accordance with the Rules of Civil
Procedure. Any
court of common pleas that issues an order of
garnishment of
property, other than personal earnings, under this
section has
jurisdiction to serve process pursuant to this
section upon a
garnishee who does not reside within the
jurisdiction of the
court. Any county court or municipal court
that issues an order
of garnishment of property, other than
personal earnings, under
this section has jurisdiction to serve
process pursuant to this
section upon a garnishee who does not
reside within the
jurisdiction of the court.
Sec. 2743.02. (A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity
from liability and, subject to division (H) of this section, consents to be sued, and have its liability
determined, in the court of claims created in this chapter in
accordance with the same rules of law applicable to suits between
private parties, except that the determination of liability is
subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter and, in the
case of state universities or colleges, in section 3345.40 of the
Revised Code, and except as provided in division (A)(2) of this
section. To the extent that the state has previously consented
to be sued, this chapter has no applicability.
Except in the case of a civil action filed by the state,
filing a civil action in the court of claims results in a
complete waiver of any cause of action, based on the same act or
omission, which the filing party has against any officer or
employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code. The
waiver shall be void if the court determines that the act or
omission was manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or
employee's office or employment or that the officer or employee
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or
reckless manner.
(2) If a claimant proves in the court of claims that an
officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised
Code, would have personal liability for his the officer's or
employee's acts or omissions but
for the fact that the officer or employee has personal immunity
under section 9.86 of the Revised Code, the state shall be held
liable in the court of claims in any action that is timely filed
pursuant to section 2743.16 of the Revised Code and that is based
upon the acts or omissions.
(B) The state hereby waives the immunity from liability of
all hospitals owned or operated by one or more political
subdivisions and consents for them to be sued, and to have their
liability determined, in the court of common pleas, in accordance
with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private
parties, subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter.
This division is also applicable to hospitals owned or operated
by political subdivisions which have been determined by the
supreme court to be subject to suit prior to July 28, 1975.
(C) Any hospital, as defined under section 2305.11 of the
Revised Code, may purchase liability insurance covering its
operations and activities and its agents, employees, nurses,
interns, residents, staff, and members of the governing board and
committees, and, whether or not such insurance is purchased, may,
to such extent as its governing board considers appropriate,
indemnify or agree to indemnify and hold harmless any such person
against expense, including attorney's fees, damage, loss, or
other liability arising out of, or claimed to have arisen out of,
the death, disease, or injury of any person as a result of the
negligence, malpractice, or other action or inaction of the
indemnified person while acting within the scope of his the
indemnified person's duties or engaged in activities at the request or
direction, or for the benefit, of the hospital. Any hospital electing to
indemnify
such persons, or to agree to so indemnify, shall reserve such
funds as are necessary, in the exercise of sound and prudent
actuarial judgment, to cover the potential expense, fees, damage,
loss, or other liability. The superintendent of insurance may
recommend, or, if such hospital requests him the superintendent
to do so, the
superintendent shall recommend, a specific amount for any period
that, in his the superintendent's opinion, represents such a
judgment. This authority is in addition to any authorization otherwise
provided or
permitted by law.
(D) Recoveries against the state shall be reduced by the
aggregate of insurance proceeds, disability award, or other
collateral recovery received by the claimant. This division does
not apply to civil actions in the court of claims against a state
university or college under the circumstances described in
section 3345.40 of the Revised Code. The collateral benefits
provisions of division (B)(2) of that section apply under those
circumstances.
(E) The only defendant in original actions in the court of
claims is the state. The state may file a third-party complaint
or counterclaim in any civil action, except a civil action for
two thousand five hundred dollars or less, that is filed in the
court of claims.
(F) A civil action against an officer or employee, as
defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, that alleges that
the officer's or employee's conduct was manifestly outside the
scope of his the officer's or employee's employment or official
responsibilities, or that the
officer or employee acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith,
or in a wanton or reckless manner shall first be filed against
the state in the court of claims, which has exclusive, original
jurisdiction to determine, initially, whether the officer or
employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 9.86 of
the Revised Code and whether the courts of common pleas have
jurisdiction over the civil action.
The filing of a claim against an officer or employee under
this division tolls the running of the applicable statute of
limitations until the court of claims determines whether the
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under
section 9.86 of the Revised Code.
(G) Whenever a claim lies against an officer or employee who is a member of
the Ohio national guard, and the officer or employee was, at the time of the
act or omission complained of, subject to the "Federal Tort Claims Act," 60
Stat. 842 (1946), 28 U.S.C. 2671, et seq., then the Federal Tort Claims Act is
the exclusive remedy of the claimant and the state has no liability under this
section.
(H) If an inmate of a state correctional institution has a claim against the state for the loss of or damage to property and the amount claimed does not exceed three hundred dollars, before commencing an action against the state in the court of claims, the inmate shall file a claim for the loss or damage under the rules adopted by the director of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to this division. The inmate shall file the claim within the time allowed for commencement of a civil action under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code. If the state admits or compromises the claim, the director shall make payment from a fund designated by the director for that purpose. If the state denies the claim or does not compromise the claim at least sixty days prior to expiration of the time allowed for commencement of a civil action based upon the loss or damage under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code, the inmate may commence an action in the court of claims under this chapter to recover damages for the loss or damage.
The director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this division.
Sec. 2915.01. As used in this chapter:
(A)
"Bookmaking" means the business of receiving or paying
off bets.
(B)
"Bet" means the hazarding of anything of value upon
the
result of an event, undertaking, or contingency, but does not
include a bona fide business risk.
(C)
"Scheme of chance" means a
slot machine,
lottery, numbers
game,
pool,
or other scheme in which a
participant gives a
valuable
consideration for a chance to win a
prize,
but does not
include
bingo.
(D)
"Game of chance" means poker, craps, roulette,
or other game in which a player gives
anything of value in the hope of gain, the outcome of which is
determined largely
by chance,
but does not include
bingo.
(E)
"Game of chance conducted for profit"
means
any
game of chance designed to produce income for
the
person who conducts or operates the
game of chance,
but
does not include
bingo.
(F)
"Gambling device" means
any of the following:
(1) A book, totalizer, or other equipment for recording
bets;
(2) A ticket, token, or other device representing a
chance,
share, or interest in a scheme of chance or evidencing a bet;
(3) A deck of cards, dice, gaming table, roulette wheel,
slot machine,
or other apparatus designed for use in
connection with a game of chance;
(4) Any equipment, device, apparatus, or paraphernalia
specially designed for gambling purposes;
(5)
Bingo supplies sold or otherwise provided, or used, in
violation of this
chapter.
(G)
"Gambling offense" means any of the following:
(1) A violation of section 2915.02, 2915.03, 2915.04,
2915.05, 2915.07, 2915.08,
2915.081, 2915.082, 2915.09,
2915.091,
2915.092, 2915.10, or 2915.11
of the Revised Code;
(2) A violation of an existing or former municipal
ordinance
or law of this or any other state or the United States
substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (G)(1)
of this section or a violation of section 2915.06 of the
Revised
Code as it existed prior to
July
1, 1996;
(3) An offense under an existing or former municipal
ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States,
of which gambling is an element;
(4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in
committing, any offense under division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this
section.
(H)
Except as otherwise provided in this chapter,
"charitable organization" means any tax exempt
religious,
educational, veteran's, fraternal, service, nonprofit
medical,
volunteer rescue service, volunteer
firefighter's,
senior
citizen's, youth athletic, amateur athletic, or youth
athletic
park organization.
An organization is tax exempt if the
organization is, and has
received from the internal revenue
service a determination letter
that currently is in effect stating
that the organization is,
exempt from federal income taxation
under subsection 501(a) and
described in subsection 501(c)(3),
501(c)(4), 501(c)(8),
501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19) of the Internal
Revenue Code.
To
qualify as a charitable organization, an
organization, except a
volunteer rescue service or volunteer
fire
fighter's
organization,
shall have been in
continuous existence as
such in this state for
a period of two
years immediately preceding
either the making of
an application
for a
bingo license under
section 2915.08 of the
Revised Code or
the conducting of any
scheme of chance or game of
chance as
provided in division
(C)of
section 2915.02 of
the
Revised
Code.
A charitable organization
that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection
501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal
Revenue Code and that is created by a veteran's organization or a
fraternal organization does not have to have been in continuous
existence as such in this state for a period of two years
immediately preceding either the making of an application for a
bingo license under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code or the
conducting of any scheme of chance or game of chance as provided
in division (D) of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code.
(I)
"Religious organization" means any church, body of
communicants, or group that is not organized or operated for
profit and that gathers in common membership for regular worship
and
religious observances.
(J)
"Educational organization" means any organization
within
this state that is not organized for profit, the
exclusive
purpose
of which
is
to educate and develop the capabilities of
individuals through instruction,
and that operates
or
contributes
to the support of a school, academy,
college, or
university.
(K)
"Veteran's organization" means any individual post of
a
national veteran's association or an auxiliary unit of any
individual post of a national veteran's association, which post
or
auxiliary unit has been incorporated as a nonprofit
corporation
for at least two years and has received a letter from
the state
headquarters of the national veteran's association
indicating that
the individual post or auxiliary unit is in good
standing with the
national veteran's association. As used in
this division,
"national veteran's association" means any
veteran's association
that has been in continuous existence as
such for a period of at
least
five years and either is
incorporated by an act of the
United States congress or has a
national dues-paying membership of
at least five thousand
persons.
(L)
"Volunteer
firefighter's organization"
means any
organization of volunteer
firefighters, as
defined in section
146.01
of the Revised Code, that is organized
and operated
exclusively
to provide financial support for a
volunteer fire
department or a
volunteer fire company
and that is
recognized or ratified by a county,
municipal corporation, or
township.
(M)
"Fraternal organization" means any society, order, or
association within this state, except a college or high school
fraternity, that is not organized for profit, that is a branch,
lodge, or chapter of a national or state organization, that
exists
exclusively for the common business or sodality of its
members,
and that has been in continuous existence in this state
for a
period of
five
years.
(N)
"Volunteer rescue service organization" means any
organization of volunteers organized to function as an emergency
medical service organization, as defined in section 4765.01 of the
Revised Code.
(O)
"Service organization" means any organization, not
organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively
to provide, or to contribute to the support of organizations or
institutions organized and operated exclusively to provide,
medical and therapeutic services for persons who are crippled,
born with birth defects, or have any other mental or physical
defect or those organized and operated exclusively to protect, or
to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions
organized and operated exclusively to protect, animals from
inhumane treatment.
(P)
"Nonprofit medical organization" means any
organization
that has been incorporated as a nonprofit
corporation for at least
five years and that has continuously
operated and will be operated
exclusively to provide, or to
contribute to the support of
organizations or institutions
organized and operated exclusively
to provide, hospital, medical,
research, or therapeutic services
for the public.
(Q)
"Senior citizen's organization" means any private
organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and
operated exclusively to provide recreational or social services
for persons who are fifty-five years of age or older and that is
described and qualified under subsection 501(c)(3) of the
Internal
Revenue Code.
(R)
"Charitable bingo game" means any bingo game
described
in
division
(S)(1) or (2) of this section that is
conducted by a
charitable organization that has obtained a
license pursuant
to section 2915.08 of the Revised Code and the
proceeds of which
are used for a charitable purpose.
(S)
"Bingo" means
either of the following:
(1) A game with all of the following characteristics:
(a) The participants use bingo cards
or sheets, including
paper formats and electronic representation or image formats, that
are
divided into
twenty-five spaces arranged in five horizontal
and
five vertical
rows of spaces, with each space, except the
central
space, being
designated by a combination of a letter and a
number
and with the
central space being designated as a free
space.
(b) The participants cover the spaces on the bingo cards
or
sheets that correspond to combinations of letters and numbers that
are
announced by a bingo game operator.
(c) A bingo game operator announces combinations of
letters
and numbers that appear on objects that a bingo game
operator
selects by chance, either manually or mechanically, from
a
receptacle that contains seventy-five objects at the beginning
of
each game, each object marked by a different combination of a
letter and a number that corresponds to one of the seventy-five
possible combinations of a letter and a number that can appear on
the bingo cards
or sheets.
(d) The winner of the bingo game includes any participant
who properly announces during the interval between the
announcements of letters and numbers as described in division
(S)(1)(c) of this section, that a predetermined and preannounced
pattern of spaces has been covered on a bingo card
or sheet being
used by
the participant.
(2)
Instant bingo, punch boards, and
raffles.
(T)
"Conduct" means to back, promote, organize, manage,
carry
on,
sponsor, or prepare for the operation of
bingo or
a
game
of
chance.
(U)
"Bingo game operator" means any person, except
security
personnel, who performs work or labor at the site of
bingo,
including, but not limited to, collecting money from
participants,
handing out bingo cards or
sheets or objects to cover spaces
on
bingo
cards
or sheets, selecting from a receptacle the objects
that
contain the
combination of letters and numbers that appear on
bingo cards
or sheets,
calling out the combinations of letters
and numbers,
distributing
prizes,
selling or redeeming instant
bingo
tickets or cards, supervising
the operation of a punch
board, selling raffle tickets,
selecting
raffle tickets from a
receptacle and announcing the winning
numbers
in a raffle, and
preparing, selling, and serving food or
beverages.
(V)
"Participant" means any person who plays bingo.
(W)
"Bingo session" means a period
that includes both of
the following:
(1) Not to exceed five
continuous hours
for the conduct of one or more
games
described in division (S)(1) of this section,
instant
bingo, and
seal cards;
(2) A period for the conduct of instant bingo and seal cards
for not
more
than two hours before and not more than two hours
after the
period
described in division
(W)(1) of this section.
(X)
"Gross receipts" means all money or assets, including
admission fees, that a person receives from
bingo
without the deduction of any amounts for
prizes paid out
or for the expenses of
conducting
bingo.
"Gross receipts" does not include
any money directly taken in from the sale of food or beverages by
a charitable organization conducting
bingo, or by a
bona
fide auxiliary unit or society of a charitable organization
conducting
bingo,
provided all of the following apply:
(1) The auxiliary unit or society has been in existence as
a
bona fide auxiliary unit or society of the charitable
organization
for at least two years prior to
conducting
bingo.
(2) The person who purchases the food or beverage receives
nothing of value except the food or beverage and items
customarily
received with the purchase of that food or beverage.
(3) The food and beverages are sold at customary and
reasonable prices.
(Y)
"Security personnel" includes any person who either is
a
sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, township
constable, or member of an organized police department of a
municipal corporation or has successfully completed a peace
officer's training course pursuant to sections 109.71 to 109.79
of
the Revised Code and who is hired to provide security for the
premises on which
bingo
is conducted.
(Z)
"Charitable
purpose" means
that the
net profit of
bingo,
other than instant bingo, is used by, or
is
given,
donated, or
otherwise transferred to, any
of the following:
(1)
Any organization that is
described in subsection
509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) of the
Internal Revenue Code
and is either a governmental unit or an
organization that is tax
exempt under subsection 501(a) and
described in subsection
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;
(2)
A veteran's organization that is a post, chapter,
or organization of
veterans, or an auxiliary unit or society
of, or a trust or
foundation for, any such post, chapter, or
organization organized
in the United States or any of its
possessions, at least
seventy-five per cent of the members of
which are
veterans and
substantially all of the other members
of which are individuals
who are
spouses, widows, or widowers of
veterans, or such individuals,
provided that no part of the net
earnings of such post, chapter,
or
organization inures to the benefit of
any private shareholder
or
individual, and further provided that
the
net profit is used by the post, chapter, or
organization for
the charitable
purposes set forth in division (B)(12)(11) of section
5739.02 of the
Revised Code,
is used for awarding
scholarships
to or for
attendance at an institution mentioned in division
(B)(12)(11) of
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code,
is donated
to
a
governmental agency, or
is used for nonprofit youth
activities,
the purchase of United States or Ohio flags that are
donated to
schools, youth groups, or other bona fide nonprofit
organizations, promotion of patriotism, or disaster relief;
(3) A fraternal organization
that
has been
in continuous
existence in this state for fifteen years
and that uses
the
net
profit
exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific,
literary, or
educational purposes, or for the prevention of
cruelty to
children or animals, if contributions for such use
would qualify
as a deductible charitable contribution under
subsection 170 of
the Internal Revenue Code;
(4)
A volunteer
firefighter's organization
that uses the net profit for the
purposes set
forth in division (L) of
this section.
(AA)
"Internal Revenue Code" means the
"Internal Revenue
Code
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as now or hereafter
amended.
(BB)
"Youth athletic organization" means any organization,
not organized for profit, that is organized and operated
exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate,
athletic activities for persons who are twenty-one years of age
or
younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or
contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or
association.
(CC)
"Youth athletic park organization" means any
organization, not organized for profit, that satisfies both of
the
following:
(1) It owns, operates, and maintains playing fields that
satisfy both of the following:
(a) The playing fields are used at least one hundred days
per year for athletic activities by one or more organizations,
not
organized for profit, each of which is organized and operated
exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate,
athletic activities for persons who are eighteen years of age or
younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or
contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or
association.
(b) The playing fields are not used for any profit-making
activity at any time during the year.
(2) It uses the proceeds of
bingo
it conducts
exclusively for the operation, maintenance, and improvement of
its
playing fields of the type described in division (CC)(1) of
this
section.
(DD)
"Amateur athletic organization" means any
organization,
not organized for profit, that is organized and operated
exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate,
athletic
activities for persons who are training for amateur
athletic competition that
is sanctioned by a national governing
body as defined in the
"Amateur
Sports Act of 1978," 90 Stat.
3045, 36 U.S.C.A. 373.
(EE)
"Bingo supplies" means bingo
cards or sheets; instant
bingo tickets or
cards; electronic bingo
aids; raffle tickets;
punch boards; seal
cards;
instant bingo
ticket dispensers; and
devices for selecting
or
displaying
the
combination of bingo
letters and numbers or
raffle
tickets. Items
that are
"bingo
supplies" are not
gambling
devices
if sold or
otherwise provided,
and used, in accordance
with this
chapter. For
purposes of this
chapter, "bingo supplies"
are not to be
considered equipment used
to conduct a bingo game.
(FF)
"Instant bingo" means a form of
bingo that uses folded
or banded tickets or paper cards with
perforated break-open tabs,
a face of which is covered or
otherwise hidden from view to
conceal a number, letter, or
symbol, or set of numbers, letters,
or symbols, some of which
have been designated in advance as prize
winners. "Instant bingo" includes seal cards. "Instant bingo"
does not include any device that is activated by
the insertion of
a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent, and that
contains as
one of its components a video display monitor that is
capable of
displaying numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in
winning or
losing combinations.
(GG)
"Seal card" means a
form of instant bingo that uses
instant bingo tickets in conjunction
with a board or placard that
contains one or more
seals that, when removed or opened, reveal
predesignated winning
numbers, letters, or symbols.
(HH)
"Raffle" means a form of bingo
in which the one or more
prizes are won by one or more persons
who have purchased a raffle
ticket. The one or more winners of
the raffle are determined by
drawing a ticket stub or other
detachable section from a
receptacle containing ticket stubs or
detachable sections
corresponding to all tickets sold for the
raffle.
(II)
"Punch board" means a board
containing a number of
holes
or receptacles of uniform size in
which are placed,
mechanically
and randomly, serially numbered
slips of paper that
may be punched
or drawn from the hole or
receptacle when used in
conjunction with
instant bingo. A player
may punch or draw the
numbered slips of
paper from the holes or
receptacles and obtain
the prize
established for the game if the
number drawn corresponds
to a
winning number or, if the punch
board includes the use of a
seal
card, a potential winning
number.
(JJ)
"Gross profit" means gross
receipts minus the amount
actually expended for the payment of
prize awards.
(KK)
"Net profit" means gross profit
minus expenses.
(LL)
"Expenses" means the reasonable
amount of gross profit
actually expended for all of the
following:
(1)
The purchase or lease of bingo supplies;
(2)
The annual license fee required under section
2915.08 of
the Revised Code;
(3)
Bank fees and service charges for a bingo session or
game
account described in section 2915.10 of the Revised Code;
(4)
Audits and accounting services;
(7)
Hiring security personnel;
(9) Renting premises in which to conduct bingo;
(11) Any other product or service directly related to
the
conduct of bingo that is authorized in rules adopted by the
attorney
general under division (B)(1) of section
2915.08 of the
Revised Code.
(MM)
"Person" has the same meaning as
in section 1.59 of the
Revised Code and includes
any firm or any other legal entity,
however organized.
(NN)
"Revoke" means to void
permanently all rights and
privileges of the holder of a license
issued under section
2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code
or a charitable
gaming license issued by
another jurisdiction.
(OO)
"Suspend" means to interrupt
temporarily all rights and
privileges of the holder of a license
issued under section
2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code
or a charitable
gaming license issued by
another jurisdiction.
(PP)
"Distributor" means any person who purchases or obtains
bingo
supplies and who sells, offers for sale, or otherwise
provides
or offers to provide the
bingo supplies to another person
for use in this
state.
(QQ)
"Manufacturer" means any person who assembles completed
bingo
supplies from raw materials, other items, or subparts or who
modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from bingo supplies
to further their promotion or sale.
(RR)
"Gross annual revenues" means the annual gross receipts
derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (S)(1) of
this section plus the annual net profit derived from the conduct
of bingo
described in division (S)(2) of this section.
(SS) "Instant bingo ticket dispenser" means a mechanical
device that dispenses an instant bingo ticket or card as the sole
item of value dispensed and that has the following
characteristics:
(1) It is activated upon the insertion of United States
currency.
(2) It performs no gaming functions.
(3) It does not contain a video display monitor or generate
noise.
(4) It is not capable of displaying any numbers, letters,
symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.
(5) It does not simulate or display rolling or spinning
reels.
(6) It is incapable of determining whether a dispensed
bingo ticket or card is a winning or nonwinning ticket or card and
requires a winning ticket or card to be paid by a bingo game
operator.
(7) It may provide accounting and security features to aid
in accounting for the instant bingo tickets or cards it dispenses.
(8) It is not part of an electronic network and is not
interactive.
(TT)(1) "Electronic bingo aid" means an electronic device
used by a participant to monitor bingo cards or sheets
purchased
at the time and place of a bingo session and that does
all of the
following:
(a) It provides a means for a participant to input numbers
and letters announced by a bingo caller.
(b) It compares the numbers and letters entered by the
participant to
the bingo faces previously stored in the memory of
the device.
(c) It identifies a winning bingo pattern.
(2) "Electronic bingo aid" does not include any device into
which a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent is inserted to
activate play.
(UU) "Deal of instant bingo tickets" means a single game of
instant bingo tickets all with the same serial number.
(VV) "Slot" machine means either of the following:
(1) Any
mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device
that is capable
of accepting anything of value, directly or
indirectly, from or on
behalf of a player who gives the thing of
value in the hope of
gain, the outcome of which is determined
largely or wholly by
chance;
(2) Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device
that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or
indirectly, from or on behalf of a player to conduct or dispense
bingo or a scheme or game of chance.
(WW) "Net profit from the
proceeds of the sale of instant
bingo" means gross profit minus
the ordinary, necessary, and
reasonable expense expended for the
purchase of instant bingo
supplies.
(XX) "Charitable instant bingo organization" means an
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under
subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the
Internal Revenue Code and is a charitable organization as defined
in this section. A "charitable instant bingo organization" does
not include a charitable organization that is exempt from federal
income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in
subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
created by a veteran's organization or a fraternal organization in
regards to bingo conducted or assisted by a veteran's organization
or a fraternal organization pursuant to section 2915.13 of the
Revised Code.
Sec. 2921.13. (A) No person shall knowingly make a false
statement, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false
statement previously made, when any of the following applies:
(1) The statement is made in any official proceeding.
(2) The statement is made with purpose to incriminate
another.
(3) The statement is made with purpose to mislead a public
official in performing the public official's official function.
(4) The statement is made with purpose to secure the payment
of unemployment
compensation; Ohio works
first; prevention,
retention, and contingency benefits and services;
disability financial assistance;
retirement benefits;
economic development assistance, as defined
in section 9.66 of the Revised
Code; or other benefits
administered by a governmental agency
or paid
out
of a public
treasury.
(5) The statement is made with purpose to secure the
issuance by a governmental agency of a license, permit,
authorization, certificate, registration, release, or provider
agreement.
(6) The statement is sworn or affirmed before a notary
public or another person empowered to administer oaths.
(7) The statement is in writing on or in connection with a
report or return that is required or authorized by law.
(8) The statement is in writing and is made with purpose
to
induce another to extend credit to or employ the offender, to
confer any
degree, diploma, certificate of attainment, award
of
excellence, or honor on the offender, or to extend to or
bestow
upon the offender any other valuable benefit or
distinction, when
the person to whom the statement is directed
relies upon it to
that person's detriment.
(9) The statement is made with purpose to commit or
facilitate the commission of a theft offense.
(10) The statement is knowingly made to a probate court in
connection with any action, proceeding, or other matter within
its
jurisdiction, either orally or in a written document,
including,
but not limited to, an application, petition,
complaint, or other
pleading, or an inventory, account, or
report.
(11) The statement is made on an account, form, record,
stamp, label, or
other writing that is required by law.
(12) The statement is made in connection with the
purchase
of a firearm, as defined in
section 2923.11 of the Revised Code,
and in conjunction
with the furnishing to the seller of the
firearm of a fictitious or altered
driver's or commercial driver's
license or permit, a fictitious or altered
identification card, or
any other document that contains false information
about the
purchaser's identity.
(13) The statement is made in a document or instrument of
writing
that purports to be a judgment, lien, or claim of
indebtedness and is filed or
recorded with the secretary of state,
a county recorder, or the clerk of a
court of record.
(B) No person, in connection with the purchase of a firearm,
as
defined in section 2923.11 of the
Revised Code, shall knowingly
furnish to the seller of the
firearm a fictitious or altered
driver's or commercial driver's license or
permit, a fictitious or
altered identification card, or any other document
that contains
false information about the purchaser's identity.
(C) It is no defense to a charge under division (A)(4) of
this section that the oath or affirmation was administered or
taken in an irregular manner.
(D) If contradictory statements relating to the same
fact
are made by the offender within the period of the statute of
limitations for falsification, it is not necessary for the
prosecution to prove which statement was false but only that one
or the other was false.
(E)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4),
(5),
(6), (7), (8), (10), (11), or (13)
of this section is guilty of
falsification, a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(2) Whoever violates division (A)(9) of this section is
guilty of falsification in a theft offense. Except as otherwise
provided in
this division, falsification in a theft
offense is a
misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or
services stolen is five hundred dollars or more and is less than
five thousand
dollars, falsification in a theft offense is a
felony of the fifth degree. If
the value of the property or
services stolen is five thousand dollars or more
and is less than
one hundred thousand dollars, falsification in a theft
offense is
a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the property or
services stolen is one hundred thousand dollars or more,
falsification in a
theft offense is a felony of the third degree.
(3) Whoever violates division (A)(12)
or (B) of this
section is guilty of falsification to purchase a firearm, a
felony
of the fifth degree.
(F) A person who violates this section is liable in a civil
action to any person harmed by the violation for injury, death, or
loss to
person
or property incurred as a result of the commission
of the offense and for
reasonable attorney's fees, court costs,
and other expenses incurred as a
result of prosecuting the civil
action commenced under this division. A civil
action under this
division is not the exclusive remedy of a person who incurs
injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of a
violation of
this section.
Sec. 2925.44. (A) If property is seized pursuant to
section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code, it is deemed to
be in the custody of the head of the law enforcement agency that
seized it, and the head of that agency may do any of the
following with respect to
that property prior to its disposition in accordance with
division (A)(4) or (B) of this section:
(1) Place the property under seal;
(2) Remove the property to a place that the head of that
agency designates;
(3) Request the issuance of a court order that requires
any other appropriate municipal corporation, county, township,
park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01
of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement officer or other
officer to take custody of the property and, if practicable,
remove it to an appropriate location for eventual disposition in
accordance with division (B) of this section;
(4)(a) Seek forfeiture of the property pursuant to federal
law. If the head of that agency seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law,
the law
enforcement agency shall deposit, use, and account for proceeds from a sale of
the property upon its forfeiture, proceeds from another disposition of the
property upon its
forfeiture, or forfeited moneys it receives, in accordance
with the applicable federal law and otherwise shall comply with
that law.
(b) If the state highway patrol seized the property and if the superintendent
of the state highway patrol seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the
appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the state highway
patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other earnings
derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon
its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its
forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys. The state highway patrol shall use and
account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable
federal law.
(c) If the investigative unit of the
department of public
safety seized the property and if the director of public safety
seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate
governmental officials shall deposit into the
department of public safety investigative unit
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other
earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale
of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another
disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the
forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that
interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable
federal law.
(d) If the enforcement division of the department of taxation seized the property and if the tax commissioner seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of taxation enforcement fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(e) Division (B) of this section and divisions (D)(1) to
(3) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code do not apply to proceeds or
forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law or to the interest or other
earnings that are derived from the investment of proceeds or forfeited moneys
received pursuant to federal law and that are described in division (A)(4)(b)
of this section.
(B) In addition to complying with any requirements imposed
by a court pursuant to section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised
Code, and the requirements imposed by those sections, in relation
to the disposition of property forfeited to the state under
either of those sections, the prosecuting attorney who is
responsible for its disposition shall dispose of the property as
follows:
(1) Any vehicle, as defined in section 4501.01 of the
Revised Code, that was used in a felony drug abuse offense or in
an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug
abuse offense shall be given to the law enforcement agency of the
municipal corporation or county in which the offense occurred if
that agency desires to have the vehicle, except that, if the
offense occurred in a township or in a park district created
pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code and a
law enforcement officer employed by the township or the park district was
involved in
the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may be given to the law
enforcement agency of that township or park district if that
agency desires to have the vehicle, and except that, if the state
highway patrol made the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may
be given to the state highway patrol if it desires to have the
vehicle.
(2) Any drug paraphernalia that was used, possessed, sold,
or manufactured in a violation of section 2925.14 of the Revised
Code that would be a felony drug abuse offense or in a violation
of that section committed by a juvenile that, if committed by an
adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense, may be given to the
law enforcement agency of the municipal corporation or county in
which the offense occurred if that agency desires to have and can
use the drug paraphernalia, except that, if the offense occurred
in a township or in a park district created pursuant to section
511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code and a law enforcement
officer employed by the township or the park district was involved in the
seizure of the
drug paraphernalia, the drug paraphernalia may be given to the
law enforcement agency of that township or park district if that
agency desires to have and can use the drug paraphernalia. If
the drug paraphernalia is not so given, it shall be disposed of
by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section or disposed
of in another manner that the court that issued the order of
forfeiture considers proper under the circumstances.
(3) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11
of the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of
the treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical
or scientific purposes under applicable federal law.
(4) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police
work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose.
Firearms suitable for sporting use, or as museum pieces or
collectors' items, may be disposed of by sale pursuant to
division (B)(8) of this section. Other firearms and dangerous
ordnance shall be destroyed by a law enforcement agency or shall
be sent to the bureau of criminal identification and
investigation for destruction by it. As used in this division,
"firearms" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings as in
section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.
(5) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and
computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law
enforcement agency for that purpose. Other computers, computer
networks, computer systems, and computer software shall be
disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section
or disposed of in another manner that the court that issued the
order of forfeiture considers proper under the circumstances. As
used in this division, "computers," "computer networks,"
"computer systems," and "computer software" have the same
meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.
(6) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.
(7) Beer, intoxicating liquor, and alcohol shall be
disposed of in accordance with division (D)(4) of section 2933.41
of the Revised Code.
(8) In the case of property not described in divisions
(B)(1) to (7) of this section and of property described in those
divisions but not disposed of pursuant to them, the property
shall be sold in accordance with division (B)(8) of this section or, in the
case of
forfeited moneys, disposed of in accordance with division (B)(8) of this
section. If the property is to be sold, the prosecuting attorney shall
cause a notice of the proposed sale of the property to be given
in accordance with law, and the property shall be sold, without
appraisal, at a public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The proceeds
of a sale and forfeited moneys shall be applied in
the following order:
(a) First, to the payment of the costs incurred in
connection with the seizure of, storage of, maintenance of, and
provision of security for the property, the forfeiture proceeding
or civil action, and, if any, the sale;
(b) Second, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys
after compliance with division (B)(8)(a) of this section, to the
payment of the value of any legal right, title, or interest in
the property that is possessed by a person who, pursuant to
division (F) of section 2925.42 of the Revised Code or division
(E) of section 2925.43 of the Revised Code, established the
validity of and consequently preserved that legal right, title,
or interest, including, but not limited to, any mortgage,
perfected or other security interest, or other lien in the
property. The value of these rights, titles, or interests shall
be paid according to their record or other order of priority.
(c) Third, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys
after compliance with divisions (B)(8)(a) and (b) of this
section, as follows:
(i) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ten per
cent to one or more alcohol and drug addiction treatment programs that are
certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under
section 3793.06 of the Revised Code and that are specified in the order of forfeiture. A
juvenile court shall not specify an alcohol or drug addiction treatment program
in the order of forfeiture unless the program is a certified alcohol and drug
addiction treatment program and, except as provided in division
(B)(8)(c)(i) of this section, unless
the program is located in the county in which the court that orders the
forfeiture is located or in a contiguous county. If no certified alcohol and
drug addiction treatment program is located in any of those counties, the
juvenile court may specify in the order a certified alcohol and drug addiction
treatment program located anywhere within this state.
(ii) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety
per
cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than a juvenile
court,
one hundred per cent
to appropriate funds in accordance with divisions
(D)(1)(c) and (2) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code. The
remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys so deposited shall be used
only for the purposes authorized by those divisions and division
(D)(3)(a)(ii) of that section.
(C)(1) Sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code do
not preclude a financial institution that possessed a valid mortgage, security
interest, or lien that is not satisfied prior to a sale under
division (B)(8) of this section or following a sale by
application of division (B)(8)(b) of this section, from
commencing a civil action in any appropriate court in this or
another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor
if the financial institution otherwise would have been entitled
to do so in this or another state.
(2) Any law enforcement agency that obtains any vehicle
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section shall take the
vehicle subject to the outstanding amount of any security
interest or lien that attaches to the vehicle.
(3) Nothing in this section impairs a mortgage, security
interest, lien, or other
interest of a financial institution in property that was the
subject of a forfeiture order under section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of
the Revised Code and that was sold or otherwise disposed of in a
manner that does not conform to the requirements of division (B)
of this section, or any right of a financial institution of
that nature to
commence a civil action in any appropriate court in this or
another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor.
(4) Following the sale under division (B)(8) of this
section of any property that is required to be titled or
registered under the law of this state, the prosecuting attorney
responsible for the disposition of the property shall cause the
state to issue an appropriate certificate of title or
registration to the purchaser of the property. Additionally, if,
in a disposition of property pursuant to division (B) of this
section, the state or a political subdivision is given any
property that is required to be titled or registered under the
law of this state, the prosecuting attorney responsible for the
disposition of the property shall cause the state to issue an
appropriate certificate of title or registration to itself or to
the political subdivision.
(D) Property that has been forfeited to the state pursuant
to an order of criminal forfeiture under section 2925.42 of the
Revised Code or an order of civil forfeiture under section
2925.43 of the Revised Code shall not be available for use to pay
any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads
guilty to a felony drug abuse offense or upon any juvenile who is
found by a juvenile court to be a delinquent child for an act
that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse
offense.
(E) Sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code do not
prohibit a law enforcement officer from seeking the forfeiture of contraband
associated with a felony drug abuse offense pursuant to section
2933.43 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2933.43. (A)(1) Except as provided in this division or
in section
2913.34 or sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 or
2925.41 to
2925.45 of the Revised Code,
a law enforcement officer shall seize
any contraband that has been, is
being, or is intended to be used
in violation of division (A) of
section 2933.42 of the Revised
Code. A law enforcement officer
shall seize contraband that is a
watercraft, motor vehicle, or
aircraft and that has been, is
being, or is intended to be used
in violation of division (A) of
section 2933.42 of the Revised
Code only if the watercraft, motor
vehicle, or aircraft is
contraband because of its relationship to
an underlying criminal
offense that is a felony.
Additionally, a law enforcement officer shall seize any
watercraft, motor vehicle, aircraft, or other personal property
that is classified as contraband under division (B) of section
2933.42 of the Revised Code if the underlying offense involved in
the violation of division (A) of that section that resulted in
the
watercraft, motor vehicle, aircraft, or personal property
being
classified as contraband, is a felony.
(2) If a law enforcement officer seizes property that is
titled or registered under law, including a motor vehicle,
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, the officer or the
officer's
employing law enforcement agency shall notify the owner
of the
seizure. The notification shall be given to the owner at
the owner's last
known address within seventy-two hours after the
seizure,
and may be given orally by any means, including
telephone, or by
certified mail, return receipt requested.
If the officer or the officer's agency is unable to provide
the
notice required by this division despite reasonable, good
faith
efforts to do so, the exercise of the reasonable, good faith
efforts constitutes fulfillment of the notice requirement imposed
by this division.
(B)(1) A motor vehicle seized pursuant to division (A)(1)
of
this section and the contents of the vehicle may be retained
for a
reasonable period of time, not to exceed seventy-two hours,
for
the purpose of inspection, investigation, and the gathering
of
evidence of any offense or illegal use.
At any time prior to the expiration of the seventy-two-hour
period, the law enforcement agency that seized the motor vehicle
may petition the court of common pleas of the county that has
jurisdiction over the underlying criminal case or administrative
proceeding involved in the forfeiture for an extension of the
seventy-two-hour period if the motor vehicle or its contents are
needed as evidence or if additional time is needed for the
inspection, investigation, or gathering of evidence. Upon the
filing of such a petition, the court immediately shall schedule a
hearing to be held at a time as soon as possible after the
filing,
but in no event at a time later than the end of the next
business
day subsequent to the day on which the petition was
filed, and
upon scheduling the hearing, immediately shall notify
the owner of
the vehicle, at the address at which notification of
the seizure
was provided under division (A) of this section, of
the date,
time, and place of the hearing. If the court, at the
hearing,
determines that the vehicle or its contents, or both,
are needed
as evidence or that additional time is needed for the
inspection,
investigation, or gathering of evidence, the court
may grant the
petition and issue an order authorizing the
retention of the
vehicle or its contents, or both, for an
extended period as
specified by the court in its order. An order
extending a period
of retention issued under this division may be
renewed.
If no petition for the extension of the initial
seventy-two-hour period has been filed, prior to the expiration
of
that period, under this division, if the vehicle was not in
the
custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure,
and
if, at the end of that seventy-two-hour period, the owner of
the
vehicle has not been charged with an offense or
administrative
violation that includes the use of the vehicle as
an element and
has not been charged with any other offense or
administrative
violation in the actual commission of which the
motor vehicle was
used, the vehicle and its contents shall be
released to its owner
or the owner's agent, provided that the law
enforcement agency
that seized the vehicle may require proof of
ownership of the
vehicle, proof of ownership or legal possession
of the contents,
and an affidavit of the owner that the owner neither
knew of nor
expressly or impliedly consented to the use of the
vehicle that
resulted in its forfeiture as conditions precedent
to release. If
a petition for the extension of the initial
seventy-two-hour
period has been filed, prior to the expiration
of that period,
under this division but the court does not grant
the petition, if
the vehicle was not in the custody and control
of the owner at the
time of its seizure, and if, at the end of
that seventy-two-hour
period, the owner of the vehicle has not
been charged with an
offense or administrative violation that
includes the use of the
vehicle as an element and has not been
charged with any other
offense or administrative violation in the
actual commission of
which the motor vehicle was used, the
vehicle and its contents
shall be released to its owner or the owner's agent,
provided that
the court may require the proof and
affidavit described in the
preceding sentence as conditions
precedent to release. If the
initial seventy-two-hour period has
been extended under this
division, the vehicle and its contents
to which the extension
applies may be retained in accordance with
the extension order.
If, at the end of that extended period, the
owner of the vehicle
has not been charged with an offense or
administrative violation
that includes the use of the vehicle as
an element and has not
been charged with any other offense or
administrative violation in
the actual commission of which the
motor vehicle was used, and if
the vehicle was not in the custody
and control of the owner at the
time of its seizure, the vehicle
and its contents shall be
released to its owner or the owner's agent,
provided that the
court may require the proof and affidavit
described in the third
preceding sentence as conditions precedent
to release. In cases
in which the court may require proof and
affidavits as conditions
precedent to release, the court also may
require the posting of a
bond, with sufficient sureties approved
by the court, in an amount
equal to the value of the property to
be released, as determined
by the court, and conditioned upon the
return of the property to
the court if it is forfeited under this
section, as a further
condition to release. If, at the end of
the initial
seventy-two-hour period or at the end of any extended
period
granted under this section, the owner has been charged
with an
offense or administrative violation that includes the use
of the
vehicle as an element or has been charged with another
offense or
administrative violation in the actual commission of
which the
motor vehicle was used, or if the vehicle was in the
custody and
control of the owner at the time of its seizure, the
vehicle and
its contents shall be retained pending disposition of
the charge,
provided that upon the filing of a motion for release
by the
owner, if the court determines that the motor vehicle or
its
contents, or both, are not needed as evidence in the
underlying
criminal case or administrative proceeding, the court
may permit
the release of the property that is not needed as
evidence to the
owner; as a condition precedent to a release of that nature,
the
court may require the owner to execute a bond with
the court. Any
bond so required shall be in an amount equal to
the value of the
property to be released, as determined by the
court, shall have
sufficient sureties approved by the court, and
shall be
conditioned upon the return of the property to the court
to which
it is forfeited under this section.
The final disposition of a motor vehicle seized pursuant to
division (A)(1) of this section shall be determined in accordance
with division (C) of this section.
(2) Pending a hearing pursuant to division (C) of this
section, and subject to divisions (B)(1) and (C) of this section,
any property lawfully seized pursuant to division (A) of this
section because it was contraband of a type described in division
(A)(13)(b), (d), (e),
(f), (g), (h), (i), or (j) of section
2901.01 of the Revised Code shall not be subject to replevin or
other action in any court and shall not be subject to release
upon
request of the owner, and no judgment shall be enforced
against
the property. Pending the hearing, and subject to
divisions
(B)(1) and (C) of this section, the property shall be
kept in the
custody of the law enforcement agency responsible for
its seizure.
Pending a hearing pursuant to division (C) of this section,
and notwithstanding any provisions of division (B)(1) or (C) of
this section to the contrary, any property lawfully seized
pursuant to division (A) of this section because it was
contraband
of a type described in division (A)(13)(a) or
(c) of section
2901.01 of the Revised Code shall not be
subject to replevin or
other action in any court and shall not be subject
to release upon
request of the owner, and no judgment shall be
enforced against
the property. Pending the hearing, and
notwithstanding any
provisions of division (B)(1) or (C) of this
section to the
contrary, the property shall be kept in the
custody of the law
enforcement agency responsible for its
seizure.
A law enforcement agency that seizes property under
division
(A) of this section because it was contraband of any
type
described in division (A)(13) of section 2901.01 or
division (B)
of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code shall maintain an accurate
record of each item of property so seized, which record shall
include the date on which each item was seized, the manner and
date of its disposition, and if applicable, the name of the
person
who received the item; however, the record shall not
identify or
enable the identification of the individual officer
who seized the
item. The record of property of that nature that no
longer is
needed as evidence shall be open to public inspection
during the
agency's regular business hours. Each law enforcement
agency
that, during any calendar year, seizes property under
division (A)
of this section because it was contraband shall
prepare a report
covering the calendar year that cumulates all of
the information
contained in all of the records kept by the
agency pursuant to
this division for that calendar year, and
shall send a copy of the
cumulative report, no later than the
first day of March in the
calendar year following the calendar
year covered by the report,
to the attorney general. Each report
received by the attorney
general is a public record open for
inspection under section
149.43 of the Revised Code. Not later than the
fifteenth day of
April in the calendar year
in which the reports are received, the
attorney
general shall send to the
president of the senate and the
speaker of the house of
representatives a written notification
that does all of the
following:
(a) Indicates that the attorney general has received from
law enforcement agencies reports
of the type described in this
division that cover the previous
calendar year and indicates that
the reports were received under this
division;
(b) Indicates that the reports
are open for inspection under
section 149.43 of the
Revised Code;
(c) Indicates that the attorney general
will provide a copy
of any or all of the reports to the
president of the senate or the
speaker of the house of
representatives upon request.
(C) The prosecuting attorney, village solicitor, city
director of law, or similar chief legal officer who has
responsibility for the prosecution of the underlying criminal
case
or administrative proceeding, or the attorney general if the
attorney general has that responsibility, shall file a petition
for the forfeiture, to the seizing law enforcement agency of the
contraband seized pursuant to division (A) of this section. The
petition shall be filed in the court that has jurisdiction over
the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding
involved
in the forfeiture. If the property was seized on the
basis of
both a criminal violation and an administrative
regulation
violation, the petition shall be filed by the officer
and in the
court that is appropriate in relation to the criminal
case.
The petitioner shall conduct or cause to be conducted a
search of the appropriate public records that relate to the
seized
property for the purpose of determining, and shall make or
cause
to be made reasonably diligent inquiries for the purpose of
determining, any person having an ownership or security interest
in the property. The petitioner then shall give notice of the
forfeiture proceedings by personal service or by certified mail,
return receipt requested, to any persons known, because of the
conduct of the search, the making of the inquiries, or otherwise,
to have an ownership or security interest in the property, and
shall publish notice of the proceedings once each week for two
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the
county in which the seizure occurred. The notices shall be
personally served, mailed, and first published at least four
weeks
before the hearing. They shall describe the property
seized;
state the date and place of seizure; name the law
enforcement
agency that seized the property and, if applicable,
that is
holding the property; list the time, date, and place of
the
hearing; and state that any person having an ownership or
security
interest in the property may contest the forfeiture.
If the property seized was determined by the seizing law
enforcement officer to be contraband because of its relationship
to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation, no
forfeiture hearing shall be held under this section unless the
person pleads guilty to or is convicted of the commission of, or
an attempt or conspiracy to commit, the offense or a different
offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances or unless
the person admits or is adjudicated to have committed the
administrative violation or a different violation arising out of
the same facts and circumstances; a forfeiture hearing shall be
held in a case of that nature no later than forty-five days after
the
conviction or the admission or adjudication of the violation,
unless the time for the hearing is extended by the court for good
cause shown. The owner of any property seized because of its
relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative
violation may request the court to release the property to the
owner. Upon
receipt of a request of that nature, if the court
determines that the
property is not needed as evidence in the
underlying criminal
case or administrative proceeding, the court
may permit the
release of the property to the owner. As a
condition precedent
to a release of that nature, the court may
require the owner to execute a
bond with the court. Any bond so
required shall have sufficient
sureties approved by the court,
shall be in a sum equal to the
value of the property, as
determined by the court, and shall be
conditioned upon the return
of the property to the court if the
property is forfeited under
this section. Any property seized
because of its relationship to
an underlying criminal offense or
administrative violation shall
be returned to its owner if
charges are not filed in relation to
that underlying offense or
violation within thirty days after the
seizure, if charges of that nature are
filed and subsequently are
dismissed, or if charges of that nature are filed
and the person
charged does not plead guilty to and is not convicted of the
offense or does not admit and is not found to have committed the
violation.
If the property seized was determined by the seizing law
enforcement officer to be contraband other than because of a
relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative
violation, the forfeiture hearing under this section shall be
held
no later than forty-five days after the seizure, unless the
time
for the hearing is extended by the court for good cause
shown.
Where possible, a court holding a forfeiture hearing under
this section shall follow the Rules of Civil Procedure. When a
hearing is conducted under this section, property shall be
forfeited upon a showing, by a preponderance of the evidence, by
the petitioner that the person from which the property was seized
was in violation of division (A) of section 2933.42 of the
Revised
Code. If that showing is made, the court shall issue an
order of
forfeiture. If an order of forfeiture is issued in
relation to
contraband that was released to the owner or the owner's agent
pursuant to this division or division (B)(1) of this
section, the
order shall require the owner to deliver the
property, by a
specified date, to the law enforcement agency that
employed the
law enforcement officer who made the seizure of the
property, and
the court shall deliver a copy of the order to the
owner or send a
copy of it by certified mail, return receipt
requested, to the
owner at the address to which notice of the
seizure was given
under division (A)(2) of this section. Except
as otherwise
provided in this division, all rights, interest, and
title to the
forfeited contraband vests in the state, effective
from the date
of seizure.
No property shall be forfeited pursuant to this division if
the owner of the property establishes, by a preponderance of the
evidence, that the owner neither knew, nor should have known after
a
reasonable inquiry, that the property was used, or was likely to
be used, in a crime or administrative violation. No bona fide
security interest shall be forfeited pursuant to this division if
the holder of the interest establishes, by a preponderance of the
evidence, that the holder of the interest neither knew, nor should
have known
after a
reasonable inquiry, that the property was used,
or likely to be
used, in a crime or administrative violation, that
the holder of the interest
did not
expressly or impliedly consent
to the use of the property in a
crime or administrative violation,
and that the security interest
was perfected pursuant to law prior
to the seizure. If the
holder of the interest satisfies the court
that these
requirements are met, the interest shall be preserved
by the
court. In a case of that nature, the court shall either
order that the
agency to which the property is forfeited reimburse
the holder of the interest
to the extent of the preserved interest
or order that the
holder be paid for the interest from the
proceeds of any
sale pursuant to division (D) of this section.
(D)(1) Contraband ordered forfeited pursuant to this
section
shall be disposed of pursuant to divisions (D)(1) to (7)
of
section 2933.41 of the Revised Code or, if the contraband is
not
described in those divisions, may be used, with the approval
of
the court, by the law enforcement agency that has custody of
the
contraband pursuant to division (D)(8) of that section. In
the
case of contraband not described in any of those divisions
and of
contraband not disposed of pursuant to any of those
divisions, the
contraband shall be sold in accordance with this
division or, in
the case of forfeited moneys, disposed of in
accordance with this
division. If the contraband is to be sold,
the prosecuting
attorney shall cause a notice of the proposed
sale of the
contraband to be given in accordance with law, and
the property
shall be sold, without appraisal, at a public
auction to the
highest bidder for cash. The proceeds of a sale
and forfeited
moneys shall be applied in the following order:
(a) First, to the payment of the costs incurred in
connection with the seizure of, storage of, maintenance of, and
provision of security for the contraband, the forfeiture
proceeding, and, if any, the sale;
(b) Second, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys
after
compliance with division (D)(1)(a) of this section, to the
payment
of the balance due on any security interest preserved
pursuant to
division (C) of this section;
(c) Third, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys
after
compliance with divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this
section, as
follows:
(i) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ten
per
cent to one or more alcohol and drug addiction treatment
programs that are
certified by the department of alcohol and drug
addiction services under
section 3793.06 of the Revised Code and
that are specified in the order of
forfeiture. A
juvenile court
shall not certify an alcohol or drug addiction treatment
program
in the order of forfeiture unless the program is a certified
alcohol
and drug addiction treatment program and, except as
provided in division
(D)(1)(c)(i) of this section, unless the
program
is located in the county in which the court that orders
the forfeiture is
located or in a contiguous county. If no
certified alcohol and drug addiction
treatment program is located
in any of those counties, the juvenile court may
specify in the
order a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program
located anywhere within this state.
(ii) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court,
ninety
per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court
other than a juvenile
court, one hundred per cent to the law
enforcement trust fund of the
prosecuting
attorney and to the law
enforcement trust fund of the county
sheriff if the county sheriff
made the seizure, to the law
enforcement trust fund of a municipal
corporation if its police
department made the seizure, to the law
enforcement trust fund of
a township if the seizure was made by a
township police
department, township police district police force,
or office of a
township constable, to the law enforcement trust
fund of a park
district created pursuant to section 511.18 or
1545.01 of the
Revised Code if the seizure was made by the park
district police
force or law enforcement department, to the state
highway patrol
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund if the state
highway
patrol made the seizure, to the department of
public
safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and
other fund
if the investigative unit of the
department of public
safety made
the
seizure, to the department of taxation enforcement fund if the department of taxation made the seizure, to
the
board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund
created by division (B)(1) of section 4729.65 of the Revised Code
if the board made the seizure, or to the treasurer of state for
deposit into the peace officer training commission fund
if a state
law enforcement agency, other than the state highway patrol, the
investigative unit of the department of public safety, the enforcement division of the department of taxation, or the
state
board of pharmacy,
made the seizure. The prosecuting
attorney may decline to accept
any of the remaining proceeds or
forfeited moneys, and, if the prosecuting
attorney so
declines,
the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be
applied to the
fund described in this division that relates to
the law
enforcement agency that made the seizure.
A law enforcement trust fund shall be established by the
prosecuting attorney of each county who intends to receive any
remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys pursuant to this division,
by the sheriff of each county, by the legislative authority of
each municipal corporation, by the board of township trustees of
each township that has a township police department, township
police district police force, or office of the constable, and by
the board of park commissioners of each park district created
pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code that
has
a park district police force or law enforcement department,
for
the purposes of this division. There is hereby created in
the
state treasury the state highway patrol contraband,
forfeiture,
and other fund, the department of
public safety investigative unit
contraband, forfeiture, and
other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and
the
peace officer
training commission fund, for the purposes
described in this
division.
Proceeds or forfeited moneys distributed to any municipal
corporation, township, or park district law enforcement trust
fund
shall be allocated from the fund by the legislative
authority only
to the police department of the municipal
corporation, by the
board of township trustees only to the
township police department,
township police district police
force, or office of the constable,
and by the board of park
commissioners only to the park district
police force or law
enforcement department.
Additionally, no proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be
allocated to or used by the state highway patrol, the department
of public safety, the department of taxation, the state board of pharmacy, or a county
sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police
department, township police department, township police district
police force, office of the constable, or park district police
force or law enforcement department unless the state highway
patrol, department of public safety, department of taxation, state board of pharmacy,
sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police
department, township police department, township police district
police force, office of the constable, or park district police
force or law enforcement department has adopted a written
internal
control policy under division (D)(3) of this section
that
addresses the use of moneys received from the state highway
patrol
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the
department of public
safety investigative unit
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund,
the department of taxation enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law
enforcement fund, or the
appropriate law enforcement trust fund.
The state
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other
fund,
the department of public safety investigative
unit
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and a law
enforcement
trust fund shall be expended only in accordance with
the written
internal control policy so adopted by the recipient,
and, subject
to the requirements specified in division
(D)(3)(a)(ii) of this
section, only to pay the costs of
protracted or complex
investigations or prosecutions, to provide
reasonable technical
training or expertise, to provide matching
funds to obtain federal
grants to aid law enforcement, in the
support of DARE programs or
other programs designed to educate
adults or children with respect
to the dangers associated with
the use of drugs of abuse,
to pay
the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 of the
Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal
methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money
involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the
laboratory, or for other law enforcement
purposes that the
superintendent of the state highway patrol,
department of public
safety, department of taxation, prosecuting attorney, county
sheriff, legislative
authority, board of township trustees, or
board of park
commissioners determines to be appropriate. The
board of pharmacy
drug law enforcement fund shall be expended
only in accordance
with the written internal control policy so
adopted by the board
and only in accordance with section 4729.65
of the Revised Code,
except that it also may be expended to pay the costs of emergency
action taken under section 3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to
the operation of an illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the
forfeited property or money involved was that of a person
responsible for the operation of the laboratory. The state
highway patrol contraband,
forfeiture, and other fund, the
department of
public safety investigative unit contraband,
forfeiture, and
other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the
board
of pharmacy drug law
enforcement
fund, and a law enforcement trust fund shall not be
used to meet
the operating costs of the state highway patrol, of
the
investigative
unit of the department of
public safety, of the department of taxation enforcement division, of the
state board of pharmacy, of
any political subdivision, or of any
office of a prosecuting
attorney or county sheriff that are
unrelated to law enforcement.
Proceeds and forfeited moneys that are paid into the state
treasury to be deposited into the peace officer training
commission fund shall be used by the commission
only to pay the
costs of peace
officer training.
Any sheriff or prosecuting attorney who receives proceeds
or
forfeited moneys pursuant to this division during any calendar
year shall file a report with the county auditor, no later than
the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year,
verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended
only for the purposes authorized by this division and division
(D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended
for each authorized purpose. Any municipal corporation police
department that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a
municipal corporation law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this
division during any calendar year shall file a report with the
legislative authority of the municipal corporation, no later than
the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year,
verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended
only for the purposes authorized by this division and division
(D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended
for each authorized purpose. Any township police department,
township police district police force, or office of the constable
that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a township
law
enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division during any
calendar year shall file a report with the board of township
trustees of the township, no later than the thirty-first day of
January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds
and
forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes
authorized by
this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this
section and
specifying the amounts expended for each authorized
purpose. Any
park district police force or law enforcement
department that is
allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a
park district law
enforcement trust fund pursuant to this
division during any
calendar year shall file a report with the
board of park
commissioners of the park district, no later than
the thirty-first
day of January of the next calendar year,
verifying that the
proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended
only for the purposes
authorized by this division and division
(D)(3)(a)(ii) of this
section and specifying the amounts expended
for each authorized
purpose. The superintendent of the state
highway patrol shall
file a report with the attorney general, no
later than the
thirty-first day of January of each calendar year,
verifying that
proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the state
highway patrol
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund pursuant to
this division
during the prior calendar year were used by the
state highway
patrol during the prior calendar year only for the
purposes
authorized by this division and specifying the amounts
expended
for each authorized purpose. The executive director of
the state
board of pharmacy shall file a report with the attorney
general,
no later than the thirty-first day of January of each
calendar
year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid
into the
board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund during the
prior
calendar year were used only in accordance with section
4729.65 of
the Revised Code and specifying the amounts expended
for each
authorized purpose. The peace officer training
commission shall
file a report with the attorney general, no later than
the
thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that
proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the peace officer
training
commission fund pursuant to this division
during the prior
calendar year were used by the commission during the
prior
calendar
year only to pay the costs of peace officer training and
specifying the amount used for that purpose.
The tax commissioner shall file a report with the attorney general, not later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the department of taxation enforcement fund pursuant to this division during the prior calendar year were used by the enforcement division during the prior calendar year to pay only the costs of enforcing the tax laws and specifying the amount used for that purpose.
(2) If more than one law enforcement agency is
substantially
involved in the seizure of contraband that is
forfeited pursuant
to this section, the court ordering the
forfeiture shall equitably
divide the proceeds or forfeited
moneys, after calculating any
distribution to the law enforcement
trust fund of the prosecuting
attorney pursuant to division
(D)(1)(c) of this section, among any
county sheriff whose office
is determined by the court to be
substantially involved in the
seizure, any legislative authority
of a municipal corporation
whose police department is determined
by the court to be
substantially involved in the seizure, any
board of township
trustees whose law enforcement agency is
determined by the court
to be substantially involved in the
seizure, any board of park
commissioners of a park district whose
police force or law
enforcement department is determined by the
court to be
substantially involved in the seizure, the state board
of
pharmacy if it is determined by the court to be substantially
involved in the seizure, the investigative unit of the department
of
public safety
if it
is determined by the court to be
substantially involved in the
seizure, the enforcement division of the department of taxation if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, and the state highway
patrol if it is determined by the
court to be substantially
involved in the seizure. The proceeds
or forfeited moneys shall
be deposited in the respective law
enforcement trust funds of the
county sheriff, municipal
corporation, township, and park
district, the board of pharmacy
drug law enforcement fund, the
department of public safety investigative
unit
contraband,
forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, or the state highway
patrol
contraband,
forfeiture, and other fund, in accordance with
division (D)(1)(c)
of this section. If a state law enforcement
agency, other than
the state highway patrol, the investigative
unit of the department of
public safety,
the department of taxation, or the state board of
pharmacy, is determined by the court to be
substantially involved
in the seizure, the state agency's
equitable share of the proceeds
and forfeited moneys shall be
paid to the treasurer of state for
deposit into the peace officer
training commission fund.
(3)(a)(i) Prior to being allocated or using any proceeds
or
forfeited moneys out of the state highway patrol contraband,
forfeiture, and other fund, the department of
public safety
investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and
other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the
board of
pharmacy drug law enforcement
fund, or a law enforcement
trust fund under division (D)(1)(c) of
this section, the state
highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the
state board
of pharmacy, and a county sheriff,
prosecuting attorney, municipal
corporation police department,
township police department,
township police district police
force, office of the constable, or
park district police force or
law enforcement department shall
adopt a written internal control
policy that addresses the state
highway patrol's, department of
public safety's, department of taxation's, state board of
pharmacy's, sheriff's,
prosecuting attorney's, police
department's, police force's,
office of the constable's, or law
enforcement department's use
and disposition of all the proceeds
and forfeited moneys received
and that provides for the keeping of
detailed financial records
of the receipts of the proceeds and
forfeited moneys, the general
types of expenditures made out of
the proceeds and forfeited
moneys, the specific amount of each
general type of expenditure,
and the amounts, portions, and
programs described in division
(D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section. The
policy shall not provide for
or permit the identification of any
specific expenditure that is
made in an ongoing investigation.
All financial records of the receipts of the proceeds and
forfeited moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of
the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the specific amount of each
general type of expenditure by the state highway patrol, by the
department of public safety, by the department of taxation, by the state board of pharmacy, and
by a sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police
department, township police department, township police district
police force, office of the constable, or park district police
force or law enforcement department, and the amounts, portions,
and programs described in division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section
are public records open for inspection under section 149.43 of
the
Revised Code. Additionally, a written internal control
policy
adopted under this division is a public record of that nature, and
the state highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the
state board of pharmacy, or the sheriff, prosecuting attorney,
municipal corporation police department, township police
department, township police district police force, office of the
constable, or park district police force or law enforcement
department that adopted it shall comply with it.
(ii) The written internal control policy of a county
sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police
department, township police department, township police district
police force, office of the constable, or park district police
force or law enforcement department shall provide that at least
ten per cent of the first one hundred thousand dollars of
proceeds
and forfeited moneys deposited during each calendar year
in the
sheriff's, prosecuting attorney's, municipal
corporation's,
township's, or park district's law enforcement
trust fund pursuant
to division (B)(7)(c)(ii) of section 2923.46
or division
(B)(8)(c)(ii) of section 2925.44 of
the Revised Code, and at least
twenty per cent of the proceeds
and forfeited moneys exceeding one
hundred thousand dollars that
are so deposited, shall be used in
connection with community
preventive education programs. The
manner in which the described
percentages are so used shall be
determined by the sheriff,
prosecuting attorney, department,
police force, or office of the
constable after the receipt and
consideration of advice on
appropriate community preventive
education programs from the
county's board of alcohol, drug
addiction, and mental health
services, from the county's alcohol
and drug addiction services
board, or through appropriate
community dialogue. The financial
records described in division
(D)(3)(a)(i) of this section shall
specify the amount of the
proceeds and forfeited moneys deposited
during each calendar year
in the sheriff's, prosecuting
attorney's, municipal corporation's,
township's, or park
district's law enforcement trust fund pursuant
to division
(B)(7)(c)(ii) of section 2923.46 or division
(B)(8)(c)(ii) of
section 2925.44 of the Revised Code, the portion
of
that amount that was used pursuant to the requirements of this
division, and the community preventive education programs in
connection with which the portion of that amount was so used.
As used in this division,
"community preventive education
programs" includes, but is not limited to, DARE programs and
other
programs designed to educate adults or children with
respect to
the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse.
(b) Each sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal
corporation police department, township police department,
township police district police force, office of the constable,
or
park district police force or law enforcement department that
receives in any calendar year any proceeds or forfeited moneys
out
of a law enforcement trust fund under division (D)(1)(c) of
this
section or uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in its law
enforcement trust fund in any calendar year shall prepare a
report
covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the
information
contained in all of the public financial records kept
by the
sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation
police
department, township police department, township police
district
police force, office of the constable, or park district
police
force or law enforcement department pursuant to division
(D)(3)(a)
of this section for that calendar year, and shall send
a copy of
the cumulative report, no later than the first day of
March in the
calendar year following the calendar year covered by
the report,
to the attorney general.
The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall
prepare
a report covering each calendar year in which the state
highway
patrol uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the state
highway
patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under
division
(D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the
information
contained in all of the public financial records kept
by the state
highway patrol pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of
this section for
that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the
cumulative
report, no later than the first day of March in the
calendar year
following the calendar year covered by the report,
to the attorney
general.
The department of public safety shall prepare a report
covering each fiscal year in which the department uses any
proceeds or forfeited moneys in the department of public safety
investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under
division (D)(1)(c) of this section that
cumulates all of the
information contained in all of the public
financial records kept
by the department pursuant to division
(D)(3)(a) of this section
for that fiscal year. The department
shall send a copy of the
cumulative report to the attorney
general no later than the first
day of August in the fiscal year
following the fiscal year covered
by the report. The director of
public safety shall include in the
report a verification that
proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into
the department of
public safety investigative unit contraband,
forfeiture, and other fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this
section during the
preceding
fiscal year were used by the
department during that fiscal year only for
the purposes
authorized by that division and shall specify the
amount used for
each authorized purpose.
The tax commissioner shall prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the department of taxation enforcement division uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the department of taxation enforcement fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the department of taxation enforcement division pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, not later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general.
The executive director of the state board of pharmacy shall
prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the board
uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the board of pharmacy
drug law enforcement fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this
section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all
of
the public financial records kept by the board pursuant to
division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and
shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the
first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar
year covered by the report, to the attorney general. Each report
received by the attorney general is a public record open for
inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Not later
than the
fifteenth day of April in the calendar year in
which the
reports are received, the attorney
general shall send to the
president of the senate and the speaker of the house of
representatives a written notification that does all of the
following:
(i) Indicates that the attorney general has received from
entities or persons specified in this division reports
of the type
described in this division that cover the previous
calendar year
and indicates that the reports were received under this
division;
(ii) Indicates that the reports
are open for inspection
under section 149.43 of the
Revised Code;
(iii) Indicates that the attorney general
will provide a
copy of any or all of the reports to the
president of the senate
or the speaker of the house of
representatives upon request.
(4)(a) A law enforcement agency that receives pursuant to
federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds
from
another disposition of forfeited contraband, or
forfeited
contraband moneys shall deposit, use, and account for
the proceeds
or forfeited moneys in accordance with, and
otherwise comply with,
the applicable federal law.
(b) If the state highway patrol receives pursuant to federal
law proceeds
from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from
another disposition of
forfeited contraband, or forfeited
contraband moneys, the appropriate
governmental officials shall
deposit into the state highway patrol contraband,
forfeiture, and
other fund all interest or other earnings derived from the
investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys. The state highway
patrol
shall use and account for that interest or other earnings
in accordance with
the applicable federal law.
(c) If the investigative unit of the
department of public
safety receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a
sale of
forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of
forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the
appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the
department of
public safety investigative unit
contraband,
forfeiture, and other fund all interest
or other earnings derived
from the investment of the proceeds or
forfeited moneys. The
department shall use and account for that
interest or other
earnings in accordance with the applicable
federal law.
(d) If the tax commissioner receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of taxation enforcement fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(e) Divisions (D)(1) to (3) of this section do not apply to
proceeds
or
forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law or
to the interest or other
earnings that are derived from the
investment of proceeds or forfeited moneys
received pursuant to
federal law and that are described in division (D)(4)(b)
of this
section.
(E) Upon the sale pursuant to this section of any property
that is required to be titled or registered under law, the state
shall issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration
to
the purchaser. If the state is vested with title pursuant to
division (C) of this section and elects to retain property that
is
required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall
issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration.
(F) Notwithstanding any provisions of this section to the
contrary, any property that is lawfully seized in relation to a
violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code shall be subject
to forfeiture and disposition in accordance with sections 2923.32
to 2923.36
of the Revised Code; any property that is forfeited
pursuant
to section 2923.44 or 2923.45 of the Revised Code in
relation to a violation of section
2923.42 of the Revised Code or
in relation to an act of a juvenile that is a violation of
section
2923.42 of the Revised Code may be subject to forfeiture and
disposition in
accordance with sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 of the
Revised Code;
and any
property that is forfeited pursuant to
section 2925.42 or 2925.43
of the Revised Code in relation to a
felony drug abuse offense,
as defined in section 2925.01 of the
Revised Code, or in relation
to an act that, if committed by an
adult, would be a felony
drug abuse offense of that nature, may be
subject to forfeiture and
disposition in accordance with sections
2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code
or this section.
(G) Any failure of a law enforcement officer or agency, a
prosecuting attorney, village solicitor, city director of law, or
similar chief legal officer, a court, or the attorney general to
comply with any duty imposed by this section in relation to any
property seized or with any other provision of this section in
relation to any property seized does not affect the validity of
the seizure of the property, provided the seizure itself was made
in accordance with law, and is not and shall not be considered to
be the basis for the suppression of any evidence resulting from
the seizure of the property, provided the seizure itself was made
in accordance with law.
(H) Contraband that has been forfeited pursuant to
division
(C) of this section shall not be available for use to
pay any fine
imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads
guilty to an
underlying criminal offense or a different offense
arising out of
the same facts and circumstances.
Sec. 2935.01. As used in this chapter:
(A) "Magistrate" has the same meaning as in section
2931.01
of the Revised Code.
(B) "Peace officer" includes, except as provided in section
2935.081 of the Revised Code, a sheriff; deputy
sheriff;
marshal;
deputy marshal; member of the organized
police
department of any
municipal corporation, including a member of
the organized police
department of a municipal corporation in an
adjoining state
serving in Ohio under a contract pursuant to
section 737.04 of the
Revised Code; member of a police force
employed by a metropolitan
housing authority under division (D)
of section 3735.31 of the
Revised Code; member of a police
force employed by a
regional
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.05 of the
Revised
Code; state university law
enforcement officer appointed
under section 3345.04 of the
Revised Code; enforcement agent of
the department of
public safety designated under section 5502.14
of the Revised Code; employee of the department of taxation to
whom investigation powers have been delegated under section
5743.45 5703.58 of the Revised Code; employee of the
department of natural
resources who is a natural resources law enforcement
staff officer
designated pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a
forest officer designated pursuant to section
1503.29 of the
Revised Code, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section
1517.10 of the Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated
pursuant to section
1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer
designated pursuant to section
1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a
state
watercraft officer designated pursuant to
section 1547.521
of the Revised
Code; individual designated to perform law
enforcement duties under
section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of
the Revised Code; veterans' home
police officer appointed
under
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code; special police officer
employed by a port
authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of
the Revised Code; police
constable of any
township; police
officer of a township or joint township
police
district;
a special
police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal
airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has
scheduled operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of
the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and
that is required to be under a security program and is governed by
aviation security rules of the transportation security
administration of the United States department of transportation
as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of
Federal Regulations, as amended; the house
sergeant at arms if the
house sergeant at arms has
arrest
authority pursuant to division
(E)(1) of section 101.311 of the
Revised Code;
and an assistant
house sergeant at arms;
officer or
employee of the bureau of
criminal identification and
investigation established pursuant to
section 109.51 of the
Revised Code who has been awarded a
certificate by the executive
director of the Ohio peace officer
training commission attesting
to the officer's or employee's
satisfactory completion of an
approved state, county, municipal,
or department of natural
resources peace officer basic training
program and who is
providing
assistance upon request to a law
enforcement officer or
emergency assistance to
a peace officer
pursuant to section
109.54
or 109.541 of the Revised Code; and,
for the purpose of
arrests
within
those areas,
for the
purposes of Chapter 5503. of the
Revised
Code, and the
filing of
and service of process relating to
those
offenses
witnessed or
investigated by them,
the
superintendent
and troopers of
the state highway patrol.
(C) "Prosecutor" includes the county prosecuting attorney
and
any assistant prosecutor designated to assist the county
prosecuting attorney,
and, in the
case of courts inferior to
courts of common pleas, includes the
village solicitor, city
director of law, or similar chief legal
officer of a municipal
corporation, any such officer's assistants, or any
attorney
designated by the prosecuting attorney of
the county to
appear for
the prosecution of a given case.
(D) "Offense," except where the context specifically
indicates otherwise, includes felonies, misdemeanors, and
violations of ordinances of municipal corporations and other
public bodies authorized by law to adopt penal regulations.
Sec. 2949.091. (A)(1) The court, in which any person is
convicted of or pleads guilty to any offense other than a traffic
offense that is not a moving violation, shall impose the sum of
eleven fifteen dollars as costs in the case in addition to any other
court costs that the court is required by law to impose upon the
offender. All such moneys collected during a month shall be
transmitted on or before the twentieth day of the
following month by the clerk of the court to the
treasurer of state and deposited by the treasurer of state into
the general revenue fund. The court shall not waive the payment
of the additional eleven fifteen dollars court costs, unless the court
determines that the offender is indigent and waives the payment
of all court costs imposed upon the indigent offender.
(2) The juvenile court, in which a child is found to be a
delinquent child or a juvenile traffic offender for an act which,
if committed by an adult, would be an offense other than a
traffic offense that is not a moving violation, shall impose the
sum of eleven fifteen dollars as costs in the case in addition to any
other court costs that the court is required or permitted by law
to impose upon the delinquent child or juvenile traffic offender.
All such moneys collected during a month shall be transmitted on or
before the twentieth day of
the following month by the clerk of the court to the
treasurer of state
and deposited by the treasurer of state into the general revenue
fund. The eleven fifteen dollars court costs shall be collected in all
cases unless the court determines the juvenile is indigent and
waives the payment of all court costs, or enters an order on its
journal stating that it has determined that the juvenile is
indigent, that no other court costs are to be taxed in the case,
and that the payment of the eleven fifteen dollars court costs is waived.
(B) Whenever a person is charged with any offense other
than a traffic offense that is not a moving violation and posts
bail, the court shall add to the amount of the bail the eleven fifteen
dollars required to be paid by division (A)(1) of this section.
The eleven fifteen dollars shall be retained by the clerk of the court
until the person is convicted, pleads guilty, forfeits bail, is
found not guilty, or has the charges dismissed. If
the person is convicted, pleads guilty, or forfeits bail, the
clerk shall transmit the eleven fifteen dollars on or before the twentieth day of
the month following the month in which the person was convicted, pleaded
guilty, or forfeited bail to the treasurer of
state, who shall deposit it into the general revenue fund. If
the person is found not guilty or the charges are
dismissed, the clerk shall return the eleven fifteen dollars to the
person.
(C) No person shall be placed or held in a detention
facility for failing to pay the additional eleven fifteen dollars court
costs or bail that are required to be paid by this section.
(D) As used in this section:
(1) "Moving violation" and "bail" have the same meanings
as in section 2743.70 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Detention facility" has the same meaning as in
section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3111.04. (A) An action to determine the existence or
nonexistence of the father and child relationship may be brought
by the child or the child's personal representative, the child's
mother or her personal representative, a man alleged or alleging
himself to be the child's father, the child support enforcement
agency of the county in which the child resides if the child's
mother is a recipient of public assistance or of services under Title IV-D of
the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651,
as amended, or the alleged father's personal representative.
(B) An agreement does not bar an action under this
section.
(C) If an action under this section is brought before the
birth of the child and if the action is contested, all
proceedings, except service of process and the taking of
depositions to perpetuate testimony, may be stayed until after
the birth.
(D) A recipient of public assistance or of services under Title IV-D of
the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651,
as amended, shall cooperate with the child support
enforcement agency of
the county in which a child resides to obtain an
administrative
determination pursuant to sections 3111.38 to
3111.54 of the
Revised Code, or, if necessary, a court
determination pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18
of the Revised Code, of
the
existence or nonexistence of a parent and
child relationship between the father and the child. If the recipient fails
to
cooperate, the agency may commence an action to determine the existence or
nonexistence of a parent and child relationship between the father and the
child pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the
Revised Code.
(E) As used in this section, "public assistance" means medical
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, assistance under
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, or disability financial assistance under Chapter
5115. of the Revised Code, or disability medical assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3111.72. (A) The contract between the department of
job and family services and a local hospital shall require all of the
following:
(A)(1) That the hospital provide a staff person to
meet with each unmarried
mother who gave birth in or en route to the hospital within
twenty-four hours of the birth or before the mother is released
from the hospital;
(B)(2) That the staff person attempt to meet with the father
of the unmarried mother's child if possible;
(C)(3) That the staff person explain to the unmarried mother
and the father, if he is present, the benefit to the child of
establishing a parent and child relationship between the father
and the child and the various proper procedures for establishing
a parent and child relationship;
(D)(4) That the staff person present to the unmarried mother
and, if possible, the father, the pamphlet or statement
regarding
the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent that is
prepared and provided by the department of job and family services pursuant to
section 3111.32 of the Revised Code;
(E)(5) That the staff person provide the mother and, if
possible, the father, all forms and statements
necessary to voluntarily establish a parent and child
relationship, including, but not limited to, the acknowledgment
of paternity affidavit prepared by the department of job and family services
pursuant to section 3111.31 of the Revised Code;
(F)(6) That the staff person, at the request of both the
mother and father, help the mother and father complete any form
or
statement necessary to establish a parent and child
relationship;
(G)(7) That the hospital provide a notary public to notarize an
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit signed by the mother and
father;
(H)(8) That the staff person present to an unmarried mother
who is not participating in the Ohio works first program established
under
Chapter 5107. or receiving medical assistance under Chapter
5111. of the
Revised Code
an application for Title IV-D services;
(I)(9) That the staff person forward any completed
acknowledgment of paternity, no later than ten days after it is
completed, to the office of child support in the department of
job and family services;
(J)(10) That the department of job and family services pay the
hospital twenty
dollars
for every correctly signed and notarized acknowledgment of paternity affidavit
from the hospital;
(11) That, if an acknowledgment of paternity application is not completed and signed by the mother and father, at the request of either the mother or father and on completion by the mother or father of an application for services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C. 651, as amended, including paternity determination, the hospital staff immediately collect genetic samples from the mother, father, and child at no cost to either parent;
(12) That the department pay the hospital thirty dollars for each sample collected pursuant to division (A)(11) of this section;
(13) That the department pay the cost of genetic tests of samples collected pursuant to division (A)(11) of this section.
(B) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.
Sec. 3119.01. (A) As used in the
Revised
Code, "child
support
enforcement agency" means a child support enforcement
agency
designated under former section 2301.35 of the Revised Code
prior to October 1, 1997, or a private or
government entity
designated as a child support enforcement agency
under section
307.981 of the
Revised
Code.
(B) As used in this
chapter and Chapters 3121., 3123., and
3125. of the Revised Code:
(1) "Administrative child support order" means any order
issued by a child support enforcement agency for the support of
a
child pursuant to section 3109.19 or
3111.81 of the Revised
Code
or former section 3111.211 of the Revised
Code, section 3111.21 of
the Revised Code as that
section existed prior to January 1, 1998,
or section 3111.20 or
3111.22 of the Revised Code as those
sections existed prior
to
March
22, 2001.
(2) "Child support order" means either a court child support
order or an
administrative child support order.
(3) "Obligee" means the person who is entitled to receive
the support payments under a support order.
(4) "Obligor" means the person who is required to pay
support under a support order.
(5) "Support order" means either an administrative child
support order or
a court support order.
(C) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Combined gross income" means the combined gross
income
of both parents.
(2) "Court child support order" means any order issued by
a
court for the support of a child pursuant to
Chapter 3115. of the
Revised Code, section
2151.23, 2151.231, 2151.232, 2151.33,
2151.36,
2151.361, 2151.49, 3105.21, 3109.05,
3109.19, 3111.13,
3113.04,
3113.07, 3113.31, 3119.65,
or 3119.70
of the
Revised
Code, or division (B) of former section 3113.21 of the
Revised
Code.
(3) "Court support order" means either a court child support
order or an order for the support of a spouse
or former spouse
issued pursuant to
Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, section
3105.18,
3105.65, or 3113.31 of the
Revised
Code, or
division (B) of former section
3113.21 of the
Revised Code.
(4) "Extraordinary medical expenses" means any uninsured
medical expenses incurred for a child during a calendar
year that
exceed one hundred dollars.
(5) "Income" means either of the following:
(a) For a parent who is employed to full capacity, the
gross
income of the parent;
(b) For a parent who is unemployed or underemployed, the
sum
of the gross income of the parent and any potential income
of the
parent.
(6) "Insurer" means any person
authorized under Title XXXIX
of the Revised Code to
engage in the business of insurance in this
state, any
health insuring corporation,
and any legal entity that
is
self-insured and provides benefits to its employees or members.
(7) "Gross income" means, except as excluded in
division
(C)(7) of this section, the total of all earned and unearned
income from all
sources during a calendar year, whether or not the
income is
taxable, and includes income from
salaries, wages,
overtime pay, and bonuses to the extent described
in division (D)
of section 3119.05 of the Revised Code; commissions;
royalties;
tips; rents; dividends; severance pay; pensions; interest; trust
income; annuities; social security benefits, including retirement,
disability,
and survivor benefits that are not means-tested;
workers'
compensation benefits; unemployment insurance benefits;
disability insurance benefits; benefits that are not means-tested
and that are
received by and in the possession of
the veteran who
is the beneficiary for any service-connected disability under
a
program or law administered by the United States
department of
veterans'
affairs or veterans' administration; spousal support
actually received; and
all other sources of
income. "Gross
income" includes income of members of any branch of the
United
States armed services or national guard, including,
amounts
representing base pay, basic allowance for quarters,
basic
allowance for subsistence, supplemental subsistence
allowance,
cost of living adjustment, specialty pay, variable
housing
allowance, and pay for training or other types of
required drills;
self-generated income; and potential cash flow
from any source.
"Gross income" does not include any of the following:
(a) Benefits received from
means-tested government
administered programs, including Ohio
works first; prevention,
retention, and contingency; means-tested veterans'
benefits;
supplemental security income; food stamps; disability financial
assistance;
or other assistance for which eligibility is determined on the
basis of income or assets;
(b) Benefits for any
service-connected disability under a
program or law administered
by the United States department of
veterans' affairs or
veterans'
administration that are not
means-tested, that have not been distributed to
the veteran who is
the
beneficiary of the benefits, and that are in the possession of
the
United
States department of veterans' affairs or veterans'
administration;
(c) Child support received for
children who were not born or
adopted during the marriage at
issue;
(d) Amounts paid for mandatory deductions
from wages such as
union dues but not taxes, social security, or retirement in
lieu
of social security;
(e) Nonrecurring or unsustainable income
or cash flow items;
(f) Adoption assistance and foster care maintenance payments
made
pursuant to Title IV-E of the "Social
Security Act," 94 Stat.
501, 42 U.S.C.A. 670 (1980),
as amended.
(8) "Nonrecurring or unsustainable income or cash flow
item"
means an income or cash flow item the parent receives
in any year
or for any number of years not to exceed three years
that the
parent does not expect to continue to receive on a
regular basis.
"Nonrecurring or unsustainable income or cash
flow item" does not
include a lottery prize award that is not
paid in a lump sum or
any other item of income or cash flow that
the parent receives or
expects to receive for each year for a
period of more than three
years or that the parent receives and
invests or otherwise uses to
produce income or cash flow for
a period of more than three years.
(9)(a) "Ordinary and necessary expenses incurred in
generating gross receipts" means actual cash items expended by
the
parent or the parent's business and includes
depreciation expenses
of
business equipment as shown on the books of a
business entity.
(b) Except as specifically included in "ordinary and
necessary expenses incurred in generating gross receipts" by
division (C)(9)(a) of this section, "ordinary and
necessary
expenses incurred in generating gross receipts" does not include
depreciation expenses and other noncash items that are allowed as
deductions on any federal tax return of the parent or the
parent's
business.
(10) "Personal earnings" means compensation paid or
payable
for personal services, however denominated, and
includes wages,
salary, commissions,
bonuses, draws against commissions, profit
sharing, vacation
pay, or any other compensation.
(11) "Potential income" means both of the following for a
parent who the court pursuant to a court support order, or a child
support
enforcement agency pursuant to an administrative child
support order,
determines is voluntarily unemployed or voluntarily
underemployed:
(a) Imputed income that the court or agency determines the
parent would have earned if fully employed as determined from the
following criteria:
(i) The parent's prior employment experience;
(ii) The parent's education;
(iii) The parent's physical and mental disabilities, if any;
(iv) The availability of employment in the geographic area
in
which the parent resides;
(v) The prevailing wage and salary levels in the geographic
area
in which the parent resides;
(vi) The parent's special skills and training;
(vii) Whether there is evidence that the parent has the
ability to
earn the imputed income;
(viii) The age and special needs of the child for whom child
support is being calculated under this section;
(ix) The parent's increased earning capacity because of
experience;
(x) Any other relevant factor.
(b) Imputed income from any nonincome-producing assets of
a
parent, as determined from the local passbook savings rate or
another appropriate rate as determined by the court or agency,
not
to exceed the rate of interest specified in division (A) of
section 1343.03 of the Revised Code, if the income is significant.
(12) "Schedule" means the basic child support schedule set
forth in section 3119.021 of the Revised Code.
(13) "Self-generated income" means gross receipts received
by a parent from self-employment, proprietorship of a business,
joint ownership of a partnership or closely held corporation, and
rents minus ordinary and necessary expenses incurred by the
parent
in generating the gross receipts. "Self-generated income"
includes expense reimbursements or in-kind payments received by a
parent from self-employment, the operation of a business, or
rents, including company cars, free housing,
reimbursed meals, and
other benefits, if the reimbursements are
significant and reduce
personal living expenses.
(14) "Split parental rights and responsibilities" means a
situation in which there is more than one child who is the
subject
of an allocation of parental rights and responsibilities
and each
parent is the residential parent and legal custodian of
at least
one of those children.
(15) "Worksheet" means the applicable worksheet that is
used
to calculate a parent's child support obligation as
set forth in
sections 3119.022 and 3119.023 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3123.952. A child support enforcement agency may submit the name
of a delinquent obligor to the office of child support for inclusion on a
poster only if all of the following apply:
(A) The obligor is subject to a support order and there
has been an attempt to enforce the order through a public notice,
a wage withholding order, a lien on property, a financial
institution deduction order, or other court-ordered procedures.
(B) The department of job and family services reviewed the
obligor's records and confirms the child support enforcement
agency's finding that the obligor's name and photograph may be
submitted to be displayed on a poster.
(C) The agency does not know or is unable to verify the
obligor's whereabouts.
(D) The obligor is not a participant in Ohio works first
or the prevention, retention, and contingency program or a recipient of
disability financial assistance, supplemental security income, or
food stamps.
(E) The child support enforcement agency does not have
evidence that the obligor has filed for protection under the
federal Bankruptcy Code, 11 U.S.C.A. 101, as amended.
(F) The obligee gave written authorization to the agency
to display the obligor on a poster.
(G) A legal representative of the agency and a child
support enforcement administrator reviewed the case.
(H) The agency is able to submit to the department a
description and photograph of the obligor, a statement of the
possible locations of the obligor, and any other information
required by the department.
Sec. 3123.97. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Default" has the same meaning as in section 3121.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Claimant" means an individual that brings a claim against an insurance company under a policy of liability or life insurance as a beneficiary of the policy. For this purpose, an "individual" includes an individual's estate.
(3) "Insurance company" means any person authorized to engage in the business of insurance in this state under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.
(B) A claimant shall provide the claimant's date of birth, social security number, and current address to the insurance company upon the insurance company's request. The insurance company may inform the claimant that the information request is being made in accordance with this section, for the purpose of assisting the department of job and family services in enforcing child support orders. An insurance company is prohibited from paying a claimant who refuses to provide the requested information. An insurance company that does not pay a claimant due to the claimant's refusal to provide the requested information is exempt from suit and immune from liability under the Revised Code and in any common law action in law or equity.
(C) Every month, for purposes of the information exchange required by this section, the department of job and family services shall provide all insurance companies writing life and liability policies of insurance with a list of all child support obligors against whom a final and enforceable determination of default has been made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code. The list provided by the department of job and family services also shall contain the addresses, dates of birth, and social security numbers of the obligors, as well as the amount of each obligor's default.
(D) Not fewer than ten days prior to making any nonrecurring payment to a claimant that is equal to or in excess of five hundred dollars, insurance companies shall attempt to match the claimant's name, date of birth, social security number, and current address with the list of obligors and related information provided by the department of job and family services in order to determine whether the claimant may be a child support obligor in default. If the claimant is a child support obligor in default, the insurance company shall hold the payment and advise the department of job and family services of the claimant's name, address, date of birth, and social security number.
(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, the insurance company holding a payment pursuant to division (D) of this section shall divert the payment to the department of job and family services upon receiving a notification from the department of the amount of the claimant's default. The department of job and family services shall distribute the diverted payment in accordance with state and federal laws.
(2) If the payment held is greater than the default amount, only an amount equal to the default amount shall be diverted to the department of job and family services. Any remaining money then shall be paid out according to the insurance policy.
(F) This section does not apply to that portion of a claim resulting in payments being issued to a third party on behalf of the claimant when there is documentation showing that the third party has provided or agreed to provide the claimant with a benefit or service related to the claim, including, but not limited to, the services of an attorney or a physician, or to any portion of a claim based on damage to or the loss of real property.
(G) No insurance company that is required to exchange information with and to divert payments to the department of job and family services under this section shall fail to cooperate with the department, or with any child support enforcement agency, when requested to provide information or to divert a payment. Any insurance company that fails to cooperate is liable to the department of job and family services for the default amount, up to the amount of the claim payment available.
(H) Information provided by the department of job and family services to an insurance company under this section may only be used for the purpose of assisting the department in collecting past-due child support. Any individual or insurance company that uses the information for any other purpose shall pay a fine of five hundred dollars per violation to the department of job and family services. The fines are to be considered program income by the department of job and family services.
(I) The department of job and family services may enter into contracts with private third-party vendors in order to carry out the information exchange with insurance companies required by this section.
(J) The department of job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to carry out the purposes of this section.
Sec. 3125.12. Each child
support enforcement agency shall enter into a plan
of cooperation with the board of county commissioners under section 307.983
of the Revised Code and comply with the partnership
each fiscal agreement the board enters
into under section 307.98 and contracts the board enters into under sections
307.981 and 307.982 of the Revised Code that affect the
agency.
Sec. 3125.25. The director
of job and family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code
governing the operation of support enforcement by
child support enforcement agencies. The rules shall include, but
shall not be limited to, provisions relating to plans of cooperation between
the agencies and boards of county commissioners entered into
under section 3125.12 of the Revised Code, provisions concerning fiscal agreements that boards enter into under section 307.98 of the Revised Code, requirements for public
hearings by the agencies, and provisions for appeals of agency
decisions under procedures established by the director.
Rules concerning fiscal agreements shall be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as if they were internal management rules. All other rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.31. As used in this section and sections 3301.32 to 3301.37 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Eligible individual" means an individual eligible for Title IV-A services.
(B) "Head start agency" means any of the following:
(1) An entity in this state that has been approved to be an agency for purposes of the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 9831, as amended;
(2) A Title IV-A head start agency;
(3) A Title IV-A head start plus agency.
(C) "Head start program" has the same meaning as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Title IV-A services" means benefits and services that are allowable under Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," as specified in 42 U.S.C.A 604(a), except that they shall not be benefits and services included in the term "assistance" as defined in 45 C.F.R. 260.31(a) and shall be benefits and services that are excluded from the definition of the term "assistance" under 45 C.F.R. 260.31(b).
(E) "Title IV-A head start agency" means an agency receiving funds to operate a head start program as prescribed in section 3301.34 of the Revised Code.
(F) "Title IV-A head start plus agency" means an agency receiving funds to operate a head start program as prescribed in section 3301.35 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.33. (A) There is hereby established the Title IV-A head start program to provide head start program services to eligible individuals.
(B) There is hereby established the Title IV-A head start plus program to provide year-long head start program services and child care services to eligible individuals.
(C) The programs established under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be administered by the department of education in accordance with an interagency agreement entered into with the department of job and family services under section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The programs shall provide Title IV-A services to eligible individuals who meet eligibility requirements established in rules and administrative orders adopted by the department of job and family services under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code. The department of job and family services and the department of education jointly shall adopt policies and procedures establishing program requirements for eligibility, services, program administration, fiscal accountability, and other criteria necessary to comply with the provisions of Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113, 42 U.S.C. 601 (1996), as amended.
The department of education shall be responsible for approving all Title IV-A head start agencies and Title IV-A head start plus agencies for provision of services under the programs established under this section. An agency that is not approved by the department shall not be reimbursed for the cost of providing services under the programs.
Sec. 3301.34. In administering the Title IV-A head start program established under division (A) of section 3301.33 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall enter into a contract with each Title IV-A head start agency establishing the terms and conditions applicable to the provision of Title IV-A services for eligible individuals. The contracts shall specify the respective duties of the Title IV-A head start agencies and the department of education, reporting requirements, eligibility requirements, procedures for obtaining verification of eligibility for Title IV-A services from a county department of job and family services, reimbursement methodology, audit requirements, and other provisions determined necessary. The department of education shall reimburse the Title IV-A head start agencies for Title IV-A services provided to eligible individuals in accordance with the terms of the contract, policies and procedures adopted by the department of education and the department of job and family services under section 3301.33 of the Revised Code, and the interagency agreement entered into by the departments.
The department of education shall ensure that all reimbursements paid to a Title IV-A head start agency are only for Title IV-A services.
The department of education shall ensure that all reimbursements paid to a Title IV-A head start agency are for only those individuals for whom the Title IV-A head start agency has obtained verification of eligibility for Title IV-A services from the appropriate county department of job and family services, as provided for in section 3301.36 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.35. (A) In administering the Title IV-A head start plus program established under division (B) of section 3301.33, the department of education shall enter into a contract with each county department of job and family services to administer the program within its respective county. The county departments shall verify the eligibility for Title IV-A services of individuals and reimburse Title IV-A head start plus agencies for Title IV-A services provided to eligible individuals under the program. The department of education shall reimburse the county departments for allowable payments made to Title IV-A head start plus agencies.
The contract entered into by the department of education and each county department shall specify the duties of the county department and the department of education, reporting requirements, reimbursement methodology, audit requirements, and other provisions determined necessary. The department of education shall reimburse each county department for reimbursements the county department pays to Title IV-A head start plus agencies for Title IV-A services in accordance with the terms of the contract and with policies and procedures adopted by the department of education and the state department of job and family services under section 3301.33 of the Revised Code.
Each county department shall deposit all reimbursements received under this section into the county public assistance fund.
(B) Each county department shall administer the program within its respective county in accordance with requirements established by the state department of job and family services under section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The county department shall ensure that all reimbursements paid to a Title IV-A head start plus agency are for only Title IV-A services.
The administration of the Title IV-A head start plus program by the county department shall include all of the following:
(1) Determining eligibility of individuals and establishing co-payment requirements in accordance with rules adopted by the state department of job and family services;
(2) Ensuring that any reimbursements paid by the county department to a Title IV-A head start plus agency comply with requirements of Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113, 42 U.S.C. 601 (1996), as amended, including eligibility of individuals, reporting requirements, allowable benefits and services, use of funds, and audit requirements, as specified in state and federal laws and regulations, United States office of management and budget circulars, and the Title IV-A state plan;
(3) Monitoring each Title IV-A head start plus agency that receives funds from the county department. The county department is responsible for assuring that all Title IV-A funds are used solely for purposes allowable under federal regulations, section 5101.801 of the Revised Code, and the Title IV-A state plan and shall take prompt action to recover funds that are not expended accordingly.
(C) Each county department shall enter into contracts with Title IV-A head start plus agencies to provide Title IV-A services to eligible individuals who meet eligibility requirements established in rules adopted by the department of job and family services.
The county department shall enter into contracts with only those agencies that have been approved by the department of education as a Title IV-A head start plus agency and that have been licensed in accordance with section 3301.37 of the Revised Code. Each contract entered into by a county department under this division shall specify all of the following:
(1) Requirements for financial management and accountability for the funds, including the prompt repayment of funds that were not spent in accordance with these requirements;
(2) Requirements applicable to the allowable use of and accountability for Title IV-A funds;
(3) Requirements for access, inspection, and examination of the agency's financial and program records by the county department, the state department of job and family services, the department of education, the auditor of state, and any other state or federal agency with authority to inspect and examine such records;
(4) Audit requirements applicable to funds received under the contract;
(5) Requirements for the prompt repayment to the county department of any funds that are the subject of any federal or state adverse audit findings;
(6) Procedures for adjustments and reconciliation of overpayments, underpayments, advanced funds, or other accounting procedures required by the county department, state department of job and family services, or department of education;
(8) Billing dates, payment dates, and other reimbursement procedures established by the county department;
(9) Reporting requirements by and for the county department, the state department of job and family services, and the department of education;
(10) Provisions for the county department to withhold reimbursement, or to suspend, modify, or terminate the contract if the department of education suspends or removes the agency from the list of approved Title IV-A head start plus agencies or if the state department of job and family services denies or revokes a license for the agency.
Sec. 3301.36. At the request of a Title IV-A head start agency or Title IV-A head start plus agency, each county department of job and family services shall provide verification of eligibility for Title IV-A services for individuals seeking Title IV-A services from the agency.
Sec. 3301.37. (A) Each entity operating a head start program shall be licensed by the department of job and family services in accordance with Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code.
(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, any current license issued under section 3301.58 of the Revised Code by the department of education to an entity operating a head start program prior to the effective date of this section is hereby deemed to be a license issued by the department of job and family services under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code. The expiration date of the license shall be the earlier of the expiration date specified in the license as issued under section 3301.58 of the Revised Code or July 1, 2005. In order to continue operation of its head start program after that expiration date, the entity shall obtain a license as prescribed in division (A) of this section.
Sec. 3301.33 3301.40. (A) As used in this section, "adult education" has the meaning
as established under the "adult education act," 102 Stat. 302 (1988), 20
U.S.C. 1201a(2), as amended.
(B) Beginning July 1, 1996, the department of education may distribute state
funds to organizations that quality for federal funds under the "Adult
Education Act," 102 Stat. 302 (1988), 20 1201 to 1213d, as amended.
The funds shall be used by qualifying organizations to provide adult education
services. State funds distributed pursuant to this section shall be
distributed in accordance
with the rules adopted by the state board of education pursuant to this
section.
Each organization that receives funds under this section
shall file program performance reports with the department. The reports shall
be filed at times required by state board of education rule and contain
assessments of individual students as they enter, progress through, and exit
the adult education program; records regarding individual student program
participation time; reports of individual student retention rates; and any
other information required by rule.
(C) The state board of education shall adopt rules for the distribution of
funds under this section. The rules shall include the following:
(1) Requirements for program performance reports.
(2) Indicators of adult education program quality, including indicators of
learner achievement, program environment, program planning, curriculum and
instruction, staff development, support services, and recruitment and
retention.
(3) A formula for the distribution of funds under this section. The formula
shall include as a factor an organization's quantifiable success in meeting
the indicators of program quality established pursuant to division (C)(2) of
this section.
(4) Standards and procedures for reducing or discontinuing funding to
organizations that fail to meet the requirements of this section.
(5) Any other requirements or standards considered appropriate by the
board.
Sec. 3301.52. As used in sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of
the Revised Code:
(A) "Preschool program" means either of the following:
(1) A child day-care program for preschool children that
is operated by a school district board of education, or an
eligible nonpublic school, a head start grantee, or a head start
delegate agency.
(2) A child day-care program for preschool children age
three or older that is operated by a county MR/DD board.
(B) "Preschool child" or "child" means a child who has not
entered kindergarten and is not of compulsory school age.
(C) "Parent, guardian, or custodian" means the person or
government agency that is or will be responsible for a child's
school attendance under section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of a school
district or the chief administrative officer of an eligible
nonpublic school.
(E) "Director" means the director, head teacher,
elementary principal, or site administrator who is the
individual on site and responsible for supervision of a
preschool program.
(F) "Preschool staff member" means a preschool employee
whose primary responsibility is care, teaching, or supervision of
preschool children.
(G) "Nonteaching employee" means a preschool program or
school child program employee whose primary responsibilities are
duties other than care, teaching, and supervision of preschool
children or school children.
(H) "Eligible nonpublic school" means a nonpublic school
chartered as described in division (B)(8) of section 5104.02 of
the Revised Code or chartered by the state board of education for
any combination of grades one through twelve, regardless of
whether it also offers kindergarten.
(I) "County MR/DD board" means a county board of mental
retardation and developmental disabilities.
(J) "School child program" means a child day-care program
for only school children that is operated by a school district
board of education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic
school.
(K) "School child" and "child day-care" have the same
meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.
(L) "School child program staff member" means an employee
whose primary responsibility is the care, teaching, or
supervision of children in a school child program.
(M) "Head start" means a program operated in accordance with
subchapter II of the "Community Economic
Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.
9831, and amendments thereto.
Sec. 3301.53. (A) Not later than July 1, 1988, the state
board of education, in consultation with the director of job and
family
services, shall formulate and prescribe by rule adopted
under
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code minimum standards to be
applied
to preschool programs operated by school district boards
of
education, county MR/DD boards, or eligible nonpublic
schools,
head start grantees, and head start delegate agencies.
The rules
shall include the following:
(1) Standards ensuring that the preschool program is
located
in a safe and convenient facility that accommodates the
enrollment
of the program, is of the quality to support the
growth and
development of the children according to the program
objectives,
and meets the requirements of section 3301.55 of the
Revised Code;
(2) Standards ensuring that supervision, discipline, and
programs will be administered according to established objectives
and procedures;
(3) Standards ensuring that preschool staff members and
nonteaching employees are recruited, employed, assigned,
evaluated, and provided inservice education without
discrimination
on the basis of age, color, national origin, race,
or sex; and
that preschool staff members and nonteaching
employees are
assigned responsibilities in accordance with
written position
descriptions commensurate with their training
and experience;
(4) A requirement that boards of education intending to
establish a preschool program on or after March 17, 1989,
demonstrate a need for a preschool program that is not being met
by any existing program providing child day-care, prior to
establishing the program;
(5) Requirements that children participating in preschool
programs have been immunized to the extent considered appropriate
by the state board to prevent the spread of communicable disease;
(6) Requirements that the parents of preschool children
complete the emergency medical authorization form specified in
section 3313.712 of the Revised Code.
(B) The state board of education in consultation with the
director of job and family services shall ensure that the rules
adopted
by
the state board under sections 3301.52 to 3301.58 of
the Revised
Code are consistent with and meet or exceed the
requirements of
Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code with regard to
child day-care
centers. The state board and the director of job
and family services
shall review all such rules at least once
every five years.
(C) On or before January 1, 1992, the state board of
education, in consultation with the director of
job and family
services,
shall adopt rules for school child programs that are
consistent
with and meet or exceed the requirements of the rules
adopted for
school child day-care centers under Chapter 5104. of
the Revised
Code.
Sec. 3301.54. (A)(1) Each preschool program shall be
directed and supervised by a director, a head teacher, an
elementary principal, or a site administrator who is on site and
responsible for supervision of the program. Except as otherwise provided
in division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of this section, this person
shall hold a valid educator license designated as
appropriate for teaching or
being an administrator in a preschool setting issued pursuant to section
3319.22 of the Revised Code and have completed at
least four courses in child development or early childhood
education from an accredited college, university, or technical
college.
(2) If the person was employed prior to July 1, 1988, by a
school district board of education or an eligible nonpublic
school to direct a preschool program, the person shall be
considered to meet the requirements of this section if the person holds a
valid kindergarten-primary certificate described under former division (A) of
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code as it existed on January 1, 1996.
(3) If the person is employed
to direct a preschool program operated by an eligible,
nontax-supported, nonpublic school, the person shall be
considered to meet the requirements of this section if the person holds a
valid teaching certificate issued in accordance with section 3301.071 of the
Revised Code.
(4) If the person is a site administrator for a head
start grantee or head start delegate agency, the person shall be considered to
meet the requirements of this section if the person provides evidence that the
person has attained at least a high school diploma or certification of high
school equivalency issued by the state board of education or a comparable
agency of another state, and that the person meets at least one of the
following requirements:
(a) Two years of experience working as a child-care staff member in a child
day-care center or preschool program and at least four courses in child
development or early childhood education from an accredited college,
university, or technical college, except that a person who has two years of
experience working as a child-care staff member in a particular day-care
center or preschool program and who has been promoted to or designated
director shall have one year from the time the person was promoted or
designated to complete the required four courses;
(b) Two years of training in an accredited college, university,
or technical college that includes at least four courses in child development
or early childhood education;
(c) A child development associate credential issued by the
national child development associate credentialing commission;
(d) An associate or higher degree in child development or early
childhood education from an accredited college, university, or technical
college.
(B) Each preschool staff member shall be at least eighteen
years of age and have a high school diploma or a certification of
high school equivalency issued by the state board of education or
a comparable agency of another state, except that a staff member
may be less than eighteen years of age if the staff member is
a graduate of a
two-year vocational child-care training program approved by the
state board of education, or is a student enrolled in the second
year of such a program that leads to high school graduation,
provided that the student performs duties in the preschool
program under the continuous supervision of an experienced
preschool staff member and receives periodic supervision from the
vocational child-care training program teacher-coordinator in
the student's high school.
A preschool staff member shall annually complete fifteen
hours of inservice training in child development or early
childhood education, child abuse recognition and prevention, and
first aid, and in the prevention, recognition, and management of
communicable diseases, until a total of forty-five hours has been
completed, unless the staff member holds an associate or
higher degree in child
development or early childhood education from an accredited
college, university, or technical college, or any type of educator license
designated as
appropriate for teaching in an associate teaching position in a preschool
setting issued by the state board of education pursuant to section
3319.22 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.55. (A) A school district, county MR/DD board, or
eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head
start delegate agency operating a preschool program shall
house the program in buildings that meet the following
requirements:
(1) The building is operated by the district, county MR/DD
board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or
head start delegate agency and has been approved by the division
of industrial compliance in the
department of commerce or a certified municipal,
township, or county building department for the purpose of
operating a program for preschool children. Any such structure
shall be constructed, equipped, repaired, altered, and maintained
in accordance with applicable provisions of Chapters 3781. and
3791. and with rules adopted by the board of building standards
under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code for the safety and
sanitation of structures erected for this purpose.
(2) The building is in compliance with fire and safety
laws and regulations as evidenced by reports of annual school
fire and safety inspections as conducted by appropriate local
authorities.
(3) The school is in compliance with rules established by
the state board of education regarding school food services.
(4) The facility includes not less than thirty-five square
feet of indoor space for each child in the program. Safe play
space, including both indoor and outdoor play space, totaling not
less than sixty square feet for each child using the space at any
one time, shall be regularly available and scheduled for use.
(5) First aid facilities and space for temporary placement
or isolation of injured or ill children are provided.
(B) Each school district, county MR/DD board, or eligible
nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start delegate
agency that operates, or proposes to operate, a
preschool program shall submit a building plan including all
information specified by the state board of education to the
board not later than the first day of September of the school
year in which the program is to be initiated. The board shall
determine whether the buildings meet the requirements of this
section and section 3301.53 of the Revised Code, and notify the
superintendent of its determination. If the board determines, on
the basis of the building plan or any other information, that the
buildings do not meet those requirements, it shall cause the
buildings to be inspected by the department of education. The
department shall make a report to the superintendent specifying
any aspects of the building that are not in compliance with the
requirements of this section and section 3301.53 of the Revised
Code and the time period that will be allowed the district,
county MR/DD board, or school, grantee, or
agency to meet the requirements.
Sec. 3301.57. (A) For the purpose of improving programs,
facilities, and implementation of the standards promulgated by
the
state board of education under section 3301.53 of the Revised
Code, the state department of education shall provide
consultation
and technical assistance to school districts, county
MR/DD boards, and
eligible nonpublic schools, head
start grantees, and head start
delegate agencies operating
preschool
programs or school child
programs, and inservice training to
preschool staff members,
school child program staff members, and
nonteaching employees.
(B) The department and the school district board of
education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic
school, head
start grantee, or head start delegate agency shall
jointly monitor
each preschool program and each school child
program.
If the program receives any grant or other funding from the
state or federal government, the department annually shall
monitor
all reports on attendance, financial support, and
expenditures
according to provisions for use of the funds.
(C) The department of job and family services and the
department of
education shall enter into a contract pursuant to
which the
department of education inspects preschool programs and
school
child programs in accordance with sections 3301.52 to
3301.59 of
the Revised Code, the rules adopted under those
sections, and any
applicable procedures in Chapter 5104. of the
Revised Code and
investigates any complaints filed pursuant to
those sections or
rules. The contract shall require the
department of job and family
services to pay the department of
education for conducting the
inspections and investigations an
amount equal to the amount that
the department of job and family
services would expend conducting the
same
number of inspections
and investigations with its employees under
Chapter 5104. of the
Revised Code.
(D) The department of education, at least twice during
every
twelve-month period of operation of a preschool program or
a
licensed school child program, shall inspect the program and
provide a written inspection report to the superintendent of the
school district, county MR/DD board, eligible nonpublic
school,
head start grantee, or head start delegate agency. At
least one
inspection shall be unannounced, and all
inspections may be
unannounced. No person shall interfere with
any inspection
conducted pursuant to this division or to the
rules adopted
pursuant to sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the
Revised Code.
Upon receipt of any complaint that a preschool program or a
licensed school child program is out of compliance with the
requirements in sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code
or
the rules adopted under those sections, the department shall
investigate and may inspect the program.
(E)(D) If a preschool program or a licensed school child
program is determined to be out of compliance with the
requirements of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code
or
the rules adopted under those sections, the department of
education shall notify the appropriate superintendent, county
MR/DD board, eligible nonpublic school, head
start grantee, or
head start delegate agency in writing regarding the
nature of the
violation, what must be done to correct the
violation, and by what
date the correction must be made. If the
correction is not made
by the date established by the department,
it may commence action
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to
close the program or to
revoke the license of the program. If a
program does not comply
with an order to cease operation issued
in accordance with Chapter
119. of the Revised Code, the
department shall notify the attorney
general, the prosecuting
attorney of the county in which the
program is located, or the
city attorney, village solicitor, or
other chief legal officer of
the municipal corporation in which
the program is located that
the program is operating in violation
of sections 3301.52 to
3301.59 of the Revised Code or the rules
adopted under those
sections and in violation of an order to cease
operation issued
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised
Code. Upon
receipt of the notification, the attorney general,
prosecuting
attorney, city attorney, village solicitor, or other
chief legal
officer shall file a complaint in the court of common
pleas of the
county in
which the program is located requesting the
court to issue an
order enjoining the program from operating. The
court shall
grant the requested injunctive relief upon a showing
that the
program named in the complaint is operating in violation
of
sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code or the rules
adopted under those sections and in violation of an order to
cease
operation issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised
Code.
(F)(E) The department of education shall prepare an
annual
report on inspections conducted under this section. The report
shall
include the number of inspections conducted, the number and
types of
violations
found, and the steps taken to address the
violations. The department shall
file the report with the
governor, the president and minority leader of the
senate, and the
speaker and minority leader of the house of representatives on
or
before the first day of January of each
year, beginning in 1999.
Sec. 3301.58. (A) The department of education is
responsible for the licensing of preschool programs and school
child programs and for the enforcement of sections 3301.52 to
3301.59 of the Revised Code and of any rules adopted under those
sections. No school district board of education, county MR/DD
board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or
head start delegate agency shall operate, establish,
manage, conduct, or maintain a preschool program without a
license issued under this section. A school district board of
education, county MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school may
obtain a license under this section for a school child program.
The school district board of education, county MR/DD board, or
eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or head start
delegate agency shall
post the current license for each
preschool program and licensed school child program it operates,
establishes, manages, conducts, or maintains in a conspicuous
place in the preschool program or licensed school child program
that is accessible to parents, custodians, or guardians and
employees and staff members of the program at all times when the
program is in operation.
(B) Any school district board of education, county MR/DD
board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or
head start delegate agency that desires to operate,
establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a preschool program shall apply to the
department of education for a license on a form that the
department shall prescribe by rule. Any school district board of
education, county
MR/DD board, or eligible nonpublic school that
desires to obtain a license for a school child program shall apply to the
department for a license on a form that the department shall prescribe by
rule. The department shall provide
at no charge to each applicant for a license under this section a
copy of the requirements under sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the
Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections. The
department shall mail application forms for the renewal of a
license at least one hundred twenty days prior to the date of the
expiration of the license, and the application for renewal of a
license shall be filed with the department at least sixty days
before the date of the expiration of the existing license. The
department may establish application fees by rule adopted under
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, and all applicants for a
license shall pay any fee established by the department at the
time of making an application for a license. All fees collected
pursuant to this section shall be paid into the state treasury to
the credit of the general revenue fund.
(C) Upon the filing of an application for a license, the
department of education shall investigate and inspect the
preschool program or school child program to determine the
license capacity for each age category of children of the program
and to determine whether the program complies with sections
3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted
under those sections. When, after investigation and inspection,
the department of education is satisfied that sections 3301.52 to
3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those
sections are complied with by the applicant, the department of
education shall issue the program a provisional license as soon
as practicable in the form and manner prescribed by the rules of
the department. The provisional license shall be valid for six
months from the date of issuance unless revoked.
(D) The department of education shall investigate and
inspect a preschool program or school child program that has been
issued a provisional license at least once during operation under
the provisional license. If, after the investigation and
inspection, the department of education determines that the
requirements of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code
and any rules adopted under those sections are met by the
provisional licensee, the department of education shall issue a
license that is effective for two years from the date of the
issuance of the provisional license.
(E) Upon the filing of an application for the renewal of a
license by a preschool program or school child program, the
department of education shall investigate and inspect the
preschool program or school child program. If the department of
education determines that the requirements of sections 3301.52 to
3301.59 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those
sections are met by the applicant, the department of education
shall renew the license for two years from the date of the
expiration date of the previous license.
(F) The license or provisional license shall state the
name of the school district board of education, county MR/DD
board, or eligible nonpublic school, head start grantee, or
head start delegate agency that operates the preschool
program or school child program and the license capacity of the
program. The license shall include any other information
required by section 5104.03 of the Revised Code for the license
of a child day-care center.
(G) The department of education may revoke the license of
any preschool program or school child program that is not in
compliance with the requirements of sections 3301.52 to 3301.59
of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under those sections.
(H) If the department of education revokes a license or
refuses to renew a license to a program, the department shall not
issue a license to the program within two years from the date of
the revocation or refusal. All actions of the department with
respect to licensing preschool programs and school child programs
shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3301.80. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio
SchoolNet commission
as an independent agency office within the department of education. The commission office
shall administer
programs to provide financial and other
assistance to school districts
and other educational institutions
for the acquisition and utilization
of educational technology.
The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of
the
state performing essential governmental functions of the
state.
(B)(1) The commission shall consist
of eleven members, seven
of
whom are voting members. Of the
voting members, one shall be
appointed by the speaker of
the house of representatives and one
shall be appointed by the president of
the senate. The members
appointed by the speaker of the house and the
president of the
senate shall not be members of the general assembly. The
state
superintendent of public instruction or a designee of the
superintendent, the director of budget and management
or a
designee of the director, the
director of administrative services
or a designee of the
director, the chairperson of the public
utilities commission or a designee of
the chairperson, and the
director of the Ohio educational telecommunications
network
commission or a designee of the director shall serve on the
commission
as ex officio voting members. Of the nonvoting
members, two shall be members
of the house of representatives
appointed by the speaker of the house and two
shall be members of
the senate appointed by the
president of the senate. The members
appointed from each house shall not be
members of the same
political party.
The
commission shall appoint officers from among
its members.
(2) The members shall serve without compensation. The
voting
members appointed by the speaker of the house of
representatives and the
president of the senate shall be
reimbursed, pursuant to
office of budget and management
guidelines, for necessary expenses
incurred in the performance of
official duties.
(3) The terms of office for the members appointed by the
speaker of
the house and
the president of the senate shall be for
two
years, with each term ending on the same day of the same
month
as did the term that it succeeds, except that the voting members
so appointed may be removed at
anytime by their respective
appointing authority. The members appointed by the
speaker of the
house and the president of the senate may be
reappointed.
Any
member appointed from the house of
representatives or senate who
ceases to
be a member of the
legislative house from which the
member was appointed shall
cease
to be a member of the commission.
Vacancies
among appointed
members
shall be filled in the manner
provided for original
appointments. Any member
appointed to fill
a vacancy occurring
prior to the expiration date of the term
for
which a predecessor
was appointed shall hold office as a member
for the
remainder of
that term. The members appointed by the
speaker of the house and
the president of the senate
shall
continue in office subsequent to
the expiration date of that
member's
term until a successor takes
office or until a period of
sixty days has
elapsed, whichever
occurs first.
(C)(1) The commission office shall be under the
supervision of an
executive director who
shall be appointed by the commission.
The
executive director shall
serve at the pleasure of the commission
and superintendent of public instruction, who shall
direct commission office employees in the
administration of all
programs for the provision of financial and other
assistance to
school districts and other educational institutions for the
acquisition and utilization of educational technology.
(2) The employees of the Ohio SchoolNet commission office shall be
placed in the unclassified service. The commission shall fix the
compensation
of the executive director. The executive director superintendent
shall employ and fix the
compensation for such employees as
necessary
to facilitate the activities and purposes of the
commission. The
employees shall serve at the pleasure of the
executive director superintendent.
(3) The employees of the Ohio SchoolNet
commission office shall be
exempt
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall
not be
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised
Code.
(D)(C) The Ohio SchoolNet commission office shall do all of the
following:
(1) Make grants to institutions and other organizations as
prescribed by the
general assembly for the provision of technical
assistance, professional
development, and other support services
to enable school districts,
community schools established under
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code,
and other
educational
institutions to utilize educational technology;
(2) Contract with the department of education, state
institutions of
higher education, private nonprofit institutions
of higher education holding
certificates of authorization under
section 1713.02 of the Revised Code, and
such other public or
private entities as the
executive director superintendent
deems necessary for the
administration and implementation
of the
programs under administered by the
commission's jurisdiction office;
(3) Establish a reporting system to which school districts,
community schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised
Code,
and other
educational institutions receiving financial
assistance pursuant to this
section for the acquisition of
educational technology report information as to
the manner in
which such assistance was expended, the manner in which the
equipment or services purchased with the assistance is being
utilized, the
results or outcome of this utilization, and other
information as may be
required by the commission office;
(4) Establish necessary guidelines governing purchasing and
procurement by
participants in programs administered by the
commission office
that facilitate the timely
and effective implementation
of such programs;
(5) Take into consideration the efficiency and cost
savings
of
statewide procurement prior to allocating and releasing funds
for any programs
under its administration.
(E)(1) The executive director shall
implement policies and
directives issued by the Ohio SchoolNet commission.
(2)(D) The Ohio SchoolNet commission office may establish a
systems
support network to facilitate the timely implementation of the
programs, projects, or activities for which it provides
assistance.
(3)(E) Chapters 123., 124., 125., and 153., and sections 9.331,
9.332,
and 9.333 of the Revised Code do not apply to contracts,
programs, projects,
or activities of the Ohio SchoolNet
commission office.
Sec. 3301.801. (A) The Ohio SchoolNet
commission department of education shall create
and maintain a clearinghouse
for classroom teachers, including any
classroom teachers employed by
community schools established under
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, to
easily obtain lesson plans
and
materials and other practical resources for use in classroom
teaching. The commission department shall develop a method of obtaining
submissions, from classroom teachers and others, of such plans,
materials, and other resources that have been used in the
classroom and that can be readily used and implemented by
classroom teachers in their regular teaching activities. The
commission department also shall develop methods of informing classroom
teachers of both the availability of such plans, materials, and
other resources, and of the opportunity to submit such plans,
materials, and other resources and other classroom teaching
ideas
to the clearinghouse.
The department of education shall regularly identify
research-based practices concerned with scheduling and allotting
instructional time and submit include such practices to the commission for
inclusion in the clearinghouse.
The commission department shall periodically report to the speaker
and
minority leader of
the house of representatives, the president and
minority leader of the
senate, and the chairpersons and ranking
minority members of the education
committees of the senate and the
house of representatives regarding the
clearinghouse and make
recommendations for changes in state law or
administrative rules
that may facilitate the usefulness of the clearinghouse.
(B) Not later than one year after
the effective
date of this
amendment
September 11, 2001, the department of education shall identify
research
studies on academic intervention and prevention practices that
have been
successful in improving the academic performance of
students from
different ethnic and socioeconomic groups, develop
an annotated
bibliography of such studies, and provide that
bibliography to the
Ohio SchoolNet commission. The commission
shall promptly make the
bibliography available to school districts
as a part of the
clearinghouse established under this section.
Sec. 3313.979. Each scholarship or grant to be used for
payments to a registered private school or to an approved
tutorial assistance provider is payable to the parents of the
student entitled to the scholarship or grant. Each scholarship to be used
for payments to a public school in an adjacent school
district is payable to the school district of attendance by the
superintendent of public instruction. Each grant to be used for payments to an approved tutorial assistance provider is payable to the approved tutorial assistance provider.
(A)(1) By the fifteenth day of each month of
the school year that any scholarship students are enrolled in a
registered private school, the chief administrator of that school
shall notify the state superintendent of:
(a) The number of students who were reported to
the school district as having been admitted by that
private school pursuant to division
(A)(2)(b)
of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code and
who were still enrolled in the private school as of the first day
of such month, and the numbers of such students who qualify for seventy-five
and ninety per cent of the scholarship amount;
(b) The number of students who were reported to
the school district as having been admitted by
another private school pursuant to division
(A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the
Revised Code and since the date of admission
have
transferred to the school providing the notification under
division (A)(1) of this section, and the numbers of such students who
qualify for seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.
(2) From time to time, the state superintendent shall make a
payment to the parent of each student entitled to a
scholarship. Each payment shall include for each student
reported under division (A)(1) of this section, a
portion of seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the scholarship
amount specified in
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 3313.978 of the Revised
Code. This
amount shall be proportionately reduced in
the case of any such student who is not enrolled in a registered
private school for the entire school year.
(3) The first payment under this division shall be made
by the last day of November and shall equal one-third of
seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of
the estimated total amount that will be due to the parent for the
school year pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section.
(B) The state superintendent, on behalf of the parents of a
scholarship student enrolled in a
public school in an adjacent school district pursuant
to section 3327.06 of the Revised Code, shall
make the tuition payments required by that section to the school
district admitting the student, except that, notwithstanding
sections 3323.13, 3323.14, and 3327.06 of the Revised
Code, the total payments in any school year shall not
exceed seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the scholarship
amount provided
in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 3313.978 of the
Revised Code.
(C) Whenever an approved provider provides
tutorial assistance to a student, the state superintendent shall pay the
parent approved provider for such
costs upon receipt of a statement
from the parent specifying the services provided and the costs of
the services, which statement shall be signed by the
provider and verified by the chief administrator having supervisory control over the tutoring site. The total payments to any parent approved provider under this division
for all provider services to any individual student in any school
year shall not exceed seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the
grant amount provided in division
(C)(3) of section 3313.978 of the Revised
Code.
Sec. 3314.074. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply
only to the extent permitted under Chapter 1702. of the Revised
Code.
(A) If any community school established under this
chapter
permanently closes and ceases its operation as a community
school,
the assets of that school shall be distributed first to
the
retirement
funds of employees of the school, employees of the
school, and private creditors who are owed
compensation and
then
any remaining funds shall be paid to the
state treasury to
the
credit of the general revenue fund.
(B) If a community school closes and ceases to operate as a
community school and the school has received computer hardware or
software from the Ohio SchoolNet commission department of education, such hardware or
software shall be returned to the commission department, and the commission department
shall redistribute the hardware and software, to the extent such
redistribution is possible, to school districts in conformance
with the provisions of the programs operated and administered by
the commission department.
(C) If the assets of the school
are insufficient to pay all
persons or entities to whom
compensation is owed, the
prioritization of the distribution of
the assets to individual
persons or entities within each class of
payees may be determined
by decree of a court in accordance with
this section and Chapter
1702. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3314.083. If the department of education pays a joint vocational school district under division (G)(4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special education and related services to a handicapped student who is enrolled in a community school, as calculated under division (G)(2) of that section, the department shall deduct the amount of that payment from the amount calculated for payment to the community school under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3316.08. During a school district's fiscal emergency
period, the auditor of state shall determine annually, or at any other time
upon request of the
financial planning and supervision commission, whether the school
district will incur an operating deficit. If the
auditor of state determines that a school district will incur an
operating deficit, the auditor of state shall certify that
determination to the superintendent of public instruction, the
financial planning and supervision commission, and the board of
education of the school district. Upon receiving the auditor of
state's certification, the board of education or and the commission each shall adopt consider adopting a
resolution to submit a ballot question proposing the levy of a
tax under section 5705.194 or 5705.21 or
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code. After the board of education and the commission consider adopting a resolution for the levy of such a tax, the board of education and commission each shall adopt a resolution that explains the decision to propose or not propose such a levy. Except as
otherwise provided in this division, the tax
shall be levied in the manner prescribed for a tax levied under
section 5705.194 or 5705.21 or under Chapter 5748. of the
Revised Code. The If the board of education or commission decides that a tax shall should be levied, the tax shall be levied
for the purpose of paying current operating expenses of the
school district. The question shall propose that the tax be
levied at the a rate required to produce annual revenue sufficient to eliminate
the operating deficit as certified by the auditor of state and to
repay outstanding loans or other obligations incurred by the
board of education for the purpose of reducing or eliminating
operating deficits generate an amount that would produce a positive fiscal year end cash balance not later than the fifth year of the district's current five-year forecast submitted under section 5705.391 of the Revised Code, as determined by the financial planning and supervision
commission in consultation with the district treasurer. The rate of a tax levied under section 5705.194 or
5705.21 of the Revised Code shall be determined by the
county auditor, and the rate of a tax levied under section
5748.02 or 5748.08 of the Revised Code shall be determined by
the
tax commissioner, upon the request of the commission. The
commission shall determine the election at which the question of
the tax shall appear on the ballot, and the board of education
or commission shall submit a copy of its resolution to the board of elections
not later than seventy-five days prior to the day of that election. The board
of elections conducting the
election shall certify the results of the election to the board
of education and to the financial planning and supervision
commission.
Sec. 3317.012. (A)(1) The general assembly,
having analyzed
school district expenditure and cost data for fiscal year
1999,
performed the calculation described in division
(B) of this
section,
adjusted the results for inflation,
and added the
amounts described in division (A)(2) of this section, hereby
determines that the
base cost of an adequate education per pupil
for the fiscal year beginning
July 1,
2001, is
$4,814.
For
the
five two following fiscal years,
the base cost per pupil for
each of
those years, reflecting an annual rate of inflation of two
and
eight-tenths
per cent, is
$4,949 for fiscal year
2003, and
$5,088
for fiscal year
2004,
$5,230
for
fiscal year
2005,
$5,376 for
fiscal year
2006,
and
$5,527 for fiscal year
2007.
(2) The base cost per pupil amounts specified in division
(A)(1) of this section include amounts to reflect the cost to
school districts of increasing the minimum number of high school
academic units required for graduation beginning September 15,
2001, under section 3313.603 of the Revised Code. Analysis of
fiscal year 1999 data revealed that the school districts meeting
the requirements of division (B) of this section on average
required high school students to complete a minimum of nineteen
and eight-tenths units to graduate. The general assembly
determines that the cost of funding the additional two-tenths unit
required by section 3313.603 of the Revised Code is $12
per pupil
in fiscal year 2002. This amount was added after the
calculation
described in division (B) of this section and the
adjustment for
inflation from fiscal year 1999 to fiscal year
2002. It is this
total amount, the calculated base cost plus the
supplement to pay
for the additional partial unit, that
constitutes the base cost
amount specified in division (A)(1) of
this section for fiscal
year 2002 and that is inflated to produce
the base cost amounts
for fiscal years 2003 through 2007 2004.
(B) In
determining the base cost stated in division (A) of
this section,
capital and debt costs,
costs paid for by federal
funds, and costs covered by funds
provided
for disadvantaged
pupil impact aid
and
transportation were excluded, as were the
effects on the
districts' state
funds of the application of the
cost-of-doing-business factors, assuming
a seven and
one-half per
cent
variance.
The base cost for fiscal year
1999 was calculated as the
unweighted average
cost per student, on a school district basis,
of educating students who were
not receiving vocational education
or services pursuant to
Chapter 3323. of the
Revised
Code and who
were enrolled in a
city, exempted village, or local school
district that in
fiscal year
1999 met all of the following
criteria:
(1) The district met at least
twenty of the
following
twenty-seven performance
indicators:
(a) A
ninety per cent or
higher
graduation rate;
(b) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders
proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under former
division
(A)(1)
of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(c) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders
proficient on the reading test prescribed under former division
(A)(1) of
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(d) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders
proficient on the writing test prescribed under former division
(A)(1) of
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(e) At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders
proficient on the citizenship test prescribed under former
division
(A)(1)
of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(f)
At least seventy-five per cent of fourth graders
proficient on the science test prescribed under former division (A)(1) of
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(g) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders
proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under former division
(A)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(h) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders
proficient on the reading test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(i) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders
proficient on the writing test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(j) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders
proficient on the citizenship test prescribed under former division
(A)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(k) At least seventy-five per cent of sixth graders
proficient on the science test prescribed under former division (A)(2) of
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(l) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders
proficient on the mathematics test prescribed under
Section 4 of
Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(m) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders
proficient on the reading test prescribed under
Section 4 of Am.
Sub.
S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(n) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders
proficient on the writing test prescribed under
Section 4 of Am.
Sub.
S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(o) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders
proficient on the citizenship test prescribed
under
Section 4 of
Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(p) At least seventy-five per cent of ninth graders
proficient on the science test prescribed under Section 4 of Am.
Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(q) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders proficient
on the mathematics test prescribed under
Section 4 of Am. Sub.
S.B.
55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(r) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders
proficient
on the reading test prescribed under
Section 4 of Am.
Sub.
S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(s) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders
proficient
on the writing test prescribed under
Section 4 of Am.
Sub.
S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(t) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders
proficient
on the citizenship test prescribed under
Section 4 of
Am. Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(u) At least eighty-five per cent of tenth graders
proficient on the science test prescribed under Section 4 of Am.
Sub. S.B. 55 of the 122nd general assembly;
(v) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient
on
the mathematics test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of
section
3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(w) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient
on
the reading test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of
section
3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(x) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient
on
the writing test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of
section
3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(y) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient
on
the citizenship test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of
section
3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(z) At least sixty per cent of twelfth graders proficient
on
the science test prescribed under former division (A)(3) of section
3301.0710 of the Revised Code;
(aa) An attendance rate for the
year of at least
ninety-three per cent as defined in
section 3302.01 of the
Revised
Code.
In determining whether a school district met any of the
performance standards specified in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (aa) of
this section, the general assembly used a rounding procedure
previously recommended by the department of education. It is the
same rounding procedure the general assembly used in 1998 to
determine whether a district had met the standards of former
divisions (B)(1)(a) to (r) of this section for purposes of
constructing the previous model based on fiscal year 1996 data.
(2) The district was not among the
five per cent of all
districts with the highest income, nor among the
five per
cent of
all
districts with the lowest income.
(3) The district was not among the five per cent of all
districts with the highest valuation per pupil, nor among the
five
per cent of all
districts with the lowest valuation per
pupil.
This model for calculating the base cost of an adequate
education is expenditure-based. The general assembly recognizes
that increases in state funding to school districts since fiscal
year 1996, the fiscal year upon which the general assembly based
its model for calculating state funding to school districts for
fiscal years 1999 through 2001, has increased school district base
cost expenditures for fiscal year 1999, the fiscal year upon which
the general assembly based its model for calculating state funding
for fiscal years 2002 through 2007 2004. In the case of school
districts included in the fiscal year 1999 model that also had met
the
fiscal year 1996 performance criteria of former division
(B)(1) of
this section, the increased state funding may
have
driven the
districts' expenditures beyond the expenditures
that
were actually
needed to maintain their educational programs
at the
level
necessary to maintain their ability to meet the fiscal year
1999 performance criteria of current division (B)(1) of this
section. The
general assembly has determined to control for
this
effect by
stipulating in the later model that the fiscal year
1999
base cost
expenditures of the districts that also met the
performance criteria of former division (B)(1) of this section
equals
their base cost expenditures per pupil for
fiscal year
1996,
inflated to fiscal year 1999 using an annual
rate of
inflation of
two and eight-tenths per cent. However, if this
inflated amount exceeded the district's actual fiscal year 1999
base cost expenditures per pupil, the district's actual fiscal
year 1999 base cost expenditures per pupil were used in the
calculation. For districts
in the 1999 model
that did not also
meet the performance criteria of former division (B)(1) of this
section,
the actual 1999
base cost per pupil expenditures were
used in the
calculation of
the average district per pupil costs of
the model
districts.
(C) In July of
2005, and in July of every six
years
thereafter, the speaker of the house of representatives and the
president of the senate shall each appoint three members to a
committee to reexamine the cost of an adequate education. No
more
than two members from any political party shall represent
each
house. The director of budget and management and the
superintendent of public instruction shall serve as nonvoting ex
officio members of the committee.
The committee shall select a rational methodology for
calculating the costs of an adequate education system for the
ensuing six-year period, and shall report the methodology and
the
resulting costs to the general assembly. In
performing its
function, the committee is not bound by any
method used by
previous general assemblies to examine and
calculate costs and
instead may utilize any rational method it
deems suitable and
reasonable given the educational needs and
requirements of the
state at that time.
The methodology for determining the cost of an adequate
education system shall take into account the basic
educational
costs that all districts incur in educating regular
students, the
unique needs of special categories of students,
and significant
special conditions encountered by certain
classifications of
school districts.
The committee also shall redetermine, for purposes of
updating the parity aid calculation under section 3317.0217 of the
Revised Code, the average number of effective operating mills that
school districts in the seventieth to ninetieth percentiles of
valuations per pupil collect above the revenues required to
finance their attributed local shares of the calculated cost of
an
adequate education.
Any committee appointed pursuant to this section shall
make
its report to the office of budget and management and the
general
assembly within
one year of its appointment
so that the
information is available for use by the office and the general
assembly in preparing the next biennial appropriations
act.
(D)(1) For purposes of this division, an "update year" is
the first fiscal year for which the per pupil base cost of an
adequate education is in effect after being recalculated by the
general assembly. The first update year is fiscal year 2002. The
second update year is fiscal year 2008.
(2) The general assembly shall recalculate the per pupil
base cost of an adequate education every six years after
considering the recommendations of the committee appointed under
division (C) of this section. At the time of the recalculation,
for each of the five fiscal years following the update year, the
general assembly shall adjust the base cost recalculated for the
update year using an annual rate of inflation that the general
assembly determines appropriate.
(3) The general assembly shall include, in the act
appropriating state funds for education programs for a fiscal
biennium that begins with an update year, a statement of its
determination of the total state share percentage of base cost and
parity aid funding for the update year.
(4) During its biennial budget deliberations, the general
assembly shall determine the total state share percentage of base
cost and parity aid funding for each fiscal year of the upcoming
biennium. This determination shall be based on the latest
projections and data provided by the department of education under
division (D)(6) of this section prior to the enactment of
education appropriations for the upcoming biennium. If, based on
those latest projections and data, the general assembly determines
that the total state share percentage for either or both nonupdate
fiscal years varies more than two and one-half percentage points
more or less than the total state share percentage for the most
recent update year, as previously stated by the general assembly
under division (D)(3) of this section, the general assembly shall
determine and enact a method that it considers appropriate to
restrict the estimated variance for each year to within two and
one-half percentage points. The general assembly's methods may
include, but are not required to include and need not be limited
to, reexamining the rate of millage charged off as the local share
of base cost funding under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section
3317.022 of the Revised Code. Regardless of any changes in
charge-off millage rates in years between update years, however,
the charge-off millage rate for update years shall be twenty-three
mills, unless the general assembly determines that a different
millage rate is more appropriate to share the total calculated
base cost between the state and school districts.
(5) The total state share percentage of base cost and parity
aid funding for any fiscal year is calculated as follows:
[(Total state base cost + total state parity aid funding) -
statewide charge-off amount] / (Total state base cost + total
state parity aid funding)(a) The total state base cost equals the sum of the base
costs for all school districts for the fiscal year.
(b) The base cost for each school district equals:
formula
amount X cost-of-doing-business factor Xthe greater of formula
ADM or
three-year average formula ADM(c) The total state parity aid funding equals the sum of the
amounts paid to all school districts for the fiscal year under
section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code.
(d) The statewide charge-off amount equals the sum of the
charge-off amounts for all school districts.
(e) The charge-off amount for each school district is the
amount calculated as its local share of base cost funding and
deducted from the total calculated base cost to determine the
amount of its state payment under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code. The charge-off amount for
each school district in fiscal year 2002 is the product of
twenty-three mills multiplied by the district's recognized
valuation as adjusted, if applicable, under division (A)(2) of
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code. If however, in any fiscal
year, including fiscal year
2002, a school district's calculated
charge-off amount exceeds its
base cost calculated as described in
division (D)(5)(b) of this
section, the district's charge-off
amount shall be deemed to equal
its calculated base cost.
(6) Whenever requested by the chairperson of the standing
committee of the house
or representatives or the senate having
primary jurisdiction over appropriations, the legislative budget
officer, or the director of budget and management, the department
of education shall report its latest projections for total base
cost, total parity aid funding, and the statewide charge-off
amount, as those terms are defined in division (D)(5) of this
section, for each year of the upcoming fiscal biennium, and all
data it used to make the projections.
Sec. 3317.013. This section does not apply to
handicapped
preschool students.
Analysis of special education cost data has resulted in a
finding that the average special education additional
cost per
pupil, including
the costs of related services, can be expressed
as a multiple of the base cost
per pupil
calculated under section
3317.012 of the Revised Code. The
multiples for the following
categories of special education
programs, as these programs are
defined for purposes of Chapter
3323. of the Revised Code,
and
adjusted as provided in this section, are as
follows:
(A)
A multiple of 0.2892 for students whose primary or only
identified handicap is a speech and language handicap, as this
term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;
(B) A multiple of
0.3691 for students identified as
specific
learning disabled or
developmentally
handicapped, as
these terms are defined pursuant
to Chapter 3323.
of
the Revised
Code, or other health
handicapped-minor;
(C) A multiple of
1.7695 for students identified as
hearing
handicapped,
vision
impaired,
or severe behavior handicapped, as
these
terms
are defined pursuant to
Chapter 3323. of the Revised
Code;
(D) A multiple of 2.3646 for students identified as
orthopedically handicapped, as this
term is defined pursuant to
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code or other health handicapped -
major;
(E) A multiple of 3.1129 for students identified as
multihandicapped, as
this term is defined pursuant to Chapter
3323. of the Revised
Code;
(F) A multiple of 4.7342 for students identified as
autistic,
having traumatic brain injuries, or as both visually
and hearing disabled, as these terms are
defined
pursuant to
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.
In fiscal year 2002 2004, the multiples specified in divisions (A)
to (F) of this section shall be adjusted by multiplying them by
0.825. In fiscal year 2003, the multiples specified in those
divisions shall be adjusted by multiplying them by 0.875 for purposes of calculating the state and local shares of special education and related services additional weighted funding, the department of education shall determine a percentage with which it shall adjust the multiples specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section so that the adjusted multiples generate state funding equal to the amount appropriated for the state share of special education and related services additional weighted funding. The department shall certify the percentage to the office of budget and management not later than July 30, 2003. The department may adjust the percentage in effect during fiscal year 2004 if updated data indicate that that percentage will generate state share funding that is greater than or less than the amount appropriated for it. The department shall notify the office of budget and management each time it adjusts the percentage and provide the office with the data justifying the adjustment.
In fiscal year 2004, not less than one hundred per cent of the unadjusted average special education additional cost per pupil, represented by the unadjusted multiples of the base cost per pupil specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section, shall be funded through a combination of the state and local shares of special education and related services additional weighted funding as calculated under this chapter and federal special education funds passed through to city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational school districts. Not later than May 30, 2004, the department shall submit to the office of budget and management a report that specifies for each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational school district the fiscal year 2004 allocation of the state and local shares of special education and related services additional weighted funding and federal special education funds passed through to the district.
Sec. 3317.0213. No money shall be distributed under this
section after
fiscal year
2005 2004.
(A) As used in this section:
(1) "ADM" for any school district means:
(a) In fiscal year 1999, the
FY 1998 ADM;
(b) In fiscal years 2000 through
2005 2004, the
formula ADM
reported for the previous fiscal year.
(2) "Average taxable value" means the average of
the amounts
certified for a district in the second, third, and
fourth
preceding fiscal years under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of
section
3317.021 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Valuation per pupil" for a district means:
(a) In fiscal
year 1999, the district's average taxable
value,
divided by the
district's FY 1998
ADM;
(b) In a fiscal year
that occurs after fiscal year 1999, the
district's average
taxable value,
divided by the district's
formula ADM for the preceding fiscal year.
(4) "Threshold valuation" means:
(a) In fiscal year 1999, the
adjusted valuation per pupil of
the school
district with the two hundred twenty-ninth lowest
adjusted valuation per pupil
in the state, according to data
available at the time of the computation
under division (B) of
this section;
(b) In fiscal year 2000, the adjusted valuation per pupil of
the
district with the one hundred ninety-sixth lowest
such
valuation in the state;
(c) In fiscal year 2001, the adjusted valuation per pupil of
the
district with the one hundred sixty-third lowest such
valuation in the state;
(d) In fiscal
years 2002
through 2005 2004, the adjusted
valuation per pupil of the
district with the
one-hundred-eighteenth lowest such valuation in the state.
(5) "Adjusted valuation per pupil" for a district means an
amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
The district's valuation per pupil -
($30,000 X (one minus thedistrict's income factor))(6) "Millage rate" means .012 in fiscal year 1999, .011 in
fiscal
year 2000, .010 in fiscal year 2001, and .009 in fiscal
years 2002
through 2005 2004.
(7) "Payment percentage" equals 100% prior
to fiscal year
2003, 75% in fiscal year 2003, and
50% in fiscal year 2004, 25% in
fiscal year 2005, and zero after fiscal
year 2005.
(B) Beginning in fiscal year 1993, during August of each
fiscal year, the department of education shall distribute to each
school district meeting the requirements of section 3317.01 of
the
Revised Code whose adjusted valuation per pupil is less than
the
threshold valuation, an amount calculated in accordance with
the
following formula:
(The threshold valuation -
the district's
adjusted valuation per pupil)
Xmillage rate X ADM
X the payment percentage
Sec. 3317.0217. The department of education shall annually
compute and pay state parity aid to school districts, as follows:
(A) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school
district, which equals the following sum:
(1) Two-thirds times the quotient of (a) the district's
recognized valuation divided by (b) its formula ADM; plus
(2) One-third times the quotient of (a) the average of the
total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's
residents for the three years most recently reported under section
3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (b) its formula ADM.
(B) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per
pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to
the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.
(C) Compute the per pupil state parity aid funding for each
school
district in accordance with the following formula:
Payment percentage X (threshold local wealthper pupil - the
district's localwealth per pupil) X 0.0095(1) "Payment percentage," for purposes of division (C) of
this section, equals 20% in
fiscal year 2002, 40%
in fiscal year
2003, and 60% in fiscal year 2004, 80% in fiscal year
2005, and 100%
after
fiscal year 2005.
(2) Nine and one-half mills (0.0095) is the general
assembly's
determination of the average number of effective
operating mills
that districts in the seventieth to ninetieth
percentiles of
valuations per pupil collected in fiscal year 2001
above the
revenues required to finance their attributed local
shares of the
calculated cost of an adequate education. This was
determined by
(a) adding the district revenues from operating
property tax
levies and income tax levies, (b) subtracting from
that total the
sum of (i) twenty-three mills times adjusted
recognized valuation
plus (ii) the attributed local shares of
special education,
transportation, and vocational education
funding as described in
divisions (F)(1) to (3) of section
3317.022 of the Revised Code,
and (c) converting the result to an
effective operating property
tax rate.
(3) The "threshold local wealth per pupil" is the local
wealth per pupil of the school district with the
four-hundred-ninetieth lowest local wealth per pupil.
If the result of the calculation for a school district under
division (C) of this section is less than zero, the district's per
pupil parity aid shall be zero.
(D) Compute the per pupil alternative parity aid for each
school district that has a combination of an income factor of 1.0
or less, a DPIA index of 1.0 or greater, and a
cost-of-doing-business factor of 1.0375 or greater, in accordance
with the following formula:
Payment percentage X $60,000 X
(1 - income factor) X 4/15 X 0.023(1) "DPIA index" has the same meaning as in section 3317.029
of the Revised Code.
(2) "Payment percentage," for purposes of division (D) of
this section, equals 50% in fiscal year 2002 and 100% after fiscal
year 2002.
(E) Pay each district that has a combination of an income
factor 1.0 or less, a DPIA index of 1.0 or greater, and a
cost-of-doing-business factor of 1.0375 or greater, the greater of
the following:
(1) The product of the district's per pupil parity aid
calculated under division (C) of this section times its formula
ADM;
(2) The product of its per pupil alternative parity aid
calculated under division (D) of this section times its formula
ADM.
(F) Pay every other district the product of its per pupil
parity aid calculated under division (C) of this section times its
formula ADM.
Every six years, the general assembly shall redetermine,
after considering the report of the committee appointed under
section 3317.012 of the Revised Code, the average number of
effective operating mills that districts in the seventieth to
ninetieth percentiles of valuations per pupil collect above the
revenues required to finance their attributed local shares of the
cost of an adequate education.
Sec. 3317.022. (A)(1) The department of education shall
compute
and distribute state base cost funding to
each school
district for the fiscal year in accordance with the
following
formula,
making any adjustment required by
division (A)(2) of
this section and
using
the
information obtained
under section
3317.021 of the Revised
Code in
the calendar year in
which the
fiscal year begins.
Compute the following for each eligible district:
[cost-of-doing-business factor Xthe formula amount X (the greater of formula ADMor three-year average formula ADM)] -(.023 X
recognized valuation)
If the difference obtained is a negative number, the
district's computation shall be zero.
(2)(a) For each school district for which the tax exempt
value of the district equals or exceeds twenty-five per cent of
the potential value of the district, the department of education
shall calculate the difference between the district's tax exempt
value and twenty-five per cent of the district's potential value.
(b) For each school district to which division
(A)(2)(a) of
this section applies, the
department
shall adjust the recognized
valuation used in
the
calculation
under
division (A)(1) of this
section
by subtracting
from it the amount
calculated under
division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
(B) As used in this section:
(1) The "total special education weight" for a district
means the sum of the following amounts:
(a) The district's category one special education ADM
multiplied by the
multiple specified
in division
(A) of
section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(b) The
district's category two
special education
ADM
multiplied by the
multiple
specified
in division
(B) of section
3317.013 of the Revised
Code;
(c) The district's category three special education ADM
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(d) The district's category four special education ADM
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(e) The district's category five special education ADM
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(f) The district's category six special education ADM
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (F) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code.
(2) "State share percentage" means the percentage calculated
for a
district as follows:
(a) Calculate the state base cost funding amount for
the
district for
the fiscal year under division (A) of this section.
If
the district would not receive any state base cost
funding for
that year
under that division, the district's state share
percentage is zero.
(b) If the district would receive state base cost
funding
under that
division, divide that amount by an amount equal to the
following:
Cost-of-doing-business factor Xthe formula amount X (the greater of formulaADM or three-year average formula ADM)The resultant number is the district's state share
percentage.
(3)
"Related services" includes:
(a) Child study, special education supervisors and
coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical
development services, occupational or physical therapy,
teacher
assistants for handicapped children whose
handicaps are described
in division
(B) of section 3317.013 or division (F)(3) of section
3317.02 of the Revised Code, behavioral intervention,
interpreter
services, work study, nursing services, and
specialized
integrative services as those terms are defined by the department;
(b) Speech and language services provided to any
student
with a handicap, including any student whose primary or
only
handicap is a speech and language handicap;
(c) Any related service not specifically covered
by other
state funds but specified in federal law, including but
not
limited to, audiology and school psychological services;
(d) Any service included in units funded under
former
division (O)(1) of
section 3317.023 of the Revised Code;
(e) Any other related service needed by
handicapped children
in accordance with their individualized
education plans.
(4) The "total vocational education weight" for a district
means
the sum of the following amounts:
(a) The district's category one vocational education ADM
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of section
3317.014 of the Revised Code;
(b) The district's category two vocational education ADM
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of section
3317.014 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state
special education and related services additional weighted costs
funds
to each school district in accordance with the following
formula:
The district's state share percentageX the formula amount for the yearfor which the aid is calculatedX the district's total special education weight(2)
The
attributed local share of special education and
related services additional
weighted costs equals:
(1 - the district's state share percentage) Xthe district's total special education weight Xthe formula amount
(3)(a) The department shall compute and
pay in accordance
with
this division additional state aid to
school districts for
students in
categories two through six special
education ADM. If
a district's
costs for the fiscal year for a
student in its
categories two through six
special
education ADM
exceed the
threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student,
the
district
may submit to
the superintendent of public
instruction
documentation, as
prescribed by the superintendent, of
all its
costs for that
student. Upon submission of documentation
for a
student of the
type and in the manner prescribed, the
department
shall pay to
the district an amount equal to the
sum of the
following:
(i) One-half of the district's costs for the student in
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;
(ii) The product of one-half of the
district's costs for the
student in excess of
the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied
by
the district's state share percentage.
(b) For purposes of division (C)(3)(a) of this section, the
threshold catastrophic cost for serving a student equals:
(i) For a student in the school district's category two,
three, four, or five special education ADM, twenty-five thousand
dollars in fiscal year 2002 and twenty-five thousand seven hundred
dollars in fiscal year years 2003 and 2004;
(ii) For a student in the district's category six special
education ADM, thirty thousand dollars in fiscal year 2002 and
thirty thousand eight hundred forty dollars in fiscal year years 2003 and 2004.
The threshold catastrophic costs for fiscal year 2003
represent a two and eight-tenths per cent inflationary increase
over fiscal year 2002.
(c) The district shall only report
under division (C)(3)(a)
of this section, and the department shall only
pay
for, the
costs
of educational expenses and the related
services provided
to
the
student in accordance with the student's
individualized
education
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or
other costs
associated
with any cause of action relating to the
student may
not be
included in the amount.
(5)(4)(a) As used in this division, the "personnel
allowance"
means
thirty
thousand dollars
in fiscal
years 2002 and, 2003, and 2004.
(b) For the provision of speech services to students,
including students
who do
not have
individualized education
programs prepared for
them under
Chapter
3323. of the Revised
Code, and for
no
other purpose, the department of education shall
pay each
school district an
amount calculated under the following
formula:
(formula ADM divided by 2000) X
the personnel allowance X the state share percentage
(5) In any fiscal year, a school district
shall spend
for
purposes that the department designates as approved for
special
education
and related services
expenses
at least the amount
calculated
as follows:
(cost-of-doing-business factor Xformula amount X
the sum of categoriesone through six special education ADM) +
(total special education weight X formula amount)The purposes approved by the department for special education
expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to,
identification of handicapped children, compliance with state
rules governing the education of handicapped children and
prescribing the continuum of program options for handicapped
children, and the portion of the school district's overall
administrative and overhead costs that are attributable to the
district's special education student population.
The department shall require school districts to report data
annually to allow for monitoring compliance with division (C)(5)
of this section. The department shall annually report to the
governor and the general assembly the amount of money spent by
each school district for special education and related services.
(D)(1) As used in this division:
(a) "Daily bus miles per student" equals the number of bus
miles
traveled per day, divided by transportation base.
(b) "Transportation base" equals total student count as
defined
in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, minus the number
of
students enrolled in preschool handicapped units, plus the
number
of nonpublic school students included in transportation
ADM.
(c) "Transported student percentage" equals transportation
ADM divided by transportation base.
(d) "Transportation cost per student" equals total operating
costs for board-owned or contractor-operated school buses divided
by
transportation base.
(2) Analysis of student transportation cost data has
resulted in a
finding that an average efficient transportation use
cost per student
can be calculated by means of a regression
formula that has as its two
independent variables the number of
daily bus miles per student
and the transported student
percentage. For fiscal
year 1998 transportation cost data, the
average efficient
transportation use cost per student is expressed
as follows:
51.79027 + (139.62626 X daily bus miles per student) +
(116.25573 X transported student percentage)
The department of education shall annually determine the
average
efficient transportation use cost per student in
accordance with the
principles stated in division (D)(2) of this
section, updating the
intercept and regression coefficients of the
regression formula
modeled in this division, based on an annual
statewide analysis of
each school district's daily bus miles per
student, transported
student percentage, and transportation cost
per student data. The
department shall conduct the annual update
using data, including
daily bus miles per student, transported
student percentage, and
transportation cost per student data, from
the prior fiscal year.
The department shall notify the office of
budget and management of
such update by the fifteenth day of
February of each year.
(3) In addition to funds paid under divisions (A), (C), and
(E) of this
section, each
district with a transported student
percentage greater than
zero shall receive a payment equal to a
percentage of the product of the district's transportation
base
from the prior fiscal year times the annually
updated average
efficient transportation use cost per student,
times an inflation
factor
of two and eight tenths per cent to account for the
one-year difference
between the data used in updating the
formula
and calculating the payment and the year in which the payment is
made. The percentage shall be the following percentage of that
product
specified for the corresponding fiscal year:
|
FISCAL YEAR |
|
PERCENTAGE |
|
2000 |
|
52.5% |
|
2001 |
|
55% |
|
2002 |
|
57.5% |
|
2003 and thereafter |
|
The greater of 60%
or the district's state share percentage |
The payments made under division (D)(3) of this section each
year
shall be calculated based on all of the same prior year's
data used to update
the formula.
(4) In addition to funds paid under divisions (D)(2)
and (3)
of this section, a school district shall receive a
rough road
subsidy if
both of the following apply:
(a) Its county rough road percentage is higher than the
statewide
rough road percentage, as those terms are defined in
division
(D)(5) of this section;
(b) Its district student density is
lower than the statewide
student density, as those terms are defined in
that division.
(5) The rough road subsidy paid to each district meeting
the
qualifications of division (D)(4) of this section shall
be
calculated in accordance with the following formula:
(per rough mile subsidy X total rough road miles) X
density multiplier
(a) "Per rough mile subsidy" equals the amount calculated in
accordance with the following formula:
0.75 - {0.75 X [(maximum rough road
percentage -county rough road percentage)/(maximum rough road percentage -
statewide rough road percentage)]}
(i) "Maximum rough road percentage" means the highest county
rough road percentage in the state.
(ii) "County rough road percentage" equals the percentage of
the mileage of state, municipal, county, and township roads that
is rated by
the department of transportation as
type A, B, C, E2,
or F in the
county in which the school district is located
or, if
the district is located in more than one county, the county
to
which it is assigned for purposes of determining its
cost-of-doing-business factor.
(iii) "Statewide rough road percentage" means the percentage
of
the statewide total mileage of state, municipal, county, and
township roads
that is rated as type A, B, C, E2, or
F by the
department of transportation.
(b) "Total rough road miles" means a school district's total
bus
miles traveled in one year times its county rough road
percentage.
(c) "Density multiplier" means a figure calculated in
accordance
with the following formula:
1 - [(minimum student density - district student
density)/(minimum student density -
statewide student density)](i) "Minimum student density" means the lowest district
student
density in the state.
(ii) "District student density" means a school district's
transportation base divided by the number of square miles in the
district.
(iii) "Statewide student density" means the sum of the
transportation bases for all school districts divided by the sum
of the square
miles in all school districts.
(6) In addition to funds paid under divisions
(D)(2) to (5)
of this section, each district
shall receive in accordance with
rules adopted by the state board of education
a payment for
students transported by
means other than board-owned or
contractor-operated buses and whose
transportation is not funded
under division (J) of section 3317.024
of the Revised Code. The
rules shall include
provisions for school district reporting of
such students.
(E)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state
vocational
education additional weighted costs funds to each
school district in
accordance with the following formula:
state share percentage X
the formula amount X
total vocational education weight
In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds under
division (E)(1) of this section shall spend those funds only for
the purposes that the department designates as approved for
vocational
education expenses.
(2) The department shall compute for each school
district
state funds for vocational education associated services in
accordance with the following formula:
state share percentage X .05 X
the formula amount X the sum of categories one and two
vocational education ADM
In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds under
division (E)(2) of this section, or through a transfer of funds
pursuant to division (L) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code,
shall spend
those funds only for
the purposes that the department
designates as approved for vocational
education associated
services expenses, which may
include such purposes as
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other
vocational
education services, vocational
evaluation, and other purposes
designated by the department. The
department may deny payment
under division (E)(2) of this section to
any district that the
department determines is not operating those services or
is using
funds paid under
division (E)(2) of this section, or through a
transfer of funds
pursuant to division (L) of section 3317.023 of
the Revised Code, for other
purposes.
(F) Beginning in fiscal year 2003, the actual local share in
any fiscal year for the
combination of special education and
related services additional
weighted costs funding calculated
under division (C)(1) of this
section, transportation funding
calculated under divisions (D)(2)
and (3) of this section, and
vocational education and associated
services additional weighted
costs funding calculated under
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this
section shall not exceed for any
school district the product of
three mills times the district's
recognized valuation. Beginning
in fiscal year 2003, the department annually shall pay
each
school
district as an excess cost supplement any amount by
which
the sum
of the district's attributed local shares for that
funding
exceeds
that product. For purposes of calculating the
excess cost
supplement:
(1) The attributed local share for special education and
related services additional weighted costs funding is the amount
specified in division (C)(2) of this section.
(2) The attributed local share of transportation funding
equals the difference of the total amount calculated for the
district using the formula developed under division (D)(2) of this
section minus the actual amount paid to the district after
applying the percentage specified in division (D)(3) of this
section.
(3) The attributed local share of vocational education and
associated services additional weighted costs funding is the
amount determined as follows:
(1 - state share percentage) X[(total vocational education weight X the formula amount) +the payment under division (E)(2) of this section]
Sec. 3317.023. (A) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of
the
Revised Code, the amounts required to be paid to a district
under
this chapter shall be adjusted by the amount
of the computations
made under divisions (B) to
(L)(M) of this
section.
(1)
"Classroom teacher" means a licensed employee who
provides direct instruction to pupils, excluding teachers funded
from money paid to the district from federal sources; educational
service personnel; and vocational and special education teachers.
(2)
"Educational service personnel" shall not include such
specialists funded from money paid to the district from federal
sources or assigned full-time to vocational or special education
students and classes and may only include those persons employed
in the eight specialist areas in a pattern approved by the
department of education under guidelines established by the state
board of education.
(3)
"Annual salary" means the annual base salary stated in
the state minimum salary schedule for the performance of the
teacher's regular teaching duties that the teacher earns for
services rendered for the first full week of October of the
fiscal
year for which the adjustment is made under division
(C) of this
section. It shall not include any salary payments for
supplemental teachers contracts.
(4)
"Regular student population" means the formula ADM
plus
the number of students reported as enrolled in the district
pursuant
to division (A)(1) of section 3313.981 of the Revised
Code;
minus the number of students reported under
division (A)(2)
of section 3317.03 of the Revised
Code; minus the FTE of students
reported under
division (B)(5), (6), (7), (8),
(9), (10), (11),
or (12) of
that
section who are enrolled
in a vocational education
class or
receiving special education;
and minus one-fourth of the
students
enrolled concurrently in a joint
vocational school
district.
(5)
"State share percentage"
has the same
meaning
as in
section
3317.022
of the Revised Code.
(6)
"VEPD" means a school district or group of school
districts
designated by the department of education as being
responsible for the
planning for and provision of vocational
education
services to students within the district or group.
(7)
"Lead district" means a school district, including a
joint
vocational school district, designated by the department as
a
VEPD, or designated to provide primary vocational education
leadership within a VEPD composed of a group of districts.
(B) If the district employs less than one full-time
equivalent classroom teacher for each twenty-five pupils in
the
regular student population in any school district, deduct the sum
of the amounts obtained
from the following computations:
(1) Divide the number of the district's full-time
equivalent
classroom teachers employed by one twenty-fifth;
(2) Subtract the quotient in (1) from the district's
regular
student population;
(3) Multiply the difference in (2) by seven hundred
fifty-two dollars.
(C) If a positive amount, add one-half of the amount
obtained by multiplying the number of full-time equivalent
classroom teachers by:
(1) The mean annual salary of all full-time equivalent
classroom teachers employed by the district at their respective
training and experience levels minus;
(2) The mean annual salary of all such teachers at their
respective levels in all school districts receiving payments
under
this section.
The number of full-time equivalent classroom teachers used
in
this computation shall not exceed one twenty-fifth of the
district's regular student population. In calculating
the
district's mean salary under
this division, those full-time
equivalent classroom teachers with
the highest training level
shall be counted first, those with the
next highest training level
second, and so on, in descending
order. Within the respective
training levels, teachers with the
highest years of service shall
be counted first, the next highest
years of service second, and so
on, in descending order.
(D) This division does not apply to a school district that
has entered into an agreement under division (A) of section
3313.42 of the Revised Code. Deduct the amount obtained from the
following computations if the district employs fewer than five
full-time equivalent educational service personnel, including
elementary school art, music, and physical education teachers,
counselors, librarians, visiting teachers, school social workers,
and school nurses for each one thousand pupils in the
regular
student population:
(1) Divide the number of full-time equivalent educational
service personnel employed by the district by five
one-thousandths;
(2) Subtract the quotient in (1) from the district's
regular
student population;
(3) Multiply the difference in (2) by ninety-four dollars.
(E) If a local school district, or a city or exempted
village school district to which a governing board of
an
educational service center provides services
pursuant to section
3313.843 of the Revised
Code, deduct the amount of the payment
required for the
reimbursement of the governing board under
section 3317.11 of the Revised
Code.
(F)(1) If the district is required to pay to or entitled
to
receive tuition from another school district under division
(C)(2)
or (3) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the
Revised Code,
or if the superintendent of public instruction is
required to
determine the correct amount of tuition and make a
deduction or
credit under section 3317.08 of the Revised Code,
deduct and
credit such amounts as provided in division (I) of
section 3313.64
or section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.
(2) For each child for whom the district is responsible
for
tuition or payment under division (A)(1) of section 3317.082 or
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, deduct
the amount of tuition
or payment for which the district is responsible.
(G) If the district has been certified by the
superintendent
of public instruction under section 3313.90 of the
Revised Code as
not in compliance with the requirements of that
section, deduct an
amount equal to ten per cent of the amount
computed for the
district under section 3317.022 of the Revised
Code.
(H) If the district has received a loan from a
commercial
lending institution for which payments are made by the
superintendent of public instruction pursuant to division (E)(3)
of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, deduct an amount equal
to
such payments.
(I)(1) If the district is a party to an agreement entered
into under division (D), (E), or (F) of section 3311.06 or
division (B) of section 3311.24 of the Revised Code and is
obligated to make payments to another district under such an
agreement, deduct an amount equal to such payments if the
district
school board notifies the department in writing that it
wishes to
have such payments deducted.
(2) If the district is entitled to receive payments from
another district that has notified the department to deduct such
payments under division (I)(1) of this section, add the
amount of
such payments.
(J) If the district is required to pay an amount of funds
to
a cooperative education district pursuant to a provision
described
by division (B)(4) of section 3311.52 or division
(B)(8) of
section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, deduct such
amounts as
provided under that provision and credit those amounts
to the
cooperative education district for payment to the district
under
division (B)(1) of section 3317.19 of the Revised Code.
(K)(1) If a district is educating a student entitled to
attend
school in another district pursuant to a shared education
contract, compact,
or cooperative education agreement other than
an agreement entered into
pursuant to section 3313.842 of the
Revised Code, credit to
that educating district on an FTE basis
both of the following:
(a) An amount equal to the formula amount times the cost of
doing
business factor of the school district where the student is
entitled to attend
school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65
of the Revised
Code;
(b) An amount equal to the formula amount times the state
share
percentage times any multiple applicable to the student
pursuant to section
3317.013 or 3317.014 of the Revised Code.
(2) Deduct any amount credited pursuant to division (K)(1)
of
this section from amounts paid to the school district in which
the student is
entitled to attend school pursuant to section
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the
Revised Code.
(3) If the district is required by a shared education
contract, compact,
or cooperative education agreement to make
payments to an educational service
center, deduct the amounts from
payments to the district and add them to the
amounts paid to the
service center pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised
Code.
(L)(1) If a district, including a joint vocational school
district, is a lead district of a VEPD, credit to that district
the amounts calculated for all the school districts within that
VEPD pursuant to division (E)(2) of section
3317.022 of the
Revised Code.
(2) Deduct from each appropriate district that is not a lead
district, the amount attributable to that district that is
credited to a
lead district under division (L)(1) of this section.
(M) If the department pays a joint vocational school district under division (G)(4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special education and related services to a handicapped student, as calculated under division (G)(2) of that section, the department shall deduct the amount of that payment from the city, local, or exempted village school district that is responsible as specified in that section for the excess costs.
Sec. 3317.024. In addition to the moneys paid to eligible
school districts pursuant to section
3317.022 of the Revised Code,
moneys
appropriated for the education programs in divisions (A) to
(H), (J) to (L),
(O), (P), and (R) of this
section shall be
distributed to school districts meeting
the requirements of
section 3317.01 of the Revised Code;
in the case of divisions (J)
and (P) of this
section, to educational service centers as
provided in section
3317.11 of the Revised Code; in the case of
divisions (E),
(M), and (N) of this section, to
county MR/DD
boards; in the case of division (R)
of this section,
to joint
vocational school districts; in the
case of division (K) of this
section, to
cooperative education school districts; and in the
case of division (Q) of
this section, to the institutions defined
under section 3317.082 of the
Revised Code providing elementary or
secondary education programs to children
other than children
receiving special education under section 3323.091 of the
Revised
Code. The following shall be distributed monthly, quarterly, or
annually as may be determined by the state board of education:
(A) A per pupil amount to each school district that
establishes a summer school remediation program that complies
with
rules of the state board of education.
(B) An amount for each island school district and each
joint
state school district for the operation of each high school
and
each elementary school maintained within such district and
for
capital improvements for such schools. Such amounts shall be
determined on the basis of standards adopted by the state board
of
education.
(C) An amount for each school district operating classes
for
children of migrant workers who are unable to be in
attendance in
an Ohio school during the entire regular school
year. The amounts
shall be determined on the basis of standards
adopted by the state
board of education, except that payment
shall be made only for
subjects regularly offered by the school
district providing the
classes.
(D) An amount for each school district with guidance,
testing, and counseling programs approved by the state board of
education. The amount shall be determined on the basis of
standards adopted by the state board of education.
(E) An amount for the emergency purchase of school buses
as
provided for in section 3317.07 of the Revised Code;
(F) An amount for each school district required to pay
tuition for a child in an institution maintained by the
department
of youth services pursuant to section 3317.082 of the
Revised
Code, provided the child was
not included in the calculation of
the district's average daily
membership for the preceding school
year.
(G) In fiscal year 2000 only, an amount to each school
district for supplemental salary allowances for each licensed
employee except
those licensees serving as superintendents,
assistant superintendents, principals, or assistant principals,
whose term of
service in any year is extended beyond the term of
service of regular
classroom teachers, as described in section
3301.0725 of the Revised
Code;
(H) An amount for adult basic literacy education for each
district participating in programs approved by the state board of
education. The amount shall be determined on the basis of
standards adopted by the state board of education.
(I) Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, but
only until
June 30, 1999,
to each city, local, and exempted
village school district, an
amount for
conducting driver education
courses at high schools for which the
state board of education
prescribes minimum standards and to
joint vocational and
cooperative education school
districts and educational service
centers, an amount for conducting
driver education courses to
pupils enrolled in a high school for
which the state board
prescribes minimum standards. No
payments shall be made under
this division after June 30, 1999.
(J) An amount for the approved cost of transporting
developmentally handicapped pupils whom it is impossible or
impractical to transport by regular school bus in the course of
regular route transportation provided by the district or service
center. No district or service center is eligible to receive a
payment under this division for
the cost of transporting any pupil
whom it transports by regular
school bus and who is included in
the district's transportation
ADM. The state board of education
shall establish
standards and guidelines for use by the department
of education
in determining the approved cost of such
transportation for each
district or service center.
(K) An amount to each school district, including each
cooperative education school district, pursuant to section
3313.81
of the Revised Code to assist in providing free lunches
to needy
children and an amount to assist needy school districts
in
purchasing necessary equipment for food preparation. The
amounts
shall be determined on the basis of rules adopted by the
state
board of education.
(L) An amount to each school district, for each pupil
attending a chartered nonpublic elementary or high school within
the district. The amount shall equal the amount appropriated for
the implementation of section 3317.06 of the Revised Code divided
by the average daily membership in grades kindergarten through
twelve in nonpublic elementary and high schools within the state
as determined during the first full week in October of each
school
year.
(M) An amount for each county MR/DD board,
distributed on
the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education,
for the approved cost of transportation required for children
attending special education programs operated by the county MR/DD
board under section 3323.09 of the Revised Code;
(N) An amount for each county MR/DD board,
distributed on
the basis of standards adopted by the state board of education,
for supportive home services for preschool children;
(O) An amount for each school district that establishes a
mentor teacher program that complies with rules of the state
board
of education. No school district shall be required to establish
or
maintain such a program in any year unless sufficient funds are
appropriated
to cover the district's total costs for the program.
(P) An amount to each school district or educational service
center for the total number of gifted units approved pursuant to
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code. The amount for each such
unit shall be the sum of the minimum salary for the teacher of
the
unit, calculated on the basis of the teacher's training
level and
years of experience pursuant to
the salary schedule prescribed in
the version of section 3317.13 of the Revised Code
in effect prior
to
the
effective date of this amendment
July 1, 2001,
plus fifteen
per cent of
that minimum salary
amount, plus two thousand six
hundred
seventy-eight
dollars.
(Q) An amount to each
institution defined under section
3317.082 of the
Revised Code providing elementary or
secondary
education to children other than children receiving
special
education under section 3323.091 of the
Revised Code. This amount
for any
institution in any fiscal year shall equal the total of
all
tuition amounts required to be paid to the institution under
division (A)(1) of section
3317.082 of the Revised Code.
(R) A grant to each school district and joint vocational
school
district that operates a "graduation, reality, and
dual-role skills"
(GRADS) program for pregnant and parenting
students that is
approved by the department. The amount of the
payment shall be the district's
state share
percentage, as defined
in section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of the
Revised Code, times the
GRADS
personnel allowance times the full-time-equivalent number of
GRADS
teachers approved by the department. The GRADS personnel
allowance is
$46,260 $47,555 in fiscal
years 2002 and 2003 year 2004.
The state board of education or any other board of
education
or governing board may provide for any resident of a district
or
educational service center territory any
educational service for
which funds are made available to the
board by the United States
under the authority of public law,
whether such funds come
directly or indirectly from the United
States or any agency or
department thereof or through the state
or any agency, department,
or political subdivision thereof.
Sec. 3317.029. (A) As used in this section:
(1)
"DPIA percentage" means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004, the quotient
obtained by
dividing
the five-year average number of children
ages
five to
seventeen
residing in the school district and
living in a
family
receiving
assistance
under the Ohio works first
program or
an antecedent program known as TANF or ADC, as
certified or
adjusted
under
section 3317.10
of the Revised Code,
by the
district's
three-year
average formula
ADM.
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the
unduplicated number of children ages five to seventeen residing in
the school district and living in a family that has family income
not exceeding the federal poverty guidelines and that receives
family assistance, as certified or adjusted under section 3317.10
of the Revised Code, divided by the district's three-year average
formula ADM.
(2)
"Family assistance" means assistance received under
one
of
the
following:
(a) The
Ohio works first program;
(b) The food stamp program;
(c) The medical assistance program, including the healthy
start program, established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised
Code;
(d) The children's health insurance program part I
established under section 5101.50 of the Revised Code or, prior to
fiscal year 2000, an executive order issued under section 107.17
of the Revised Code;
(e) The disability financial assistance program established under
Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(f) The disability medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
(3)
"Statewide DPIA
percentage" means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004, the five-year
average
of the total number of
children ages five to seventeen
years
residing in the state and
receiving
assistance
under
the
Ohio works first program or an antecedent program known as
TANF or
ADC, divided by
the
sum of the three-year average formula
ADMs
for
all school
districts in the state.
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the
total unduplicated number of children ages five to seventeen
residing in the state and living in a family that has family
income not exceeding the federal poverty guidelines and that
receives family assistance, divided by the sum of the three-year
average formula ADMs for all school districts in the state.
(4)
"DPIA index"
means the quotient obtained by dividing the
school district's DPIA percentage
by the statewide DPIA
percentage.
(5)
"Federal poverty
guidelines" has the same meaning as in
section 5101.46 of the
Revised Code.
(6) "DPIA student count" means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004, the
five-year
average number of children ages five to seventeen
residing in the
school district and living in a family receiving
assistance under
the Ohio works first program or an antecedent
program known as
TANF or ADC, as certified under section 3317.10
of the Revised
Code;
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the
unduplicated number of children ages five to seventeen residing in
the school district and living in a family that has family income
not exceeding the federal poverty guidelines and that receives
family assistance, as certified or adjusted under section 3317.10
of the Revised Code.
(7) "Kindergarten ADM" means the number of
students reported
under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as enrolled in
kindergarten.
(8)
"Kindergarten through third grade
ADM" means the
amount
calculated as follows:
(a) Multiply the kindergarten
ADM by the sum of one plus the
all-day
kindergarten percentage;
(b) Add the number of students in grades one through three;
(c) Subtract from the sum calculated under division
(A)(6)(b) of this section the
number of special education students
in grades kindergarten
through three.
(9)
"Statewide average teacher salary" means
forty-two
thousand
four hundred
sixty-nine
dollars in
fiscal year
2002,
and
forty-three
forty-four thousand
six eight hundred
fifty-eight eighty dollars
in
fiscal
year
2003 2004,
which
includes an amount for the
value of
fringe
benefits.
(10)
"All-day kindergarten" means a
kindergarten class
that
is
in session five days per week for not
less than the same
number
of
clock hours each day as for pupils
in grades one through
six.
(11)
"All-day kindergarten percentage" means the
percentage
of
a
district's actual total number of students
enrolled in
kindergarten who are
enrolled in all-day kindergarten.
(12)
"Buildings with the highest concentration of need"
means:
(a) In fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2004,
the school
buildings in a district with percentages of
students
in grades
kindergarten
through three
receiving
assistance under Ohio works
first
at least as high as the
district-wide percentage of
students
receiving
such
assistance.
(b) Beginning in fiscal year 2004, the school buildings in
a
district with percentages of students in grades kindergarten
through three receiving family assistance at least as high as the
district-wide percentage of students receiving family assistance.
(c) If, in any fiscal year, the
information
provided by the
department of
job and family services
under
section 3317.10 of the
Revised
Code is insufficient to
determine
the
Ohio works first or
family assistance percentage in each building,
"buildings with
the
highest concentration of need" has the
meaning
given in rules
that
the department of education shall
adopt. The
rules shall
base the
definition of
"buildings with
the highest
concentration
of need"
on family income of students in
grades
kindergarten
through three
in a manner that, to the extent
possible
with
available data,
approximates the intent of this
division
and
division (G) of this
section to designate buildings
where the
Ohio works first or
family assistance
percentage in those grades equals or
exceeds the
district-wide
Ohio works first or
family assistance percentage.
(B) In addition to the
amounts required to be paid to a
school district under section
3317.022 of the Revised Code, a
school district shall
receive the greater of the amount the
district received in fiscal
year 1998 pursuant to division (B) of
section
3317.023 of the Revised Code as it
existed at that time or
the sum of the
computations made under divisions (C) to (E) of
this section.
(C) A supplemental payment that may be utilized for measures
related to safety and security and for remediation or similar
programs,
calculated as follows:
(1) If the DPIA index
of the school district is greater than
or equal to
thirty-five-hundredths, but less than one, an amount
obtained by
multiplying the
district's DPIA student
count by two
hundred thirty
dollars;
(2) If the DPIA index
of the school district is greater than
or equal to one,
an amount obtained by multiplying the
DPIA index
by two
hundred thirty dollars and multiplying that product by the
district's DPIA student count.
Except as otherwise provided in division (F) of this section,
beginning with the school year that starts July 1, 2002, each
school district annually shall use at least twenty per cent of the
funds calculated for the district under this division for
intervention services required by section 3313.608 of the Revised
Code.
(D) A payment for all-day kindergarten if the
DPIA index of
the school district is greater
than or equal to one
or if the
district's three-year average formula ADM exceeded
seventeen
thousand five hundred, calculated by
multiplying the all-day
kindergarten percentage
by the
kindergarten ADM and multiplying
that product by the formula
amount.
(E) A class-size
reduction payment based on calculating the
number of new
teachers necessary to achieve a lower
student-teacher
ratio, as follows:
(1) Determine or calculate a formula number of teachers per
one
thousand students based on the
DPIA index of the school
district as follows:
(a) If the DPIA
index of the school district is less than
six-tenths, the
formula number of teachers is 43.478, which is the
number of
teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher
ratio
of twenty-three to one;
(b) If the DPIA index of the school
district is greater than
or equal to six-tenths, but less than
two and one-half, the
formula number of teachers is calculated as
follows:
43.478 + {[(DPIA index-0.6)/
1.9] X 23.188}Where 43.478 is the number of teachers per one thousand
students at a student-teacher ratio of twenty-three to one; 1.9
is
the interval from a DPIA
index of six-tenths to a
DPIA index of
two and
one-half; and 23.188 is the difference in the number of
teachers per one thousand students at a student-teacher ratio of
fifteen to one and the number of teachers per one thousand
students at a student-teacher ratio of twenty-three to
one.
(c) If the DPIA
index of the school district is greater than
or equal to
two and one-half, the formula number of teachers is
66.667,
which is the number of teachers per one thousand students
at a
student-teacher ratio of fifteen to one.
(2) Multiply the formula number of teachers determined or
calculated in
division (E)(1) of this section by the
kindergarten
through third grade ADM for the district and divide that
product
by one thousand;
(3) Calculate the number of new teachers as follows:
(a) Multiply the kindergarten through third grade ADM
by
43.478, which is the
number of teachers per one thousand students
at a student-teacher ratio of
twenty-three to one, and divide that
product by one thousand;
(b) Subtract the quotient obtained in
division (E)(3)(a) of
this section
from the product in division (E)(2) of this section.
(4) Multiply the greater of the difference obtained under
division (E)(3) of this section
or zero by the statewide average
teachers salary.
(F) This division applies only to school districts whose
DPIA index is one or greater.
(1) Each school district subject to this division shall
first utilize
funds received under this section so that, when
combined with other funds
of the district, sufficient funds exist
to provide all-day
kindergarten to at least the number of children
in the district's all-day
kindergarten percentage.
(2) Up to an amount equal to the district's DPIA index
multiplied by
its DPIA student count multiplied by
two hundred
thirty
dollars of the money
distributed under
this
section may be
utilized for one or both of the
following:
(a) Programs designed to ensure that
schools are free of
drugs and violence and have a disciplined
environment conducive to
learning;
(b) Remediation for students who have
failed or are in
danger of failing any of the tests
administered
pursuant to
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.
Beginning with the school year that starts on July 1, 2002,
each school district shall use at least twenty per cent of the
funds set aside for the purposes of divisions (F)(2)(a) and (b) of
this section to provide intervention services required by section
3313.608 of the Revised Code.
(3) Except as otherwise required by division (G) or
permitted under division (K) of this section,
all other funds
distributed under this section to districts subject to
this
division shall be utilized for the purpose of
the third grade
guarantee. The third grade guarantee consists
of increasing the
amount of
instructional attention received per pupil in
kindergarten
through third grade, either by reducing the ratio of
students to
instructional personnel or by increasing the amount of
instruction and curriculum-related activities by extending the
length of the school day or the school year.
School districts may implement a reduction of the ratio of
students to instructional personnel through any or all of the
following methods:
(a) Reducing the number of students in a
classroom taught by
a single teacher;
(b) Employing full-time educational aides or
educational
paraprofessionals issued a permit or license under
section
3319.088 of the Revised Code;
(c) Instituting a team-teaching method
that will result in a
lower student-teacher ratio in a classroom.
Districts may extend the school day either by increasing
the
amount of time allocated for each class, increasing the
number of
classes provided per day, offering optional academic-related
after-school programs, providing curriculum-related
extra
curricular activities, or establishing tutoring or
remedial
services for students who have demonstrated an
educational need.
In accordance with section 3319.089 of the Revised Code, a
district
extending the school day pursuant to this division may
utilize a participant
of the work experience program who has a
child enrolled in a public school in
that district and who is
fulfilling the work requirements of that program by
volunteering
or working in that public school. If the work experience program
participant is compensated, the school district may use the funds
distributed
under this section for all or part of the
compensation.
Districts may extend the school year either through adding
regular days of instruction to the school calendar or by
providing
summer programs.
(G) Each district subject to division
(F) of this section
shall not expend any funds
received under division (E) of this
section in
any school buildings that are not buildings with the
highest concentration of
need, unless there is a ratio of
instructional personnel to students of no
more than fifteen to one
in each kindergarten and first grade class in all
buildings with
the highest concentration of need.
This division does not require
that the funds used in
buildings with the highest concentration of
need be spent solely
to reduce the ratio of instructional
personnel to students in
kindergarten and first grade. A school
district may spend the
funds in those buildings in any manner
permitted by division
(F)(3) of this section, but may
not spend
the money in other buildings unless the fifteen-to-one ratio
required by this division is attained.
(H)(1) By the first day of August of each fiscal year, each
school district wishing to receive any funds under division (D)
of
this section shall submit to the department of
education an
estimate of its
all-day kindergarten percentage.
Each district
shall update its estimate throughout the
fiscal year in the form
and manner required by the department,
and the department shall
adjust payments under this section to
reflect the updates.
(2) Annually by the end of December, the department of
education, utilizing data from the information system
established
under section 3301.0714
of the Revised Code and after consultation
with the
legislative office of education oversight, shall
determine for each school district subject to division (F) of
this
section whether in the preceding fiscal year the
district's ratio
of instructional personnel to students and its number
of
kindergarten students receiving all-day kindergarten appear
reasonable, given the amounts of money the district
received for
that fiscal year pursuant to divisions (D) and (E) of
this
section. If the department is unable to verify from the
data
available that students are receiving reasonable amounts of
instructional attention and all-day kindergarten, given the funds
the district
has received under this section
and that class-size
reduction
funds are being used in school buildings with the
highest concentration of
need as required by division (G) of this
section, the
department shall conduct a more intensive
investigation to
ensure that funds have been expended as required
by this
section. The department shall file an annual report of
its findings under
this division with the chairpersons of the
committees in each house of the
general assembly dealing with
finance and education.
(I) Any school district with a DPIA index less than one
and
a three-year average formula ADM exceeding seventeen thousand five
hundred shall first utilize funds received
under
this section so
that,
when combined with other funds of the
district,
sufficient
funds
exist to provide all-day kindergarten
to at least the
number
of
children in the district's all-day
kindergarten
percentage.
Such
a district shall expend at least
seventy per
cent of the
remaining
funds received under this
section, and
any other
district with a
DPIA
index less than
one shall expend at
least
seventy per cent of
all funds received
under this
section, for any
of the following
purposes:
(1) The purchase of technology for
instructional purposes;
(2) All-day kindergarten;
(3) Reduction of class sizes;
(4) Summer school remediation;
(5) Dropout prevention programs;
(6) Guaranteeing that all third graders are
ready to
progress to more advanced work;
(7) Summer education and work programs;
(8) Adolescent pregnancy programs;
(9) Head start or preschool programs;
(10) Reading improvement programs described
by the
department of education;
(11) Programs designed to ensure that schools
are free of
drugs and violence and have a disciplined
environment conducive to
learning;
(12) Furnishing, free of charge, materials used in
courses
of instruction, except for the necessary textbooks
or electronic
textbooks required to be furnished without charge pursuant to
section 3329.06 of the Revised Code, to pupils living in families
participating in Ohio works first in accordance with section
3313.642 of the Revised Code;
(13) School breakfasts provided pursuant to section
3313.813
of the Revised Code.
Each district shall submit to the department, in such format
and at such
time as the department shall specify, a report on the
programs for which it
expended funds under this division.
(J) If at any time the superintendent of public instruction
determines that a school district receiving funds
under division
(D) of this section has enrolled less than the all-day
kindergarten
percentage reported for that fiscal year, the
superintendent
shall withhold from the funds otherwise due the
district under
this section a proportional amount as determined by
the difference in the
certified all-day
kindergarten percentage
and the percentage actually enrolled in
all-day kindergarten.
The superintendent shall also withhold an appropriate amount
of funds
otherwise due a district for any other misuse of funds
not in accordance with
this section.
(K)(1) A district may use a portion of the funds calculated
for
it under division (D) of this section to modify or purchase
classroom space to provide all-day kindergarten, if both of the
following
conditions are met:
(a) The district certifies to the department, in a manner
acceptable to the department, that it has a shortage of space for
providing all-day kindergarten.
(b) The district provides all-day kindergarten to the number
of children in
the all-day kindergarten percentage it certified
under this section.
(2) A district may use a portion of the funds described in
division (F)(3) of this section to modify or purchase classroom
space to enable it to further reduce class size in grades
kindergarten through two with a goal of attaining class sizes of
fifteen students per licensed teacher. To do so, the district
must certify its need for additional space to the department, in a
manner satisfactory to the department.
Sec. 3317.03. Notwithstanding divisions
(A)(1), (B)(1), and
(C) of this section, any
student enrolled in kindergarten more
than half time shall be reported as
one-half student under this
section.
(A) The superintendent of each city and exempted
village
school district and of each educational service center shall,
for
the schools under the superintendent's supervision,
certify to the
state board of
education on or before the fifteenth day of October
in each year for
the first full school week in October the formula
ADM,
which shall consist of the average daily membership during
such week of the
sum of the following:
(1) On an FTE basis, the number of
students in grades
kindergarten through twelve receiving any educational
services
from the district,
except that the following categories of
students shall not be
included in the determination:
(a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;
(b) Adjacent or other district students enrolled in the
district under an open enrollment policy pursuant to section
3313.98 of the Revised Code;
(c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to
a compact,
cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who
are entitled to attend
school in another district pursuant to
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the
Revised Code;
(d) Students for whom tuition is
payable pursuant to
sections 3317.081 and 3323.141 of the
Revised Code.
(2) On an FTE basis, the number of
students entitled to
attend school in the district pursuant to
section 3313.64 or
3313.65 of the
Revised Code, but receiving educational
services in
grades kindergarten through twelve from one or more of the
following entities:
(a) A community school pursuant to Chapter
3314. of the
Revised Code, including any participation in a college
pursuant to
Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community
school;
(b) An alternative school pursuant to sections 3313.974 to
3313.979 of the Revised Code as described in division
(I)(2)(a) or
(b) of this section;
(c) A college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code,
except
when the student is enrolled in the college while also
enrolled in a community
school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the
Revised Code;
(d) An adjacent or other
school district under an open
enrollment policy adopted pursuant
to section 3313.98 of the
Revised Code;
(e) An educational service
center or cooperative education
district;
(f) Another school district
under a cooperative education
agreement, compact, or contract.
(3) One-fourth of the number of students enrolled in a joint
vocational school district or under a vocational education
compact,
excluding any students
entitled to attend school in the
district under section 3313.64 or
3313.65 of the Revised Code who
are enrolled in another
school district through an open enrollment
policy as reported under
division (A)(2)(d) of this section and
then enroll in
a joint vocational school district or under a
vocational education
compact;
(4) The number of handicapped children, other than
handicapped preschool children, entitled to attend school in the
district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the
Revised
Code who are placed with a
county MR/DD board, minus the
number of
such children placed with a county
MR/DD board in fiscal year
1998. If this calculation produces a negative number, the
number
reported under division
(A)(4) of this section shall be
zero.
(B) To enable the
department of education to obtain the data
needed to complete
the calculation of payments pursuant to this
chapter, in
addition to the formula ADM, each
superintendent shall
report separately the following student
counts:
(1) The total average daily membership in regular day
classes included in the report under division (A)(1) or (2) of
this
section for kindergarten, and each of grades one through
twelve in
schools under the
superintendent's supervision;
(2) The number of all handicapped
preschool
children
enrolled as of the first day of
December in classes in the
district that are eligible for approval by the state board of
education
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised
Code
and the number of those classes, which shall be reported not
later than the
fifteenth day of December, in accordance with rules
adopted under
that section;
(3) The number of children entitled to attend school in
the
district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the
Revised
Code who are participating in a
pilot project scholarship program
established under sections
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised
Code as described in division
(I)(2)(a) or (b) of this section,
are enrolled in a college under Chapter
3365. of the Revised Code,
except when the
student is enrolled in the college while also
enrolled in a community school
pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the
Revised Code, are enrolled in an adjacent or
other school district
under section 3313.98 of the Revised Code,
are enrolled in a
community school
established under Chapter 3314.
of the Revised
Code, including any participation in a college
pursuant to Chapter
3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community
school,
or are participating in a
program operated by a county MR/DD board
or a state
institution;
(4) The number of pupils enrolled in joint vocational
schools;
(5) The average daily membership of
handicapped children
reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this
section receiving
special education
services
for the category one
handicap described
in division (A)
of section 3317.013 of the
Revised Code;
(6) The average daily membership of handicapped children
reported under
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving
special
education services
for category two
handicaps
described
in division
(B)
of section 3317.013 of the
Revised Code;
(7) The average daily membership of handicapped children
reported under
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section
receiving
special education services for
category three handicaps
described
in division
(C)
of
section
3317.013
of the Revised Code;
(8)
The average daily
membership of handicapped children
reported under division (A)(1)
or (2) of this section receiving
special education services for
category four handicaps described
in division (D) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(9) The average daily membership of handicapped children
reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving
special education services for the category five handicap
described
in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(10) The average daily membership of handicapped children
reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section receiving
special education services for category six handicaps described in
division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(11) The average daily membership of pupils reported under
division
(A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category one
vocational education programs or classes, described in division
(A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by the
school
district or by another district, other than a joint
vocational school
district, or by an educational service center;
(12) The average daily membership of pupils reported
under
division
(A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category
two
vocational
education programs or services, described in
division
(B) of section
3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by
the
school district or another school district,
other than a joint
vocational school district, or by an educational service
center;
(13) The average number of
children transported by the
school district on board-owned or contractor-owned and -operated
buses,
reported in accordance with rules adopted by
the department
of education;
(14)(a) The number of children, other than
handicapped
preschool children, the district placed with a
county MR/DD board
in fiscal
year 1998;
(b) The number of handicapped children, other than
handicapped preschool children, placed with a county
MR/DD board
in the current
fiscal year to receive
special
education services
for the category one handicap
described in
division (A) of
section
3317.013
of the Revised
Code;
(c) The number of handicapped children, other than
handicapped preschool children, placed with a county
MR/DD board
in the current
fiscal year to receive
special
education services
for category two handicaps
described in
division (B) of
section
3317.013
of the Revised
Code;
(d) The number of handicapped children, other than
handicapped preschool children, placed with a county
MR/DD board
in the current
fiscal year to receive
special
education
services
for category three handicaps described in
division
(C) of section
3317.013 of the Revised
Code;
(e) The number of handicapped children, other than
handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board
in the current fiscal year to receive special education services
for category four handicaps described in division (D) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(f) The number of handicapped children, other than
handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board
in the current fiscal year to receive special education services
for the category five handicap described in division (E) of
section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(g) The number of handicapped children, other than
handicapped preschool children, placed with a county MR/DD board
in the current fiscal year to receive special education services
for category six handicaps described in division (F) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section for
kindergarten students, the average daily membership in divisions
(B)(1) to
(12) of this section shall be based
upon the number
of
full-time equivalent students. The state board of
education
shall
adopt rules defining full-time equivalent students and for
determining the average daily membership therefrom
for the
purposes of divisions (A), (B), and
(D) of this section.
(2) A student enrolled in a community school established
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code shall be counted in the
formula ADM and, if applicable, the category one, two, three,
four, five, or six
special education ADM of the school district in
which the student
is entitled to attend school under section
3313.64 or 3313.65 of
the Revised Code for the same proportion of
the school year that
the student is counted in the enrollment of
the community school
for purposes of section 3314.08 of the
Revised Code.
(3) No child
shall be
counted as more than a total of one
child in the
sum of
the average daily memberships of a
school
district under division
(A), divisions
(B)(1) to
(12), or division
(D) of this
section,
except as follows:
(a) A child with a handicap described in section 3317.013
of
the Revised Code may be
counted both in formula
ADM and in
category one, two,
three,
four, five, or six
special education
ADM and, if applicable, in
category one or two
vocational
education
ADM. As provided in
division (C) of section
3317.02 of
the Revised Code,
such a child
shall be counted in
category one,
two,
three, four, five, or
six special education
ADM in the same
proportion that the child is
counted in formula
ADM.
(b) A child enrolled in vocational education programs or
classes described
in section
3317.014 of the Revised Code
may be
counted both in formula ADM and
category one or two
vocational
education ADM and, if applicable, in
category one, two,
three,
four, five, or six
special education ADM. Such a child
shall be
counted in category
one or two vocational education ADM
in
the
same proportion as the
percentage of time that the child
spends in
the
vocational
education programs or classes.
(4) Based on the information reported
under this section,
the
department of education shall determine the total
student
count,
as defined in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, for
each
school district.
(D)(1) The superintendent of each joint vocational school
district
shall certify to
the superintendent of public instruction
on or before the fifteenth
day of October in each year for the
first full school week in
October the formula ADM, which, except
as otherwise provided in this division, shall
consist of
the
average daily
membership during such week, on an
FTE basis, of the
number of
students receiving any educational
services from the
district,
including students enrolled in a
community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised
Code who are attending the joint vocational district under an
agreement between the district board of education and the
governing authority of the community school and are entitled to
attend school in a city, local, or exempted village school
district whose territory is part of the territory of the joint
vocational district.
The following categories
of students shall not be
included
in the determination
made under division (D)(1) of this section:
(a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;
(b) Adjacent or other district joint vocational students
enrolled
in the district under an open enrollment policy pursuant
to section
3313.98 of the Revised Code;
(c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant
to
a compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who
are
entitled to attend school in a city, local, or
exempted
village school district whose territory is not part of
the
territory of the joint vocational district;
(d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to
sections
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code.
(2) To enable the department of education to obtain the data
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this
chapter,
in addition to the formula ADM, each superintendent shall
report
separately the average daily membership included in the
report under division
(D)(1) of this section for each of the
following categories of
students:
(a) Students enrolled in each grade included in the joint
vocational district schools;
(b) Handicapped children receiving
special
education
services
for the category one handicap described in
division (A)
of section 3317.013
of the Revised Code;
(c) Handicapped children receiving
special
education
services
for the category two handicaps described in
division (B)
of section 3317.013
of the Revised Code;
(d) Handicapped children
receiving special education
services for category three
handicaps
described in division
(C)
of section
3317.013 of the
Revised Code;
(e)
Handicapped children
receiving special education services
for category four handicaps
described in division (D) of section
3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(f) Handicapped children receiving special education
services for the category five handicap described in division (E)
of
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(g) Handicapped children receiving special education
services for category six handicaps described in division (F) of
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(h)
Students receiving category one vocational education
services, described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the
Revised Code;
(i) Students receiving category two vocational education
services, described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the
Revised Code.
The superintendent of each joint vocational school district
shall also indicate the city, local, or
exempted village school
district in which each
joint vocational district pupil is entitled
to attend school
pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the
Revised Code.
(E) In each school of each city, local, exempted village,
joint vocational, and cooperative education school district there
shall be maintained a record of school membership, which record
shall accurately show, for each day the school is in session, the
actual membership enrolled in regular day classes. For the
purpose of determining average daily membership, the membership
figure of any school shall not include any pupils except those
pupils described by division (A) of this section. The
record of
membership for each school shall be maintained in such
manner that
no pupil shall be counted as in membership prior to
the actual
date of entry in the school and also in such
manner that where for
any cause a pupil permanently withdraws
from the school that pupil
shall not be counted as in
membership from and
after the date of
such withdrawal. There shall not be included
in the membership of
any school any of the following:
(1) Any pupil who has graduated from
the twelfth grade of a
public high school;
(2) Any pupil who is not a resident of the state;
(3) Any pupil who was enrolled in the schools
of the
district during the previous school year when tests were
administered under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did
not take one or more of the tests required by that section and
was
not excused pursuant to division (C)(1) of that section;
(4) Any pupil who has attained the age of twenty-two years,
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course
of
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the
armed forces and who apply for reenrollment in the public school
system of their residence not later than four years after
termination of war or their honorable discharge.
If, however, any veteran described by
division (E)(4) of
this
section elects to
enroll in special courses organized for
veterans
for whom tuition is paid under the provisions of federal
laws, or
otherwise, that veteran shall not be included in
average
daily
membership.
Notwithstanding division (E)(3) of this section, the
membership of any school may include a pupil who did not take a
test required by section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code if the
superintendent of public instruction grants a waiver from the
requirement to take the test to the specific pupil. The
superintendent may grant such a waiver only for good cause in
accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education.
Except as provided in
divisions (B)(2)
and (F) of
this section,
the
average daily membership figure of any local,
city,
exempted
village, or joint vocational school district shall
be
determined
by dividing
the figure representing the sum of the
number of
pupils enrolled during each
day the school of attendance
is
actually open for
instruction during the first full school week
in
October by the total number
of days the school was actually
open
for instruction during that
week. For purposes of state
funding,
"enrolled" persons are only
those pupils who are
attending school,
those who have attended
school during the
current school year and
are absent for
authorized reasons, and
those handicapped children
currently
receiving home instruction.
The average daily membership figure of any cooperative
education school
district shall be determined in accordance with
rules adopted by the state
board of education.
(F)(1) If the formula ADM for the first full school
week in
February is at
least three per cent greater than that certified
for the first
full school week in the preceding October, the
superintendent of
schools of any city, exempted village, or joint
vocational school district
or educational service center shall
certify such increase to the
superintendent of public
instruction.
Such certification shall be submitted no later than
the fifteenth
day of February. For the balance of the fiscal
year, beginning
with the February payments, the superintendent of
public
instruction shall use the increased formula
ADM in calculating or
recalculating the amounts to be allocated in
accordance with
section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of
the Revised
Code. In no event
shall the superintendent use an increased
membership certified to
the superintendent after the
fifteenth day of February.
(2) If on the first school day of April the total number
of
classes or units for handicapped
preschool children that
are
eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05
of the
Revised Code exceeds the number of units
that have been approved
for the year under that division, the
superintendent of schools of
any city, exempted village,
or cooperative education school
district or educational
service center shall make the
certifications required by this
section for that day. If the
state board of education
department determines additional units can be
approved for the
fiscal year within any limitations set forth in
the acts
appropriating moneys for the funding of such units,
the
board department shall approve additional units for the fiscal year on
the
basis of such average daily membership. For each unit so
approved, the department of education shall pay an amount
computed
in the manner prescribed in section
3317.052 or 3317.19
and
section
3317.053 of the Revised Code.
(3) If a student attending a community school under Chapter
3314. of the Revised Code is not included in the formula ADM
certified for the first full school week of October for the school
district in which the student is entitled to attend school under
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the department of
education shall adjust the formula ADM of that school district to
include the community school student in accordance with division
(C)(2) of this section, and shall recalculate the school
district's payments under this chapter for the entire fiscal year
on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. This requirement
applies regardless of whether the student was enrolled, as defined
in division (E) of this section, in the community school during
the first full school week in October.
(G)(1)(a) The superintendent of an institution operating a
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the
Revised Code shall, for the programs under such
superintendent's
supervision,
certify to the state board of education the average
daily
membership of all handicapped children in classes or
programs
approved annually by the state board department of education, in the
manner prescribed
by the superintendent of public instruction.
(b) The superintendent of an
institution with vocational
education units approved under
division (A) of section 3317.05 of
the Revised
Code shall, for the units under
the superintendent's
supervision, certify to the state board of
education the average
daily membership in those units, in the
manner prescribed by the
superintendent of public
instruction.
(2) The superintendent of each county MR/DD board that
maintains special education classes
under section 3317.20 of the
Revised Code or units approved by the state
board of education
pursuant to section
3317.05 of the Revised Code shall
do both of
the following:
(a) Certify to the state board, in the
manner prescribed by
the board, the average daily
membership in classes
under section
3317.20 of
the Revised Code for each
school district that has
placed children
in the classes;
(b) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by
the
board, the number of all handicapped preschool children
enrolled as of
the first day of December in classes eligible for
approval
under division (B) of
section 3317.05 of the Revised
Code, and the number of those
classes.
(3)(a)
If on the first school day of
April the number of
classes or units maintained for handicapped preschool
children by
the county MR/DD board
that are eligible for approval under
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the
Revised Code is greater
than the number of units approved for the year under
that
division,
the superintendent shall make the
certification required
by this section for that day.
(b) If the state board department determines that additional classes
or
units can be
approved for the fiscal year within any
limitations
set forth in
the acts appropriating moneys for the
funding of the
classes and units described in division (G)(3)(a)
of this
section, the board department shall approve and
fund
additional units for the
fiscal year on the basis of such average
daily membership. For
each
unit so approved, the department of
education shall pay an
amount
computed in the manner prescribed in
sections
3317.052 and
3317.053 of the Revised
Code.
(H) Except as provided in division (I)
of this section, when
any city, local, or exempted village school
district provides
instruction for a nonresident pupil whose
attendance is
unauthorized attendance as defined in section
3327.06 of the
Revised Code, that pupil's membership shall not be
included in
that district's membership figure used in the
calculation of that
district's formula
ADM or included in the determination of any
unit approved for
the district under section 3317.05 of the
Revised Code. The
reporting official shall report separately the
average daily
membership of all pupils whose attendance in the
district is
unauthorized attendance, and the membership of each
such pupil
shall be credited to the school district in which the
pupil is
entitled to attend school under division (B) of section
3313.64
or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code as determined by
the
department of education.
(I)(1) A city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational
school
district admitting
a scholarship student
of a pilot project
district pursuant to division (C) of section 3313.976
of the
Revised Code may count such student in its average daily
membership.
(2) In any year for which funds are appropriated for pilot
project
scholarship programs, a school district implementing a
state-sponsored pilot
project scholarship program that year
pursuant to
sections 3313.974
to
3313.979 of the Revised
Code
may count in average daily membership:
(a) All children residing in the district and utilizing a
scholarship to attend kindergarten in any alternative school, as
defined in
section 3313.974 of the Revised Code;
(b) All children who were enrolled in the district in the
preceding year who are utilizing a scholarship to attend any such
alternative
school.
(J) The superintendent of each cooperative education school
district shall certify to the superintendent of public
instruction, in a
manner prescribed by the state board of
education, the applicable average
daily memberships for all
students in the cooperative education district, also
indicating
the city, local, or exempted village district where each pupil is
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the
Revised
Code.
Sec. 3317.032. (A) Each city, local, exempted
village, and cooperative education school district, each
educational service center, each county
MR/DD board, and each institution operating a special education
program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the Revised Code shall,
in accordance with procedures adopted by the state board of
education, maintain a record of district membership of both of
the following:
(1) All handicapped preschool children in units
approved
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code;
(2) All handicapped preschool children who are not in
units approved by the state board under division (B) of
section
3317.05 of the Revised Code but who are otherwise served by a
special education program.
(B) The superintendent of each district, board, or
institution subject to division (A) of this section shall certify
to the state board of education, in accordance with procedures
adopted by that board, membership figures of all handicapped
preschool children whose membership is maintained under division
(A)(2) of this section. The figures certified under this
division shall be used in the determination of
the ADM used to compute funds for
educational
service center governing boards under division (B) of
section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.05. (A) For the purpose of calculating
payments
under sections
3317.052 and
3317.053 of the
Revised Code, the
state board department of
education shall determine for
each institution, by
the last day of
January of each year and
based on information
certified under
section 3317.03 of the
Revised Code, the number of
vocational education units or
fractions of units
approved by the
state board department on the basis of
standards
and rules adopted by the
state board of education. As used in this
division,
"institution" means an
institution operated by a
department specified in
section 3323.091
of the Revised Code and
that provides
vocational education
programs under the supervision
of the
division of vocational
education of the department of
education
that meet the standards
and rules for these programs,
including
licensure of professional
staff involved in the
programs, as
established by the state board
of education.
(B) For the purpose of calculating payments
under sections
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11,
and 3317.19 of
the
Revised Code, the
state board department shall
determine, based
on
information certified under
section 3317.03 of the Revised
Code,
the following by the last day
of January of each
year for each
educational
service center, for
each school district, including
each
cooperative education school
district, for each institution
eligible for payment under section
3323.091 of
the Revised Code,
and for each county MR/DD board:
the
number of
classes operated
by the school district, service
center,
institution, or
county
MR/DD board for
handicapped
preschool
children, or fraction
thereof, including in the case of
a district
or service center
that is a funding agent, classes
taught by a
licensed teacher
employed by that district or service
center under
section
3313.841
of the Revised Code, approved
annually by the
state
board department on the
basis of standards and rules
adopted by
the
state board.
(C) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11,
and 3317.19 of
the
Revised
Code, the
state board department shall determine, based on
information certified
under
section 3317.03 of the Revised
Code,
the following by the last
day
of January of each year for
each
school district, including each
cooperative education
school
district, for each institution
eligible for payment under
section
3323.091 of the Revised Code,
and for each county
MR/DD board:
the
number of
preschool
handicapped related services units for
child
study,
occupational,
physical, or speech and hearing
therapy,
special
education
supervisors, and special education
coordinators
approved annually
by the state board department on the basis
of
standards and
rules adopted by
the state board.
(D) For the purpose of
calculating payments under sections
3317.052 and
3317.053 of the
Revised Code, the
state board department shall
determine, based on
information certified under
section 3317.03 of
the Revised
Code, the following by the last day
of January of each
year for
each institution
eligible for payment
under section
3323.091 of the
Revised Code:
(1) The number of classes operated by an institution
for
handicapped
children other than handicapped
preschool children, or
fraction
thereof, approved annually by the
state board department on
the
basis of standards and rules adopted by the
state board;
(2) The number of related services units for children
other
than handicapped preschool children for child study,
occupational,
physical, or speech and hearing therapy, special
education
supervisors, and special education coordinators
approved annually
by the state board department on the basis
of standards and rules adopted by
the state board.
(E) All of the arithmetical calculations made under this
section shall be carried to the second decimal place. The total
number of units for school districts, service
centers, and
institutions
approved annually by the state board under this
section shall not exceed
the number of units included in the state
board's estimate of
cost for these units and
appropriations made
for them by the
general assembly.
In the case of units described in division
(D)(1) of this
section operated by
institutions
eligible
for payment under
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code,
the state
board department shall
approve only units for persons
who are under age
twenty-two on the
first day of the academic
year, but not less
than six years of age
on the thirtieth day of
September of that
year, except that such a
unit may
include one or more children who
are under six years of
age on
the thirtieth day of September if
such children have been
admitted to the unit pursuant to rules of
the state
board. In the
case of handicapped preschool units
described in division (B) of
this section operated by
county MR/DD
boards and
institutions
eligible for payment under section
3323.091 of the
Revised Code,
the state board department shall approve only
preschool units
for children
who are under age six but not less
than age three on
the thirtieth first
day of September December of the academic
year, except that
such a unit may
include one or more children who
are under age
three or are age
six or over on the thirtieth first day of
September December, as reported under division (B)(2) or (G)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, if
such children
have been admitted to the unit pursuant
to rules of
the state
board of education. The number of units for
county MR/DD
boards
and institutions eligible
for payment under
section 3323.091 of
the Revised Code approved
by the state board
under this section
shall not exceed the number that
can be funded
with appropriations
made for such purposes by the general
assembly.
No unit shall be approved under divisions (B)
to (D) of this
section unless a plan has been submitted and
approved under
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.
(F) The department shall approve
units or fractions thereof
for gifted children on the basis of standards and
rules adopted by
the state board.
Sec. 3317.06. Moneys paid to school districts under
division
(L) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code shall
be used
for the
following independent and fully severable purposes:
(A) To purchase such secular textbooks or electronic
textbooks as have
been
approved by the superintendent of public
instruction for use in
public schools in the state and to loan
such textbooks or electronic
textbooks to pupils
attending
nonpublic schools within the district or to their
parents and to
hire clerical personnel to administer such lending
program. Such
loans shall be based upon individual requests
submitted by such
nonpublic school pupils or parents. Such
requests shall be
submitted to the school district in which the
nonpublic school is
located. Such individual requests for the
loan of textbooks or
electronic textbooks shall, for administrative
convenience, be
submitted by the nonpublic school pupil or the pupil's
parent to
the nonpublic school, which shall prepare and submit
collective
summaries of the individual requests to the school district. As
used in this section:
(1) "Textbook" means any book or book
substitute that a
pupil uses as a consumable or
nonconsumable text, text substitute,
or text
supplement in a
particular class or program in the school
the pupil regularly
attends.
(2) "Electronic textbook" means computer software,
interactive
videodisc, magnetic media, CD-ROM, computer
courseware,
local and remote computer assisted instruction,
on-line service, electronic
medium, or other means of conveying
information to the student or otherwise
contributing to the
learning process through electronic means.
(B) To provide speech and hearing diagnostic services to
pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such
service shall be provided in the nonpublic school attended by the
pupil receiving the service.
(C) To provide physician, nursing, dental, and optometric
services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the
district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended
by the nonpublic school pupil receiving the service.
(D) To provide diagnostic psychological services to pupils
attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services
shall be provided in the school attended by the pupil receiving
the service.
(E) To provide therapeutic psychological and speech and
hearing services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the
district. Such services shall be provided in the public school,
in nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units
located on
or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are
provided in the public
school or in public centers, transportation
to and from such facilities
shall be provided by the school
district in which the nonpublic
school is located.
(F) To provide guidance and counseling services to pupils
attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services
shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in
public centers, or
in mobile units located on or off of the
nonpublic premises. If such
services are provided in the public
school or in public centers,
transportation to and from such
facilities shall be provided by
the school district in which the
nonpublic school is located.
(G) To provide remedial services to pupils attending
nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be
provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public
centers, or in
mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic
premises. If such
services are provided in
the public school or
in public centers, transportation to and
from such facilities
shall be provided by the school district in
which the nonpublic
school is located.
(H) To supply for use by pupils attending nonpublic
schools
within the district such standardized tests and scoring
services
as are in use in the public schools of the state;
(I) To provide programs for children who attend nonpublic
schools within the district and are handicapped children as
defined in division (A) of section 3323.01 of the Revised Code or
gifted children. Such programs shall be provided in the public
school, in nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile
units located
on or
off of
the nonpublic premises. If such
programs are provided in the public school or
in public centers,
transportation to and from such facilities
shall be provided by
the school district in which the nonpublic
school is located.
(J) To hire clerical personnel to assist in the
administration of programs pursuant to divisions (B), (C), (D),
(E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to hire supervisory
personnel to supervise the providing of services and textbooks
pursuant to this section.
(K) To purchase
or lease any secular, neutral, and
nonideological
computer software (including site-licensing),
prerecorded
video
laserdiscs, digital video on demand (DVD),
compact discs, and
video cassette cartridges, wide area
connectivity and
related
technology as it relates to internet
access, mathematics or
science
equipment and
materials,
instructional materials, and
school library materials
that are in
general use in the public
schools of the
state and loan such items
to pupils attending
nonpublic schools within the district or to
their parents, and to
hire clerical personnel to administer the
lending program. Only
such items that are incapable of diversion
to
religious
use and
that are susceptible of loan to individual
pupils and are
furnished for the use of individual pupils shall be
purchased and
loaned under this division. As used in this
section,
"instructional
materials" means prepared learning
materials that
are secular, neutral, and
nonideological in
character and are of
benefit to the instruction of school
children, and may include
educational resources and services
developed by the
Ohio schoolnet
commission department of education.
(L) To purchase
or lease instructional equipment, including
computer
hardware and
related equipment in general use in the
public
schools of the state, for
use
by pupils attending nonpublic
schools within the district and to loan such items to pupils
attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their
parents, and to
hire clerical personnel to administer the lending
program.
(M) To purchase mobile units to be used for the
provision of
services
pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G),
and (I)
of this
section and to pay for necessary repairs and operating
costs
associated
with these units.
Clerical and supervisory personnel hired pursuant to
division
(J) of this section shall perform their services in the
public
schools, in nonpublic schools, public centers, or mobile units
where
the services are provided to the nonpublic school pupil,
except
that such personnel may accompany pupils to and from the
service sites when necessary to ensure the safety of the children
receiving the services.
All services provided pursuant to this section may be
provided under contract with
educational service centers,
the
department of health, city or general health districts, or
private
agencies whose personnel are properly licensed by an
appropriate
state board or agency.
Transportation of pupils provided pursuant to divisions
(E),
(F), (G), and (I) of this section shall be provided by the
school
district from its general funds and not from moneys paid
to it
under division (L) of section 3317.024 of the Revised
Code unless
a special transportation request is submitted by the
parent of the
child receiving service pursuant to such divisions.
If such an
application is presented to the school district, it
may pay for
the transportation from moneys paid to it under
division (L) of
section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.
No school district shall provide health or remedial
services
to nonpublic school pupils as authorized by this section
unless
such services are available to pupils attending the public
schools
within the district.
Materials, equipment, computer hardware or software,
textbooks,
electronic textbooks, and
health and remedial services
provided for the benefit of
nonpublic school pupils pursuant to
this section and the
admission of pupils to such nonpublic schools
shall be provided
without distinction as to race, creed, color, or
national origin
of such pupils or of their teachers.
No school district shall provide services, materials, or
equipment
that contain religious content for use in
religious
courses, devotional exercises, religious training, or
any other
religious activity.
As used in this section, "parent" includes a person
standing
in loco parentis to a child.
Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code,
payments
shall be made under this section to any city, local, or
exempted
village school district within which is located one or
more
nonpublic elementary or high schools
and any payments made to
school districts under division (L) of section 3317.024 of the
Revised Code for purposes of this
section may be disbursed without
submission to and approval of the
controlling board.
The allocation of payments for materials, equipment,
textbooks, electronic textbooks, health services, and remedial
services to city, local,
and exempted village school districts
shall be on the basis of
the state board of education's estimated
annual average daily
membership in nonpublic elementary and high
schools located in
the district.
Payments made to city, local, and exempted village school
districts under this section shall be equal to specific
appropriations made for the purpose. All interest earned by a
school district on such payments shall be used by the district
for
the same purposes and in the same manner as the payments may
be
used.
The department of education shall adopt guidelines and
procedures under which such programs and services shall be
provided, under which districts shall be reimbursed for
administrative costs incurred in providing such programs and
services, and under which any unexpended balance of the amounts
appropriated by the general assembly to implement this section
may
be transferred to the auxiliary services personnel
unemployment
compensation fund established pursuant to section
4141.47 of the
Revised Code. The department shall also adopt
guidelines and
procedures limiting the purchase and loan of
the items
described
in division (K) of
this section to items that are in general use
in the public
schools of the state, that are incapable of
diversion to
religious use, and that are susceptible to individual
use rather
than classroom use. Within thirty days after the end
of each
biennium, each board of education shall remit to the
department
all moneys paid to it under division (L) of section
3317.024 of the Revised Code and any interest earned on those
moneys that are
not required to pay expenses incurred under this
section during
the biennium for which the money was appropriated
and during
which the interest was earned. If a board of education
subsequently determines that the remittal of moneys leaves the
board with insufficient money to pay all valid expenses incurred
under this section during the biennium for which the remitted
money was appropriated, the board may apply to the department of
education for a refund of money, not to exceed the amount of the
insufficiency. If the department determines the expenses were
lawfully incurred and would have been lawful expenditures of the
refunded money, it shall certify its determination and the amount
of the refund to be made to the director of job and family
services who shall make a refund as
provided in section 4141.47 of
the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.064. (A) There is hereby established in the
state
treasury the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement and
repair reimbursement
fund. By the thirtieth day of January of each
odd-numbered
year,
the director of job and family services and the
superintendent
of
public instruction shall
determine the amount of
any excess moneys
in the auxiliary
services personnel unemployment
compensation fund
not reasonably
necessary for the purposes of
section 4141.47 of
the Revised
Code, and shall certify such amount
to the director of
budget and
management for transfer to the
auxiliary services
mobile unit
replacement and repair reimbursement fund. If
the director of
job
and family services and the
superintendent disagree on such
amount, the director of budget and
management shall
determine the
amount to be transferred.
(B) Moneys in the auxiliary services mobile unit
replacement
and repair reimbursement fund shall be used for the relocation or for the
replacement and
repair of mobile units used to provide the
services
specified in division (E), (F), (G), or (I) of section
3317.06 of the
Revised Code. The state
board of
education shall
adopt guidelines and procedures for
replacement, repair, and
relocation of mobile units and
the
procedures under which a
school
district may apply to receive
moneys with which to repair
or
replace or relocate such units.
(C) School districts may apply to the department for moneys
from the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement and repair reimbursement
fund for payment of incentives for early retirement and severance
for school district personnel assigned to provide services
authorized by section 3317.06 of the Revised Code at chartered
nonpublic schools. The portion of the cost of any early
retirement or severance incentive for any employee that is paid
using money from the auxiliary services mobile unit replacement
and repair reimbursement fund shall not exceed the percentage of such employee's
total service credit that the employee spent providing services
to chartered nonpublic school students under section 3317.06 of
the Revised Code.
Sec. 3317.07. The state board of education shall establish
rules for the purpose of distributing subsidies for the purchase
of school buses under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the
Revised Code.
No school bus subsidy payments shall be paid to any
district unless such district can demonstrate that pupils
residing more than one mile from the school could not be
transported without such additional aid.
The amount paid to a county MR/DD board for buses purchased
for transportation of children in special education programs
operated by the board shall be one hundred per cent of the
board's net cost.
The amount paid to a school district for buses purchased
for transportation of handicapped and nonpublic school pupils
shall be one hundred per cent of the school district's net cost.
The state board of education shall adopt a formula to
determine the amount of payments that shall be distributed to
school districts to purchase school buses for pupils other than
handicapped or nonpublic school pupils.
If any district or MR/DD board obtains bus services for
pupil transportation pursuant to a contract, such district or
board may use payments received under this section to defray the
costs of contracting for bus services in lieu of for purchasing
buses.
If the department of education determines that a county MR/DD board no longer needs a school bus because the board no longer transports children to a special education program operated by the board, or if the department determines that a school district no longer needs a school bus to transport pupils to a particular nonpublic school or special education program, the department may reassign a bus that was funded with payments provided pursuant to this section for the purpose of transporting such pupils. The department may reassign a bus to a county MR/DD board or school district that transports children to a special education program designated in the children's individualized education plans, or to a school district that transports pupils to a nonpublic school, and needs an additional school bus.
Sec. 3317.10. (A) On or before the first day of March of
each year, the department of job and family services
shall certify
to the
state board of education the
unduplicated number of
children ages five through
seventeen residing in each school
district and living in a family
that,
during the
preceding
October, had family income not exceeding the federal
poverty
guidelines as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised
Code and
participated in one of the following:
(2) The food stamp program;
(3) The medical assistance program, including the healthy
start program, established under Chapter
5111. of the Revised
Code;
(4) The children's health insurance program part I
established under section 5101.50 of the Revised Code;
(5) The disability financial assistance program established under
Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;
(6) The disability medical assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code.
The department of job and family services shall certify this
information
according to the school district of residence
for
each child. Except as provided under division (B) of this
section, the number of children so certified in any year shall be
used by
the department of education in calculating the
distribution of moneys for the ensuing fiscal year
as provided in
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code.
(B) Upon the transfer of part of the territory of one
school
district to the territory of one or more other school
districts,
the department of education may adjust the number
of children
certified under division (A) of this section for any
district
gaining or losing territory in such a transfer in order to take
into account the effect of the transfer on the number of
such
children
who reside in the district.
Within
sixty days of
receipt
of a request for information
from the
department of
education, the
department of job and family
services
shall
provide
any
information the department of education
determines is
necessary to
make such adjustments. The department
of education
may use the
adjusted number for any district for the
applicable
fiscal year,
in lieu of the number certified for the
district for
that fiscal
year under division (A) of this
section,
in the
calculation of the
distribution of moneys provided in
section
3317.029 of the Revised
Code.
Sec. 3317.11. (A) Annually, on or before a date designated
by the state
board of education, each educational service center
governing board shall prepare
a budget of operating expenses for
the ensuing year for the
service center on forms prepared and
furnished by the
state board of education and shall certify the
budget to the
state board of education, together with such other
information as
the board may require. Such budget shall consist
of two parts.
Part (A) shall include the cost of the salaries,
employers
retirement contributions, and travel expenses of
supervisory
teachers approved by the state board of education.
The
amount
derived from the calculation for such units in part (A)
of
the
governing board budget shall be the sum of:
(1) The sum of the minimum salaries calculated, pursuant
to
section 3317.13 of the Revised Code, for each approved
licensed
employee of the governing board;
(2) An additional salary allowance proportional to the
length of the extended term of service not to exceed three months
for each supervisory and child study teacher whose term of
service
in any year is extended beyond the terms of service of
regular
classroom teachers;
(3) An allowance equal to fifteen per cent of the amount
computed under division (A)(1) of this section;
(4) An allowance for necessary travel expenses, for each
of
the personnel approved in part (A) of the budget, limited to
two
hundred twenty-three dollars and sixteen cents per month, or
two
thousand six hundred seventy-eight dollars per year per
person
employed, whichever is the lesser.
Part (B) shall include
the cost of all other lawful
expenditures of the governing board. The state
board of education
shall review such budget and may approve, increase, or
decrease
such budget.
The governing board shall be reimbursed by the
state board of
education from state funds for the cost of part
(A) of the budget.
The governing board shall be reimbursed by the state
board of
education, from state funds for
the cost of part (B) of the
approved budget that is in excess of
six dollars and fifty cents
times the service center ADM. If
the governing board
provides
services to city or exempted village school districts
pursuant to
section 3313.843 of the Revised Code, the governing
board shall be
reimbursed from state funds for the cost of part
(B) of the budget
that is in excess of six dollars and fifty
cents times the sum of
the service center ADM and the
client ADMs of the city or exempted
village districts to which such services are provided. The cost
of part (B) not in excess of six dollars and fifty cents times
the
number of such ADM shall be apportioned by the state board of
education among the local school districts in the territory of the
service
center, or among all districts to
which the governing
board
provides services, on the basis of the total number of
pupils in
each school district.
If part (B) of the budget is in excess of that approved by
the state board of education, the excess cost shall be
apportioned
by the state board of education among the local
school districts
in the territory of the
service center on the basis of
the total
number of such pupils in each such school district,
provided that
a majority of the boards of education of such local
school
districts approve such apportionment. The state board of
education shall initiate and supervise the procedure by which the
local boards shall approve or disapprove such apportionment.
The amounts so apportioned shall be certified to the
treasurers of the various school districts. In the case of each
district such amount shall be deducted by the state board of
education from funds allocated to the district pursuant to
division (E) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.
The state board of education shall certify to the director
of
budget and management for payment the total of the deductions,
whereupon the amount shall be paid to the governing board
of each
service center, to be
deposited to the credit of a
separate fund,
hereby created, to be known as the educational
service center
governing board fund.
An educational service center may provide special
education
to students
in its local districts or in client districts. A
service center is
eligible for funding under division
(J) of
section 3317.024 of
the Revised Code and eligible for state
subsidies for the purchase of school buses under section 3317.07
of the Revised Code. Special education units for gifted
children
may be operated by a governing board. Vocational education may be
provided by a governing board. A
governing board may conduct
driver education for pupils
enrolled in a high school
in
accordance with Chapter 4508. of the Revised Code.
Every local school district shall be provided supervisory
services by its governing board as approved by the
state board of
education. A city or exempted village school
district shall be
considered to be provided supervisory services
by a governing
board if it has
entered into an agreement for the governing board
to
provide any services under section 3313.843 of the Revised
Code. Supervisory
services shall
not exceed one supervisory
teacher for the first fifty classroom
teachers employed in all
districts that are provided supervisory
services calculated under
section 3317.023 of the Revised Code
and one supervisory teacher
for every additional one hundred such
classroom teachers so
calculated. Reimbursement for such
supervisory services shall be
a deduction by the state board of
education from the payment to
the school district pursuant to
division (E) of section 3317.023
of the Revised Code. Deductions for all
supervisory services and
extended services for
supervisory and child study shall be
apportioned among local school districts within the territory of
the service
center and any city or exempted village districts that
have
entered into agreements with a service center pursuant to
section 3313.843 of the Revised Code by the state board of
education on the basis of the total number of pupils in each
school district, except that where such services are provided to
districts other than local school districts within the
service
center territory and city or exempted village districts having
agreements with the service center, such charges shall be
apportioned among
all participating districts on the basis of the
total number of
pupils in each school district. All deductions
from state
funding to school districts required for reimbursement
of
governing boards by division (E) of section 3317.023 of the
Revised Code shall be made from the total of the payment computed
for the
district
under this
chapter, after
making any other
adjustments in that payment required by law.
(B)(1) In addition to the payments made under division (A)
of
this section, except as otherwise provided in division
(C) of
this
section, the department of education shall pay each governing
board
thirty-seven dollars times
the sum of the
service
center
ADM and the sum of
the client ADMs of all its client
districts
in
fiscal
years 2002
and, 2003, and 2004.
(2) In addition to other payments under this section, the
department shall pay each educational service center the amounts
due to it
from school districts pursuant to contracts, compacts,
or agreements under
which the service center furnishes services to
the districts or their
students. In order to receive payment
under this division, an educational
service center shall furnish
either a copy of the applicable contract,
compact, or agreement
clearly indicating the amounts of the payments, or a
written
statement of the payments owed signed by the superintendent or
treasurer of the responsible school district.
The amounts paid to service centers under division (B)(2) of
this
section shall be deducted from payments to school districts
pursuant to
division (K)(2) of section 3317.023 of the Revised
Code.
(C) Each multicounty service center shall receive
a payment
each fiscal year
equal to forty dollars and
fifty-two cents times
the sum of the service center ADM
and the client ADMs of all its
client districts.
(D) Each city, exempted village, local, joint vocational,
or
cooperative education school district shall
pay to the governing
board of an educational service center any amounts agreed
to for
each child enrolled in the district who receives special education
and
related services or vocational education from the educational
service center.
(E) As used in this section:
(1)
"Service center ADM" means the
total of each of the
following for all local school districts within the
limits of an
educational service center's territory:
(b) The kindergarten average daily
membership included in
the formula ADM;
(c) Three-quarters of the number of students reported under
division (B)(4)
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code;
(d) The average daily membership of handicapped
preschool
children reported under division
(B)(2) of section 3317.03 of the
Revised Code;
(e) The number of preschool students certified under
division (B) of section 3317.032 of the Revised Code.
(2)
"Client ADM" means the total of
each number described
under divisions (E)(1)(a) to
(e) of this section for a client
district.
(3)
"Client district" means a city or exempted village
school
district
that has entered into an agreement to receive
services
from a service center
pursuant to section 3313.843 of the
Revised
Code.
(4)
"Multicounty service center" means a service center that
includes
territory that formerly was included in the territory of
at least three former
service centers or county school districts,
which former centers or districts
engaged in one or more mergers
pursuant to section 3311.053 of the
Revised Code to form the
present center.
Sec. 3317.16. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "State share percentage" means the percentage calculated
for a
joint vocational school district as follows:
(a) Calculate the state base cost funding amount for the
district
under
division (B) of this section. If the district
would not receive
any base cost funding for that year under that
division, the district's state
share percentage is zero.
(b) If the district would receive base cost funding under
that
division,
divide that base cost amount by an amount equal to
the following:
cost-of-doing-business factor Xthe formula amount Xthe greater of formula ADM orthree-year average formula ADMThe resultant number is the district's state share
percentage.
(2) The "total special education weight" for a joint
vocational
school district shall be calculated in the same manner
as prescribed in
division (B)(1) of section 3317.022 of the
Revised
Code.
(3) The "total vocational education weight" for a joint
vocational school district shall be calculated in the same manner
as
prescribed in division (B)(4) of section 3317.022 of the
Revised Code.
(4) The "total
recognized valuation"
of a joint vocational
school district shall be determined by
adding the
recognized
valuations of
all its constituent school districts for the
applicable fiscal
year.
(5) "Resident district" means the city, local, or exempted village school district in which a student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Community school" means a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.
(B) The department of education shall compute and distribute
state base cost funding to each joint vocational school district
for the
fiscal year in accordance with the following formula:
(cost-of-doing-business factor Xformula amount X the greater of formulaADM or three-year average formula ADM) -(.0005 X
total
recognized valuation)If the difference obtained under this division is a negative
number, the district's computation shall be zero.
(C)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state
vocational education additional weighted costs funds to each joint
vocational
school district in accordance with the following
formula:
state share percentage X formula amount Xtotal vocational education weight(2) The department shall compute for each joint
vocational
school district state funds for vocational education
associated
services costs in accordance with the following
formula:
state share percentage X .05 Xthe formula amount X the sum ofcategories one and two vocationaleducation ADMIn any fiscal year, a joint vocational school district
receiving
funds under division (C)(2) of this section, or through
a
transfer of funds pursuant to division (L)
of section 3317.023
of the Revised Code, shall spend those
funds only for the purposes
that the department designates as
approved for vocational
education associated services expenses,
which may include such
purposes as apprenticeship coordinators,
coordinators for other
vocational education services, vocational
evaluation, and other
purposes designated by the department. The
department may deny
payment under division (C)(2) of this section to
any district that
the department determines is not operating those services or
is
using funds paid under division (C)(2) of this section,
or through
a transfer of funds pursuant to division (L)
of section 3317.023
of the Revised Code, for other purposes.
(D)(1) The department shall compute and distribute state
special
education and related services additional weighted costs
funds to each joint
vocational school district in accordance with
the
following formula:
state share percentage X formula amount X
total special education weight(2)(a) As used in this division, the "personnel allowance"
means
thirty
thousand
dollars in fiscal
years 2002 and, 2003, and 2004.
(b) For the provision of speech services to students,
including students
who do not have individualized education
programs prepared for
them under Chapter 3323. of the Revised
Code, and for
no
other purpose, the department shall pay each
joint vocational
school district
an amount calculated
under the
following formula:
(formula ADM divided by 2000) X the personnelallowance X state share percentage
(3) In any fiscal year, a joint vocational school district shall spend for purposes that the department designates as approved for special education and related services expenses at least the amount calculated as follows:
(cost-of-doing-business factor X
formula amount X the sum of categories
one throughsix special education ADM) +(total special education weight X formula amount)
The purposes approved by the department for special education expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to, compliance with state rules governing the education of handicapped children, providing services identified in a student's individualized education program as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, and the portion of the district's overall administrative and overhead costs that are attributable to the district's special education student population.
The department shall require joint vocational school districts to report data annually to allow for monitoring compliance with division (D)(3) of this section. The department shall annually report to the governor and the general assembly the amount of money spent by each joint vocational school district for special education and related services.
(E)(2)(1) If a joint vocational school
district's costs for a
fiscal year for a student in its
categories one
two through six
special education
ADM
exceed the
threshold catastrophic cost for
serving the
student, as specified
in division (C)(3)(b) of section
3317.022 of
the Revised Code, the district may
submit to the
superintendent of
public
instruction
documentation,
as
prescribed
by the
superintendent, of
all of its costs for that
student. Upon
submission of
documentation for a student of the
type and in the
manner
prescribed, the department shall pay to the
district an
amount
equal to the
sum of the following:
(a) One-half of the district's costs for the student in
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;
(b) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the
student
in excess of
the threshold
catastrophic cost multiplied
by
the
district's state
share
percentage.
(2) The district shall only report
under division (E)(1) of
this section, and the department shall only
pay
for, the
costs of
educational expenses and the related
services provided
to
the
student in accordance with the student's
individualized
education
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or
other costs
associated
with any cause of action relating to the
student may
not be
included in the amount.
(F) Each fiscal year, the department shall pay each joint
vocational school district an amount for adult technical and
vocational
education and
specialized consultants.
(G)(1) A joint vocational school district's local share of
special
education and related services additional weighted costs
equals:
(1 - state share percentage) X
Total special education weight Xthe formula amount
(2) For each handicapped student receiving special education and related services under an individualized education program, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, at a joint vocational district, the resident district or, if the student is enrolled in a community school, the community school shall be responsible for the amount of any costs of providing those special education and related services to that student that exceed the sum of the amount calculated for those services attributable to that student under divisions (B), (D), (E), and (G)(1) of this section.
Those excess costs shall be calculated by subtracting the sum of the following from the actual cost to provide special education and related services to the student:
(a) The product of the formula amount times the cost-of-doing-business factor;
(b) The product of the formula amount times the applicable multiple specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;
(c) Any funds paid under division (E) of this section for the student;
(d) Any other funds received by the joint vocational school district under this chapter to provide special education and related services to the student, not including the amount calculated under division (G)(2) of this section.
(3) The board of education of the joint vocational school district shall report the excess costs calculated under division (G)(2) of this section to the department of education.
(4) The department shall pay the amount of excess cost calculated under division (G)(2) of this section to the joint vocational school district and shall deduct that amount as provided in division (G)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, as applicable:
(a) If the student is not enrolled in a community school, the department shall deduct the amount from the account of the student's resident district pursuant to division (M) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.
(b) If the student is enrolled in a community school, the department shall deduct the amount from the account of the community school pursuant to section 3314.083 of the Revised Code.
(H) In any fiscal year, if the total of all payments made to
a
joint vocational school district under divisions (B) to (D)
of
this section and division (R) of section 3317.024 of the Revised
Code is
less
than the amount that
district received in fiscal year
1999 under the version of this section in
effect that year, plus
the amount that district received under the version of
section
3317.162 of the Revised Code in effect that year and minus the
amounts received that
year for driver education and adult
education, the department shall pay the
district an additional
amount equal to the difference between those two
amounts.
Sec. 3317.50. The Ohio schoolnet telecommunity education fund is hereby
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of certain excess local
exchange telephone company contributions transferred from the reserve fund of
the Ohio telecommunications advisory board pursuant to an agreement
between the public utilities commission of Ohio and the Ohio
department of education. The fund shall be used to finance
technology grants to state-chartered elementary and secondary
schools. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to
the fund.
Sec. 3317.51. (A) The distance learning fund is hereby created
in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys paid to the
Ohio SchoolNet commission department of education by any telephone company as a part of a
settlement agreement between such company and the public utilities commission
in fiscal year 1995 in part to establish distance learning throughout the
state. The authority department shall administer the fund and expend
moneys from it to finance technology grants to eligible schools chartered by
the state board of education to
establish distance learning in those schools. Chartered schools are eligible
for funds if they are within the service area of the telephone company.
Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.
(B) For purposes of this section, "distance learning" means the
creation of a learning environment involving a school setting and at least one
other location outside of the school which allows for information available at
one site to be accessed at the other through the use of such educational
applications as one-way or two-way transmission of data, voice, and video,
singularly or in appropriate combinations.
Sec. 3319.22. (A) The state board of education shall adopt
rules
establishing the standards and requirements for obtaining
temporary,
associate, provisional, and professional educator
licenses of any categories,
types, and levels the board elects to
provide. However, no educator license
shall be required for
teaching children two years old or younger.
(B) Any rules the state board of education adopts, amends,
or rescinds for
educator licenses under this section, division (D)
of section 3301.07 of the
Revised Code, or any other law shall be
adopted, amended, or rescinded under
Chapter 119. of the Revised
Code
except as follows:
(1) Notwithstanding division (D) of
section 119.03 and
division (A)(1) of section
119.04 of the Revised Code, the
effective date of any rules, or
amendment or rescission of any
rules, shall not be as prescribed in division
(D) of section
119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the
Revised Code.
Instead, the
effective date
shall be
the date prescribed
by
section 3319.23 of the Revised Code.
(2) Notwithstanding the authority to adopt, amend, or
rescind emergency
rules in division (F) of section 119.03 of the
Revised Code,
this authority shall not apply to the state board of
education with regard to
rules for educator licenses.
(C)(1) The rules adopted under this section establishing
standards requiring
additional coursework for the renewal of any
educator license shall require a
school district and a chartered
nonpublic school to establish local
professional development
committees. In a nonpublic school, the chief
administrative
officer shall establish the committees in any manner acceptable
to
such officer. The committees established under this division
shall
determine whether coursework that a district or chartered
nonpublic school
teacher proposes to complete meets the
requirement of the rules. The rules
shall establish a procedure
by which a teacher may appeal the decision of a
local professional
development committee.
(2) In any school district in which there is no exclusive
representative
established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised
Code, the professional
development committees shall be established
as described in division (C)(2) of
this section.
Not later than the effective date of the rules adopted under
this section, the
board of education of each school district shall
establish the structure for
one or more local professional
development committees to be operated by such
school district.
The
committee structure so established by a district board
shall
remain in effect unless within thirty days prior to an anniversary
of
the date upon which the current committee structure was
established, the board
provides notice to all affected district
employees that the committee
structure is to be modified.
Professional development committees may have a
district-level or
building-level scope of operations, and may be
established
with
regard to particular grade or age levels for which an educator
license is
designated.
Each professional development committee shall consist of at
least three
classroom teachers employed by the district, one
principal employed by the
district, and one other employee of the
district appointed by the district
superintendent. For committees
with a building-level scope, the
teacher and
principal members
shall be assigned to that building, and the teacher members
shall
be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers assigned to
that
building. For committees with a district-level scope, the
teacher
members
shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom
teachers of the district,
and the principal member shall be
elected by a majority vote of the principals
of the district,
unless there are two or fewer principals employed by the
district,
in which case the one or two principals employed shall serve on
the
committee. If a committee has a particular grade or age level
scope, the
teacher members shall be licensed to teach such grade
or age levels, and shall
be elected by majority vote of the
classroom teachers holding such a license
and the principal shall
be elected by all principals serving in buildings
where any such
teachers serve. The district superintendent shall appoint a
replacement to fill any vacancy that occurs on a professional
development
committee, except in the case of vacancies among the
elected classroom teacher
members, which shall be filled by vote
of the remaining members of the
committee so selected.
Terms of office on professional development committees shall
be prescribed by
the district board establishing the committees.
The conduct of elections for
members of professional development
committees shall be prescribed by the
district board establishing
the committees. A professional development
committee may include
additional members, except that the majority of members
on each
such committee shall be classroom teachers employed by the
district.
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior
to the expiration date
of the term for which a predecessor was
appointed shall hold office as a
member for the remainder of that
term.
The initial meeting of any professional development
committee, upon election
and appointment of all committee members,
shall be called by a member
designated by the district
superintendent. At this initial meeting, the
committee shall
select a chairperson and such other officers the committee
deems
necessary, and shall adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings.
Thereafter, the committee shall meet at the call of the
chairperson or upon
the filing of a petition with the district
superintendent signed by a majority
of the committee members
calling for the committee to meet.
(3) In the case of a school district in which an exclusive
representative has
been established pursuant to Chapter 4117. of
the Revised Code, professional
development committees shall be
established in accordance with any collective
bargaining agreement
in effect in the district that includes provisions for
such
committees.
If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a
different method for
the selection of teacher members of the
committees, the exclusive
representative of the district's
teachers shall select the teacher members.
If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a
different structure
for the committees, the board of education of
the school district shall
establish the structure, including the
number of committees and the number of
teacher and administrative
members on each committee; the specific
administrative members to
be part of each committee; whether the scope of the
committees
will be district levels, building levels, or by
type of grade or
age
levels for which educator licenses are designated; the lengths
of terms for
members; the manner of filling vacancies on the
committees; and the frequency
and time and place of meetings.
However, in all cases, except as
provided in division (C)(4) of
this section, there shall be a
majority of teacher members of any
professional development committee, there
shall be at least five
total members of any professional development
committee, and the
exclusive representative shall designate replacement
members in
the case of vacancies among teacher members, unless the collective
bargaining agreement specifies a different method of selecting
such
replacements.
(4) Whenever an
administrator's coursework plan is being
discussed or voted
upon, the local professional development
committee shall, at the
request of one of its administrative
members, cause a majority
of the committee to consist of
administrative members by
reducing the number of teacher members
voting on the
plan.
(D)(1) The department of education, educational service
centers,
county boards of mental retardation and developmental
disabilities, regional professional development centers, special
education regional resource centers, college and university
departments of education, head start programs, the Ohio SchoolNet
commission, and the Ohio education computer network may establish
local professional development committees to determine whether the
coursework
proposed by their
employees who are licensed or
certificated under this section or section
3319.222 of the Revised
Code meet the requirements of the
rules adopted under this
section. They may establish local professional
development
committees on their own or in
collaboration with a school district
or other agency having authority to
establish them.
Local professional development committees established by
county
boards of mental retardation and developmental disabilities
shall be
structured in a manner comparable to the structures
prescribed for
school districts in divisions (C)(2) and (3) of
this section, as
shall the committees established by any other
entity specified in
division (D)(1) of this section that provides
educational
services by employing or contracting for services of
classroom teachers
licensed or
certificated under this section or
section 3319.222 of the Revised
Code. All other entities
specified in division (D)(1) of this
section shall structure their
committees in accordance with guidelines
which shall be issued by
the state board.
(2) Any public agency that is not specified in division
(D)(1) of
this section but provides educational services and
employs or
contracts for services of classroom teachers licensed
or
certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the
Revised
Code may establish a local professional development
committee,
subject to the approval of the department of education.
The committee shall
be structured in
accordance with guidelines
issued by the state board.
Sec. 3319.235. (A) The standards for the preparation of teachers adopted
under section 3319.23 of the Revised Code shall require any institution that
provides a course of study for the training of teachers to ensure that
graduates of such course of study are skilled at integrating educational
technology in the instruction of children, as evidenced by the graduate having
either demonstrated proficiency in such skills in a manner prescribed by the
department of education or completed a course that includes training in such
skills.
(B) The Ohio SchoolNet commission,
established pursuant to section 3301.80 of the Revised Code, department shall
establish model professional development programs to assist teachers who
completed their
teacher preparation prior to the effective date of division (A) of
this section to become skilled at integrating educational technology in the
instruction of children. The commission department shall provide
technical assistance to
school districts wishing to establish such programs.
Sec. 3323.16. No unit for deaf children shall be disapproved for funding
under division (B) or (D)(1) of section
3317.05 of the Revised Code on the basis of the
methods of instruction used in educational programs in the school district or
institution to teach deaf children to communicate, and no preference in
approving units for funding shall be given by the state board for teaching
deaf children by the oral, manual, total communication, or other method of
instruction.
Sec. 3332.04. The state board of
career colleges and schools may appoint
an executive
director and such other staff as may be required for the
performance of the board's duties and provide necessary
facilities. In
selecting an executive director, the board shall
appoint an individual with a
background or experience in the
regulation of commerce, business, or
education. The board may
also arrange for services and facilities to be
provided by the
state board of education and the Ohio board of regents. All
receipts of the board shall be deposited in the state treasury to
the credit
of the general revenue occupational licensing and regulatory fund.
Sec. 3333.12. (A) As used in this section:
(1)
"Eligible student" means an undergraduate student who
is:
(b) Enrolled in either of the following:
(i) An accredited institution of higher education in this
state that meets the requirements of Title VI of the Civil Rights
Act of 1964 and is state-assisted, is nonprofit and has a
certificate of authorization from the Ohio board of regents
pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code,
has a
certificate
of registration from the state board of
career colleges and schools and program authorization
to award an
associate or
bachelor's degree, or is a private
institution exempt
from
regulation under Chapter 3332. of the
Revised Code as
prescribed
in section 3333.046 of the Revised
Code. Students who
attend an
institution that holds a certificate
of registration
shall be
enrolled in a program leading to an
associate or
bachelor's
degree
for which associate or bachelor's
degree program
the
institution
has program authorization issued
under section
3332.05 of the
Revised Code.
(ii) A technical education program of at least two years
duration sponsored by a private institution of higher education
in
this state that meets the requirements of Title VI of the
Civil
Rights Act of 1964.
(c) Enrolled as a full-time student or enrolled as a less
than full-time student for the term expected to be the
student's
final term
of enrollment and is enrolled for the number of credit
hours
necessary to complete the requirements of the program in
which
the student is enrolled.
(2)
"Gross income" includes all taxable and nontaxable
income
of the parents, the student, and the student's spouse,
except
income derived from an Ohio academic scholarship,
income
earned by
the student between the last day of the spring
term and
the first
day of the fall term,
and other income exclusions
designated by
the board. Gross income
may be verified to the
board by the
institution in which the student is
enrolled using
the federal
financial aid eligibility verification
process
or by
other means
satisfactory to the board.
(3)
"Resident,"
"full-time student,"
"dependent,"
"financially independent," and
"accredited" shall be defined by
rules adopted by the board.
(B) The Ohio board of regents shall establish and
administer
an instructional grant program and may adopt rules to
carry out
this section. The general assembly shall support the
instructional grant program by such sums and in such manner as it
may provide, but the board may also receive funds from other
sources to support the program. If the amounts available for
support of the program are inadequate to provide grants to all
eligible students, preference in the payment of grants shall be
given in terms of income, beginning with the lowest income
category of gross income and proceeding upward by category to the
highest gross income category.
An instructional grant shall be paid to an eligible student
through the institution in which the student is enrolled,
except
that no
instructional grant shall be paid to any person serving a
term of
imprisonment. Applications for
such grants shall be made
as prescribed by the board, and
such applications may be made in
conjunction with and upon the
basis of information provided in
conjunction with student
assistance programs funded by agencies of
the United States
government or from financial resources of the
institution of
higher education. The institution shall certify
that the student
applicant meets the requirements set forth in
divisions (A)(1)(b)
and (c) of this section. Instructional grants
shall be provided
to an eligible student only as long as the
student is making
appropriate progress toward a nursing diploma or
an associate or
bachelor's degree. No
student shall be eligible
to receive a grant for more than ten
semesters, fifteen quarters,
or the equivalent of five academic
years. A grant made to an
eligible student on the basis of less
than full-time enrollment
shall be based on the number of credit
hours for which the student
is enrolled and shall be computed in
accordance with a formula
adopted by the board. No student
shall receive more than one
grant on the basis of less than
full-time enrollment.
An instructional grant shall not exceed the total
instructional and general charges of the institution.
(C) The tables in this division prescribe the maximum grant
amounts covering two semesters, three quarters, or a comparable
portion of one academic year. Grant amounts for additional
terms
in the same academic year shall be determined under
division (D)
of this section.
For a full-time student who is a dependent and
enrolled in a
nonprofit educational institution that is not a
state-assisted
institution and that has a certificate of
authorization issued
pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised
Code, the amount of the
instructional grant for
two semesters, three quarters, or a
comparable portion of
the academic year
shall be determined in
accordance with the following table:
Private InstitutionTable of Grants
|
Maximum Grant $5,466 |
| Gross Income |
Number of Dependents |
| $0 - $15,000 |
|
$5,466 |
|
$5,466 |
|
$5,466 |
|
$5,466 |
|
$5,466 |
| $15,001 - $16,000 |
|
4,920 |
|
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
| $16,001 - $17,000 |
|
4,362 |
|
4,920 |
|
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
| $17,001 - $18,000 |
|
3,828 |
|
4,362 |
|
4,920 |
|
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
| $18,001 - $19,000 |
|
3,288 |
|
3,828 |
|
4,362 |
|
4,920 |
|
5,466 |
| $19,001 - $22,000 |
|
2,736 |
|
3,288 |
|
3,828 |
|
4,362 |
|
4,920 |
| $22,001 - $25,000 |
|
2,178 |
|
2,736 |
|
3,288 |
|
3,828 |
|
4,362 |
| $25,001 - $28,000 |
|
1,626 |
|
2,178 |
|
2,736 |
|
3,288 |
|
3,828 |
| $28,001 - $31,000 |
|
1,344 |
|
1,626 |
|
2,178 |
|
2,736 |
|
3,288 |
| $31,001 - $32,000 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,344 |
|
1,626 |
|
2,178 |
|
2,736 |
| $32,001 - $33,000 |
|
984 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,344 |
|
1,626 |
|
2,178 |
| $33,001 - $34,000 |
|
888 |
|
984 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,344 |
|
1,626 |
| $34,001 - $35,000 |
|
444 |
|
888 |
|
984 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,344 |
| $35,001 - $36,000 |
|
-- |
|
444 |
|
888 |
|
984 |
|
1,080 |
| $36,001 - $37,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
444 |
|
888 |
|
984 |
| $37,001 - $38,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
444 |
|
888 |
| $38,001 - $39,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
444 |
For a full-time student who is financially independent and
enrolled in a nonprofit educational institution that is not a
state-assisted institution and that has a certificate of
authorization issued pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised
Code, the amount of the instructional grant for
two semesters,
three quarters, or a comparable portion of
the academic year
shall
be determined in accordance with the following table:
Private InstitutionTable of Grants
|
Maximum Grant $5,466 |
| Gross Income |
Number of Dependents |
| $0 - $4,800 |
$5,466 |
|
$5,466 |
|
$5,466 |
$5,466 |
$5,466 |
|
$5,466 |
| $4,801 - $5,300 |
4,920 |
|
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
5,466 |
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
| $5,301 - $5,800 |
4,362 |
|
4,920 |
|
5,466 |
5,466 |
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
|
|
|
5,196 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
| $5,801 - $6,300 |
3,828 |
|
4,362 |
|
4,920 |
5,466 |
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
|
|
|
4,914 |
|
5,196 |
|
|
|
|
| $6,301 - $6,800 |
3,288 |
|
3,828 |
|
4,362 |
4,920 |
5,466 |
|
5,466 |
|
|
|
4,650 |
|
4,914 |
5,196 |
|
|
|
| $6,801 - $7,300 |
2,736 |
|
3,288 |
|
3,828 |
4,362 |
4,920 |
|
5,466 |
|
|
|
4,380 |
|
4,650 |
4,914 |
5,196 |
|
|
| $7,301 - $8,300 |
2,178 |
|
2,736 |
|
3,288 |
3,828 |
4,362 |
|
4,920 |
|
|
|
4,104 |
|
4,380 |
4,650 |
4,914 |
|
5,196 |
| $8,301 - $9,300 |
1,626 |
|
2,178 |
|
2,736 |
3,288 |
3,828 |
|
4,362 |
|
|
|
3,822 |
|
4,104 |
4,380 |
4,650 |
|
4,914 |
| $9,301 - $10,300 |
1,344 |
|
1,626 |
|
2,178 |
2,736 |
3,288 |
|
3,828 |
|
|
|
3,546 |
|
3,822 |
4,104 |
4,380 |
|
4,650 |
| $10,301 - $11,800 |
1,080 |
|
1,344 |
|
1,626 |
2,178 |
2,736 |
|
3,288 |
|
|
|
3,408 |
|
3,546 |
3,822 |
4,104 |
|
4,380 |
| $11,801 - $13,300 |
984 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,344 |
1,626 |
2,178 |
|
2,736 |
|
|
|
3,276 |
|
3,408 |
3,546 |
3,822 |
|
4,104 |
| $13,301 - $14,800 |
888 |
|
984 |
|
1,080 |
1,344 |
1,626 |
|
2,178 |
|
|
|
3,228 |
|
3,276 |
3,408 |
3,546 |
|
3,822 |
| $14,801 - $16,300 |
444 |
|
888 |
|
984 |
1,080 |
1,344 |
|
1,626 |
|
|
|
2,904 |
|
3,228 |
3,276 |
3,408 |
|
3,546 |
| $16,301 - $19,300 |
-- |
|
444 |
|
888 |
984 |
1,080 |
|
1,344 |
|
|
|
2,136 |
|
2,628 |
2,952 |
3,276 |
|
3,408 |
| $19,301 - $22,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
444 |
888 |
984 |
|
1,080 |
|
|
|
1,368 |
|
1,866 |
2,358 |
2,676 |
|
3,000 |
| $22,301 - $25,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
444 |
888 |
|
984 |
|
|
|
1,092 |
|
1,368 |
1,866 |
2,358 |
|
2,676 |
| $25,301 - $30,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
-- |
444 |
|
888 |
|
|
|
816 |
|
1,092 |
1,368 |
1,866 |
|
2,358 |
| $30,301 - $35,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
-- |
-- |
|
444 |
|
|
|
492 |
|
540 |
672 |
816 |
|
1,314 |
For a full-time student who is a dependent and enrolled in
an
educational institution that holds a certificate of
registration
from the state board of
career
colleges and schools
or a
private institution exempt from
regulation under Chapter 3332. of
the Revised Code as prescribed
in section 3333.046 of the Revised
Code, the
amount of the
instructional grant for
two semesters,
three
quarters, or a
comparable portion of
the academic year shall
be
determined in
accordance with the
following table:
Career InstitutionTable of Grants
|
Maximum Grant $4,632 |
| Gross Income |
Number of Dependents |
| $0 - $15,000 |
|
$4,632 |
|
$4,632 |
|
$4,632 |
|
$4,632 |
|
$4,632 |
| $15,001 - $16,000 |
|
4,182 |
|
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
| $16,001 - $17,000 |
|
3,684 |
|
4,182 |
|
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
| $17,001 - $18,000 |
|
3,222 |
|
3,684 |
|
4,182 |
|
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
| $18,001 - $19,000 |
|
2,790 |
|
3,222 |
|
3,684 |
|
4,182 |
|
4,632 |
| $19,001 - $22,000 |
|
2,292 |
|
2,790 |
|
3,222 |
|
3,684 |
|
4,182 |
| $22,001 - $25,000 |
|
1,854 |
|
2,292 |
|
2,790 |
|
3,222 |
|
3,684 |
| $25,001 - $28,000 |
|
1,416 |
|
1,854 |
|
2,292 |
|
2,790 |
|
3,222 |
| $28,001 - $31,000 |
|
1,134 |
|
1,416 |
|
1,854 |
|
2,292 |
|
2,790 |
| $31,001 - $32,000 |
|
906 |
|
1,134 |
|
1,416 |
|
1,854 |
|
2,292 |
| $32,001 - $33,000 |
|
852 |
|
906 |
|
1,134 |
|
1,416 |
|
1,854 |
| $33,001 - $34,000 |
|
750 |
|
852 |
|
906 |
|
1,134 |
|
1,416 |
| $34,001 - $35,000 |
|
372 |
|
750 |
|
852 |
|
906 |
|
1,134 |
| $35,001 - $36,000 |
|
-- |
|
372 |
|
750 |
|
852 |
|
906 |
| $36,001 - $37,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
372 |
|
750 |
|
852 |
| $37,001 - $38,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
372 |
|
750 |
| $38,001 - $39,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
372 |
For a full-time student who is financially independent and
enrolled in an educational institution that holds a certificate
of
registration from the state board of
career colleges and schools
or a private institution
exempt from regulation under
Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as
prescribed in section
3333.046 of the Revised Code, the amount of
the instructional
grant for
two
semesters, three quarters, or a
comparable portion
of
the academic
year shall be determined in
accordance with the
following table:
Career InstitutionTable of Grants
|
Maximum Grant $4,632 |
| Gross Income |
Number of Dependents |
| $0 - $4,800 |
$4,632 |
|
$4,632 |
|
$4,632 |
$4,632 |
$4,632 |
|
$4,632 |
| $4,801 - $5,300 |
4,182 |
|
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
4,632 |
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
| $5,301 - $5,800 |
3,684 |
|
4,182 |
|
4,632 |
4,632 |
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
|
|
|
4,410 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
| $5,801 - $6,300 |
3,222 |
|
3,684 |
|
4,182 |
4,632 |
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
|
|
|
4,158 |
|
4,410 |
|
|
|
|
| $6,301 - $6,800 |
2,790 |
|
3,222 |
|
3,684 |
4,182 |
4,632 |
|
4,632 |
|
|
|
3,930 |
|
4,158 |
4,410 |
|
|
|
| $6,801 - $7,300 |
2,292 |
|
2,790 |
|
3,222 |
3,684 |
4,182 |
|
4,632 |
|
|
|
3,714 |
|
3,930 |
4,158 |
4,410 |
|
|
| $7,301 - $8,300 |
1,854 |
|
2,292 |
|
2,790 |
3,222 |
3,684 |
|
4,182 |
|
|
|
3,462 |
|
3,714 |
3,930 |
4,158 |
|
4,410 |
| $8,301 - $9,300 |
1,416 |
|
1,854 |
|
2,292 |
2,790 |
3,222 |
|
3,684 |
|
|
|
3,246 |
|
3,462 |
3,714 |
3,930 |
|
4,158 |
| $9,301 - $10,300 |
1,134 |
|
1,416 |
|
1,854 |
2,292 |
2,790 |
|
3,222 |
|
|
|
3,024 |
|
3,246 |
3,462 |
3,714 |
|
3,930 |
| $10,301 - $11,800 |
906 |
|
1,134 |
|
1,416 |
1,854 |
2,292 |
|
2,790 |
|
|
|
2,886 |
|
3,024 |
3,246 |
3,462 |
|
3,714 |
| $11,801 - $13,300 |
852 |
|
906 |
|
1,134 |
1,416 |
1,854 |
|
2,292 |
|
|
|
2,772 |
|
2,886 |
3,024 |
3,246 |
|
3,462 |
| $13,301 - $14,800 |
750 |
|
852 |
|
906 |
1,134 |
1,416 |
|
1,854 |
|
|
|
2,742 |
|
2,772 |
2,886 |
3,024 |
|
3,246 |
| $14,801 - $16,300 |
372 |
|
750 |
|
852 |
906 |
1,134 |
|
1,416 |
|
|
|
2,466 |
|
2,742 |
2,772 |
2,886 |
|
3,024 |
| $16,301 - $19,300 |
-- |
|
372 |
|
750 |
852 |
906 |
|
1,134 |
|
|
|
1,800 |
|
2,220 |
2,520 |
2,772 |
|
2,886 |
| $19,301 - $22,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
372 |
750 |
852 |
|
906 |
|
|
|
1,146 |
|
1,584 |
1,986 |
2,268 |
|
2,544 |
| $22,301 - $25,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
372 |
750 |
|
852 |
|
|
|
930 |
|
1,146 |
1,584 |
1,986 |
|
2,268 |
| $25,301 - $30,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
-- |
372 |
|
750 |
|
|
|
708 |
|
930 |
1,146 |
1,584 |
|
1,986 |
| $30,301 - $35,300 |
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
-- |
-- |
|
372 |
|
|
|
426 |
|
456 |
570 |
708 |
|
1,116 |
For a full-time student who is a dependent and enrolled in
a
state-assisted educational institution, the amount of the
instructional grant for
two semesters, three quarters, or a
comparable portion of
the academic year shall be determined in
accordance with the following table:
Public InstitutionTable of Grants
|
Maximum Grant $2,190 |
| Gross Income |
Number of Dependents |
| $0 - $15,000 |
|
$2,190 |
|
$2,190 |
|
$2,190 |
|
$2,190 |
|
$2,190 |
| $15,001 - $16,000 |
|
1,974 |
|
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
| $16,001 - $17,000 |
|
1,740 |
|
1,974 |
|
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
| $17,001 - $18,000 |
|
1,542 |
|
1,740 |
|
1,974 |
|
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
| $18,001 - $19,000 |
|
1,320 |
|
1,542 |
|
1,740 |
|
1,974 |
|
2,190 |
| $19,001 - $22,000 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,320 |
|
1,542 |
|
1,740 |
|
1,974 |
| $22,001 - $25,000 |
|
864 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,320 |
|
1,542 |
|
1,740 |
| $25,001 - $28,000 |
|
648 |
|
864 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,320 |
|
1,542 |
| $28,001 - $31,000 |
|
522 |
|
648 |
|
864 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,320 |
| $31,001 - $32,000 |
|
420 |
|
522 |
|
648 |
|
864 |
|
1,080 |
| $32,001 - $33,000 |
|
384 |
|
420 |
|
522 |
|
648 |
|
864 |
| $33,001 - $34,000 |
|
354 |
|
384 |
|
420 |
|
522 |
|
648 |
| $34,001 - $35,000 |
|
174 |
|
354 |
|
384 |
|
420 |
|
522 |
| $35,001 - $36,000 |
|
-- |
|
174 |
|
354 |
|
384 |
|
420 |
| $36,001 - $37,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
174 |
|
354 |
|
384 |
| $37,001 - $38,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
174 |
|
354 |
| $38,001 - $39,000 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
174 |
For a full-time student who is financially independent and
enrolled in a state-assisted educational institution, the amount
of the instructional grant for
two semesters, three quarters, or a
comparable portion of
the academic year shall be
determined in
accordance with the following table:
Public InstitutionTable of Grants
|
Maximum Grant $2,190 |
| Gross Income |
Number of Dependents |
| $0 - $4,800 |
|
$2,190 |
|
$2,190 |
|
$2,190 |
$2,190 |
$2,190 |
|
$2,190 |
| $4,801 - $5,300 |
|
1,974 |
|
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
2,190 |
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
| $5,301 - $5,800 |
|
1,740 |
|
1,974 |
|
2,190 |
2,190 |
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
|
|
|
|
2,082 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
| $5,801 - $6,300 |
|
1,542 |
|
1,740 |
|
1,974 |
2,190 |
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
|
|
|
|
1,968 |
|
2,082 |
|
|
|
|
| $6,301 - $6,800 |
|
1,320 |
|
1,542 |
|
1,740 |
1,974 |
2,190 |
|
2,190 |
|
|
|
|
1,866 |
|
1,968 |
2,082 |
|
|
|
| $6,801 - $7,300 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,320 |
|
1,542 |
1,740 |
1,974 |
|
2,190 |
|
|
|
|
1,758 |
|
1,866 |
1,968 |
2,082 |
|
|
| $7,301 - $8,300 |
|
864 |
|
1,080 |
|
1,320 |
1,542 |
1,740 |
|
1,974 |
|
|
|
|
1,638 |
|
1,758 |
1,866 |
1,968 |
|
2,082 |
| $8,301 - $9,300 |
|
648 |
|
864 |
|
1,080 |
1,320 |
1,542 |
|
1,740 |
|
|
|
|
1,530 |
|
1,638 |
1,758 |
1,866 |
|
1,968 |
| $9,301 - $10,300 |
|
522 |
|
648 |
|
864 |
1,080 |
1,320 |
|
1,542 |
|
|
|
|
1,422 |
|
1,530 |
1,638 |
1,758 |
|
1,866 |
| $10,301 - $11,800 |
|
420 |
|
522 |
|
648 |
864 |
1,080 |
|
1,320 |
|
|
|
|
1,356 |
|
1,422 |
1,530 |
1,638 |
|
1,758 |
| $11,801 - $13,300 |
|
384 |
|
420 |
|
522 |
648 |
864 |
|
1,080 |
|
|
|
|
1,308 |
|
1,356 |
1,422 |
1,530 |
|
1,638 |
| $13,301 - $14,800 |
|
354 |
|
384 |
|
420 |
522 |
648 |
|
864 |
|
|
|
|
1,290 |
|
1,308 |
1,356 |
1,422 |
|
1,530 |
| $14,801 - $16,300 |
|
174 |
|
354 |
|
384 |
420 |
522 |
|
648 |
|
|
|
|
1,164 |
|
1,290 |
1,308 |
1,356 |
|
1,422 |
| $16,301 - $19,300 |
|
-- |
|
174 |
|
354 |
384 |
420 |
|
522 |
|
|
|
|
858 |
|
1,050 |
1,182 |
1,308 |
|
1,356 |
| $19,301 - $22,300 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
174 |
354 |
384 |
|
420 |
|
|
|
|
540 |
|
750 |
948 |
1,062 |
|
1,200 |
| $22,301 - $25,300 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
174 |
354 |
|
384 |
|
|
|
|
432 |
|
540 |
750 |
948 |
|
1,062 |
| $25,301 - $30,300 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
-- |
174 |
|
354 |
|
|
|
|
324 |
|
432 |
540 |
750 |
|
948 |
| $30,301 - $35,300 |
|
-- |
|
-- |
|
-- |
-- |
-- |
|
174 |
|
|
|
|
192 |
|
210 |
264 |
324 |
|
522 |
(D) For a full-time student enrolled in an eligible
institution for a semester or quarter in addition to the portion
of the
academic year covered by a grant determined under division
(C) of this section, the
maximum grant amount shall be a
percentage of the maximum
prescribed in the applicable table of
that division. The
maximum grant for a fourth quarter shall be
one-third of the
maximum amount prescribed under that division.
The maximum
grant for a third semester shall be one-half of the
maximum
amount prescribed under that division.
(E) No grant shall be made to any student in a course of
study in theology, religion, or other field of preparation for a
religious profession unless such course of study leads to an
accredited bachelor of arts, bachelor of science, associate of
arts, or associate of science degree.
(F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this
section, no grant shall be made to any student for enrollment
during a fiscal year in an institution with a
cohort default rate
determined by the United
States secretary of education
pursuant to
the
"Higher Education
Amendments of 1986," 100
Stat. 1278, 1408,
20
U.S.C.A. 1085, as amended, as of
the fifteenth day of June
preceding the fiscal year,
equal to or greater than thirty per
cent for each of the preceding two
fiscal years.
(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply to the
following:
(a) Any student enrolled in an institution that under the
federal law appeals its loss of eligibility for federal financial
aid and the United States secretary of education determines its
cohort default rate after recalculation is lower than the rate
specified
in division (F)(1) of this section or the secretary
determines due to mitigating circumstances the institution may
continue to
participate in federal financial aid programs. The
board
shall adopt rules requiring institutions to provide
information
regarding an appeal to the board.
(b) Any student who has previously received a grant under
this section who meets all other requirements of this section.
(3) The board shall adopt rules for the notification
of all
institutions whose students will be ineligible to
participate in
the grant program pursuant to division
(F)(1) of this section.
(4) A student's attendance at an institution whose
students
lose eligibility for grants under division (F)(1)
of this section
shall not affect that student's eligibility to
receive a grant
when enrolled in another institution.
(G) Institutions of higher education that enroll students
receiving instructional grants under this section shall report to
the board all students who have received instructional
grants but
are no longer eligible for all or part of such grants
and shall
refund any moneys due the state within thirty days
after the
beginning of the quarter or term immediately following
the quarter
or term in which the student was no longer eligible
to receive all
or part of the student's grant. There shall
be an interest
charge
of one per cent per month on all moneys due and payable
after such
thirty-day period. The board shall immediately
notify the office
of budget and management and
the
legislative service commission
of all
refunds so received.
Sec. 3383.01. As used in this chapter:
(A)
"Arts" means any of the following:
(1) Visual, musical, dramatic, graphic,
design, and
other
arts,
including, but
not limited to, architecture,
dance,
literature,
motion pictures, music, painting, photography,
sculpture, and
theater, and the provision of training or education
in these arts;
(2) The presentation or making available, in
museums or
other indoor or outdoor facilities, of principles of
science and
their development, use, or application in business,
industry, or
commerce or of the history, heritage, development,
presentation,
and uses of the arts
described in division (A)(1)
of this section
and of
transportation;
(3) The preservation, presentation, or making available of
features of
archaeological, architectural, environmental, or
historical interest or significance in a state historical facility
or a
local historical facility.
(B)
"Arts organization" means either of the following:
(1) A governmental agency or Ohio nonprofit corporation
that
provides programs or activities in areas directly concerned
with
the arts;
(2) A regional arts and cultural district as defined in
section 3381.01 of the Revised Code.
(C)
"Arts project" means all or any portion of an
Ohio arts
facility for which the general assembly has specifically
authorized the spending of money, or made an appropriation,
pursuant to division (D)(3)
or (E) of section 3383.07 of the
Revised Code.
(D)
"Cooperative contract" means a contract between the Ohio
arts and sports facilities commission and an arts organization
providing the terms and conditions of the cooperative use of an
Ohio arts facility.
(E)
"Costs of operation" means amounts required to manage an
Ohio arts facility that are incurred
following the completion of
construction of its arts project, provided
that both of the
following apply:
(1) Those amounts either:
(a) Have been committed to a fund dedicated to that purpose;
(b) Equal the principal of any endowment fund, the income
from
which is dedicated to that purpose.
(2) The commission and the arts organization have executed
an
agreement with respect to either of those funds.
(F)
"General building services" means general building
services for an Ohio arts facility or an Ohio sports facility,
including, but not limited to, general
custodial care, security,
maintenance, repair, painting,
decoration, cleaning, utilities,
fire safety, grounds and site maintenance and
upkeep, and
plumbing.
(G)
"Governmental agency" means a state agency, a
state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher
education,
a municipal corporation, county, township, or school
district, a
port authority created under Chapter 4582.
of the Revised Code,
any other political subdivision or special
district
in this state
established by or pursuant to law, or any combination
of these
entities; except where otherwise
indicated, the United States or
any department, division, or agency of the
United States, or any
agency, commission, or authority
established pursuant to an
interstate compact or agreement.
(H)
"Local contributions" means the value of an asset
provided by
or on behalf of an arts organization from sources
other than the state, the
value and nature of which shall be
approved by the Ohio arts and sports facilities commission, in its
sole
discretion.
"Local contributions" may include the value of
the site
where an arts project is to be constructed. All
"local
contributions," except a contribution attributable to such a site,
shall be for the costs of construction of an arts project or
the
costs of operation of an arts facility.
(I)
"Local historical facility" means a site or facility,
other
than a state historical facility, of archaeological,
architectural,
environmental, or historical interest or
significance, or a facility,
including a storage facility,
appurtenant to the operations of
such a site or facility, that is
owned by an arts organization,
provided the facility meets the
requirements of division
(K)(2)(b)
of this section, is managed
by
or pursuant to a contract with
the Ohio arts and sports
facilities
commission, and is used for or
in connection with the
activities
of the commission, including the
presentation or making
available
of arts to the public.
(J)
"Manage,"
"operate," or
"management" means the
provision
of, or the exercise of control over the provision of,
activities:
(1) Relating to the arts for an Ohio arts facility,
including as applicable, but not limited to, providing for
displays,
exhibitions, specimens, and models; booking of artists,
performances, or presentations; scheduling; and hiring or
contracting for directors, curators, technical and scientific
staff, ushers, stage managers, and others directly related to the
arts activities in the facility; but not including general
building services;
(2) Relating to sports and athletic events for an Ohio
sports
facility, including as applicable, but not limited to,
providing for
booking
of athletes, teams, and events; scheduling;
and hiring or contracting for
staff, ushers, managers, and others
directly related to the sports and
athletic events in the
facility; but not including general building services.
(K)
"Ohio arts facility" means any of the following:
(1) The three theaters located in the state office tower
at
77 South High street in Columbus;
(2) Any capital facility in this state to which
both of
the
following apply:
(a) The construction of an arts project related to the
facility was authorized or
funded by the general assembly pursuant
to division (D)(3)
of section 3383.07 of the Revised Code
and
proceeds of state bonds are used for costs of the arts project.
(b)
The facility is managed directly by, or
is subject to
a
cooperative or management contract
with, the Ohio arts and
sports
facilities commission, and
is used for or
in connection
with the
activities of the commission, including the
presentation
or making
available of arts to the public
and the provision of training or
education in the arts.
A cooperative or
management
contract shall
be for a term not less than the time
remaining to
the date of
payment or provision for payment of any
state bonds
issued to pay
the costs of the
arts project, as
determined by the
director of
budget and
management and certified
by the director to
the Ohio
arts and
sports facilities commission
and to the Ohio
building
authority.
(3) A state historical facility or a local historical
facility.
(L)
"State agency" means the state or any of its
branches,
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments,
divisions, or other units or agencies.
(M)
"Construction" includes acquisition, including
acquisition by
lease-purchase, demolition, reconstruction,
alteration, renovation, remodeling, enlargement, improvement, site
improvements, and related equipping and furnishing.
(N)
"State historical facility" means a site or facility
of
archaeological,
architectural, environmental, or historical
interest or significance, or a
facility, including a storage
facility, appurtenant to the operations of such
a site or
facility, that is owned by or is located on real property owned by
the state or by an arts organization,
so long as the
real property
of the arts organization
is contiguous to
state-owned real
property that is in the care, custody, and control of an arts
organization, and that is managed directly by or
is
subject to
a
cooperative or management contract
with the Ohio arts
and sports
facilities commission and
is used for or in
connection with
the
activities of the
commission, including the
presentation or
making
available of arts to the
public.
(O)
"Ohio sports facility" means all or a portion of a
stadium,
arena, or other capital facility in
this state, a
primary purpose of which
is to provide a site or venue for the
presentation to the public of events of
one or more major or minor
league professional athletic or sports teams that
are associated
with the state or with a city or region
of the state, which
facility is owned by or is located on real property owned by the
state or a
governmental agency, and including all parking
facilities, walkways, and
other
auxiliary facilities, equipment,
furnishings, and real and personal property
and interests and
rights therein, that may be appropriate for or used for or
in
connection with the facility or its operation, for capital costs
of which
state funds are spent pursuant to this chapter. A
facility constructed as an
Ohio sports facility may be both an
Ohio arts facility and
an Ohio sports facility.
Sec. 3383.07. (A) The department of administrative
services
shall provide for the construction of an arts
project in
conformity with Chapter 153. of the Revised
Code,
except as
follows:
(1) For an arts project that has an estimated
construction
cost, excluding the cost of acquisition, of twenty-five million
dollars or more, and that is financed by the Ohio building
authority, construction services may be provided by the authority
if
the
authority determines it should provide those services.
(2) For an arts project other than a state historical
facility,
construction services may be provided on
behalf of the
state by the Ohio arts and sports facilities
commission, or by a
governmental agency or an arts organization
that occupies, will
occupy, or is responsible for the Ohio arts
facility, as
determined by the
commission.
Construction services to be
provided by a
governmental agency or
an arts organization shall be
specified in
an agreement between
the commission and the
governmental agency or
arts organization.
The agreement, or any
actions taken under it,
are not subject to
Chapter 123. or 153. of
the Revised Code,
except for sections
123.151 and 153.011 of the
Revised Code, and
shall be
subject to Chapter
4115. of the Revised
Code.
(3) For an arts project that is a state
historical facility,
construction
services
may be provided by the Ohio arts and sports
facilities commission or by
an arts organization that occupies,
will occupy, or is responsible for the
facility, as determined by
the commission. The construction services to be
provided by the
arts organization shall be specified in an agreement between
the
commission and the arts organization. That agreement,
and any
actions
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123.,
153., or
4115. of the Revised
Code.
(B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by
the
Ohio building authority, construction services shall be
provided on
behalf of the state by or at the direction of the
governmental agency or
nonprofit corporation that will own or be
responsible for the management of
the facility, all as determined
by the
Ohio arts and sports facilities commission. Any
construction services
to be provided by a governmental agency or
nonprofit corporation shall be
specified in an agreement between
the commission and the governmental agency
or nonprofit
corporation. That agreement, and any actions taken under
it,
are
not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code,
except
for sections
123.151 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and
shall be
subject to
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.
(C) General building services for an Ohio arts facility
shall be provided by
the
Ohio arts and sports facilities
commission or by an arts
organization that
occupies, will occupy,
or is responsible for the
facility, as determined by
the
commission, except that the Ohio
building authority may elect to
provide those services for Ohio
arts facilities financed with
proceeds of state bonds issued by
the authority.
The costs of
management and general building
services shall
be paid by the arts
organization that occupies,
will
occupy, or
is responsible for the
facility as provided in an
agreement between the
commission and
the arts organization, except
that the state may pay for general
building services for
state-owned arts
facilities constructed on
state-owned land.
General building services for
an Ohio sports facility shall
be provided by or at the direction of
the governmental agency or
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for
the management
of the facility, all as determined by the commission. Any
general
building services to be provided by a governmental agency or
nonprofit
corporation
for an Ohio sports facility shall be
specified in
an agreement between the commission and the
governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. That
agreement, and
any
actions taken under it, are not subject to
Chapter 123. or
153.
of the Revised Code, except for sections
123.151 and 153.011
of
the Revised Code,
and shall be subject to
Chapter 4115. of the
Revised Code.
(D) This division does not apply to a state historical
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds,
shall be spent on the construction of any arts
project
under this
chapter unless, with respect to the arts project and to
the Ohio
arts facility related to the
project, all of
the following apply:
(1) The Ohio arts and sports facilities commission has
determined
that there is a need for the arts project and the Ohio
arts
facility related to the project in the
region of the state
in which the Ohio arts facility is
located or for which the
facility is
proposed.
(2) The commission has determined that, as an indication of
substantial regional support for
the arts project, the arts
organization has made
provision
satisfactory to the commission, in
its sole discretion, for
local contributions amounting to
not less
than fifty per cent of the total state funding
for the arts
project.
(3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the
construction of the arts project, or for rental
payments relating
to
the financing of the construction of the arts project.
Authorization
to spend money, or an appropriation, for planning
the arts
project
does not constitute authorization to spend money
on, or an
appropriation for, construction of the arts project.
(E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall
be spent on the
construction of any state historical facility
under this chapter unless the
general assembly has specifically
authorized the spending of money on, or made
an appropriation for,
the construction of the arts project related to
the facility, or
for rental payments
relating to the financing of the construction
of the arts
project. Authorization
to spend money, or an
appropriation, for planning the arts
project does not
constitute
authorization to spend money on, or an appropriation
for, the
construction of the arts project.
(F) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more
than
fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost
of an
Ohio sports facility,
excluding any site acquisition cost,
and no state funds, including any state
bond proceeds, shall be
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this
chapter unless, with
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:
(1) The Ohio arts and sports facilities commission has
determined
that there is a need for the facility in the region of
the state for which the
facility is proposed to provide the
function of an Ohio sports
facility as provided for in this
chapter.
(2) As an indication of substantial local support for the
facility, the
commission has received a financial and development
plan satisfactory to it,
and provision has been made, by agreement
or otherwise, satisfactory to the
commission, for a contribution
amounting to not less than eighty-five per cent
of the total
estimated construction cost of the facility, excluding any site
acquisition cost, from sources other than the state.
(3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the
spending of money
on, or made an appropriation for, the
construction of the facility, or for
rental payments relating to
state financing of all or a portion of the costs
of constructing
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an
appropriation,
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or
an
appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.
(4) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio
sports
facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has
sufficient property
interests in the facility or in the site of
the facility or in the portion or
portions of the facility
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may
include, but is
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the
public at
the facility, extending for a period of not less than
the greater of the
useful life of the portion of the facility
financed from proceeds of those
bonds as determined using the
guidelines for maximum maturities as provided
under divisions (B),
(C), and (D) of section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or
the period
of time remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment
of outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all
as
determined by the director of budget and management and
certified by the
director to the Ohio arts and sports facilities
commission and to the
Ohio building authority.
Sec. 3501.18. (A) The board of elections may divide a
political subdivision, within its jurisdiction, into precincts
and, establish, define, divide, rearrange, and combine the several
election precincts within its jurisdiction, and change the
location of the polling place for each precinct when it is
necessary to maintain the requirements as to the number of voters
in a precinct and to provide for the convenience of the voters
and the proper conduct of elections, provided that no. No change in
the number of precincts or in precinct boundaries
shall be
made during the twenty-five days immediately preceding a primary
or general election nor or between the first day of January and the
day on which the members of county central committees are elected
in the years in which those committees are elected.
Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this
section, each
precinct shall contain a number of electors, not to exceed one thousand four hundred, that
the board of elections determines to be a reasonable number after taking into
consideration the type and amount of available equipment, prior voter turnout,
the size and location of each selected polling place, available parking,
availability of an adequate number of poll workers, and handicap accessibility
and other accessibility to the polling place.
If the board changes the boundaries of a precinct after the filing of a
local option election petition pursuant to sections 4301.32 to 4301.41,
4303.29, or 4305.14 of the Revised Code
that calls for a local option election to be held in
that precinct, the local option election shall be held in the area that
constituted the precinct at the time the local option petition was filed,
regardless of the change in the boundaries.
If the board changes the boundaries of a precinct in order to meet the
requirements of division (B)(1) of this section in a manner that
causes a member of a county central committee to no longer qualify as a
representative of an election precinct in the county, of a ward of a city in
the county, or of a township in the county, the member shall continue to
represent the precinct, ward, or township for the remainder of the member's
term, regardless of the change in boundaries.
In an emergency, the board may provide more than one polling
place in a precinct. In order to provide for the convenience of
the voters, the board may locate polling places for voting or
registration outside the boundaries of precincts, provided that
the nearest public school or public building shall be used if the
board determines it to be available and suitable for use as a
polling place. Except in an emergency, no change in the number
or location of the polling places in a precinct shall be made
during the twenty-five days immediately preceding a primary or
general election.
Electors who have failed to respond within
thirty days to any confirmation
notice shall not be counted in determining
the size of any precinct under this section.
(B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2)
or (3) of this section, not later than August 1, 2000, the a board of
elections
shall determine all precinct boundaries using geographical units
used by the United States department of commerce, bureau of
the census, in reporting the decennial census of Ohio.
(2) When any part of the boundary of a precinct also forms a part of the
boundary of a legislative district and the precinct boundary cannot be
determined by August 1, 2000, using the geographical units
described in division (B)(1) of this section
without making that part of the precinct boundary that also forms part of the
legislative district boundary different from that legislative district
boundary, the board of elections may determine the boundary of that precinct
using the geographical units described in division (B)(1) of this
section not later than April 1, 2002. As used in this
division, legislative district means a
district determined under
Article XI of the Ohio Constitution.
(3) The board of elections may apply to the secretary of state for a
waiver from
the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section when it is not
feasible to comply with that requirement because of unusual physical
boundaries or
residential development practices that would cause unusual hardship for
voters. The board shall identify the affected
precincts and census units, explain the reason for the waiver request, and
include a map illustrating where the census units will be split because of the
requested waiver. If the secretary of state approves the waiver and so
notifies the board of elections in writing, the board may change a precinct
boundary as necessary under this section, notwithstanding the requirement in
division (B)(1) of this section.
(C) The board of elections may apply to the secretary of state for
a waiver from the requirement of division (A) of this section
regarding the number of electors in a precinct when the use of geographical
units used by the United States department of commerce,
bureau of the census, will cause a precinct to contain more than one thousand
four hundred electors. The board shall identify the affected precincts and census units,
explain the reason for the waiver request, and include a map illustrating
where census units will be split because of the requested waiver. If the
secretary of state approves the waiver and so notifies the board of elections
in writing, the board may change a precinct boundary as necessary to meet the
requirements of division (B)(1) of this section.
Sec. 3501.30. (A) The board of elections shall provide for
each polling place the necessary ballot boxes, official ballots,
cards of instructions, registration forms, pollbooks, or poll
lists, tally sheets, forms on which to make summary statements,
writing implements, paper, and all other supplies
necessary for casting and
counting the ballots and recording the results of the voting at
such the polling place. Such The pollbooks or poll lists shall have
certificates appropriately printed thereon on them for the signatures of
all the precinct officials, by which they shall certify that, to
the best of their knowledge and belief, said the pollbooks or poll
lists correctly show the names of all electors who voted in such
the polling place at the election indicated therein in the pollbook or poll list.
A All of the following shall be included among the supplies provided to each polling place:
(1) A large map of each appropriate precinct shall be included
among the supplies to each polling place, which shall be
displayed prominently to assist persons who desire to register or
vote on election day. Each map shall show all streets within the
precinct and contain identifying symbols of the precinct in bold
print.
Such supplies shall also include a (2) Any materials, postings, or instructions required to comply with state or federal laws;
(3) A flag of the United
States approximately two and one-half feet in length along the
top, which shall be displayed outside the entrance to the polling
place during the time it is open for voting. Two;
(4) Two or more small
flags of the United States approximately fifteen inches in length
along the top shall be provided and, which shall be placed at a distance
of one hundred feet from the polling place on the thoroughfares
or walkways leading to the polling place, to mark the distance
within which persons other than election officials, witnesses,
challengers, police officers, and electors waiting to mark,
marking, or casting their ballots shall not loiter, congregate,
or engage in any kind of election campaigning. Where small flags
cannot reasonably be placed one hundred feet from the polling
place, the presiding election judge shall place the flags as near
to one hundred feet from the entrance to the polling place as is
physically possible. Police officers and all election officials
shall see that this prohibition against loitering and
congregating is enforced. When
When the period of time during which
the polling place is open for voting expires, all of said the flags
described in this division shall be taken into the polling place, and shall be returned to
the board together with all other election materials and supplies
required to be delivered to such the board.
(B) The board of elections shall follow the instructions and advisories of the secretary of state in the production and use of polling place supplies.
Sec. 3505.08. (A) Ballots shall be provided by the board of
elections for all general and special elections. Such The ballots
shall be printed with black ink on No. 2 white book paper fifty
pounds in weight per ream assuming such ream to consist of five
hundred sheets of such paper twenty-five by thirty-eight inches
in size. Each ballot shall have attached at the top two stubs,
each of the width of the ballot and not less than one-half inch in length,
except that, if the board of elections has an alternate method to account for
the ballots that the secretary of state has authorized, each
ballot may have only one stub that shall be the width of the
ballot and not less than one-half inch in length. In the
case of ballots with two stubs, the stubs shall be separated from the
ballot and from each other by perforated lines. The top stub shall be known
as Stub B and shall have printed on its face "Stub B." The other stub shall
be known as Stub A and shall have printed on its face
"Stub A." Each stub shall also have printed on its face
"Consecutive Number .........." Each
Each ballot of each kind of
ballot provided for use in each precinct shall be numbered
consecutively beginning with number 1 by printing such number
upon both of the stubs attached thereto to the ballot. On ballots bearing the
names of candidates, each candidate's name shall be printed in
twelve point boldface upper case type in an enclosed rectangular
space, and an enclosed blank rectangular space shall be provided
at the left thereof of the candidate's name. The name of the political party of a
candidate nominated at a primary election or certified by a party
committee shall be printed in ten point lightface upper and lower
case type and shall be separated by a two point blank space. The
name of each candidate shall be indented one space within such
the enclosed rectangular space, and the name of the political party shall be
indented two spaces within such the enclosed rectangular space. The
The title of
each office on such the ballots shall be printed in twelve point
boldface upper and lower case type in a separate enclosed
rectangular space. A four point rule shall separate the name of
a candidate or a group of candidates for the same office from the
title of the office next appearing below on the ballot, and; a two
point rule shall separate the title of the office from the names
of candidates; and a one point rule shall separate names of
candidates. Headings shall be printed in display Roman type.
When the names of several candidates are grouped together as
candidates for the same office, there shall be printed on such
the ballots immediately below the title of such the office and within the
separate rectangular space in which such the title is printed "Vote
for not more than ........," in six point boldface upper and
lower case filling the blank space with that number which will
indicate the number of persons who may be lawfully elected to
such the office.
Columns on ballots shall be separated from each other by a
heavy vertical border or solid line at least one-eighth of an
inch wide, and a similar vertical border or line shall enclose
the left and right side of ballots, and ballots. Ballots shall be trimmed
along the sides close to such lines.
The ballots provided for by this section shall be comprised
of four kinds of ballots designated as follows: (A) office type
ballot; (B) nonpartisan ballot; (C) questions and issues
ballot; (D) and presidential ballot.
On the back of each office type ballot shall be printed
"Official Office Type Ballot;" on the back of each nonpartisan
ballot shall be printed "Official Nonpartisan Ballot;" on the
back of each questions and issues ballot shall be printed
"Official Questions and Issues Ballot;" and on the back of each
presidential ballot shall be printed "Official Presidential
Ballot." On the back of every ballot also shall be printed the
date of the election at which the ballot is used and the
facsimile signatures of the members of the board of the county in
which the ballot is used. For the purpose of identifying the
kind of ballot, the back of every ballot may be numbered in such
the order as the board shall determine. Such The numbers shall be
printed in not less than thirty-six point type above the words
"Official Office Type Ballot," "Official Nonpartisan Ballot,"
"Official Questions and Issues Ballot," or "Official Presidential
Ballot," as the case may be. Ballot boxes bearing corresponding
numbers shall be furnished for each precinct in which the above-described numbered ballots are used.
On the back of every ballot used, there shall be a solid
black line printed opposite the blank rectangular space that is
used to mark the choice of the voter. This line shall be printed
wide enough so that the mark in the blank rectangular space will
not be visible from the back side of the ballot.
Sample ballots may be printed by the board of elections for
all general elections. Such The ballots shall be printed on colored
paper, and "Sample Ballot" shall be plainly printed in boldface
type on the face of each ballot. In counties of less than one
hundred thousand population, the board may print not more than
five hundred sample ballots; in all other counties, it may print
not more than one thousand sample ballots. Such The sample ballots
shall not be distributed by a political party or a candidate, nor
shall a political party or candidate cause their title or name to
be imprinted thereon on sample ballots.
(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, in approving the form of an official ballot, the secretary of state may authorize the use of fonts, type face settings, and ballot formats other than those prescribed in that division.
Sec. 3517.092. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Appointing authority" has the same
meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised
Code.
(2) "State elected officer" means any person
appointed or elected to a state elective office.
(3) "State elective office" means any of the
offices of governor, lieutenant governor, secretary of state,
auditor of state, treasurer of state, attorney general, member of the state
board of education, member of
the general assembly, and justice and chief justice of the
supreme court.
(4) "County elected officer" means any person
appointed or elected to a county elective office.
(5) "County elective office" means any of the
offices of county auditor, county treasurer, clerk of the court
of common pleas, sheriff, county recorder, county engineer,
county commissioner, prosecuting attorney, and coroner.
(6) "Contribution" includes a contribution to any political party, campaign
committee, political action committee, political contributing
entity, or legislative campaign fund.
(B) No state elected officer, no campaign
committee of such an officer, and no other person or entity shall
knowingly solicit or accept a contribution
on behalf of that officer or that officer's campaign committee from any
of the following:
(1) A state employee whose appointing authority is the
state elected officer;
(2) A state employee whose appointing authority is
authorized or required by law to be appointed by the state
elected officer;
(3) A state employee who functions in or is employed in
or by the same public agency, department, division, or office as
the state elected officer.
(C) No candidate for a state elective office, no campaign
committee of such a candidate, and no
other person or entity shall knowingly solicit or
accept a contribution on behalf of that candidate or that candidate's
campaign committee from any of the following:
(1) A state employee at the time of the solicitation,
whose appointing authority will be the candidate, if elected;
(2) A state employee at the time of the solicitation,
whose appointing authority will be appointed by the candidate, if
elected, as authorized or required by law;
(3) A state employee at the time of the solicitation,
who will function in or be employed in or by the same public
agency, department, division, or office as the candidate, if
elected.
(D) No county elected officer, no campaign
committee of such an officer, and no other person or entity
shall knowingly solicit a contribution on
behalf of that officer or that officer's campaign committee from any of
the following:
(1) A county employee whose appointing authority is the
county elected officer;
(2) A county employee whose appointing authority is
authorized or required by law to be appointed by the county
elected officer;
(3) A county employee who functions in or is employed
in or by the same public agency, department, division, or office
as the county elected officer.
(E) No candidate for a county elective office, no campaign committee of such
a candidate,
and no other person or entity shall knowingly solicit a contribution on behalf
of that candidate or that candidate's campaign
committee from any of the following:
(1) A county employee at the time of the solicitation,
whose appointing authority will be the candidate, if elected;
(2) A county employee at the time of the solicitation,
whose appointing authority will be appointed by the candidate, if
elected, as authorized or required by law;
(3) A county employee at the time of the solicitation,
who will function in or be employed in or by the same public
agency, department, division, or office as the candidate, if
elected.
(F)(1) No public employee shall solicit a contribution from any person while
the public employee is performing the public employee's
official duties or in those areas of a
public building where official business is transacted or conducted.
(2) No person shall solicit a contribution from any public employee while the
public employee is performing the public employee's official
duties or is in those areas of a
public building where official business is
transacted or conducted.
(3) As used in division (F) of this section, "public employee" does not
include any person holding an elective office.
(G) The prohibitions in divisions (B),
(C), (D), (E), and (F) of this section are
in addition to the prohibitions in sections 124.57, 1553.09, 3304.22, and
4503.032 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.021. (A) The public health council shall adopt,
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, such rules
as are necessary to carry out sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 3701.0210 of
the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, rules to
establish the following:
(1) Medical and financial eligibility requirements for the
program for medically handicapped children;
(2) Eligibility requirements for providers of services for
medically handicapped children;
(3) Procedures to be followed by the department of health
in disqualifying providers for violating requirements adopted
under division (A)(2) of this section;
(4) Procedures to be used by the department regarding
application for diagnostic services under division (B) of section
3701.023 of the Revised Code and payment for those services under
division (E) of that section;
(5) Standards for the provision of service coordination by
the department of health and city and general health districts;
(6) Procedures for the department to use to determine the
amount to be paid annually by each county for services for
medically handicapped children and to allow counties to retain
funds under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3701.024 of the
Revised Code;
(7) Financial eligibility requirements for services for
Ohio residents twenty-one years of age or older who have cystic
fibrosis;
(8) Criteria for payment of approved providers who provide
services for medically handicapped children;
(9) Criteria for the department to use in determining
whether the payment of health insurance premiums of participants
in the program for medically handicapped children is
cost-effective;
(10) Procedures for appeal of denials of applications
under divisions (A) and (D) of section 3701.023 of the Revised
Code, disqualification of providers, and amounts paid for
services;
(11) Terms of appointment for members of the medically
handicapped children's medical advisory council
created in
section 3701.025 of the Revised Code;
(12) Eligibility requirements for the hemophilia program, including income and hardship requirements.
(B) The department of health shall develop a manual of
operational procedures and guidelines for the program for
medically handicapped children to implement sections 3701.021 to
3701.028 3701.0210 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.022. As used in sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 3701.0210 of
the Revised Code:
(A) "Medically handicapped child" means an Ohio resident
under twenty-one years of age who suffers primarily from an
organic disease, defect, or a congenital or acquired physically
handicapping and associated condition that may hinder the
achievement of normal growth and development.
(B) "Provider" means a health professional, hospital,
medical equipment supplier, and any individual, group, or agency
that is approved by the department of health pursuant to division
(C) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code and that provides or
intends to provide goods or services to a child who is eligible
for the program for medically handicapped children.
(C) "Service coordination" means case management services
provided to medically handicapped children that promote effective
and efficient organization and utilization of public and private
resources and ensure that care rendered is family-centered,
community-based, and coordinated.
(D)(1) "Third party" means any person or government entity
other than the following:
(a) A medically handicapped child participating in the
program for medically handicapped children or the child's parent or
guardian;
(b) The department or any program administered by the
department, including the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," Title V of
the
"Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 701, as
amended;
(c) The "caring program for children" operated by the
nonprofit community mutual insurance corporation.
(2) "Third party" includes all of the following:
(a) Any trust established to benefit a medically
handicapped child participating in the program or the child's
family or
guardians, if the trust was established after the date the
medically handicapped child applied to participate in the
program;
(b) That portion of a trust designated to pay for the
medical and ancillary care of a medically handicapped child, if
the trust was established on or before the date the medically
handicapped child applied to participate in the program;
(c) The program awarding reparations to victims of crime
established under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised
Code.
(E) "Third-party benefits" means any and all benefits paid
by a third party to or on behalf of a medically handicapped child
participating in the program or the child's parent or guardian for
goods
or services that are authorized by the department pursuant to
division (B) or (D) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code.
(F) "Hemophilia program" means the hemophilia program the department of health is required to establish and administer under section 3701.029 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.029. Subject to available funds, the department of health shall establish and administer a hemophilia program to provide payment of health insurance premiums for Ohio residents who meet all of the following requirements:
(A) Have been diagnosed with hemophilia or a related bleeding disorder;
(B) Are at least twenty-one years of age;
(C) Meet the eligibility requirements established by rules adopted under division (A)(12) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3701.145 3701.0210. The director of health medically handicapped children's medical advisory council shall establish appoint a
hemophilia advisory council subcommittee to advise the director
and the department of
health and council on all matters pertaining to the care and treatment of
persons with hemophilia. The council subcommittee shall consist of
not
fewer than nineteen fifteen members, each of whom shall be appointed by
the director to terms of four years. The members of the
council subcommittee shall elect a chairperson from among the
appointed
membership to serve a term of two years. Members of the
council subcommittee shall serve without compensation, except that
they may
be reimbursed for travel expenses to and from meetings of the
council subcommittee.
Members shall be appointed to represent all geographic
areas of this state. Not fewer than five members of the
council subcommittee shall be persons with hemophilia or family
members of
persons with hemophilia. Not fewer than five members shall be
providers of health care services to persons with hemophilia.
Not fewer than five members shall be experts in fields of
importance to treatment of persons with hemophilia, including
experts in infectious diseases, insurance, and law.
The council shall submit to the director of health,
the
governor, and the general assembly, a report no later than the
thirtieth day of September of each year summarizing the current
status and needs of persons in this state with hemophilia and of
family members of persons with hemophilia.
Notwithstanding section 101.83 of the Revised Code, that section does not apply to the medically handicapped children's medical advisory council hemophilia advisory subcommittee, and the subcommittee shall not expire under that section.
Sec. 3701.141. (A) There is hereby created in the
department of health the office of women's health initiatives program,
consisting of the chief of the office and an administrative
assistant. To the extent of available funds, other positions
determined necessary and relevant by the director of health may
be added. The administrative assistant and all other employees
assigned to the office shall report to the chief and the chief to
the director or the deputy specified by the director.
(B) To the extent funds are available, the office of
women's health initiatives program shall:
(1) Identify, review, and assist the director in the
coordination of programs and resources the department of health
is committing to women's health concerns, including the
department's women's and infants' program activities;
(2) Advocate for women's health by requesting that the
department conduct, sponsor, encourage, or fund research;
establish additional programs regarding women's health concerns
as needed; and monitor the research and program efforts;
(3) Collect, classify, and store relevant research
conducted by the department or other entities, and provide,
unless otherwise prohibited by law, interested persons access to
research results;
(4) Generate Apply for grant activities opportunities.
(C) Prior to the director's report to the governor on the
department's biennial budget request, the office of women's
health initiatives shall submit in writing to the director of
health a biennial report of recommended programs, projects, and
research to address critical issues in women's health.
Sec. 3702.31. (A) The quality monitoring and
inspection
fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The
director of
health shall use the fund to
administer and enforce this section
and sections
3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, and 3702.32 of the
Revised
Code and rules adopted pursuant to those sections.
The
director shall deposit in the fund any moneys
collected pursuant
to this section
or section 3702.32 of the Revised Code. All
investment earnings of
the fund shall be credited to the fund.
(B) The director of health shall adopt rules pursuant to
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing fees
for both of the
following:
(1) Initial and renewal license applications submitted under
section
3702.30 of the Revised Code. The fees established under
division (B)(1) of this section shall not
exceed the actual and
necessary costs of performing the
activities described in division
(A) of this section.
(2) Inspections conducted
under section 3702.15 or 3702.30
of the
Revised
Code. The fees established
under division (B)(2)
of this
section shall not exceed the actual and necessary costs
incurred
during an inspection, including any indirect costs
incurred by
the department for staff, salary, or other
administrative
costs.
The director of health shall provide to
each health
care facility or provider inspected pursuant to
section 3702.15
or 3702.30 of the Revised
Code a written statement
of the
fee.
The statement shall itemize and total the costs
incurred.
Within fifteen days after receiving a
statement from
the director, the facility or provider shall
forward the total
amount of the fee to the director.
(3) The fees described in divisions
(B)(1) and (2) of this
section
shall meet both of the following requirements:
(a) For each service described in
section 3702.11 of the
Revised
Code, the fee shall not exceed
one thousand
two
seven hundred
fifty
dollars annually, except that the total fees
charged
to a
health care provider under this section shall not exceed five
thousand dollars
annually.
(b) The fee shall exclude any costs
reimbursable by the
United
States health care financing
administration as part of the
certification process for the
medicare program established under
Title
XVIII of the
"Social
Security
Act," 49
Stat. 620 (1935), 42
U.S.C.A.
301, as amended, and the medicaid program established
under
Title
XIX of that act.
(4) The director shall not establish a fee for any
service
for which a licensure or inspection fee is paid by the
health care
provider to a state agency for the same or similar
licensure or
inspection.
Sec. 3702.63. As specified in former Section 11 of Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 405 of the 124th general assembly, all of the following apply:
(A) The removal of former divisions (E) and (F) of
section 3702.52
of the Revised
Code by Sections 1 and 2 of
Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly does not
release the holders of
certificates of need issued
under those
divisions from complying with any
conditions on which
the granting
of the certificates of need was based,
including the
requirement
of former division (E)(6) of that section that the
holders not
enter into provider agreements under Chapter 5111. of
the Revised
Code and Title XIX of the
"Social Security Act," 49
Stat. 620
(1935), 42
U.S.C. 301, as amended, for at least ten
years
following initial licensure
of
the long-term care facilities
for
which the certificates were granted.
(B) The repeal of section 3702.55 of the Revised Code by Section
2 of
Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly
does
not release the holders of certificates of need
issued under that
section from
complying with any conditions on
which the granting
of the certificates of
need
was based,
other than the
requirement
of division (A)(6) of that section that
the holders not seek
certification under Title XVIII
of the
"Social
Security
Act" for beds recategorized under the
certificates. That repeal also does not eliminate the requirement that the
director of health revoke the licensure
of the beds under Chapter
3721. of the
Revised Code if a person to
which their ownership is
transferred fails, as required by division (A)(6) of the repealed section, to file
within ten days
after the transfer a
sworn statement not to seek
certification
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" for beds recategorized under the certificates of need.
(C) The repeal of section 3702.56 of the Revised Code by Section
2 of
Am. Sub. S.B. 50 of the 121st general assembly
does
not release the holders of certificates of need
issued under that
section
from complying with any conditions on
which the granting
of the certificates
of need was based.
Sec. 3702.68. (A) Notwithstanding sections 3702.51 to
3702.62 of the Revised Code, this section applies to the review
of
certificate of need applications during the period beginning
July
1, 1993, and ending
June 30,
2003 2005.
(B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this
section, the director of health shall neither grant nor deny any
application for a certificate of need submitted prior to July 1,
1993, if the
application was for any of
the following and the
director had not issued a written decision
concerning the
application prior to that date:
(a) Approval of beds in a new health care facility or an
increase of beds in an existing health care facility, if the beds
are proposed to be licensed as nursing home beds under Chapter
3721. of the Revised Code;
(b) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county
nursing home as defined in section 5155.31 of the Revised Code,
or
an increase of beds in an existing county home or existing
county
nursing home, if the beds are proposed to be certified as
skilled
nursing facility beds under Title XVIII or nursing
facility beds
under Title XIX of the
"Social Security Act," 49
Stat. 620 (1935),
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;
(c) Recategorization of hospital beds as described in
section 3702.522 of the Revised Code, an
increase of hospital beds
registered pursuant to section 3701.07
of the Revised Code as
long-term care beds or skilled nursing
facility beds, or a
recategorization of hospital beds that would
result in an increase
of beds registered pursuant to that section
as long-term care beds
or skilled nursing facility beds.
On July 1, 1993, the director shall
return each such
application to the applicant and,
notwithstanding section 3702.52
of the Revised Code regarding the
uses of the certificate of need
fund, shall refund to the
applicant the application fee paid under
that section.
Applications returned under division (B)(1) of this
section may
be resubmitted in accordance with section 3702.52 of
the Revised
Code no sooner than
July 1,
2003 2005.
(2) The director shall continue to review and shall issue
a
decision regarding any application submitted prior to July 1,
1993, to
increase beds for either of the
purposes described in
division (B)(1)(a) or (b) of this section
if the proposed increase
in beds is attributable solely to a
replacement or relocation of
existing beds within the same
county. The director shall
authorize under such an application
no additional beds beyond
those being replaced or relocated.
(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this
section, the director, during the period beginning July 1, 1993,
and ending
June 30,
2003 2005, shall not accept for
review under
section
3702.52 of the Revised Code any application
for a
certificate of
need for any of the purposes described in
divisions
(B)(1)(a) to
(c) of this section.
(2) The director shall accept for review any application
for
either of the purposes described in division (B)(1)(a) or (b)
of
this section if
the proposed increase in beds is
attributable
solely to a replacement or relocation of existing
beds within the
same county.
The director shall authorize under
such an
application no
additional beds beyond those being replaced or
relocated.
The director also shall accept for review any
application that
seeks certificate of need approval for existing
beds located in an infirmary
that is
operated exclusively by a
religious order, provides care exclusively to
members of religious
orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of
their vows
within the orders as if related, and was providing care
exclusively
to members of such a religious order on January 1,
1994.
(D) The director shall issue a decision regarding any case
remanded by
a
court as the result of a decision issued by the
director prior to
July 1, 1993, to grant, deny, or withdraw a
certificate of need for any of the purposes described in
divisions
(B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.
(E) The director shall not project the need for beds
listed
in division (B)(1) of this section for the period
beginning July
1, 1993, and ending
June 30,
2003 2005.
This section is an interim section effective until
July 1,
2003 2005.
Sec. 3702.74. (A) A primary care physician who has signed a
letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code, the
director of health, and the Ohio board of
regents may enter into a
contract for the physician's participation in the
physician loan
repayment program. A lending institution may also be a party
to
the contract.
(B) The contract shall include all of the following
obligations:
(1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary
care services in the
health resource shortage area identified in
the letter of intent for at least
two years or one
year per twenty
thousand dollars of repayment agreed to under
division (B)(3) of
this section, whichever is greater;
(2) When providing primary care services in the health
resource shortage
area, the primary care physician agrees to do
all of the
following:
(a) Provide primary care services for a minimum of forty
hours per week;
(b) Provide primary care services without regard to a
patient's ability to pay;
(c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the
"Social Security
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the
department of job and family services for participation in
the
medical
assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of the
Revised
Code and enter into a contract with the department to
provide
primary care services to recipients of the medical
assistance
program;
(d) Meet the conditions established by the department of
job
and family services for participation in the disability assistance
medical assistance
program established under Chapter 5115. of the
Revised Code
and enter into a contract with the department to
provide primary
care services to recipients of disability
medical assistance.
(3) The Ohio board of regents agrees, as
provided in section
3702.75 of
the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care
physician performs the
service obligation agreed to under division
(B)(1) of this section, all or
part of the principal and interest
of a government or other educational loan
taken by the primary
care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75
of the
Revised Code;
(4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the
board the
following as
damages if the physician fails to complete the
service obligation agreed to
under division (B)(1) of this
section:
(a) If the failure occurs during the first two years of
the
service obligation, three times the total amount the
board has
agreed to repay under division (B)(3) of
this section;
(b) If the failure occurs after the first two years of the
service obligation, three times the amount the board
is still
obligated to repay under division (B)(3) of this
section.
(C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by
the parties,
including an assignment to the Ohio board of
regents
of the physician's
duty to pay the principal and interest of a
government or other educational
loan taken by the physician for
expenses described in section 3702.75 of the
Revised Code. If the
board assumes the physician's
duty to pay a loan,
the contract
shall set forth the total amount of principal and interest to be
paid, an amortization schedule, and the amount of each payment to
be made
under the schedule.
Sec. 3705.23. (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this
section, the director of health, the state registrar, or a local
registrar, on receipt of a signed application and the fee
specified in section 3705.24 of the Revised Code, shall issue a
certified copy of a vital record, or of a part of a vital record,
in the director's or registrar's custody to any applicant,
unless the vital record has ceased to be a public record pursuant to section
3705.09, 3705.11, 3705.12, or 3705.15 of the Revised Code. The certified copy
shall show the date the vital record was registered by the local registrar.
(2) A certified copy of a vital record may be made by a
mechanical, electronic, or other reproduction process. It shall
be certified as a true copy by the director, state registrar, or
local registrar who has custody of the record and shall include
the date of issuance, the name of the issuing officer, the
signature of the officer or an authorized facsimile of the
signature, and the seal of the issuing office.
(3) A certified copy of a vital record or of any part of a
vital record, issued in accordance with this section, shall be
considered for all purposes the same as the original and shall be
prima-facie evidence of the facts stated in it in all courts and
places.
(4)(a) Information contained in the "information for
medical and health use only" section of a birth record shall not
be included as part of a certified copy of the birth record
unless the information specifically is requested by the
individual to whose birth the record attests, either of the
individual's parents or the individual's guardian, a
lineal descendant, or an official of
the federal or state government or of a political subdivision of
the state charged by law with detecting or prosecuting crime.
(b) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(a) of this
section, neither the office of vital statistics nor a local
registrar shall disclose information contained in the
"information for medical and health use only" section of a birth
record unless a court, for good cause shown, orders disclosure of
the information or the state registrar specifically authorizes
release of the information for statistical or research purposes
under conditions the state registrar, subject to the approval
of the director of health, shall establish by rule.
(B)(1) Unless the applicant specifically requests a certified
copy, the director, the state registrar, or a local registrar, on
receipt of a signed application for a birth record and the fee
specified in section 3705.24 of the Revised Code, may issue a
certification of birth, and the certification of birth
shall contain at least the name,
sex, date of birth, registration date, and place of birth of the
person to whose birth the record attests and shall attest
that the person's birth has been registered. A certification of
birth shall be prima-facie evidence of the facts stated in it in
all courts and places.
(2) The director or the state registrar, on the receipt of a signed
application for an heirloom
certification of birth and the fee specified in section 3705.24 of the
Revised Code, may issue an heirloom certification of birth.
The director shall
prescribe by rule guidelines for the form of an heirloom certification of
birth, and the guidelines shall require the heirloom certification of birth to
contain at least the name,
sex, date of birth, registration date, and place of birth of the person to
whose birth the record attests and to attest that the person's birth has been
registered. An heirloom certification of birth shall be prima-facie evidence
of the facts stated in it in all courts and places.
(C) On evidence that a birth certificate was registered
through misrepresentation or fraud, the state registrar may
withhold the issuance of a certified copy of the birth record or
a certification of birth until a court makes a determination that
no misrepresentation or fraud occurred.
(D) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(b) of this
section, the state registrar and a local registrar, on request,
shall provide uncertified copies of vital records in accordance
with section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3705.24. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this
division or division (G) of this section, the fee for a
certified copy of a vital record or for a certification of birth shall be
seven dollars plus any fee
required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in
section 3705.241 of the Revised Code, the fee for a
certified copy of a vital record or for a certification of birth
issued by the office of vital statistics shall be an amount
prescribed by the public health council plus any fee required by
section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. The fee for a certified
copy of a vital record or for a certification of birth issued by
a health district shall be an amount prescribed in accordance
with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code plus any fee required by
section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. No certified copy of a
vital record or certification of birth shall be issued without
payment of the fee unless otherwise specified by statute.
For a special search of the files and records to determine
a date or place contained in a record on file, the office of
vital statistics shall charge a fee of three dollars for each
hour or fractional part of an hour required for the search.
(B)(1) The public health council shall, in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, adopt rules prescribing fees for the following services provided by the state office of vital statistics:
(a) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section:
(i) A certified copy of a vital record or a certification of birth;
(ii) A search by the office of vital statistics of its files and records pursuant to a request for information, regardless of whether a copy of a record is provided;
(iii) A copy of a record provided pursuant to a request;
(b) Replacement of a birth certificate following an adoption, legitimation, paternity determination or acknowledgement, or court order;
(c) Filing of a delayed registration of a vital record;
(d) Amendment of a vital record that is requested later than one year after the filing date of the vital record;
(e) Any other documents or services for which the public health council considers the charging of a fee appropriate.
(2) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1)(a) of this section shall not be less than seven dollars.
(3) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1) of this section shall be collected in addition to any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.
(4) Fees prescribed under division (A) of this section shall not apply to certifications issued under division (H) of this section or copies provided under section 3705.241 of the Revised Code.
(B) In addition to the fees prescribed under division (A) of this section or section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, the office of vital statistics or the board of health of a city or general health district shall charge a five-dollar fee for each certified copy of a vital record and each certification of birth. This fee shall be deposited in the general operations fund created under section 3701.83 of the Revised Code and be used solely toward the modernization and automation of the system of vital records in this state. A board of health shall forward all fees collected under this division to the department of health not later than thirty days after the end of each calendar quarter.
(C) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(H) of
this section, and except as provided in section 3705.241
of the Revised Code, fees collected by the director of health under
sections 3705.01 to 3705.29 of the Revised Code shall be paid
into the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund
created by section 3701.83 of the Revised Code.
Money Except as provided in division (B) of this section, money generated by the fees shall be used only for administration and
enforcement of this chapter and the rules adopted under it.
Amounts submitted to the
department of health for copies of vital records or services in excess of the
fees imposed by this section shall be dealt with as follows:
(1) An overpayment of two dollars or less shall be
retained by the department and deposited in the state treasury to the
credit of the general operations fund created by section 3701.83 of the
Revised Code.
(2) An overpayment in excess of two dollars shall be
returned to the person who made the overpayment.
(C)(D) If a local registrar is a salaried employee of a city
or a general health district, any fees the local registrar
receives pursuant to section 3705.23 of the Revised Code shall be paid into
the general fund of the city or the health fund of the general health
district.
Each local registrar of vital statistics, or each health
district where the local registrar is a salaried employee of the
district, shall be entitled to a fee for each birth, fetal death,
death, or military service certificate properly and completely
made out and registered with the local registrar or district and
correctly copied and
forwarded to the office of vital statistics in accordance with
the population of the primary registration district at the last
federal census. The fee for each birth, fetal death, death, or
military service certificate shall be:
(1) In primary registration districts of over two hundred
fifty thousand, twenty cents;
(2) In primary registration districts of over one hundred
twenty-five thousand and less than two hundred fifty thousand,
sixty cents;
(3) In primary registration districts of over fifty
thousand and less than one hundred twenty-five thousand, eighty
cents;
(4) In primary registration districts of less than fifty
thousand, one dollar.
(D)(E) The director of health shall annually certify to the
county treasurers of the several counties the number of birth,
fetal death, death, and military service certificates registered
from their respective counties with the names of the local
registrars and the amounts due each registrar and health district
at the rates fixed in this section. Such amounts shall be paid
by the treasurer of the county in which the registration
districts are located. No fees shall be charged or collected by
registrars except as provided by this chapter and section 3109.14
of the Revised Code.
(E)(F) A probate judge shall be paid a fee of fifteen cents
for each certified abstract of marriage prepared and forwarded by
the probate judge to the department of health pursuant to section 3705.21 of
the Revised Code. The fee shall be in addition to the fee paid
for a marriage license and shall be paid by the applicants for
the license.
(F)(G) The clerk of a court of common pleas shall be paid a
fee of one dollar for each certificate of divorce, dissolution,
and annulment of marriage prepared and forwarded by the clerk to the
department pursuant to section 3705.21 of the Revised Code. The
fee for the certified abstract of divorce, dissolution, or
annulment of marriage shall be added to the court costs allowed
in these cases.
(G)(H) The fee for an heirloom certification of birth issued
pursuant to
division (B)(2) of section 3705.23 of the Revised
Code shall be an amount prescribed by rule by the
director of health plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the
Revised Code. In setting the amount of the fee, the director shall
establish a surcharge in addition to an amount necessary to offset the expense
of processing heirloom certifications of birth. The fee prescribed
by the director of health
pursuant to this division shall be deposited
into
the state treasury to the credit of the heirloom certification of birth fund
which is hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used by the
office of vital statistics to offset the expense of processing heirloom
certifications of birth. However, the money collected for the surcharge,
subject to the approval of the controlling board, shall be used for the
purposes specified by the family and children first council pursuant to
section 121.37 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3709.09. (A) The board of health of a city or
general health district may, by rule, establish a uniform system
of fees to pay the costs of any services provided by the board.
Fees
The fee for issuance of a certified copy of a vital record or a certification of birth shall not be less than the fee prescribed for the same service under division (A)(1) of section 3705.24 of the Revised Code and shall include the fees required by division (B) of section 3705.24 and section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.
Fees for services provided by the board for purposes specified in
sections 3701.344, 3711.05, 3730.03, 3733.04,
3733.25, and
3749.04 of the Revised Code shall be established in accordance
with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. The
district advisory council, in the case of a general health
district, and the legislative authority of the city, in the case
of a city health district, may disapprove any fee established by
the board of health under this division, and any such fee, as
disapproved, shall not be charged by the board of health.
(B) The public health
council shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised
Code that establish fee categories and uniform methodologies for
use in calculating the costs of services provided for purposes
specified in sections 3701.344, 3711.05, 3730.03,
3733.04, 3733.25, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code. In adopting the rules,
the public health council shall consider recommendations it
receives from advisory boards established either by statute or
the director of health for entities subject to the fees.
(C) At least thirty days prior to establishing a fee for a
service provided by the board for a purpose specified in section
3701.344, 3711.05, 3730.03, 3733.04, 3733.25, or 3749.04 of the
Revised Code, a board of health shall notify any entity that would be
affected by the proposed fee of the amount of the proposed fee.
Sec. 3710.05. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this
chapter, no person shall engage in any asbestos hazard abatement
activities in this state unless licensed or certified pursuant to
this chapter.
(B) To apply for licensure as an asbestos abatement
contractor or certification as an asbestos hazard abatement
specialist, an asbestos hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos
hazard abatement project designer, or an asbestos hazard
abatement air-monitoring technician, a person shall do all of the
following:
(1) Submit a completed application to the department of
health, on a form provided by the department;
(2) Pay the requisite fee as provided in division (D) of
this section;
(3) Submit any other information the public health council
by rule requires.
(C) The application form for a business entity or public
entity applying for an asbestos hazard abatement contractor's
license shall include all of the following:
(1) A description of the protective clothing and
respirators that the public entity will use to comply with rules
adopted by the public health council and that the business entity
will use to comply with requirements of the United States
occupational safety and health administration;
(2) A description of procedures the business entity or
public entity will use for the selection, utilization, handling,
removal, and disposal of clothing to prevent contamination or
recontamination of the environment and to protect the public
health from the hazards associated with exposure to asbestos;
(3) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site
that the business entity or public entity might use during the
year;
(4) A description of the site decontamination procedures
that the business entity or public entity will use;
(5) A description of the asbestos hazard abatement
procedures that the business entity or public entity will use;
(6) A description of the procedures that the business
entity or public entity will use for handling waste containing
asbestos;
(7) A description of the air-monitoring procedures that
the business entity or public entity will use to prevent
contamination or recontamination of the environment and to
protect the public health from the hazards of exposure to
asbestos;
(8) A description of the final clean-up procedures that
the business entity or public entity will use;
(9) A list of all partners, owners, and officers of the
business entity along with their social security numbers;
(10) The federal tax identification number of the business
entity or the public entity.
(D) The fees to be charged to each public entity and
business entity and their employees and agents for licensure,
certification, approval, and renewal of licenses, certifications,
and approvals granted under this chapter, subject to division
(A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code, are:
(1) Five Seven hundred fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement
contractors;
(2) One Two hundred twenty-five dollars for asbestos hazard
abatement project designers;
(3) Twenty-five Fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement
workers;
(4) One Two hundred twenty-five dollars for asbestos hazard
abatement specialists;
(5) One Two hundred twenty-five dollars for asbestos hazard
evaluation specialists; and
(6) Seven Nine hundred fifty dollars for approval or renewal of
asbestos hazard training providers.
(E) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no
business entity which engages in asbestos hazard abatement
activities solely at its own place of business is required to be
licensed as an asbestos hazard abatement contractor provided that
the business entity is required to and does comply with all
applicable standards of the United States environmental
protection agency and the United States occupational safety and
health administration and provided further that all persons
employed by the business entity on the activity meet the
requirements of this chapter.
Sec. 3711.021. For the purposes of this chapter, a
maternity hospital or lying-in hospital includes a limited
maternity unit, which is a unit in a hospital that contains no
other maternity unit, in which care is provided during all or
part of the maternity cycle and newborns receive care in a
private room serving all antepartum, labor, delivery, recovery,
postpartum, and nursery needs.
The director of health may charge a maternity hospital or
lying-in hospital seeking an initial or renewal license under
this chapter a fee not exceeding the following:
(A) Three Four thousand eight hundred fifty forty-two dollars for a
hospital in which not less than two thousand births occurred the
previous calendar year;
(B) Three thousand three five hundred fifty seventeen dollars for a
hospital in which not more than one thousand nine hundred
ninety-nine and not less than one thousand births occurred the
previous calendar year;
(C) Two thousand eight nine hundred fifty ninety-two dollars for a
hospital in which not more than nine hundred ninety-nine and not
less than six hundred fifty births occurred the previous calendar
year;
(D) Two thousand three four hundred fifty sixty-seven dollars for a
hospital in which not more than six hundred forty-nine and not
less than four hundred fifty births occurred the previous
calendar year;
(E) One thousand eight nine hundred fifty forty-two dollars for a
hospital in which not more than four hundred forty-nine births
and not less than one hundred births occurred the previous
calendar year;
(F) One thousand three four hundred fifty seventeen dollars for a
hospital in which not more than ninety-nine births occurred the
previous calendar year.
The director shall deposit all fees collected under this
section into the general operations fund created under section
3701.83 of the Revised Code. Money generated by the fees shall
be used only for administration and enforcement of this chapter
and rules adopted under it.
Sec. 3721.02. (A) The director of health shall license homes
and establish procedures to be followed in inspecting and
licensing homes. The director may inspect a home at any time.
Each home shall be inspected by the director at least once prior
to the issuance of a license and at least once every fifteen
months thereafter. The state fire marshal or a township,
municipal, or other legally constituted fire department approved
by the marshal shall also inspect a home prior to issuance of a
license, at least once every fifteen months thereafter, and at
any
other time requested by the director. A home does not have
to be
inspected prior to issuance of a license by the director,
state
fire marshal, or a fire department if ownership of the home
is
assigned or transferred to a different person and the home was
licensed under this chapter immediately prior to the assignment
or
transfer. The director may enter at any time, for the
purposes of
investigation, any institution, residence, facility,
or other
structure
that has been reported to the director or
that the
director has reasonable cause to believe is operating as
a nursing
home, residential care facility, or
home for the aging without a
valid
license required by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code
or,
in the case of a county home or district home, is operating
despite the
revocation of its residential care facility license.
The director may
delegate the director's
authority
and duties
under this chapter to any division, bureau, agency, or official
of
the department of health.
(B) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing home
pursuant to this chapter and as an adult care facility pursuant
to
Chapter 3722. of the Revised Code if the director determines
that
the part or unit to be licensed as a nursing home can be
maintained separate and discrete from the part or unit to be
licensed as an adult care facility.
(C) In determining the number of residents in a home for the
purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one
group
unless one of the following is the case:
(1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all
the
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home
shall
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the
part or
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as
another group.
(2) The home is both a nursing home and an adult care
facility. In that case, all the individuals in the part or unit
licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and
all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an adult care
facility shall be considered as another group.
(3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part
or unit
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care
services
from the home, in which case the individuals in the
separate and
discrete part or unit shall not be considered in
determining the
number of residents in the home if the separate
and discrete part
or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic
building code
established by the board of building standards under
Chapters
3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits
the
director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete
part
or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if
they
consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part
or
unit meets the requirements of this division.
(D) The director of health shall charge an application fee
and
an annual renewal licensing and inspection fee of one hundred
five dollars for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's
licensed capacity. All fees collected by the director for the
issuance or renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering
and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.
(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the
results of an inspection or investigation of a home
that is
conducted under this section, including any statement of
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or
proceeding other than an action commenced
under division (I) of
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those
results of an
inspection or investigation, that
statement of
deficiencies, and
the findings and deficiencies cited
in that
statement shall not be
used in any court or in any action
or
proceeding that is pending
in any court and are not admissible
in
evidence in any action or
proceeding unless that action or
proceeding is an appeal of an
action by the department of health
under this chapter or is an
action by any department or agency of
the state to enforce this
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.
(2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this
section from being used in a criminal investigation or
prosecution.
Sec. 3721.19. (A) As used in this section:
(1)
"Home" and
"residential care facility" have the same
meanings as in
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;
(2)
"Sponsor" and
"residents' rights advocate" have the same
meanings as
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.
A home licensed under this chapter that is
not a party to a
provider agreement, as defined in section
5111.20 of the Revised
Code, shall provide each prospective
resident, before admission,
with the following information,
orally and in a separate written
notice on which is printed in a
conspicuous manner:
"This home is
not a participant in the
medical assistance program administered
by the Ohio department of
job and family services. Consequently,
you may be discharged from this
home if you are unable to pay for
the services provided by this
home."
If the prospective resident has a sponsor whose identity is
made known
to the home, the home shall also inform the sponsor,
before
admission of the resident, of the home's status relative to
the
medical assistance program. Written acknowledgement of the
receipt of the information shall be provided by the resident and,
if the prospective resident has a sponsor who has been identified
to the home, by the sponsor. The written acknowledgement shall
be
made part of the resident's record by the home.
No home shall terminate its status as a provider under the
medical assistance program unless it has complied with section 5111.24 of the Revised Code and, at least ninety days
prior to such termination, provided written notice to the
department of job and family services and residents of the home
and
their
sponsors of such action. This requirement shall not
apply in
cases where the department of job and family services
terminates a
home's
provider agreement or provider status.
(B) A home licensed under this chapter as a residential care
facility shall provide notice to each prospective resident or the
individual's
sponsor of the services offered by the facility and
the types of skilled
nursing care that the facility may provide.
A residential care facility that,
pursuant to section 3721.012 of
the Revised Code, has a
policy of entering into risk agreements
with residents or their sponsors shall
provide each prospective
resident or the individual's sponsor a
written explanation of the
policy and the provisions that may be
contained in a risk
agreement. At the time the information is
provided, the facility
shall obtain a statement signed by the
individual receiving the
information acknowledging that the
individual received the
information. The facility shall
maintain on file the individual's
signed statement.
(C) A resident has a cause of action against a home for
breach
of any duty imposed by this section. The action may be
commenced
by the resident, or on the resident's behalf by
the
resident's sponsor or a residents'
rights advocate, by the filing
of a civil action in the court of
common pleas of the county in
which the home is located, or in
the court of common pleas of
Franklin county.
If the court finds that a breach of any duty imposed by
this
section has occurred, the court shall enjoin the home from
discharging the resident from the home until arrangements
satisfactory to the court are made for the orderly transfer of
the
resident to another mode of health care including, but not
limited
to, another home, and may award the resident and a person
or
public agency that brings an action on behalf of a resident
reasonable attorney's fees. If a home discharges a resident to
whom or to whose sponsor information concerning its status
relative to the medical assistance program was not provided as
required under this section, the court shall grant any
appropriate
relief including, but not limited to, actual damages,
reasonable
attorney's fees, and costs.
Sec. 3721.56.
(A) Thirty and three-tenths per cent of
all
payments and
penalties paid by nursing
homes and hospitals
under
sections
3721.53 and 3721.54 of the
Revised Code
for fiscal
year
2002,
twenty-three and twenty-six-hundredths per
cent of
such
payments and penalties paid for fiscal years 2003
through
2005,
and all such payments and penalties paid for
subsequent
fiscal
years, shall be deposited into the "home and
community-based
services for the aged fund," which is hereby
created in the state
treasury. The departments of job and
family
services
and aging
shall use the moneys in the fund to fund the
following
in
accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.58
of the
Revised
Code:
(1) The medical assistance medicaid program established under
Chapter
5111. of the Revised Code;
(2) The PASSPORT program established under section 173.40
of
the Revised Code;
(3) The residential state supplement program
established
under section 173.35 of the Revised Code.
(B) Sixty-nine and seven-tenths per cent of all payments and
penalties paid by
nursing homes and hospitals under sections
3721.53 and 3721.54 of
the Revised Code for fiscal
year 2002,
and
seventy-six and seventy-four-hundredths per cent of such
payments
and penalties paid for fiscal years
2003
through 2005,
shall be
deposited
into the nursing facility stabilization
fund,
which is
hereby
created in the state treasury. The
department of
job and
family
services shall use the money in the
fund in the
manner
provided by
Am. Sub. H.B. 94
and Am. Sub. S.B. 261 of the
124th
general assembly to make payments to nursing facilities under the medicaid program.
Sec. 3721.561. Any money remaining in the nursing facility stabilization fund created under section 3721.56 of the Revised Code after payments specified in division (B) of that section are made for fiscal years 2002 through 2005 shall be retained in the fund. Any interest or other investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be credited to the fund and used to make payments in accordance with division (B) of section 3721.56 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3722.15. (A) The following may enter an adult care
facility at any time:
(1) Employees designated by the director of
health;
(2) Employees designated by the director of aging;
(3) Employees
designated by the attorney general;
(4) Employees designated by a
county department of job and
family services to implement
sections 5101.60
to 5101.71 5101.70 of the
Revised Code on behalf of a county department of job and family services or designated agency, as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code;
(5) Persons employed pursuant to
division (M) of section
173.01 of the Revised Code in the
long-term care facilities
ombudsperson program;
(6) Employees of the department of mental health designated
by the
director of mental health;
(7) Employees of a mental health agency,
if the agency
has a
client residing in the facility;
(8) Employees of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and
mental
health services, when authorized by section 340.05 of the
Revised
Code or if an individual receiving mental health services
provided by
the board pursuant to
division (A)(8)(b) of section
340.03 of the Revised Code or a
mental health agency under
contract with the board resides in the
facility.
These
employees shall be afforded
access to all records of
the facility, including records
pertaining to residents, and may
copy the records. Neither these
employees nor the director of
health shall release, without
consent, any information obtained
from the records of an adult
care facility that reasonably would
tend to identify a specific
resident of the facility, except as
ordered by a court of
competent jurisdiction.
(B) The following persons may enter any adult care
facility
during reasonable hours:
(1) A resident's sponsor;
(2) Residents' rights advocates;
(3) A resident's attorney;
(4) A minister, priest, rabbi, or other person ministering
to a resident's religious needs;
(5) A physician or other person providing health care
services to a resident;
(6) Employees authorized by county departments of job and
family
services and local boards of health or health departments
to
enter adult care facilities;
(7) A prospective resident and prospective resident's
sponsor.
(C) The manager of an adult care facility may require a
person seeking to enter the facility to present identification
sufficient to identify the person as an authorized person
under
this section.
Sec. 3722.16. (A) No person shall:
(1) Operate an adult care facility unless the facility is
validly licensed by the director of health under section 3722.04
of the Revised Code;
(2) Admit to an adult care facility more residents than
the
number authorized in the facility's license;
(3) Admit a resident to an adult care facility after the
director has issued an order pursuant to section 3722.07 of the
Revised Code suspending admissions to the facility. Violation of
division (A)(3) of this section is cause for revocation of the
facility's license.
(4) Interfere with any authorized inspection of an adult
care facility conducted pursuant to section 3722.02 or 3722.04 of
the Revised Code;
(5) Violate any of the provisions of this chapter or any
of
the rules adopted pursuant to it.
(B) No adult care facility shall provide, or admit or
retain
any resident in need of, skilled nursing care unless all of
the
following are the case:
(1) The care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any
twelve-month period by one or more of the following:
(a) A home health agency certified under Title XVIII of
the
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301,
as
amended:
(b) A hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of
the Revised Code;
(c) A nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the
Revised Code and owned and operated by the same person and
located
on the same site as the adult care facility;
(d) A mental health agency or, pursuant to division
(A)(8)(b) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code, a board of
alcohol, drug addiction,
and mental health services.
(2) The staff of the home health agency, hospice care
program, nursing home, mental health agency, or board of
alcohol,
drug addiction, and mental health services does not train
facility
staff to provide
the skilled nursing care;
(3) The individual to whom the skilled nursing care is
provided is suffering from a short-term illness;
(4) If the skilled nursing care is to be provided by the
nursing staff of a nursing home, all of the following are the
case:
(a) The adult care facility evaluates the individual
receiving the skilled nursing care at least once every seven days
to determine whether the individual should be transferred to
a
nursing home;
(b) The adult care facility meets at all times staffing
requirements established by rules adopted under section 3722.10
of
the Revised Code;
(c) The nursing home does not include the cost of
providing
skilled nursing care to the adult care facility
residents in a
cost report filed under section 5111.26 5111.23 of the
Revised Code;
(d) The nursing home meets at all times the nursing home
licensure staffing ratios established by rules adopted under
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;
(e) The nursing home staff providing skilled nursing care
to
adult care facility residents are registered nurses or
licensed
practical nurses licensed under Chapter 4723. of the
Revised Code
and meet the personnel qualifications for nursing
home staff
established by rules adopted under section 3721.04 of
the Revised
Code;
(f) The skilled nursing care is provided in accordance
with
rules established for nursing homes under section 3721.04 of
the
Revised Code;
(g) The nursing home meets the skilled nursing care needs
of
the adult care facility residents;
(h) Using the nursing home's nursing staff does not
prevent
the nursing home or adult care facility from meeting the
needs of
the nursing home and adult care facility residents in a
quality
and timely manner.
Notwithstanding section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, an
adult
care facility in which residents receive skilled nursing
care as
described in division (B) of this section is not a
nursing home.
No adult care facility shall provide skilled
nursing care.
(C) A home health agency or hospice care program that
provides skilled nursing care pursuant to division (B) of this
section may not be associated with the adult care facility unless
the facility is part of a home for the aged as defined in section
5701.13 of the Revised Code or the adult care facility is owned
and operated by the same person and located on the same site as a
nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code
that
is associated with the home health agency or hospice care
program.
In addition, the following requirements shall be met:
(1) The adult care facility shall evaluate the individual
receiving the skilled nursing care not less than once every seven
days to determine whether the individual should be
transferred to
a nursing
home;
(2) If the costs of providing the skilled nursing care are
included in a cost report filed pursuant to section 5111.26 5111.23 of
the
Revised Code by the nursing home that is part of the same
home for
the aged, the home health agency or hospice care program
shall not
seek reimbursement for the care under the medical
assistance
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised
Code.
(D)(1) No person knowingly shall place or recommend
placement of any person in an adult care facility that is
operating without a license.
(2) No employee of a unit of local or state government,
board of
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental
health
services,
mental health agency, or
PASSPORT administrative agency shall
place or recommend placement of any person in an adult care
facility if the employee knows that the facility cannot meet the
needs of the potential resident.
(3) No person who has reason to believe that an adult care
facility is operating without a license shall fail to report this
information to the director of health.
(E) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,
the
public health council shall adopt rules that define a
short-term
illness for purposes of division (B)(3) of this
section and
specify, consistent with rules pertaining to home
health care
adopted by the director of job and family
services under the
medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of the
Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49
Stat.
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, what constitutes a
part-time, intermittent basis for purposes of division (B)(1) of
this section.
Sec. 3727.17. Each hospital shall provide a staff person
to
do all of the following:
(A) Meet with each unmarried mother who gave birth in or
en
route to the hospital within twenty-four hours after the birth
or
before the mother is released from the hospital;
(B) Attempt to meet with the father of the unmarried
mother's child if possible;
(C) Explain to the unmarried mother and the father, if the
father is present, the benefit to the child of establishing a
parent and
child relationship between the father and the child and
the
various proper procedures for establishing a parent and child
relationship;
(D) Present to the unmarried mother and, if possible, the
father, the pamphlet or statement regarding the rights and
responsibilities of a natural parent prepared by the department
of
job and family services pursuant to section
3111.32 of the
Revised
Code;
(E) Provide the unmarried mother, and if possible the
father, all forms and statements
necessary to
voluntarily
establish a parent and child relationship, including
the
acknowledgment of paternity form prepared by the
department of job
and family services pursuant to section
3111.31 of the Revised
Code;
(F) Explain to the mother and father the availability of immediate genetic testing at the hospital to establish the parent and child relationship and that the test is at no cost to the mother or father;
(G) Upon both the mother's and father's request, help the
mother and father complete any specific form or statement
necessary to
establish a parent and child relationship;
(G)(H) Present to an unmarried mother who is not a recipient
of
medicaid or a participant in Ohio works first an application for
Title IV-D
services;
(H)(I) Mail the
voluntary acknowledgment of paternity, no later
than ten days after
it is completed, to the office
of child
support in the department of job and family services.
Each hospital shall provide a notary public to notarize an
acknowledgment
of paternity signed by the mother and father.
If a
hospital knows or
determines that a man is presumed under section
3111.03 of the
Revised Code to be the father of the child
described in this section and that the presumed father is not the
man who
signed or is attempting to sign an acknowledgment with
respect to the
child, the hospital shall take no further
action
with regard to the acknowledgment and shall not mail
the
acknowledgment pursuant to this
section.
A hospital may contract with a person or government
entity to
fulfill its responsibilities under this section and
sections
3111.71 to 3111.74 of the
Revised
Code. Services provided by a
hospital under this section or pursuant to a contract under
sections 3111.71 and 3111.77 of the
Revised Code do not constitute
the
practice of law. A hospital shall not be subject to criminal
or
civil liability for any damage or injury alleged to result from
services provided pursuant to this section or
sections 3111.71 to
3111.74 of the Revised
Code unless the hospital acted with
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a
wanton or reckless
manner.
Sec. 3733.43. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this
division, prior to the fifteenth day of April in each year, every
person who intends to operate an agricultural labor camp shall
make application to the licensor for a license to operate such
camp, effective for the calendar year in which it is issued. The
licensor may accept an application on or after the fifteenth day
of April. The license fees specified in this division shall be
submitted to the licensor with the application for a license. No
agricultural labor camp shall be operated in this state without a
license. Any person operating an agricultural labor camp without
a current and valid agricultural labor camp license is not
excepted from compliance with sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the
Revised Code by holding a valid and current hotel license. Each
person proposing to open an agricultural labor camp shall submit
with the application for a license any plans required by any rule
adopted under section 3733.42 of the Revised Code. The annual
license fee is twenty seventy-five dollars, unless the application for a
license is made on or after the fifteenth day of April, in which
case the annual license fee is forty one hundred dollars. An additional fee
of three ten dollars per housing unit per year shall be assessed to
defray the costs of enforcing sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the
Revised Code, unless the application for a license is made on or
after the fifteenth day of April, in which case an additional fee
of six fifteen dollars per housing unit shall be assessed. All fees
collected under this division shall be deposited in the state
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code and shall be used for the
administration and enforcement of sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of
the Revised Code and rules adopted thereunder.
(B) Any license under this section may be denied,
suspended, or revoked by the licensor for violation of sections
3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code or the rules adopted
thereunder. Unless there is an immediate serious public health
hazard, no denial, suspension, or revocation of a license shall
be made effective until the person operating the agricultural
labor camp has been given notice in writing of the specific
violations and a reasonable time to make corrections. When the
licensor determines that an immediate serious public health
hazard exists, he the licensor shall issue an order denying or
suspending the
license without a prior hearing.
(C) All proceedings under this section are subject to
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code except as provided in section
3733.431 of the Revised Code.
(D) Every occupant of an agricultural labor camp shall
keep that part of the dwelling unit, and premises thereof, that
he the occupant occupies and controls in a clean and sanitary
condition.
Sec. 3733.45. (A) The licensor shall inspect all
agricultural labor camps and shall require compliance with
sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code and the rules
adopted thereunder prior to the issuance of a license. Upon
receipt of a complaint from the migrant agricultural ombudsman
ombudsperson or
upon the basis of a licensor's own information that an
agricultural labor camp is operating without a license, the
licensor shall inspect the camp. If the camp is operating
without a license, the licensor shall require the camp to comply
with sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the Revised Code and the
rules adopted under those sections. No license shall be issued
unless results of water supply tests indicate that the water
supply meets required standards or if any violations exist
concerning sanitation, drainage, or habitability of housing
units.
(B) The licensor shall, upon issuance of each license,
distribute posters containing the toll-free telephone number of
the migrant agricultural ombudsman ombudsperson established in
section 3733.49
of the Revised Code and information in English and Spanish
describing the purpose of the ombudsman's ombudsperson's office,
as provided in
that section. The licensor shall provide at least two posters to
the licensee, one for his the licensee's personal use and at
least one that
shall be posted in a conspicuous place within the camp.
(C) The licensor may, upon proper identification to the
operator or his the operator's agent, enter on any property or
into any
structure at any reasonable time for the purpose of making
inspections required by this section.
The licensor shall make at least one inspection prior to
licensing, and at least two inspections during occupancy of the
camps, at least one of which shall be an unannounced evening
inspection conducted after five p.m. The licensor shall
determine and record housing unit occupancy during each evening
inspection. The licensor shall make such other inspections as he
the licensor
considers necessary to enforce sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the
Revised Code adequately.
(D) Any plans submitted to the licensor shall be in
compliance with rules adopted pursuant to section 3733.42 of the
Revised Code and shall be approved or disapproved within thirty
days after they are filed.
(E) All designees of the licensor who conduct inspections
in the evening in accordance with this section shall speak both
English and Spanish fluently. At least one member of the
permanent staff assigned to conduct inspections in accordance
with this section shall speak both English and Spanish fluently.
(F) The licensor shall issue an annual report that shall
accurately reflect the results of that year's inspections,
including, but not limited to, numbers of pre- and post-occupancy
inspections, number of violations found, and action taken in
regard to violations. The report shall also include an
assessment of any problems found in that year and proposed
solutions for them.
Sec. 3734.02. (A) The director of environmental
protection, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,
shall adopt and may amend, suspend, or rescind rules having
uniform application throughout the state governing solid waste
facilities and the inspections of and issuance of permits and
licenses for all solid waste facilities in order to ensure that
the facilities will be located, maintained, and operated, and
will undergo closure and post-closure care, in a sanitary manner
so as not to create a nuisance, cause or contribute to water
pollution, create a health hazard, or violate 40 C.F.R. 257.3-2
or 40 C.F.R. 257.3-8, as amended. The rules may include, without
limitation, financial assurance requirements for closure and
post-closure care and corrective action and requirements for
taking corrective action in the event of the surface or
subsurface discharge or migration of explosive gases or leachate
from a solid waste facility, or of ground water contamination
resulting from the transfer or disposal of solid wastes at a
facility, beyond the boundaries of any area within a facility
that is operating or is undergoing closure or post-closure care
where solid wastes were disposed of or are being disposed of.
The rules shall not concern or relate to personnel policies,
salaries, wages, fringe benefits, or other conditions of
employment of employees of persons owning or operating solid
waste facilities. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119.
of the Revised Code, shall adopt and may amend, suspend, or
rescind rules governing the issuance, modification, revocation,
suspension, or denial of variances from the director's solid
waste rules,
including, without limitation, rules adopted under this
chapter governing the management of scrap tires.
Variances shall be issued, modified, revoked, suspended, or
rescinded in accordance with this division, rules adopted under
it, and Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. The director may
order the person to whom a variance is issued to take such action
within such time as the director may determine to be appropriate
and reasonable to prevent the creation of a nuisance or a hazard
to the public health or safety or the environment. Applications
for variances shall contain such detail plans, specifications,
and information regarding objectives, procedures, controls, and
other pertinent data as the director may require. The director
shall grant a variance only if the applicant demonstrates to the
director's satisfaction that construction and operation of the
solid waste facility in the manner allowed by the variance and
any terms or conditions imposed as part of the variance will not
create a nuisance or a hazard to the public health or safety or
the environment. In granting any variance, the director shall
state the specific provision or provisions whose terms are to be
varied and also shall state specific terms or conditions imposed
upon the applicant in place of the provision or provisions. The
director may hold a public hearing on an application for a
variance or renewal of a variance at a location in the county
where the operations that are the subject of the application for
the variance are conducted. The director shall give not less
than twenty days' notice of the hearing to the applicant by
certified mail and shall publish at least one notice of the
hearing in a newspaper with general circulation in the county
where the hearing is to be held. The director shall make
available for public inspection at the principal office of the
environmental protection agency a current list of pending
applications for variances and a current schedule of pending
variance hearings. The director shall make a complete
stenographic record of testimony and other evidence submitted at
the hearing. Within ten days after the hearing, the director
shall make a written determination to issue, renew, or deny the
variance and shall enter the determination and the basis for it
into the record of the hearing. The director shall issue, renew,
or deny an application for a variance or renewal of a variance
within six months of the date upon which the director receives a
complete application with all pertinent information and data
required. No variance shall be issued, revoked, modified, or
denied until the director has considered the relative interests
of the applicant, other persons and property affected by the
variance, and the general public. Any variance granted under
this division shall be for a period specified by the director and
may be renewed from time to time on such terms and for such
periods as the director determines to be appropriate. No
application shall be denied and no variance shall be revoked or
modified without a written order stating the findings upon which
the denial, revocation, or modification is based. A copy of the
order shall be sent to the applicant or variance holder by
certified mail.
(B) The director shall prescribe and furnish the forms
necessary to administer and enforce this chapter. The director
may cooperate with and enter into agreements with other state,
local, or federal agencies to carry out the purposes of this
chapter. The director may exercise all incidental powers
necessary to carry out the purposes of this chapter.
The director may use moneys in the infectious waste
management fund created in section 3734.021 of the Revised Code
exclusively for administering and enforcing the provisions of
this chapter governing the management of infectious wastes. Of
each registration and renewal fee collected under rules adopted
under division (A)(2)(a) of section 3734.021 or under section
3734.022 of the Revised Code, the director, within forty-five
days of its receipt, shall remit from the fund one-half of the
fee received to the board of health of the health district in
which the registered premises is located, or, in the instance of
an infectious wastes transporter, to the board of health of the
health district in which the transporter's principal place of
business is located. However, if the board of health having
jurisdiction over a registrant's premises or principal place of
business is not on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the
Revised Code, the director shall not make that payment to the
board of health.
(C) Except as provided in this division and divisions
(N)(2) and (3) of this section, no person shall establish a
new solid
waste facility or infectious waste treatment facility, or modify
an existing solid waste facility or infectious waste treatment
facility, without submitting an application for a permit with
accompanying detail plans, specifications, and information
regarding the facility and method of operation and receiving a
permit issued by the director, except that no permit shall be
required under this division to install or operate a solid waste
facility for sewage sludge treatment or disposal when the
treatment or disposal is authorized by a current permit issued
under Chapter 3704. or 6111. of the Revised Code.
No person shall continue to operate a solid waste facility
for which the director has denied a permit for which an
application was required under division (A)(3) of section 3734.05
of the Revised Code, or for which the director has disapproved
plans and specifications required to be filed by an order issued
under division (A)(5) of that section, after the date prescribed
for commencement of closure of the facility in the order issued
under division (A)(6) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code
denying the permit application or approval.
On and after the effective date of the rules adopted under
division (A) of this section and division (D) of section 3734.12
of the Revised Code governing solid waste transfer facilities, no
person shall establish a new, or modify an existing, solid waste
transfer facility without first submitting an application for a
permit with accompanying engineering detail plans,
specifications, and information regarding the facility and its
method of operation to the director and receiving a permit issued
by the director.
No person shall establish a new compost facility or
continue to operate an existing compost facility that accepts
exclusively source separated yard wastes without submitting a
completed registration for the facility to the director in
accordance with rules adopted under divisions (A)
and (N)(3) of this section.
This division does not apply to an infectious waste
treatment facility that meets any of the following conditions:
(1) Is owned or operated by the generator of the wastes
and exclusively treats, by methods, techniques, and practices
established by rules adopted under division (C)(1) or (3) of
section 3734.021 of the Revised Code, wastes that are generated
at any premises owned or operated by that generator regardless of
whether the wastes are generated on the premises where the
generator's treatment facility is located or, if the generator is
a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code,
infectious wastes that are described in division (A)(1)(g), (h), or (i) of
section 3734.021 of the Revised Code;
(2) Holds a license or renewal of a license to operate a crematory
facility issued under Chapter
4717. and a permit issued under Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code;
(3) Treats or disposes of dead animals or parts thereof,
or the blood of animals, and is subject to any of the following:
(a) Inspection under the "Federal Meat Inspection Act," 81
Stat. 584 (1967), 21 U.S.C.A. 603, as amended;
(b) Chapter 918. of the Revised Code;
(c) Chapter 953. of the Revised Code.
(D) Neither this chapter nor any rules adopted under it
apply to single-family residential premises; to infectious wastes
generated by individuals for purposes of their own care or
treatment that are disposed of with solid wastes from the
individual's residence; to the temporary storage of solid wastes,
other than scrap tires, prior to their collection for disposal;
to the storage of one hundred or fewer scrap tires unless they
are stored in such a manner that, in the judgment of the director
or the board of health of the health district in which the scrap
tires are stored, the storage causes a nuisance, a hazard to
public health or safety, or a fire hazard; or to the collection
of solid wastes, other than scrap tires, by a political
subdivision or a person holding a franchise or license from a
political subdivision of the state; to composting, as defined in
section 1511.01 of the Revised Code, conducted in accordance with
section 1511.022 of the Revised Code; or to any person who is
licensed to transport raw rendering material to a compost
facility pursuant to section 953.23 of the Revised Code.
(E)(1) As used in this division and section 3734.18 of the
Revised Code:
(a) "On-site facility" means a facility that stores,
treats, or disposes of hazardous waste that is generated on the
premises of the facility.
(b) "Off-site facility" means a facility that stores,
treats, or disposes of hazardous waste that is generated off the
premises of the facility and includes such a facility that is
also an on-site facility.
(c) "Satellite facility" means any of the following:
(i) An on-site facility that also receives hazardous waste
from other premises owned by the same person who generates the
waste on the facility premises;
(ii) An off-site facility operated so that all of the
hazardous waste it receives is generated on one or more premises
owned by the person who owns the facility;
(iii) An on-site facility that also receives hazardous
waste that is transported uninterruptedly and directly to the facility
through a pipeline from a generator who is not the owner of the
facility.
(2) Except as provided in division (E)(3)
of this section, no person shall establish or operate a hazardous
waste facility, or use a solid waste facility for the storage,
treatment, or disposal of any hazardous waste, without a
hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit from
the hazardous waste facility board issued in accordance with
section 3734.05 of the Revised Code and subject to the payment of
an application fee not to exceed one thousand five hundred
dollars, payable upon application for a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit and upon application for a
renewal permit issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of
the Revised Code, to be credited to the hazardous waste facility
management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code.
The term of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation
permit shall not exceed five years.
In addition to the application fee, there is hereby levied
an annual permit fee to be paid by the permit holder upon the
anniversaries of the date of issuance of the hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit and of any subsequent
renewal permits and to be credited to the hazardous waste
facility management fund. Annual permit fees totaling forty
thousand dollars or more for any one facility may be paid on a
quarterly basis with the first quarterly payment each year being
due on the anniversary of the date of issuance of the hazardous
waste facility installation and operation permit and of any
subsequent renewal permits. The annual permit fee shall be
determined for each permit holder by the director in accordance
with the following schedule:
| TYPE OF BASIC |
|
|
|
|
| MANAGEMENT UNIT |
|
TYPE OF FACILITY |
|
FEE |
| Storage facility using: |
|
|
|
|
| Containers |
|
On-site, off-site, and |
|
|
|
|
satellite |
|
$ 500 |
| Tanks |
|
On-site, off-site, and |
|
|
|
|
satellite |
|
500 |
| Waste pile |
|
On-site, off-site, and |
|
|
|
|
satellite |
|
3,000 |
| Surface impoundment |
|
On-site and satellite |
|
8,000 |
|
|
Off-site |
|
10,000 |
| Disposal facility using: |
|
|
|
|
| Deep well injection |
|
On-site and satellite |
|
15,000 |
|
|
Off-site |
|
25,000 |
| Landfill |
|
On-site and satellite |
|
25,000 |
|
|
Off-site |
|
40,000 |
| Land application |
|
On-site and satellite |
|
2,500 |
|
|
Off-site |
|
5,000 |
| Surface impoundment |
|
On-site and satellite |
|
10,000 |
|
|
Off-site |
|
20,000 |
| Treatment facility using: |
|
|
|
|
| Tanks |
|
On-site, off-site, and |
|
|
|
|
satellite |
|
700 |
| Surface impoundment |
|
On-site and satellite |
|
8,000 |
|
|
Off-site |
|
10,000 |
| Incinerator |
|
On-site and satellite |
|
5,000 |
|
|
Off-site |
|
10,000 |
| Other forms |
|
|
|
|
| of treatment |
|
On-site, off-site, and |
|
|
|
|
satellite |
|
1,000 |
In determining the annual permit fee required by this
section, the director shall not require additional payments for
multiple units of the same method of storage, treatment, or
disposal or for individual units that are used for both storage
and treatment. A facility using more than one method of storage,
treatment, or disposal shall pay the permit fee indicated by the
schedule for each such method.
The director shall not require the payment of that portion
of an annual permit fee of any permit holder that would apply to
a hazardous waste management unit for which a permit has been
issued, but for which construction has not yet commenced. Once
construction has commenced, the director shall require the
payment of a part of the appropriate fee indicated by the
schedule that bears the same relationship to the total fee that
the number of days remaining until the next anniversary date at
which payment of the annual permit fee is due bears to three
hundred sixty-five.
The director, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapters
119. and 3745. of the Revised Code, shall prescribe procedures
for collecting the annual permit fee established by this division
and may prescribe other requirements necessary to carry out this
division.
(3) The prohibition against establishing or operating a hazardous
waste
facility without a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit
from the
board does not apply to either of the following:
(a) A facility that is operating in accordance with a permit
renewal issued under division (H) of section
3734.05 of the Revised
Code, a revision issued under division
(I) of that section as it existed prior to August 20, 1996, or
a
modification issued by the
director under division (I) of that section on and after August 20,
1996;
(b) Except as provided in division (J) of section
3734.05 of the Revised Code, a facility that will operate or is operating in
accordance
with a permit by rule, or that is not subject to permit requirements, under
rules adopted by the director. In accordance with
Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code,
the director shall adopt, and subsequently may amend, suspend, or rescind,
rules for the purposes of division
(E)(3)(b) of this section.
Any rules so adopted shall be consistent with and equivalent to regulations
pertaining to interim status adopted under the "Resource
Conservation and
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42
U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, except as
otherwise provided in this chapter.
If a modification is requested or proposed for a facility described in
division (E)(3)(a) or (b) of this section,
division (I)(8)(7) of section 3734.05 of the Revised
Code applies.
(F) No person shall store, treat, or dispose of hazardous
waste identified or listed under this chapter and rules adopted
under it, regardless of whether generated on or off the premises
where the waste is stored, treated, or disposed of, or transport
or cause to be transported any hazardous waste identified or
listed under this chapter and rules adopted under it to any other
premises, except at or to any of the following:
(1) A hazardous waste facility operating under a permit
issued in accordance with this chapter;
(2) A facility in another state operating under a license
or permit issued in accordance with the "Resource Conservation
and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as
amended;
(3) A facility in another nation operating in accordance
with the laws of that nation;
(4) A facility holding a permit issued pursuant to Title I
of the "Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of
1972," 86 Stat. 1052, 33 U.S.C.A. 1401, as amended;
(5) A hazardous waste facility as described in division
(E)(3)(a) or (b) of this section.
(G) The director, by order, may exempt any person
generating, collecting, storing, treating, disposing of, or
transporting solid wastes or hazardous waste, or processing solid
wastes that consist of scrap tires, in such quantities or under
such circumstances that, in the determination of the director,
are unlikely to adversely affect the public health or safety or
the environment from any requirement to obtain a registration
certificate, permit, or license or comply with the manifest
system or other requirements of this chapter. Such an exemption
shall be consistent with and equivalent to any regulations
adopted by the administrator of the United States environmental
protection agency under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, except
as otherwise provided in this chapter.
(H) No person shall engage in filling, grading,
excavating, building, drilling, or mining on land where a
hazardous waste facility, or a solid waste facility, was operated
without prior authorization from the director, who shall
establish the procedure for granting such authorization by rules
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
A public utility that has main or distribution lines above
or below the land surface located on an easement or right-of-way
across land where a solid waste facility was operated may engage
in any such activity within the easement or right-of-way without
prior authorization from the director for purposes of performing
emergency repair or emergency replacement of its lines; of the
poles, towers, foundations, or other structures supporting or
sustaining any such lines; or of the appurtenances to those
structures, necessary to restore or maintain existing public
utility service. A public utility may enter upon any such
easement or right-of-way without prior authorization from the
director for purposes of performing necessary or routine
maintenance of those portions of its existing lines; of the
existing poles, towers, foundations, or other structures
sustaining or supporting its lines; or of the appurtenances to
any such supporting or sustaining structure, located on or above
the land surface on any such easement or right-of-way. Within
twenty-four hours after commencing any such emergency repair,
replacement, or maintenance work, the public utility shall
notify the director or the director's authorized
representative of those
activities and shall provide such information regarding those
activities as the director or the director's representative
may request. Upon completion of the emergency repair,
replacement, or
maintenance activities, the public utility shall restore any
land of the solid waste facility disturbed by those activities to
the condition existing prior to the commencement of those
activities.
(I) No owner or operator of a hazardous waste facility, in
the operation of the facility, shall cause, permit, or allow the
emission therefrom of any particulate matter, dust, fumes, gas,
mist, smoke, vapor, or odorous substance that, in the opinion of
the director, unreasonably interferes with the comfortable
enjoyment of life or property by persons living or working in the
vicinity of the facility, or that is injurious to public health.
Any such action is hereby declared to be a public nuisance.
(J) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter,
in the event the director finds an imminent and substantial
danger to public health or safety or the environment that creates
an emergency situation requiring the immediate treatment,
storage, or disposal of hazardous waste, the director may issue a
temporary emergency permit to allow the treatment, storage, or
disposal of the hazardous waste at a facility that is not
otherwise authorized by a hazardous waste facility installation
and operation permit to treat, store, or dispose of the waste.
The emergency permit shall not exceed ninety days in duration and
shall not be renewed. The director shall adopt, and may amend,
suspend, or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code governing the issuance, modification, revocation,
and denial of emergency permits.
(K) No owner or operator of a sanitary landfill shall
knowingly accept for disposal, or dispose of, any infectious
wastes, other than those subject to division (A)(1)(c) of section
3734.021 of the Revised Code, that have not been treated to
render them noninfectious. For the purposes of this division,
certification by the owner or operator of the treatment facility
where the wastes were treated on the shipping paper required by
rules adopted under division (D)(2) of that section creates a
rebuttable presumption that the wastes have been so treated.
(L) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code, shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind,
rules having uniform application throughout the state
establishing a training and certification program that shall be
required for employees of boards of health who are responsible
for enforcing the solid waste and infectious waste provisions of
this chapter and rules adopted under them and for persons who are
responsible for the operation of solid waste facilities or
infectious waste treatment facilities. The rules shall provide
all of the following, without limitation:
(1) The program shall be administered by the director and
shall consist of a course on new solid waste and infectious waste
technologies, enforcement procedures, and rules;
(2) The course shall be offered on an annual basis;
(3) Those persons who are required to take the course
under division (L) of this section shall do so triennially;
(4) Persons who successfully complete the course shall be
certified by the director;
(5) Certification shall be required for all employees of
boards of health who are responsible for enforcing the solid
waste or infectious waste provisions of this chapter and rules
adopted under them and for all persons who are responsible for
the operation of solid waste facilities or infectious waste
treatment facilities;
(6)(a) All employees of a board of health who, on the
effective date of the rules adopted under this division, are
responsible for enforcing the solid waste or infectious waste
provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under them shall
complete the course and be certified by the director not later
than January 1, 1995;
(b) All employees of a board of health who, after the
effective date of the rules adopted under division (L)
of this section, become responsible for enforcing the solid waste or
infectious waste
provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under them and who
do not hold a current and valid certification from the director
at that time shall complete the course and be certified by the
director within two years after becoming responsible for
performing those activities.
No person shall fail to obtain the certification required
under this division.
(M) The director shall not issue a permit under section
3734.05 of the Revised Code to establish a solid waste facility,
or to modify a solid waste facility operating on December 21,
1988, in a manner that expands the disposal capacity or
geographic area covered by the facility, that is or is to be
located within the boundaries of a state park established or
dedicated under Chapter 1541. of the Revised Code, a state park
purchase area established under section 1541.02 of the Revised
Code, any unit of the national park system, or any property that
lies within the boundaries of a national park or recreation area,
but that has not been acquired or is not administered by the
secretary of the United States department of the interior,
located in this state, or any candidate area located in this
state and identified for potential inclusion in the national park
system in the edition of the "national park system plan"
submitted under paragraph (b) of section 8 of "The Act of August
18, 1970," 84 Stat. 825, 16 U.S.C.A. 1a-5, as amended, current at
the time of filing of the application for the permit, unless the
facility or proposed facility is or is to be used exclusively for
the disposal of solid wastes generated within the park or
recreation area and the director determines that the facility or
proposed facility will not degrade any of the natural or cultural
resources of the park or recreation area. The director shall not
issue a variance under division (A) of this section and rules
adopted under it, or issue an exemption order under division (G)
of this section, that would authorize any such establishment or
expansion of a solid waste facility within the boundaries of any
such park or recreation area, state park purchase area, or
candidate area, other than a solid waste facility exclusively for
the disposal of solid wastes generated within the park or
recreation area when the director determines that the facility
will not degrade any of the natural or cultural resources of the
park or recreation area.
(N)(1) The rules adopted under division (A) of this
section, other than those governing variances, do not apply to
scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery
facilities. Those facilities are subject to and governed by
rules adopted under sections 3734.70 to 3734.73 of the Revised
Code, as applicable.
(2) Division (C) of this section does not apply to scrap
tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery
facilities. The establishment and modification of those
facilities are subject to sections 3734.75 to 3734.78 and section
3734.81 of the Revised Code, as applicable.
(3) The director may adopt, amend, suspend, or rescind rules
under
division (A) of this section creating an alternative system for
authorizing the establishment, operation, or modification of a
solid waste compost facility in lieu of the requirement that a
person seeking to establish, operate, or modify a solid waste
compost facility apply for and receive a permit under division (C)
of this section and section 3734.05 of the Revised Code and a
license under division (A)(1) of that section. The rules may
include requirements governing, without limitation, the classification of
solid waste compost
facilities, the submittal of operating records for solid waste
compost facilities, and the creation of a registration or
notification system in lieu of the issuance of permits and
licenses for solid waste compost facilities. The rules shall
specify the applicability of divisions (A)(1),
(2)(a), (3), and
(4) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code to a solid waste
compost facility.
Sec. 3734.05. (A)(1) Except as provided in divisions
(A)(4), (8), and (9) of this section, no person shall operate
or maintain a solid waste facility without a license issued under
this division by the board of health of the health district in
which the facility is located or by the director of environmental
protection when the health district in which the facility is
located is not on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the
Revised Code.
During the month of December, but before the first day of
January of the next year, every person proposing to continue to
operate an existing solid waste facility shall procure a license
under this division to operate the facility for that year from
the board of health of the health district in which the facility
is located or, if the health district is not on the approved list
under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code, from the director. The application
for such a license shall be submitted to the
board of health or to the director, as appropriate, on or before
the last day of September of the year preceding that for which
the license is sought. In addition to the application fee
prescribed in division (A)(2) of this section, a person who
submits an application after that date shall pay an additional
ten per cent of the amount of the application fee for each week
that the application is late. Late payment fees accompanying an
application submitted to the board of health shall be credited to
the special fund of the health district created in division (B)
of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code, and late payment fees
accompanying an application submitted to the director shall be
credited to the general revenue fund. A person who has received
a license, upon sale or disposition of a solid waste facility,
and upon consent of the board of health and the director, may
have the license transferred to another person. The board of
health or the director may include such terms and conditions in a
license or revision to a license as are appropriate to ensure
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it. The
terms and conditions may establish the authorized maximum daily
waste receipts for the facility. Limitations on maximum daily
waste receipts shall be specified in cubic yards of volume for
the purpose of regulating the design, construction, and operation
of solid waste facilities. Terms and conditions included in a
license or revision to a license by a board of health shall be
consistent with, and pertain only to the subjects addressed in,
the rules adopted under division (A) of section 3734.02 and
division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.
(2)(a) Except as provided in divisions (A)(2)(b), (8), and (9) of this
section, each person proposing to open a new
solid waste facility or to modify an existing solid waste
facility shall submit an application for a permit with
accompanying detail plans and specifications to the environmental
protection agency for required approval under the rules adopted
by the director pursuant to division (A) of section 3734.02 of
the Revised Code and applicable rules adopted under division (D)
of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code at least two hundred
seventy days before proposed operation of the facility and shall
concurrently make application for the issuance of a license under
division (A)(1) of this section with the board of health of the
health district in which the proposed facility is to be located.
(b) On and after the effective date of the rules adopted
under division (A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and division (D) of
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code governing
solid waste transfer facilities, each person proposing to open a
new solid waste transfer facility or to modify an existing solid
waste transfer facility shall submit an application for a permit
with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, and
information regarding the facility and its method of operation to
the environmental protection agency for required approval under
those rules at least two hundred seventy days before commencing
proposed operation of the facility and concurrently shall make
application for the issuance of a license under division (A)(1)
of this section with the board of health of the health district
in which the facility is located or proposed.
(c) Each application for a permit under division (A)(2)(a)
or (b) of this section shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable
application fee of four hundred dollars that shall be credited to
the general revenue fund. Each application for an annual license
under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be accompanied
by a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred dollars. If
the application for an annual license is submitted to a board of
health on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised
Code, the application fee shall be credited to the special fund
of the health district created in division (B) of section 3734.06
of the Revised Code. If the application for an annual license is
submitted to the director, the application fee shall be credited
to the general revenue fund. If a permit or license is issued,
the amount of the application fee paid shall be deducted from the
amount of the permit fee due under division (Q) of
section
3745.11 of the Revised Code or the amount of the license fee due
under division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of section 3734.06 of the
Revised Code.
(d) As used in divisions (A)(2)(d), (e), and (f) of this
section, "modify" means any of the following:
(i) Any increase of more than ten per cent in the total
capacity of a solid waste facility;
(ii) Any expansion of the limits of solid waste placement
at a solid waste facility;
(iii) Any increase in the depth of excavation at a solid
waste facility;
(iv) Any change in the technique of waste receipt or type
of waste received at a solid waste facility that may endanger
human health, as determined by the director by rules adopted in
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Not later than thirty-five days after submitting an
application under division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section for a
permit to open a new or modify an existing solid waste facility,
the applicant, in conjunction with an officer or employee of the
environmental protection agency, shall hold a public meeting on
the application within the county in which the new or modified
solid waste facility is or is proposed to be located or within a
contiguous county. Not less than thirty days before holding the
public meeting on the application, the applicant shall publish
notice of the meeting in each newspaper of general circulation
that is published in the county in which the facility is or is
proposed to be located. If no newspaper of general circulation
is published in the county, the applicant shall publish the
notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. The
notice shall contain the date, time, and location of the public
meeting and a general description of the proposed new or modified
facility. Not later than five days after publishing the notice,
the applicant shall send by certified mail a copy of the notice
and the date the notice was published to the director and the
legislative authority of each municipal corporation, township,
and county, and to the chief executive officer of each municipal
corporation, in which the facility is or is proposed to be
located. At the public meeting, the applicant shall provide
information and describe the application and respond to comments
or questions concerning the application, and the officer or
employee of the agency shall describe the permit application
process. At the public meeting, any person may submit written or
oral comments on or objections to the application. Not more than
thirty days after the public meeting, the applicant shall provide
the director with a copy of a transcript of the full meeting,
copies of any exhibits, displays, or other materials presented by
the applicant at the meeting, and the original copy of any
written comments submitted at the meeting.
(e) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(f) of this
section, prior to taking an action, other than a proposed or
final denial, upon an application submitted under division
(A)(2)(a) of this section for a permit to open a new or modify an
existing solid waste facility, the director shall hold a public
information session and a public hearing on the application
within the county in which the new or modified solid waste
facility is or is proposed to be located or within a contiguous
county. If the application is for a permit to open a new solid
waste facility, the director shall hold the hearing not less than
fourteen days after the information session. If the application
is for a permit to modify an existing solid waste facility, the
director may hold both the information session and the hearing on
the same day unless any individual affected by the application
requests in writing that the information session and the hearing
not be held on the same day, in which case the director shall
hold the hearing not less than fourteen days after the
information session. The director shall publish notice of the
public information session or public hearing not less than thirty
days before holding the information session or hearing, as
applicable. The notice shall be published in each newspaper of
general circulation that is published in the county in which the
facility is or is proposed to be located. If no newspaper of
general circulation is published in the county, the director
shall publish the notice in a newspaper of general circulation in
the county. The notice shall contain the date, time, and
location of the information session or hearing, as applicable,
and a general description of the proposed new or modified
facility. At the public information session, an officer or
employee of the environmental protection agency shall describe
the status of the permit application and be available to respond
to comments or questions concerning the application. At the
public hearing, any person may submit written or oral comments on
or objections to the approval of the application. The applicant,
or a representative of the applicant who has knowledge of the
location, construction, and operation of the facility, shall
attend the information session and public hearing to respond to
comments or questions concerning the facility directed to the
applicant or representative by
the officer or employee of the environmental protection agency
presiding at the information session and hearing.
(f) The solid waste management policy committee of a
county or joint solid waste management district may adopt a
resolution requesting expeditious consideration of a specific
application submitted under division (A)(2)(a) of this section
for a permit to modify an existing solid waste facility within
the district. The resolution shall make the finding that
expedited consideration of the application without the public
information session and public hearing under division (A)(2)(e)
of this section is in the public interest and will not endanger
human health, as determined by the director by rules adopted in
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Upon receiving
such a resolution, the director, at
the director's discretion, may issue a
final action upon the application without holding a public
information session or public hearing pursuant to division
(A)(2)(e) of this section.
(3) Except as provided in division (A)(10) of this section, and
unless the owner or operator of any solid waste
facility, other than a solid waste transfer facility or a compost
facility that accepts exclusively source separated yard wastes,
that commenced operation on or before July 1, 1968, has obtained
an exemption from the requirements of division (A)(3) of this
section in accordance with division (G) of section 3734.02 of the
Revised Code, the owner or operator shall submit to the
director an application for
a permit with accompanying engineering detail plans,
specifications, and information regarding the facility and its
method of operation for approval under rules adopted under
division (A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and
applicable rules adopted under division (D) of section 3734.12 of
the Revised Code in accordance with the following schedule:
(a) Not later than September 24, 1988, if the facility is
located in the city of Garfield Heights or Parma in Cuyahoga
county;
(b) Not later than December 24, 1988, if the facility is
located in Delaware, Greene, Guernsey, Hamilton, Madison,
Mahoning, Ottawa, or Vinton county;
(c) Not later than March 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in Champaign, Clinton, Columbiana, Huron, Paulding,
Stark, or Washington county, or is located in the city of
Brooklyn or Cuyahoga Heights in Cuyahoga county;
(d) Not later than June 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in Adams, Auglaize, Coshocton, Darke, Harrison, Lorain,
Lucas, or Summit county or is located in Cuyahoga county outside
the cities of Garfield Heights, Parma, Brooklyn, and Cuyahoga
Heights;
(e) Not later than September 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in Butler, Carroll, Erie, Lake, Portage, Putnam, or Ross
county;
(f) Not later than December 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in a county not listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of
this section;
(g) Notwithstanding divisions (A)(3)(a) to (f) of this
section, not later than December 31, 1990, if the facility is a
solid waste facility owned by a generator of solid wastes when
the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of solid wastes
generated at one or more premises owned by the generator
regardless of whether the facility is located on a premises where
the wastes are generated and if the facility disposes of more
than one hundred thousand tons of solid wastes per year, provided
that any such facility shall be subject to division (A)(5) of
this section.
(4) Except as provided in divisions (A)(8), (9), and (10) of
this section, unless
the owner or operator of any solid waste
facility for which a permit was issued after July 1, 1968, but
before January 1, 1980, has obtained an exemption from the
requirements of division (A)(4) of this section under division
(G) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, the owner or
operator shall submit to
the director an application for a permit with accompanying
engineering detail plans, specifications, and information
regarding the facility and its method of operation for approval
under those rules.
(5) The director may issue an order in accordance with
Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code to the owner or operator of a
solid waste facility requiring the person to submit to the
director updated engineering detail plans, specifications, and
information regarding the facility and its method of operation
for approval under rules adopted under division (A) of section
3734.02 of the Revised Code and applicable rules adopted under
division (D) of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code if, in the
director's judgment, conditions at the facility constitute a
substantial threat to public health or safety or are causing or
contributing to or threatening to cause or contribute to air or
water pollution or soil contamination. Any person who receives
such an order shall submit the updated engineering detail plans,
specifications, and information to the director within one
hundred eighty days after the effective date of the order.
(6) The director shall act upon an application submitted
under division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and any updated
engineering plans, specifications, and information submitted
under division (A)(5) of this section within one hundred eighty
days after receiving them. If the director denies any such
permit application, the order denying the
application or disapproving the plans shall include the requirements
that the
owner or operator submit a plan for closure and post-closure care
of the facility to the director for approval within six months
after issuance of the order, cease accepting solid wastes for
disposal or transfer at the facility, and commence closure of the
facility not later than one year after issuance of the order. If
the director determines that closure of the facility within that
one-year period would result in the unavailability of sufficient
solid waste management facility capacity within the county or
joint solid waste management district in which the facility is
located to dispose of or transfer the solid waste generated
within the district, the director in
the order of denial or disapproval
may postpone commencement of closure of the facility for such period
of time as the director finds necessary for the board of
county
commissioners or directors of the district to secure access to or
for there to be constructed within the district sufficient solid
waste management facility capacity to meet the needs of the
district, provided that the director shall certify in the
director's order that postponing the date for commencement of closure will
not endanger ground water or any property surrounding the facility,
allow methane gas migration to occur, or cause or contribute to
any other type of environmental damage.
If an emergency need for disposal capacity that may affect
public health and safety exists as a result of closure of a
facility under division (A)(6) of this section, the director may
issue an order designating another solid waste facility to accept
the wastes that would have been disposed of at the facility to be
closed.
(7) If the director determines that standards more
stringent than those applicable in rules adopted under division
(A) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code and division (D) of
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, or standards pertaining to
subjects not specifically addressed by those rules, are necessary
to ensure that a solid waste facility constructed at the proposed
location will not cause a nuisance, cause or contribute to water
pollution, or endanger public health or safety, the director
may issue a
permit for the facility with such terms and conditions as the
director finds necessary to protect public health and safety and the
environment. If a permit is issued,
the director shall state in
the order issuing it the specific findings supporting each such
term or condition.
(8) Divisions (A)(1), (2)(a), (3), and (4) of this section
do not apply to a solid waste compost facility that accepts
exclusively source separated yard wastes and that is registered
under division (C) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code
or, unless otherwise provided in rules adopted under division
(N)(3) of section
3734.02 of the Revised Code, to a solid waste compost
facility if the director has adopted rules establishing an
alternative system for authorizing the establishment, operation,
or modification of a solid waste compost facility under that
division.
(9) Divisions (A)(1) to (7) of this section do not apply
to scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and
recovery facilities. The approval of plans and specifications,
as applicable, and the issuance of registration certificates,
permits, and licenses for those facilities are subject to
sections 3734.75 to 3734.78 of the Revised Code, as applicable,
and section 3734.81 of the Revised Code.
(10) Divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section do not apply to a
solid waste
incinerator that was placed into operation on or before October
12, 1994, and that is not authorized to accept and treat
infectious wastes pursuant to division (B) of
this section.
(B)(1) Each person who is engaged in the business of
treating infectious wastes for profit at a treatment facility
located off the premises where the wastes are generated that is
in operation on August 10, 1988, and who proposes to continue
operating the facility shall submit to the board of health of the
health district in which the facility is located an application
for a license to operate the facility.
Thereafter, no person shall operate or maintain an
infectious waste treatment facility without a license issued by
the board of health of the health district in which the facility
is located or by the director when
the health district in which the facility is located is not on
the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code.
(2)(a) During the month of December, but before the first
day of January of the next year, every person proposing to
continue to operate an existing infectious waste treatment
facility shall procure a license to operate the facility for that
year from the board of health of the health district in which the
facility is located or, if the health district is not on the
approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code, from the
director. The application for such a license shall be submitted
to the board of health or to the director, as appropriate, on or
before the last day of September of the year preceding that for
which the license is sought. In addition to the application fee
prescribed in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, a person who
submits an application after that date shall pay an additional
ten per cent of the amount of the application fee for each week
that the application is late. Late payment fees accompanying an
application submitted to the board of health shall be credited to
the special infectious waste fund of the health district created
in division (C) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code, and late
payment fees accompanying an application submitted to the
director shall be credited to the general revenue fund. A person
who has received a license, upon sale or disposition of an
infectious waste treatment facility and upon consent of the board
of health and the director, may have the license transferred to
another person. The board of health or the director may include
such terms and conditions in a license or revision to a license
as are appropriate to ensure compliance with the infectious waste
provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under them.
(b) Each person proposing to open a new infectious waste
treatment facility or to modify an existing infectious waste
treatment facility shall submit an application for a permit with
accompanying detail plans and specifications to the environmental
protection agency for required approval under the rules adopted
by the director pursuant to section 3734.021 of the Revised Code
two hundred seventy days before proposed operation of the
facility and concurrently shall make application for a license
with the board of health of the health district in which the
facility is or is proposed to be located. Not later than ninety
days after receiving a completed application under division
(B)(2)(b) of this section for a permit to open a new infectious
waste treatment facility or modify an existing infectious waste
treatment facility to expand its treatment capacity, or receiving
a completed application under division (A)(2)(a) of this section
for a permit to open a new solid waste incineration facility, or
modify an existing solid waste incineration facility to also
treat infectious wastes or to increase its infectious waste
treatment capacity, that pertains to a facility for which a
notation authorizing infectious waste treatment is included or
proposed to be included in the solid waste incineration
facility's license pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section,
the director shall hold a public hearing on the application
within the county in which the new or modified infectious waste
or solid waste facility is or is proposed to be located or within
a contiguous county. Not less than thirty days before holding
the public hearing on the application, the director shall publish
notice of the hearing in each newspaper that has general
circulation and that is published in the county in which the
facility is or is proposed to be located. If there is no
newspaper that has general circulation and that is published in
the county, the director shall publish the notice in a newspaper
of general circulation in the county. The notice shall contain
the date, time, and location of the public hearing and a general
description of the proposed new or modified facility. At the
public hearing, any person may submit written or oral comments on
or objections to the approval or disapproval of the application.
The applicant, or a representative of the applicant who has
knowledge of the location, construction, and operation of the
facility, shall attend the public hearing to respond to comments
or questions concerning the facility directed to the applicant
or representative by the
officer or employee of the environmental protection agency
presiding at the hearing.
(c) Each application for a permit under division (B)(2)(b)
of this section shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable
application fee of four hundred dollars that shall be credited to
the general revenue fund. Each application for an annual license
under division (B)(2)(a) of this section shall be accompanied by
a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred dollars. If the
application for an annual license is submitted to a board of
health on the approved list under section 3734.08 of the Revised
Code, the application fee shall be credited to the special
infectious waste fund of the health district created in division
(C) of section 3734.06 of the Revised Code. If the application
for an annual license is submitted to the director, the
application fee shall be credited to the general revenue fund.
If a permit or
license is issued, the amount of the application
fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the permit fee due
under division (Q) of section 3745.11 of the Revised
Code
or the amount of the license fee due under division (C) of
section 3734.06 of the Revised Code.
(d) The owner or operator of any infectious waste
treatment facility that commenced operation on or before July 1,
1968, shall submit to the director an application for a permit
with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, and
information regarding the facility and its method of operation
for approval under rules adopted under section 3734.021 of the
Revised Code in accordance with the following schedule:
(i) Not later than December 24, 1988, if the facility is
located in Delaware, Greene, Guernsey, Hamilton, Madison,
Mahoning, Ottawa, or Vinton county;
(ii) Not later than March 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in Champaign, Clinton, Columbiana, Huron, Paulding,
Stark, or Washington county, or is located in the city of
Brooklyn, Cuyahoga Heights, or Parma in Cuyahoga county;
(iii) Not later than June 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in Adams, Auglaize, Coshocton, Darke, Harrison, Lorain,
Lucas, or Summit county or is located in Cuyahoga county outside
the cities of Brooklyn, Cuyahoga Heights, and Parma;
(iv) Not later than September 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in Butler, Carroll, Erie, Lake, Portage, Putnam, or Ross
county;
(v) Not later than December 24, 1989, if the facility is
located in a county not listed in divisions (B)(2)(d)(i) to (iv)
of this section.
The owner or operator of an infectious waste treatment
facility required to submit a permit application under division
(B)(2)(d) of this section is not required to pay any permit
application fee under division (B)(2)(c) of this section, or
permit fee under division (Q) of section
3745.11 of the
Revised Code, with respect thereto unless the owner or operator
also proposes to modify the facility.
(e) The director may issue an order in accordance with
Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code to the owner or operator of an
infectious waste treatment facility requiring the person to
submit to the director updated engineering detail plans,
specifications, and information regarding the facility and its
method of operation for approval under rules adopted under
section 3734.021 of the Revised Code if, in the director's
judgment, conditions at the facility constitute a substantial
threat to public health or safety or are causing or contributing
to or threatening to cause or contribute to air or water
pollution or soil contamination. Any person who receives such an
order shall submit the updated engineering detail plans,
specifications, and information to the director within one
hundred eighty days after the effective date of the order.
(f) The director shall act upon an application submitted
under division (B)(2)(d) of this section and any updated
engineering plans, specifications, and information submitted
under division (B)(2)(e) of this section within one hundred
eighty days after receiving them. If the director denies any
such permit application or disapproves any such updated
engineering plans, specifications, and information, the
director shall
include in the order denying the application or disapproving the
plans the requirement that the owner or operator cease accepting
infectious wastes for treatment at the facility.
(3) Division (B) of this section does not apply to an
infectious waste treatment facility that meets any of the
following conditions:
(a) Is owned or operated by the generator of the wastes
and exclusively treats, by methods, techniques, and practices
established by rules adopted under division (C)(1) or (3) of
section 3734.021 of the Revised Code, wastes that are generated
at any premises owned or operated by that generator regardless of
whether the wastes are generated on the same premises where the
generator's treatment facility is located or, if the generator is
a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code,
infectious wastes that are described in division (A)(1)(g), (h),
or (i) of section 3734.021 of the Revised Code;
(b) Holds a license or renewal of a license to operate a crematory
facility issued under Chapter
4717. and a permit issued under Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code;
(c) Treats or disposes of dead animals or parts thereof,
or the blood of animals, and is subject to any of the following:
(i) Inspection under the "Federal Meat Inspection Act," 81
Stat. 584 (1967), 21 U.S.C.A. 603, as amended;
(ii) Chapter 918. of the Revised Code;
(iii) Chapter 953. of the Revised Code.
Nothing in division (B) of this section requires a facility
that holds a license issued under division (A) of this section as
a solid waste facility and that also treats infectious wastes by
the same method, technique, or process to obtain a license under
division (B) of this section as an infectious waste treatment
facility. However, the solid waste facility license for the
facility shall include the notation that the facility also treats
infectious wastes.
On and after the effective date of the amendments to the rules
adopted under division (C)(2) of section 3734.021 of the Revised
Code that are required by Section 6 of Substitute House Bill
No. 98
of the 120th General Assembly, the director shall not issue a
permit to open a new solid waste incineration facility unless the
proposed facility complies with the requirements for the location
of new infectious waste incineration facilities established in
the required amendments to those rules.
(C) Except for a facility or activity described in division
(E)(3) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, a
person who proposes to establish or operate a hazardous waste
facility shall submit an a complete application
for a hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit and accompanying
detail plans, specifications, and such information as the
director may require to the environmental protection agency,
except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, at least
one hundred eighty days before the proposed beginning of
operation of the facility. The applicant shall notify by
certified mail the legislative authority of each municipal
corporation, township, and county in which the facility is
proposed to be located of the submission of the application
within ten days after the submission or at such earlier time as
the director may establish by rule. If the application is for a
proposed new hazardous waste disposal or thermal
treatment facility, the applicant also shall give actual notice
of the general design and purpose of the facility to the
legislative authority of each municipal corporation, township,
and county in which the facility is proposed to be located
at least ninety days before the permit application is submitted
to the environmental protection agency.
In accordance with rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, prior to the submission of a complete application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, the applicant shall hold at least one meeting in the township or municipal corporation in which the facility is proposed to be located, whichever is geographically closer to the proposed location of the facility. The meeting shall be open to the public and shall be held to inform the community of the proposed hazardous waste management activities and to solicit questions from the community concerning the activities.
(D)(1) There is hereby created the hazardous waste
facility board, composed of the director of environmental
protection who shall serve as chairperson, the director of
natural resources, and the chairperson of the Ohio
water development
authority, or their respective designees, and one chemical
engineer and one geologist who each shall be employed by a state
university as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.
The chemical engineer and geologist each shall be appointed by
the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, for a
term of two years. The chemical engineer and geologist each
shall receive as compensation five thousand dollars per year,
plus
expenses necessarily incurred in the performance of their duties.
The board shall not issue any final order without the
consent of at least three members.
(2) The hazardous waste facility board shall do
both of
the following:
(a) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt
rules governing procedure to be followed in hearings
before the
board;
(b) Except as provided in section 3734.123 of the Revised
Code, approve or disapprove applications for a hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit for new facilities and
applications for modifications to existing permits for which the board has
jurisdiction as provided in division (I)(3) of this section.
(3) Except as provided in section 3734.123 of the Revised
Code, upon receipt of the completed application for a hazardous
waste facility installation and operation permit and a
preliminary determination by the staff of the environmental
protection agency that the application appears to comply with
agency rules and to meet the performance standards set forth in
divisions (D), (I), and (J) of section 3734.12 of the Revised
Code, the director shall transmit the application to
the
board, which shall do all of the
following:
(a) Promptly fix a date for a public hearing on the
application, not fewer than sixty nor more than ninety days after
receipt of the completed application. At the public hearing, any
person may submit written or oral comments or objections to the
approval or disapproval of the application. A representative of
the applicant who has knowledge of the location, construction,
operation, closure, and post-closure care, if applicable, of the
facility shall attend the public hearing in order to respond to
comments or questions concerning the facility directed to the
representative by the presiding officer.
(b) Give public notice of the date of the public hearing
and a summary of the application in a newspaper having general
circulation in the county in which the facility is proposed to be
located. The notice shall contain, at a minimum, the date, time,
and location of the public hearing and shall include the
location and street address of, or the nearest intersection to,
the proposed facility, a description of the proposed facility,
and the location where copies of the application, a short
statement by the applicant of the anticipated environmental
impact of the facility, and a map of the facility are available
for inspection.
(c) Promptly fix a date for an adjudication hearing, not
fewer than ninety nor more than one hundred twenty days after
receipt of the completed application, at which hearing the board
shall hear and decide all disputed issues between the parties
respecting the approval or disapproval of the application.
(4) The parties to any adjudication hearing before the
board upon a completed application shall be the following:
(b) The staff of the environmental protection agency;
(c) The board of county commissioners of the county, the
board of township trustees of the township, and the chief
executive officer of the municipal corporation in which the
facility is proposed to be located;
(d) Any other person who would be aggrieved or adversely
affected by the proposed facility and who files a petition to
intervene in the adjudication hearing not later than thirty days
after the date of publication of the notice required in division
(D)(3)(b) of this section if the petition is granted by the
board for good cause shown. The board may allow intervention by
other aggrieved or adversely affected persons up to fifteen days
prior to the date of the adjudication hearing for good cause
shown when the intervention would not be unduly burdensome to or
cause a delay in the permitting process.
(5) The hazardous waste facility board shall conduct any
adjudication hearing upon disputed issues in accordance with
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and the rules of the board
governing the procedure of such hearings. Each party may call
and examine witnesses and submit other evidence respecting the
disputed issues presented by an application. A written record
shall be made of the hearing and of all testimony and evidence
submitted to the board upon receipt of a complete application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (C) of this section, the director shall consider the application and accompanying information to determine whether the application complies with agency rules and the requirements of division (D)(2) of this section. After making a determination, the director shall issue either a draft permit or a notice of intent to deny the permit. The director, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code or with rules adopted to implement Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code, shall provide public notice of the application and the draft permit or the notice of intent to deny the permit, provide an opportunity for public comments, and, if significant interest is shown, schedule a public meeting in the county in which the facility is proposed to be located and give public notice of the date, time, and location of the public meeting in a newspaper of general circulation in that county.
(6)(2) The board director shall not approve an application for a
hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit or an application for a modification under division (I)(3) of this section unless
it the director finds and determines as follows:
(a) The nature and volume of the waste to be treated,
stored, or disposed of at the facility;
(b) That the facility complies with the director's
hazardous waste standards adopted pursuant to section 3734.12 of
the Revised Code;
(c) That the facility represents the minimum adverse
environmental impact, considering the state of available
technology and the nature and economics of various alternatives,
and other pertinent considerations;
(d) That the facility represents the minimum risk of all
of the following:
(i) Contamination of ground and surface waters;
(ii) Fires or explosions from treatment, storage, or
disposal methods;
(iii) Accident (ii) Release of hazardous waste during transportation of hazardous waste to
or from the facility;
(iv) Impact (iii) Adverse impact on the public health and safety;
(e) That the facility will comply with this chapter and Chapters 3704.,
3734., and 6111. of the Revised Code and all rules and standards
adopted under those chapters them;
(f) That if the owner of the facility, the operator of the
facility, or any other person in a position with the facility
from which the person may influence the installation and
operation of the
facility has been involved in any prior activity involving
transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous
waste, that person has a history of compliance with this chapter and Chapters
3704., 3734., and 6111. of the Revised Code and all rules and
standards adopted under those chapters them, the "Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42
U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, and all regulations adopted under it,
and similar laws and rules of other states if any such prior
operation was located in another state that demonstrates
sufficient reliability, expertise, and competency to operate a
hazardous waste facility under the applicable provisions of
this chapter and Chapters 3704., 3734., and 6111. of the Revised Code, the
applicable rules and standards adopted under those chapters them, and
terms and conditions of a hazardous waste facility installation
and operation permit, given the potential for harm to the public
health and safety and the environment that could result from the
irresponsible operation of the facility;. For off-site facilities, as defined in section 3734.41 of the Revised Code, the director may use the investigative reports of the attorney general prepared pursuant to section 3734.42 of the Revised Code as a basis for making a finding and determination under division (D)(2)(f) of this section.
(g) That the active areas within a new hazardous waste
facility where acute hazardous waste as listed in 40 C.F.R.
261.33 (e), as amended, or organic waste that is toxic and is
listed under 40 C.F.R. 261, as amended, is being stored, treated,
or disposed of and where the aggregate of the storage design
capacity and the disposal design capacity of all hazardous waste
in those areas is greater than two hundred fifty thousand
gallons, are not located or operated within any of the following:
(i) Two thousand feet of any residence, school, hospital,
jail, or prison;
(ii) Any naturally occurring wetland;
(iii) Any flood hazard area if the applicant cannot show
that the facility will be designed, constructed, operated, and
maintained to prevent washout by a one-hundred-year flood or that
procedures will be in effect to remove the waste before flood
waters can reach it.
Division (D)(6)(2)(g) of this section does not apply to the
facility of any applicant who demonstrates to the board director that the
limitations specified in that division are not necessary because
of the nature or volume of the waste and the manner of management
applied, the facility will impose no substantial danger to the
health and safety of persons occupying the structures listed in
division (D)(6)(2)(g)(i) of this section, and the facility is to be
located or operated in an area where the proposed hazardous waste
activities will not be incompatible with existing land uses in
the area.
(h) That the facility will not be located within the
boundaries of a state park established or dedicated under Chapter
1541. of the Revised Code, a state park purchase area established
under section 1541.02 of the Revised Code, any unit of the
national park system, or any property that lies within the
boundaries of a national park or recreation area, but that has
not been acquired or is not administered by the secretary of the
United States department of the interior, located in this state,
or any candidate area located in this state identified for
potential inclusion in the national park system in the edition of
the "national park system plan" submitted under paragraph (b) of
section 8 of "The Act of August 18, 1970," 84 Stat. 825, 16
U.S.C.A. 1a-5, as amended, current at the time of filing of the
application for the permit, unless the facility will be used
exclusively for the storage of hazardous waste generated within
the park or recreation area in conjunction with the operation of
the park or recreation area. Division (D)(6)(2)(h) of this section
does not apply to the facility of any applicant for modification
of a permit unless the modification application proposes to
increase the land area included in the facility or to increase
the quantity of hazardous waste that will be treated, stored, or
disposed of at the facility.
In rendering a decision upon an application for a hazardous
waste facility installation and operation permit, the board shall
issue a written order and opinion, which shall include the
specific findings of fact and conclusions of law that
support
the board's approval or disapproval of the application.
(3) Not later than one hundred eighty days after the end of the public comment period, the director, without prior hearing, shall issue or deny the permit in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. If the board director approves an application for a hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit, as a part of its
written order, it the director shall issue the permit, upon such terms and
conditions as the board director finds are necessary to ensure the
construction and operation of the hazardous waste facility in
accordance with the standards of this section.
(7) Any party adversely affected by an order of the
hazardous waste facility board may appeal the order and decision
of the board to the court of appeals of Franklin county. An
appellant shall file with the board a notice of appeal, which
shall designate the order appealed from. A copy of the notice
also shall be filed by the appellant with the court, and a copy
shall be sent by certified mail to each party to the adjudication
hearing before the board. Such notices shall be filed and mailed
within thirty days after the date upon which the appellant
received notice from the board by certified mail of the making of
the order appealed from. No appeal bond shall be required to
make an appeal effective.
The filing of a notice of appeal shall not operate automatically
as a suspension of the order of the board. If it appears
to the court that an unjust hardship to the appellant will result
from the execution of the board's order pending determination of
the appeal, the court may grant a suspension of the order and fix
its terms.
Within twenty days after receipt of the notice of appeal,
the board shall prepare and file in the court the complete record
of proceedings out of which the appeal arises, including any
transcript of the testimony and any other evidence that has been
submitted before the board. The expense of preparing and
transcribing the record shall be taxed as a part of the costs of
the appeal. The appellant, other than the state or a political
subdivision, an agency of either, or any officer of the appellant
acting in the officer's representative capacity, shall
provide security for
costs satisfactory to the court considering the respective
interests of the parties and the public interest. Upon demand by
a party, the board shall furnish, at the cost of the party
requesting it, a copy of the record. If the complete record is
not filed within the time provided for in this section, any party
may apply to the court to have the case docketed, and the court
shall order the record filed.
In hearing the appeal, the court is confined to the record
as certified to it by the board. The court may grant a request
for the admission of additional evidence when satisfied that the
additional evidence is newly discovered and could not with
reasonable diligence have been ascertained prior to the hearing
before the board.
The court shall affirm the order complained of in the
appeal if it finds, upon consideration of the entire record and
such additional evidence as the court has admitted, that the
order is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial
evidence and is in accordance with law. In the absence of such
findings, it shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order or make
such other ruling as is supported by reliable, probative, and
substantial evidence and is in accordance with law. The judgment
of the court shall be final and conclusive unless reversed,
vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may be taken by any
party to the appeal pursuant to the Rules of Practice of the
Supreme Court and, to the extent not in conflict with those
rules, Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code.
(E)(1) Upon receipt of a completed application, the board
shall issue a hazardous waste facility installation and operation
permit for a hazardous waste facility subject to the requirements
of divisions (D)(6) and (7) of this section and all applicable
federal regulations if the facility for which the permit is
requested satisfies all of the following:
(a) Was in operation immediately prior to October 9, 1980;
(b) Was in substantial compliance with applicable statutes
and rules in effect immediately prior to October 9, 1980, as
determined by the director;
(c) Demonstrates to the board that its operations after
October 9, 1980, comply with applicable performance standards
adopted by the director pursuant to division (D) of section
3734.12 of the Revised Code;
(d) Submits a completed application for a permit under
division (C) of this section within six months after October 9,
1980.
The board shall act on the application within twelve months
after October 9, 1980.
(2) A hazardous waste facility that was in operation
immediately prior to October 9, 1980, may continue to operate
after that date if it does all of the following:
(a) Complies with performance standards adopted by the
director pursuant to division (D) of section 3734.12 of the
Revised Code;
(b) Submits a completed application for a hazardous waste
installation and operation permit under division (C) of this
section within six months after October 9, 1980;
(c) Obtains the permit under division (D) of this section
within twelve months after October 9, 1980.
(3) No political subdivision of this state shall require
any additional zoning or other approval, consent, permit,
certificate, or condition for the construction or operation of a
hazardous waste facility authorized by a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit issued pursuant to this
chapter, nor shall any political subdivision adopt or enforce any
law, ordinance, or rule that in any way alters, impairs, or
limits the authority granted in the permit.
(4) After the issuance of a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit by the board, each hazardous
waste facility shall be subject to the rules and supervision of
the director during the period of its operation, closure, and
post-closure care, if applicable.
(F) Upon approval of the board in accordance with
divisions (D) and (E) of this section, the board The director may issue a
single hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit
to a person who operates two or more adjoining facilities where
hazardous waste is stored, treated, or disposed of if the
application includes detail plans, specifications, and
information on all facilities. For the purposes of this section,
"adjoining" means sharing a common boundary, separated only by a
public road, or in such proximity that the director determines
that the issuance of a single permit will not create a hazard to
the public health or safety or the environment.
(G) No person shall falsify or fail to keep or submit any
plans, specifications, data, reports, records, manifests, or
other information required to be kept or submitted to the
director or to the hazardous waste facility board by this chapter
or the rules adopted under it.
(H)(1) Each person who holds an installation and operation
permit issued under this section and who wishes to obtain a
permit renewal shall submit a completed application for an
installation and operation permit renewal and any necessary
accompanying general plans, detail plans, specifications, and
such information as the director may require to the director no
later than one hundred eighty days prior to the expiration date
of the existing permit or upon a later date prior to the
expiration of the existing permit if the permittee can
demonstrate good cause for the late submittal. The director
shall consider the application and accompanying information,
inspection reports of the facility, results of performance tests,
a report regarding the facility's compliance or noncompliance
with the terms and conditions of its permit and rules adopted by
the director under this chapter, and such other information as is
relevant to the operation of the facility and shall issue a draft
renewal permit or a notice of intent to deny the renewal permit.
The director, in accordance with rules adopted under this section
or with rules adopted to implement Chapter 3745. of the Revised
Code, shall give public notice of the application and draft
renewal permit or notice of intent to deny the renewal permit,
provide for the opportunity for public comments within a
specified time period, schedule a public meeting in the county in
which the facility is located if significant interest is shown,
and give public notice of the public meeting.
(2) Within sixty days after the public meeting or close of
the public comment period, the director, without prior hearing,
shall issue or deny the renewal permit in accordance with Chapter
3745. of the Revised Code. The director shall not issue a
renewal permit unless the director determines that the
facility under the
existing permit has a history of compliance with this chapter,
rules adopted under it, the existing permit, or orders entered to
enforce such requirements that demonstrates sufficient
reliability, expertise, and competency to operate the facility
henceforth under this chapter, rules adopted under it, and the
renewal permit. If the director approves an application for a
renewal permit, the director shall issue the permit subject
to the payment
of the annual permit fee required under division (E) of section
3734.02 of the Revised Code and upon such terms and conditions as
the director finds are reasonable to ensure that continued
operation,
maintenance, closure, and post-closure care of the hazardous
waste facility are in accordance with the rules adopted under
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.
(3) An installation and operation permit renewal
application submitted to the director that also contains or would
constitute an application for a modification shall be
acted upon by the
director in accordance with division (I) of this section in the
same manner as an application for a modification. In
approving or
disapproving the renewal portion of a permit renewal application
containing an application for a modification, the
director shall apply the
criteria established under division (H)(2) of this section.
(4) An application for renewal or modification
of a permit
that does not contain an application for a modification as described in
divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this
section shall not
be subject to division (D)(2) of this section.
(I)(1) As used in this section, "modification" means a
change or alteration to a hazardous waste facility or its
operations that is inconsistent with or not authorized by
its existing permit or authorization to operate. Modifications shall
be classified as
Class 1, 2, or 3 modifications in accordance with rules adopted under
division (K) of this section. Modifications classified as
Class 3 modifications, in accordance with rules adopted under that
division, shall be further classified by the director as either Class
3 modifications that are to be approved or disapproved by the hazardous waste
facility board as described in director under divisions (I)(3)(a)
to (d) of this section or as Class 3 modifications
that are to be approved or disapproved by the director under division
(I)(5) of this section. Not later than thirty days after receiving a
request for a modification under
division (I)(4) of this section that is not listed in
Appendix I to 40 C.F.R. 270.42 or
in rules adopted under division (K) of this section, the director
shall classify the modification and shall notify the owner or operator of the
facility requesting the modification of the classification. Notwithstanding
any other law to the contrary, any
modification that involves the transfer of a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit to a new owner or operator shall be
classified as a Class 3 modification.
(2) Except as provided in section 3734.123 of the Revised
Code, a hazardous waste facility installation and operation
permit may be modified at the request of the director
or upon the written request of the permittee only if any of the
following applies:
(a) The permittee desires to accomplish alterations,
additions, or deletions to the permitted facility or to undertake
alterations, additions, deletions, or activities that are
inconsistent with or not authorized by the existing permit;
(b) New information or data justify permit conditions in
addition to or different from those in the existing permit;
(c) The standards, criteria, or rules upon which the
existing permit is based have been changed by new, amended, or
rescinded standards, criteria, or rules, or by judicial decision
after the existing permit was issued, and the change justifies
permit conditions in addition to or different from those in the
existing permit;
(d) The permittee proposes to transfer the permit to
another person.
(3) The director has jurisdiction to shall approve or disapprove applications
an application for Class 1 modifications, Class 2 modifications, and
Class 3 modifications not otherwise described in divisions
(I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section. The
hazardous
waste facility board has jurisdiction to approve or disapprove applications
for any a modification in accordance with division (D)(2) of this section and rules adopted under division (K) of this section for all of the following categories of Class 3 modifications:
(a) Authority to conduct treatment, storage, or
disposal at a site, location, or tract of land that has not been
authorized for the proposed category of treatment, storage, or disposal
activity by the facility's permit;
(b) Modification or addition of a hazardous waste management
unit, as defined in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code, that results in
an increase in a
facility's storage capacity of more than twenty-five per cent
over the capacity authorized by the facility's permit, an increase in a
facility's treatment rate of more than
twenty-five per cent over the rate so authorized, or an increase
in a facility's disposal capacity over the capacity so authorized. The
authorized disposal capacity for a facility shall be calculated from the
approved design plans for the disposal units at that facility. In
no case during a five-year period shall a facility's
storage capacity or treatment rate be
modified to increase by more than twenty-five per cent in the aggregate
without board the director's approval in accordance with division (D)(2) of this section. Notwithstanding any provision of division
(I) of this section to the contrary, a request
for modification of a facility's annual total waste receipt limit shall be
classified and approved or disapproved by the director under division (I)(5) of this section.
(c) Authority to add any of the following categories of
regulated activities not previously authorized at a facility by the facility's
permit: storage at a facility not previously authorized to store hazardous
waste, treatment at a facility not previously authorized to treat hazardous
waste, or disposal at a facility not previously authorized to dispose of
hazardous waste; or authority to add a category of hazardous waste management
unit not previously authorized at the facility by the facility's permit.
Notwithstanding any provision of division (I) of this section to the
contrary, a request for authority to add or to modify an activity or a
hazardous waste management unit for the purposes of performing a corrective
action shall be classified and approved or disapproved by the director under division (I)(5) of this section.
(d) Authority to treat, store, or dispose of waste types listed
or
characterized as reactive or explosive, in rules adopted under section 3734.12
of the Revised Code, or any acute hazardous waste listed in 40
C.F.R. 261.33(e), as amended, at a
facility not previously authorized to treat, store, or dispose of those types
of wastes by the facility's permit unless the
requested authority is limited to wastes that
no longer exhibit characteristics meeting the criteria for listing or
characterization as reactive or explosive wastes, or for listing as acute
hazardous waste, but still are required to carry those waste codes as
established in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the
Revised Code because of the requirements established in 40 C.F.R. 261(a) and
(e), as amended, that is, the "mixture," "derived-from," or "contained-in"
regulations.
(4) A written request for a modification from
the permittee shall be submitted to the director and shall
contain such information as is necessary to support the request.
The director shall transmit to the board requests for Class 3
modifications described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to
(d) of this section within two hundred forty days after receiving
the requests. Requests
for modifications shall be acted upon by the director or the board, as
appropriate, in accordance with this section and
rules adopted under it.
(5) Class 1 modification applications that require
prior approval
of the director, as determined in accordance with rules adopted under division
(K) of this section, Class 2 modification applications, and
Class 3 modification applications that are not described in
divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of this section
shall be approved or disapproved by the director in accordance with rules
adopted under division (K) of this section. The board of county
commissioners of the county, the board of township trustees of the township,
and the city manager or mayor of the municipal corporation in which a
hazardous waste facility is located shall receive notification of any
application for a modification for that facility and shall be considered as
interested persons with respect to the director's consideration of the
application.
For those modification
applications for a transfer of a permit to a new owner or operator of a
facility, the director
also shall determine that, if the transferee owner or operator has been
involved in any prior
activity involving the transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of
hazardous waste, the transferee owner or operator has a history of compliance
with this chapter and
Chapters 3704. and 6111. of the Revised Code and all rules and standards
adopted
under them, the "Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, and
all regulations adopted under it, and similar laws and rules of another state
if the transferee owner or operator owns or operates a facility in that state,
that demonstrates sufficient reliability, expertise, and competency to operate
a hazardous waste
facility under this chapter and Chapters 3704. and 6111. of the Revised Code,
all
rules and standards adopted under them, and terms and conditions of a
hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit, given the
potential for harm to the public health and safety and the environment that
could result from the irresponsible operation of the facility. A permit may
be transferred to a new
owner or operator only pursuant to a Class 3 permit modification.
As used in division (I)(5) of this
section:
(a) "Owner" means the person who owns a majority or controlling
interest in a facility.
(b) "Operator" means the person who is responsible for the
overall operation of a facility.
The director shall approve or disapprove an application for a
Class 1 modification that requires the director's approval within
sixty days after receiving the request for modification. The director shall
approve or disapprove an application for a Class 2 modification
within three hundred days after receiving the request for modification. The
director shall approve or disapprove an application for a Class 3
modification that
is not described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to
(d) of this section within three hundred sixty-five days after
receiving the request for modification.
(6) The approval or disapproval by the director of a Class 1
modification application is not a final action that is appealable under
Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. The approval or disapproval by the
director of a
Class 2 modification or a Class 3 modification that is not
described in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of
this section is a final action that is appealable under that chapter. In
approving or disapproving a request for a modification, the director shall
consider all comments pertaining to the request that are received during the
public comment period and the public meetings. The administrative record for
appeal of a final action by the director in approving or disapproving a
request for a modification shall include all comments received during the
public comment period relating to the request for modification, written
materials submitted at the public meetings relating to the request, and any
other documents related to the director's action.
(7) The hazardous waste facility board shall approve or
disapprove an application for a Class 3 modification
transmitted to it under
division (I)(4) of this section, or that portion of
a permit renewal application that constitutes a Class
3 modification application so transmitted, of a hazardous waste facility
installation and
operation permit in accordance with division (D) of this section. No other
request for a modification shall be subject to
division (D)(6) of this section. No aspect of
a permitted facility or its operations
that is not being modified as described in division
(I)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of
this section shall be subject to review by the
board under division (D) of this section.
(8) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the
contrary, a change or alteration to a hazardous waste facility described in
division (E)(3)(a) or (b) of section 3734.02 of the
Revised Code, or its operations, is a modification for the
purposes of this section. An
application for a modification at such a facility shall be submitted,
classified, and approved or disapproved in accordance with divisions
(I)(1) to (7)(6) of this section in the same
manner as a modification to a hazardous waste facility installation and
operation permit.
(J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this
section, an owner or operator of a hazardous
waste facility that is operating in accordance with a permit by rule under
rules adopted by the director under division
(E)(3)(b) of section
3734.02 of the Revised
Code shall submit either a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit application for the facility or a
modification application, whichever is required under division
(J)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, within one
hundred eighty days after the director has requested the application or upon a
later date if the owner or operator demonstrates to the
director good cause for the late submittal.
(a) If the owner or operator does not have a hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit for any hazardous waste treatment,
storage, or disposal activities at the facility, the owner or operator shall
submit an
application for such a permit to the director for the activities authorized by
the permit by rule. Notwithstanding any other
provision of law to the contrary, the director shall approve or disapprove the
application for the permit in accordance with the procedures governing the
approval or disapproval of permit renewals under division (H) of this
section.
(b) If the owner or operator has a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit for hazardous waste treatment, storage, or
disposal activities at the facility other than those authorized by the permit
by rule, the owner or operator shall submit to the director a request for
modification in accordance with division (I) of this section.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the director shall
approve or disapprove the modification application in accordance with rules
adopted under division (K)(I)(5) of this section.
(2) The owner or operator of a boiler or industrial furnace that is
conducting thermal treatment activities in accordance with a permit
by rule under rules adopted by the director under division
(E)(3)(b) of section
3734.02 of the Revised
Code shall submit a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit application if the owner or operator does
not have such a permit for any hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal
activities at the facility or, if the owner or operator has such a permit for
hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal activities at the facility
other than thermal treatment activities authorized by the permit by rule, a
modification application to add those activities authorized by the permit by
rule, whichever is applicable, within one hundred eighty days
after the director has requested the submission of the application or upon a
later date if the owner or operator demonstrates to the director good cause
for the late submittal. The application shall be accompanied by information
necessary to support the request. The hazardous
waste facility board director shall approve or disapprove the an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit in accordance
with division (D) of this section and approve or disapprove an application for a modification in accordance with division (I)(3) of this section, except that the board
director shall not disapprove an application for the thermal treatment activities on
the basis of the criteria set forth in division
(D)(6)(2)(g) or
(h) of this section.
(3) As used in division (J) of this
section:
(a) "Modification application" means a request for a modification
submitted in accordance with division (I) of
this section.
(b) "Thermal treatment," "boiler," and "industrial furnace" have
the same meanings as in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the
Revised Code.
(K) The director shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or
rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised
Code in order to implement divisions (H) and (I) of this section. Except
when in actual conflict with this section, rules governing the classification
of and procedures for the modification of hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permits shall be substantively and procedurally
identical to the regulations governing hazardous waste facility permitting and
permit modifications adopted under the "Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90
Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended.
Sec. 3734.12. The director of environmental protection
shall adopt and may amend, suspend, and rescind rules in
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, which shall be
consistent with and equivalent to the regulations adopted
under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90
Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, except for rules
adopted under divisions (D) and (F) of this section governing
solid waste facilities and except as otherwise provided in this
chapter, doing all of the following:
(A) Adopting the criteria and procedures established under
the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat.
2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, for identifying hazardous
waste. The director shall prepare, revise when appropriate, and
publish a list of substances or categories of substances
identified to be hazardous using the criteria specified in 40
C.F.R. 261, as amended, which shall be composed of at least those
substances identified as hazardous pursuant to section 3001(B) of
that act. The director shall not list any waste that the
administrator of the United States environmental protection
agency delisted or excluded by an amendment to the federal
regulations, any waste that the administrator declined to list by
publishing a denial of a rulemaking petition or by withdrawal of
a proposed listing in the United States federal register after
May 18, 1980, or any waste oil or polychlorinated biphenyl not
listed by the administrator.
(B) Establishing standards for generators of hazardous
waste necessary to protect human health or safety or the
environment in accordance with this chapter, including, but not
limited to, requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Record-keeping practices that accurately identify the
quantities of hazardous waste generated, the constituents that are significant
in quantity or in potential harm to human
health or safety or the environment, and the disposition of the
waste;
(2) Labeling of containers used for storage,
transportation, or disposal of hazardous waste to identify the
waste accurately;
(3) Use of appropriate containers for hazardous waste;
(4) Providing information on the general chemical
composition of hazardous waste to persons transporting, treating,
storing, or disposing of the waste;
(5) A manifest system requiring a manifest consistent with
that prescribed under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
of 1976," 90 Stat. 2795, 42 U.S.C.A. 6901, as amended, requiring
a manifest for any hazardous waste transported off the premises
where generated and assuring that all hazardous waste that is
transported off the premises where generated is designated for
treatment, storage, or disposal in facilities for which a permit
has been issued or in the other facilities specified in division
(F) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;
(6) Submission of such reports to the director as the
director determines necessary;
(7) Establishment of quality control and testing
procedures that ensure compliance with the rules adopted under
this section;
(8) Obtainment of a United States environmental protection
agency identification number.
(C) Establishing standards for transporters of hazardous
waste necessary to protect human health or safety or the
environment in accordance with this chapter, including, but not
limited to, requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Record-keeping concerning hazardous waste transported,
including source and delivery points;
(2) Submission of such reports to the director as the
director determines necessary;
(3) Transportation of only properly labeled waste;
(4) Compliance with the manifest system required by
division (B) of this section;
(5) Transportation of hazardous waste only to the
treatment, storage, or disposal facility that the shipper
designates on the manifest to be a facility holding a permit or
another facility specified in division (F) of section 3734.02 of
the Revised Code;
(6) Contingency plans to minimize unanticipated damage
from transportation of hazardous waste;
(7) Financial responsibility, including, but not limited
to, provisions requiring a financial mechanism to cover the costs
of spill cleanup and liability for sudden accidental occurrences
that result in damage to persons, property, or the environment;
(8) Obtainment of a United States environmental protection
agency identification number.
In the case of any hazardous waste that is subject to the
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 (1975),
49 U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended, the rules shall be consistent with
that act and regulations adopted under it.
(D) Establishing performance standards for owners and
operators of hazardous waste facilities and owners and operators
of solid waste facilities, necessary to protect human health or
safety or the environment in accordance with this chapter,
including, but not limited to, requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Maintaining records of all hazardous waste that is
treated, stored, or disposed of and of the manner in which the
waste was treated, stored, or disposed of or records of all solid
wastes transferred or disposed of and of the manner in which the
wastes were disposed of;
(2) Submission of such reports to the director as the
director determines necessary;
(3) Reporting, monitoring, inspection, and, except with
respect to solid waste facilities, compliance with the manifest
system referred to in division (B) of this section;
(4) Treatment, storage, or disposal of all hazardous waste
received by methods, techniques, and practices approved by the
director and disposal or transfer of all solid wastes received by
methods, techniques, and practices approved by the director;
(5) Location, design, and construction of hazardous waste
facilities and location, design, and construction of solid waste
facilities;
(6) Contingency plans for effective action to minimize
unanticipated damage from treatment, storage, or disposal of
hazardous waste and the disposal or transfer of solid wastes;
(7) Ownership, continuity of operation, training for
personnel, and financial responsibility, including the filing of
closure and post-closure financial assurance, if applicable. No
private entity shall be precluded by reason of these requirements
from the ownership or operation of facilities providing hazardous
waste treatment, storage, or disposal services if the entity can
provide assurances of financial responsibility and continuity of
operation consistent with the degree and duration of risks
associated with the treatment, storage, or disposal of specified
hazardous waste.
(8) Closure and post-closure care of a hazardous waste
facility where hazardous waste will no longer be treated, stored,
or disposed of and of a solid waste facility where solid wastes
will no longer be disposed of or transferred;
(9) Establishment of quality control and testing
procedures that ensure compliance with the rules adopted under
this section;
(10) Obtainment of a United States environmental
protection agency identification number for each hazardous waste
treatment, storage, or disposal facility;
(11) Trial burns and land treatment demonstrations.
The rules adopted under divisions (D) and (F) of this section pertaining to
solid waste facilities do not apply to scrap tire collection, storage,
monocell, monofill, and recovery facilities. Those facilities are subject to
and governed by rules adopted under sections 3734.70 to 3734.73 of the Revised
Code, as applicable.
(E) Governing the issuance, modification, revocation,
suspension, withdrawal, and denial of installation and operation
permits, draft permits, and transportation certificates of
registration;
(F) Specifying information required to be included in
applications for hazardous waste facility installation and operation
permits and solid waste permits, including, but not limited to,
detail plans, specifications, and information respecting all of the following:
(1) The composition, quantities, and concentrations of
hazardous waste and solid wastes to be stored, treated,
transported, or disposed of and such other information as the
director may require regarding the method of operation;
(2) The facility to which the waste will be transported or
where it will be stored, treated, or disposed of;
(3) The closure and post-closure care of a facility where
hazardous waste will no longer be treated, stored, or disposed of
and of a solid waste facility where solid wastes will no longer
be disposed of or transferred.
(G) Establishing procedures ensuring that all information
entitled to protection as trade secrets disclosed to the director
or the director's authorized representative is not disclosed
without the consent of the owner, except that such information may be
disclosed, upon request, to authorized representatives of the
United States environmental protection agency, or as required by
law. As used in this section, "trade secrets" means any formula,
plan, pattern, process, tool, mechanism, compound, procedure,
production date, or compilation of information that is not
patented, that is known only to certain individuals within a
commercial concern who are using it to fabricate, produce, or
compound an article, trade, or service having commercial value,
and that gives its user an opportunity to obtain a business
advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.
(H) Prohibiting the disposal of specified hazardous wastes
in this state if the director has determined both of the following:
(1) The potential impacts on human health or safety or the
environment are such that disposal of those wastes should not be
allowed;.
(2) A technically feasible and environmentally sound
alternative is reasonably available, either within or outside
this state, for processing, recycling, fixation of,
neutralization of, or other treatment of those wastes. Such
reasonable availability shall not be determined without a
consideration of the costs to the generator of implementing the
alternatives.
The director shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules to specify
hazardous wastes
that shall not be disposed of in accordance with this division. Nothing in
this division, either prior to or after adoption
of those rules, shall preclude the director or the hazardous waste
facility board created in section 3734.05 of the Revised Code
from prohibiting the disposal of specified hazardous wastes at
particular facilities under the terms or conditions of a permit
or preclude the director from prohibiting that disposal by order.
(I)(1)(a) Governing the following that may be more
stringent than the regulations adopted under the "Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42
U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, when the director determines that such
more stringent rules are reasonable in order to protect human
health or safety or the environment:
(i) Specific wastes that the director determines, because
of their physical, chemical, or biological characteristics, are
so extremely hazardous that the storage, treatment, or disposal
of the wastes in compliance with those regulations would present
an imminent danger to human health or safety or the environment;
(ii) The use of only properly designed, operated, and
approved transfer facilities;
(iii) Preventing illegitimate activities relating to the
reuse, recycling, or reclaiming of hazardous waste, including
record-keeping, reporting, and manifest requirements.
(b) In adopting such more stringent rules, the director
shall give consideration to and base the rules on evidence
concerning factors including, but not limited to, the following
insofar as pertinent:
(i) Geography of the state;
(ii) Geology of the state;
(iii) Hydrogeology of the state;
(iv) Climate of the state;
(v) Engineering and technical feasibility;
(vi) Availability of alternative technologies or methods
of storage, treatment, or disposal.
(2) The director may require from generators and
transporters of hazardous waste and from owners or operators of
treatment, storage, or disposal facilities, the submission of
reports in addition to those required under regulations
adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of
1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, to the extent
that such reports contain information that the generator,
transporter, or facility owner or operator is required to obtain
in order to comply with the regulations adopted by the
administrator of the United States environmental protection
agency under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of
1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, or to the
extent that such reports are required by the director to meet the
requirements of division (B)(7), (D)(9), or (H) of this section
or section 3734.121 of the Revised Code.
(J) Governing the storage, treatment, or disposal of
hazardous waste in, and the permitting, design, construction,
operation, monitoring, inspection, closure, and post-closure care
of, hazardous waste underground injection wells, surface
impoundments, waste piles other than those composed of materials
removed from the ground as part of coal or mineral extraction or
cleaning processes, land treatment facilities, thermal treatment
facilities, and landfills that may be more stringent than the
regulations adopted under the "Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as
amended, whenever the director reasonably determines that federal
regulations will not adequately protect the public health or
safety or the environment of this state with respect to the
subject matter of the more stringent rules. Such more stringent
rules shall be developed to achieve a degree of protection, as
determined by the director, consistent with the degree of hazard
potentially posed by the various wastes or categories of wastes
to be treated, stored, or disposed of and the types of facilities
at which they are to be treated, stored, or disposed of. In
adopting such more stringent rules, the director shall give
consideration to and base the rules on evidence concerning
factors including, but not limited to, the following insofar as
pertinent:
(1) Geography of the state;
(2) Geology of the state;
(3) Hydrogeology of the state;
(4) Climate of the state;
(5) Engineering and technical feasibility;
(6) Availability of alternative technologies or methods of
storage, treatment, or disposal.
(K) Establishing performance standards and other
requirements necessary to protect public health and the environment from
hazards associated with used oil, including, without limitation, standards and
requirements respecting all of the following:
(1) Material that is subject to regulation as used oil;
(2) Generation of used oil;
(3) Used oil collection centers and aggregation points;
(4) Transportation of used oil;
(5) Processing and re-refining of used oil;
(7) Marketing of used oil;
(8) Disposal of used oil;
(9) Use of used oil as a dust suppressant.
Sec. 3734.123. (A) As used in this section and section
3734.124 of the Revised Code, "commercial hazardous waste
incinerator" means an enclosed device that treats hazardous waste
by means of controlled flame combustion and that accepts for
treatment hazardous waste that is generated off the premises on
which the device is located by any person other than the one who
owns or operates the device or one who controls, is controlled
by, or is under common control with the person who owns or
operates the device. "Commercial hazardous waste incinerator"
does not include any "boiler" or "industrial furnace" as those
terms are defined in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the
Revised Code.
(B) Not sooner than three years after April 15, 1993,
and triennially thereafter, the director of
environmental protection shall prepare, publish, and issue as a
final action an assessment of commercial hazardous waste
incinerator capacity in this state. However, after the issuance
as a final action of a determination under division (A) of
section 3734.124 of the Revised Code that terminates the
restrictions established in division (C) of this section, the
director shall cease preparing, publishing, and issuing the
periodic assessments required under this division. The
assessment shall determine the amount of commercial hazardous
waste incinerator capacity needed to manage the hazardous waste
expected to be generated in this state and imported into this
state for incineration at commercial hazardous waste incinerators
during the next succeeding twenty calendar years. The assessment
shall include at least all of the following:
(1) A determination of the aggregate treatment capacity
authorized at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located in
this state;
(2) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste
generated in this state that is being treated at commercial
hazardous waste incinerators located in this state and
projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this
state that will be treated at those facilities;
(3) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste
generated outside this state that is being treated at commercial
hazardous waste incinerators located in this state and
projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated outside
this state that will be treated at those facilities;
(4) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste
generated in this state that is being treated at commercial
hazardous waste incinerators located outside this state, and
projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this
state that will be treated at those facilities;
(5) The amount of commercial hazardous waste incinerator
capacity that the director reasonably anticipates will be needed
during the first three years of the planning period to treat
hazardous waste generated from the remediation of sites in this
state that are on the national priority list required under the
"Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as
amended; as a result of corrective actions implemented under the
"Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806,
42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended; and as a result of clean-up
activities conducted at sites listed on the master sites list
prepared by the environmental protection agency;
(6) Based upon available data, provided that the data are
reliable and are compatible with the data base of the
environmental protection agency, an identification of any
hazardous waste first listed as a hazardous waste in regulations
adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of
1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, on or after
April 15,
1993, and of any hazardous waste
that has been proposed for such listing by publication of a
notice in the federal register on or before December 1 of the
year immediately preceding the triennial assessment;
(7) An analysis of other factors that may result in
capacity changes over the period addressed by the assessment.
(C) Except as otherwise provided in section 3734.124 of
the Revised Code, none of the following shall occur on or after
April 15,
1993:
(1) The director shall not do any of the following:
(a) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section 3734.05 of the
Revised Code, as applicable, transmit to the hazardous waste facility board
created in that section any application for a Issue any hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit under division (D) of section 3745.05 of the Revised Code for the establishment
of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or any request
for a modification, as described in divisions
(I)(3)(a) to (d) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code,
of an existing commercial hazardous waste
incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the
incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be
treated by it, for which the staff of the environmental
protection agency has made a preliminary determination as to
whether the application or request appears to comply with the
rules and standards set forth under divisions (D), (I), and (J)
of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code;
(b) Issue issue any modified hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit under division (I)(5) of
that section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that would authorize an
increase in either the treatment capacity of a commercial
hazardous waste incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste
authorized to be treated by it;
(c)(b) Issue any permit pursuant to rules adopted under
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, division (J)
of section 6111.03 of the Revised Code, or the solid waste
provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under those
provisions, that is necessary for the establishment,
modification, or operation of any appurtenant facility or
equipment that is necessary for the operation of a new commercial
hazardous waste incinerator, or the modification of such an
existing incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of
the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is
authorized to be treated by it. Upon determining that an
application for any permit pertains to the establishment,
modification, or operation of any appurtenant facility or
equipment, the director shall cease reviewing the application and
return the application and accompanying materials to the
applicant along with a written notice that division (C)(1)(c)(b) of
this section precludes the director from reviewing and
acting upon the
application.
(d)(c) Issue any exemption order under division (G) of
section 3734.02 of the Revised Code exempting the establishment
of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator; the modification
of an existing facility to increase either the
treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of
hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it; or the
establishment, modification, or operation of any facility or
equipment appurtenant to a new or modified commercial
hazardous waste incinerator, from divisions (C)(1)(a), or (b), or
(c) or (C)(2) or (3) of this section.
(2) The staff of the environmental protection agency shall
not take any action under division (D)(3) of section 3734.05 of
the Revised Code to review, or to make a preliminary
determination of compliance with the rules and standards set
forth in divisions (D), (I), and (J) of section 3734.12 of the
Revised Code regarding, any If the director determines that an application for a hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit submitted under
division (D)(3) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that
pertains to the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste
incinerator, or any a request for a modification of an existing incinerator submitted under division (I)(4)
of
that section to modify an existing incinerator pertains to an increase of either
the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of
hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it. Upon
determining that an application or request submitted under those
divisions pertains to the establishment of a new commercial
hazardous waste incinerator or the modification of an existing
incinerator, the staff of the agency director shall cease reviewing the
application or request and shall return it and the accompanying
materials to the applicant along with a written notice that
division (C)(2) of this section precludes the staff from
reviewing or making any preliminary determination of compliance
regarding review of the application or request.
(3) The hazardous waste facility board created in section
3734.05 of the Revised Code shall not do either of the following:
(a) Approve any application for a hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit, or issue any permit, under
divisions (D) and (F) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that
authorizes the establishment and operation of a new commercial
hazardous waste incinerator;
(b) Approve any request to modify an existing commercial
hazardous waste incinerator under divisions (D) and (I)(7)
of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code that authorizes an increase
in either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the
quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it.
Sec. 3734.124. (A) Promptly after issuing a periodic
assessment under division (B) of section 3734.123 of the Revised
Code, the director of environmental protection shall make a
determination as to whether it is necessary or appropriate to
continue the restrictions established in division (C) of section
3734.123 of the Revised Code during the period of time between
the issuance of the assessment and the issuance of the next
succeeding periodic assessment or as to whether it is necessary
or appropriate to terminate the restrictions. The director shall
consider all of the following when making a determination under
this division:
(1) The findings of the assessment;
(2) The findings of an evaluation conducted by the
director, in consultation with the chairperson of the
state emergency response commission created in section 3750.02 of the
Revised Code, regarding the capability of this state to respond
to the types and frequencies of releases of hazardous waste that
are likely to occur at commercial hazardous waste incinerators;
(3) The effect that a new commercial hazardous waste
incinerator may have on ambient air quality in this state;
(4) The findings of a review of relevant information
regarding the impacts of commercial hazardous waste incinerators
on human health and the environment, such as health studies and
risk assessments;
(5) The findings of a review of the operational records of
commercial hazardous waste incinerators operating in this state;
(6) The findings of any review of relevant information
concerning the following:
(a) The cost of and access to commercial hazardous waste
incinerator capacity;
(b) The length of time and the regulatory review process
necessary to fully permit a commercial hazardous waste
incinerator;
(c) Access to long-term capital investment to fund the
building of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator in this
state;
(d) Efforts by generators of hazardous waste accepted by
commercial hazardous waste incinerators to reduce the amount of
hazardous waste that they generate.
(7) Regulatory and legislative concerns that may include,
without limitation, the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of
40 C.F.R. 271.4, as they existed on April 15, 1993.
If, after considering all of the information and concerns
that the director is required to consider under divisions
(A)(1) to (7) of
this section, the director determines that it is necessary or
appropriate to terminate the restrictions established in division
(C) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code in order to protect
human health or safety or the environment, the director shall
issue as a final action a written determination to that effect.
If the director determines that it is necessary or appropriate
for those purposes to continue the restrictions until the
issuance of the next succeeding periodic assessment under
division (B) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, the
director shall issue as a final action a written determination to
that effect. After the issuance as a final action of a
determination under this division that it is necessary or
appropriate to terminate the restrictions established in division
(C) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code, the director shall
cease making the periodic determinations required under this
division.
(B) Beginning three years after April 15, 1993, but
only on and after the
date of issuance as final
actions of an assessment under division (B) of section 3734.123
of the Revised Code and a determination under division (A) of
this section that it is necessary or appropriate to terminate the
restrictions established in division (C) of section 3734.123 of
the Revised Code, any of the following may occur:
(1) The the director may do any of the following:
(a) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section 3734.05 of the
Revised Code, as applicable, transmit to the hazardous waste
facility board
created in that section an application for a hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit that pertains to the
establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or
a request for a modification, as described
in divisions (I)(3)(a) to (d) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code,
of a commercial hazardous waste
incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the
incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be
treated by it, for which the staff of the environmental
protection agency has made a preliminary determination as to whether the
application or request appears to
comply with the rules and standards set forth under divisions
(D), (I), and (K) of section 3734.05
of the Revised Code;
(b) To the extent otherwise authorized in division (I)(5)
of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, issue a modified
hazardous
waste facility installation and operation permit under that
division that authorizes an increase in either the treatment
capacity of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator or the
quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it;
(c)(1) To the extent otherwise authorized thereunder, issue
any permit pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, division (J) of section
6111.03 of the Revised Code, or the solid waste provisions of
this chapter and rules adopted under those provisions, that is
necessary for the establishment, modification, or operation of
any appurtenant facility or equipment that is necessary for the
operation of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or for
the modification of an existing incinerator to increase either
the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of
hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it;
(d)(2) To the extent otherwise authorized in division (G) of
section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, issue an order exempting the
establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator;
the modification of an existing incinerator to
increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the
quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by
it; or the establishment, modification, or operation of any
facility or equipment appurtenant to a new or modified commercial
hazardous waste incinerator, from division (C)(1)(a), or (b), or (c)
or (C)(2) or (3) of section 3734.123 of the Revised Code.
(2) The staff of the environmental protection agency may
do both of the following:
(a) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section
3734.05 of the Revised Code, review an application for a
hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit to
establish a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator or a
request to modify an existing incinerator to increase either the
treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of
hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it;
(b) Pursuant to division (D)(3) or (I)(4) of section
3734.05 of the Revised Code, make a preliminary determination as
to whether an application for a hazardous waste facility permit
to install and operate a new commercial hazardous waste
incinerator or a request to modify an existing incinerator to
increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the
quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it
appears to comply with the rules and performance standards set
forth under divisions (D), (I), and (J) of section 3734.12 of the
Revised Code.
(3) The hazardous waste facility board may do both of the
following:
(a) Approve or disapprove an application for a hazardous
waste facility installation and operation permit, and issue a
permit, under divisions division (D) and (F) of section 3734.05 of the
Revised Code for a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator;
(b) Under divisions (D) and (I)(7) of that section, approve
(4) Approve or disapprove under division (I) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code a request to modify the permit of an existing
commercial hazardous waste incinerator to increase either the
treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of
hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it.
Sec. 3734.18. (A) There are hereby levied fees on the
disposal of hazardous waste to be collected according to the
following schedule at each disposal facility to which the
hazardous waste facility board has issued a hazardous waste
facility installation and operation permit or the director of
environmental protection has issued a renewal of a permit pursuant to
section 3734.05 of the Revised Code has been issued under this chapter:
(1) For disposal facilities that are off-site facilities
as defined in division (E) of section 3734.02 of the Revised
Code, fees shall be levied at the rate of four dollars and fifty
cents per ton for hazardous waste disposed of by deep well
injection and nine dollars per ton for hazardous
waste disposed
of by land application or landfilling. The owner or operator of
the facility, as a trustee for the state, shall collect the fees
and forward them to the director in accordance with rules adopted
under this section.
(2) For disposal facilities that are on-site or satellite
facilities, as defined in division (E) of section 3734.02 of the
Revised Code, fees shall be levied at the rate of two dollars per
ton for hazardous waste disposed of by deep well injection and
four dollars per ton for hazardous waste disposed of by land
application or landfilling. The maximum annual disposal fee for
an on-site disposal facility that disposes of one hundred
thousand tons or less of hazardous waste in a year is twenty-five
thousand dollars. The maximum annual disposal fee for an on-site
facility that disposes of more than one hundred thousand tons of
hazardous waste in a year by land application or landfilling is
fifty thousand dollars, and the maximum annual fee for an on-site
facility that disposes of more than one hundred thousand tons of
hazardous waste in a year by deep well injection is one hundred
thousand dollars. The maximum annual disposal fee for a
satellite facility that disposes of one hundred thousand tons or
less of hazardous waste in a year is thirty-seven thousand five
hundred dollars, and the maximum annual disposal fee for a
satellite facility that disposes of more than one hundred
thousand tons of hazardous waste in a year is seventy-five
thousand dollars, except that a satellite facility defined under
division (E)(3)(b) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code that
receives hazardous waste from a single generation site is subject
to the same maximum annual disposal fees as an on-site disposal
facility. The owner or operator shall pay the fee to the
director each year upon the anniversary of the date of issuance
of the owner's or operator's installation and operation
permit during the term of that
permit and any renewal permit issued under division (H) of
section 3734.05 of the Revised Code. If payment is late, the
owner or operator shall pay an additional ten per cent of the
amount of the fee for each month that it is late.
(B) There are hereby levied fees at the rate of two
dollars per ton on hazardous waste that is treated
at treatment
facilities that are not on-site or satellite facilities, as
defined in division (E) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code,
to which the hazardous waste facility board has issued a
hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit or the
director renewal of a permit has been issued a renewal permit under this chapter,
or that are not subject to the hazardous waste facility
installation and operation permit requirements under rules
adopted by the director.
(C) There are hereby levied additional fees on the
treatment and disposal of hazardous waste at the rate of ten per
cent of the applicable fees prescribed in division
(A) or (B) of this section for the purposes of paying the costs of
municipal corporations and counties for conducting reviews of
applications for hazardous waste facility installation and
operation permits for proposed new or modified hazardous waste
landfills within their boundaries, emergency response actions
with respect to releases of hazardous waste from hazardous waste
facilities within their boundaries, monitoring the operation of
such hazardous waste facilities, and local waste management
planning programs. The owner or operator of a facility located
within a municipal corporation, as a trustee for the municipal
corporation, shall collect the fees levied by this division and
forward them to the treasurer of the municipal corporation or
such officer as, by virtue of the charter, has the duties of the
treasurer in accordance with rules adopted under this
section. The owner or operator of a facility located in an
unincorporated area, as a trustee of the county in which the
facility is located, shall collect the fees levied by this
division and forward them to the county treasurer of that county
in accordance with rules adopted under this section. The
owner or operator shall pay the fees levied by this division to
the treasurer or such other officer of the municipal corporation
or to the county treasurer each year upon the anniversary of the
date of issuance of the owner's or operator's installation and
operation
permit during the term of that permit and any renewal permit
issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.
If payment is late, the owner or operator shall pay an additional ten per cent
of the amount of the fee for each month that the payment is late.
Moneys received by a municipal corporation under this
division shall be paid into a special fund of the municipal
corporation and used exclusively for the purposes of conducting
reviews of applications for hazardous waste facility installation
and operation permits for new or modified hazardous waste
landfills located or proposed within the municipal corporation,
conducting emergency response actions with respect to releases of
hazardous waste from facilities located within the municipal
corporation, monitoring operation of such hazardous waste
facilities, and conducting waste management planning programs
within the municipal corporation through employees of the
municipal corporation or pursuant to contracts entered into with
persons or political subdivisions. Moneys received by a board of
county commissioners under this division shall be paid into a
special fund of the county and used exclusively for those
purposes within the unincorporated area of the county through
employees of the county or pursuant to contracts entered into
with persons or political subdivisions.
(D) As used in this section, "treatment" or "treated" does
not include any method, technique, or process designed to recover
energy or material resources from the waste or to render the
waste amenable for recovery. The fees levied by
division (B)
of this section do not apply to hazardous waste that is
treated and disposed of on the same premises or by the same
person.
(E) The director, by rules adopted in accordance with
Chapters 119. and 3745. of the Revised Code, shall prescribe any
dates not specified in this section and procedures for collecting
and forwarding the fees prescribed by this section and may
prescribe other requirements that are necessary to carry out this
section.
The director shall deposit the moneys collected under
divisions (A) and (B) of this section into one
or more
minority banks, as "minority bank" is defined in division
(F)(1)
of section 135.04 of the Revised Code, to the credit of the
hazardous waste facility management fund, which is hereby created
in the state treasury, except that the director shall deposit to
the credit of the underground injection control fund created in
section 6111.046 of the Revised Code moneys in excess of fifty
thousand dollars that are collected during a fiscal year under
division (A)(2) of this section from the fee levied on the
disposal of hazardous waste by deep well injection at an on-site
disposal facility that disposes of more than one hundred thousand
tons of hazardous waste in a year.
The environmental protection agency and the hazardous waste
facility board may use moneys in the hazardous waste facility
management fund for administration of the hazardous waste program
established under this chapter and, in accordance with this
section, may request approval by the controlling board for
that
use on an annual basis. In addition, the agency may use and
pledge moneys in that fund for repayment of and for interest on
any loans made by the Ohio water development authority to the
agency for the hazardous waste program established under this
chapter without the necessity of requesting approval by the
controlling board, which use and pledge shall have priority over
any other use of the moneys in the fund.
Until September 28, 1996, the
director also may use moneys in the fund to pay
the start-up costs of administering Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code.
If moneys in the fund
that the agency uses in accordance with this chapter are
reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the United States
government, the grants or other moneys shall be placed in the
fund.
Before the agency makes any expenditure from the fund other than for repayment
of and
interest on any loan made by the Ohio water development authority
to the agency in accordance with this section, the controlling
board shall approve the expenditure.
Sec. 3734.28. All moneys collected under sections 3734.122,
3734.13,
3734.20,
3734.22, 3734.24, and 3734.26 of the Revised
Code and natural resource damages
collected by the state under the
"Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and Liability
Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as amended, shall
be
paid into
the state treasury to the credit of the hazardous
waste clean-up fund, which
is hereby created. The environmental
protection agency shall use the moneys
in the fund for the
purposes set forth in division (D) of section
3734.122, sections
3734.19, 3734.20, 3734.21, 3734.23,
3734.25, 3734.26,
and
3734.27, and, through June 30,
2003 October 15, 2005,
divisions (A)(1) and (2)
of
section 3745.12 and
Chapter 3746. of the Revised
Code,
including
any related enforcement expenses. In addition, the
agency
shall
use the moneys in the fund to pay the state's
long-term operation
and
maintenance costs or matching share for
actions taken under
the
"Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and
Liability Act of 1980," as
amended. If those
moneys are
reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the
United
States or any
other person, the moneys shall be
placed in the fund
and not in
the general revenue fund.
Sec. 3734.42. (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(2) of this
section, every applicant for a permit other
than a permit modification or renewal shall file a disclosure
statement, on a form developed by the attorney general, with the
director of environmental protection and the attorney general at
the same time the applicant files an
application for a permit other than a permit modification or renewal with the
director.
(2) Any individual required to be listed in the disclosure
statement shall be fingerprinted for identification and
investigation purposes in accordance with procedures established
by the attorney general. An
individual required to be fingerprinted under this section shall not be
required to be fingerprinted more than once under this section.
(3) The attorney general, within one hundred eighty days
after receipt of the disclosure statement from an applicant for a
permit, shall prepare and transmit to the director an
investigative report on the applicant, based in part upon the
disclosure statement, except that this deadline may be extended
for a reasonable period of time, for good cause, by the director
or the attorney general. In preparing this report, the attorney
general may request and receive criminal history information from
the federal bureau of investigation and any other law enforcement
agency or organization. The attorney general may provide such
confidentiality regarding the information received from a law
enforcement agency as may be imposed by that agency as a
condition for providing that information to the attorney general.
(4) The review of the application by the director or the
hazardous waste facility board shall include a review of the
disclosure statement and investigative report.
(B) All applicants and permittees shall provide any
assistance or information requested by the director or the
attorney general and shall cooperate in any inquiry or
investigation conducted by the attorney general and any inquiry,
investigation, or hearing conducted by the director or the
hazardous waste facility board. If, upon issuance of a formal
request to answer any inquiry or produce information, evidence,
or testimony, any applicant or permittee, any officer, director,
or partner of any business concern, or any key employee of the
applicant or permittee refuses to comply, the permit of the
applicant or permittee may be denied or revoked by the director
or the board.
(C) The attorney general may charge and collect such fees
from applicants and permittees as are necessary to cover the
costs of administering and enforcing the investigative procedures
authorized in sections 3734.41 to 3734.47 of the Revised Code.
The attorney general shall transmit moneys collected under this
division to the treasurer of state to be credited to the solid
and hazardous waste background investigations fund, which is
hereby created in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall
be used solely for paying the attorney general's costs of
administering and enforcing the investigative procedures
authorized in sections 3734.41 to 3734.47 of the Revised Code.
(D) Annually on the anniversary date of the submission to
the director by the attorney general of the investigative report
for a specific facility, or annually on another date assigned by
the attorney general, the appropriate applicant, permittee, or
prospective owner shall submit to the attorney general, on a form
provided by the attorney general, any and all information
required to be included in a disclosure statement that has
changed or been added in the immediately preceding year. If, in the
immediately preceding year, there have been no changes in or additions to the
information required to be included in a disclosure statement, the appropriate
applicant, permittee, or prospective owner shall submit to the attorney
general an affidavit stating that there have been no changes in or additions
to
that information during that time period.
Notwithstanding the requirement for an annual submission of
information, the following information shall be submitted within
the periods specified:
(1) Information required to be included in the disclosure
statement for any new officer, director, partner, or key
employee, to be submitted within ninety days from the addition of
the officer, director, partner, or key employee;
(2) Information required to be included in a disclosure
statement for any new business concern, to be submitted within
ninety days from the addition of the new business concern;
(3) Information regarding any new criminal conviction, to
be submitted within ninety days from the judgment entry of
conviction.
The failure to provide such information may constitute the
basis for the revocation or denial of renewal of any permit or
license issued in accordance with this chapter, provided that
prior to any such denial or revocation, the director shall notify
the applicant or permittee of the director's intention to do so
and give the applicant or permittee fourteen days from the date
of the notice to explain why the information was not provided.
The director shall consider this information when determining
whether to revoke or deny the permit or license.
Nothing in this division affects the rights of the director
or the attorney general granted under sections 3734.40 to 3734.47
of the Revised Code to request information from a person at any
other time.
(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(2) of this section, every
permittee who is not otherwise required to file
a disclosure statement shall file a disclosure statement within
five years after June 24, 1988, pursuant to a schedule for
submissions of disclosure statements developed by the attorney
general. The schedule shall provide all permittees and holders
of a license with at least one hundred eighty days'
notice prior
to the date upon which the statement is to be submitted. All
other terms of the schedule shall be established at the
discretion of the attorney general and shall not be subject to
judicial review.
(2) An applicant for a permit for an off-site solid waste facility that is a
scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility issued under
section 3734.76, 3734.77, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, as applicable, shall
file a disclosure statement within five years after October
29, 1993, pursuant to
a schedule for submissions of disclosure statements
developed by the attorney general. The schedule shall provide all such
applicants with at least one hundred eighty days' notice prior to the date
upon which the statement shall be submitted. All other terms of the schedule
shall be established at the discretion of the attorney general and shall not
be subject to judicial review.
Beginning five years after
October 29, 1993, an applicant
for such a permit shall file a disclosure statement in accordance with
division (A)(1) of this section.
(3) When a permittee submits a disclosure statement at the time
it submits an application for a renewal or modification of its
permit, the attorney general shall remove the permittee from the
submission schedule established pursuant to division (E)(1) or (2) of this
section.
(4) After receiving a disclosure statement under division (E)(1) or (2) of
this section, the attorney
general shall prepare an investigative report and transmit it to
the director. The director shall review the disclosure statement
and investigative report to determine whether the statement or
report contains information that if submitted with a permit
application would require a denial of the permit pursuant to
section 3734.44 of the Revised Code. If the director determines
that the statement or report contains such information, the
director may revoke any previously issued permit pursuant to section
3734.45 of the Revised Code, or the director shall deny any
application for a renewal of a permit or license. When the renewal of the
license is being performed by a board of health, the director shall instruct
the board of health about those circumstances under which the renewal is
required to be denied by this section.
(F)(1) Whenever there is a change in ownership of any
off-site solid waste facility, including incinerators, any
transfer facility, any off-site infectious waste treatment
facility, or any off-site hazardous waste treatment, storage, or
disposal facility, the prospective owner shall file a disclosure
statement with the attorney general and the director at least one
hundred eighty days prior to the proposed change in ownership.
Upon receipt of the disclosure statement, the attorney general
shall prepare an investigative report and transmit it to the
director. The director shall review the disclosure statement and
investigative report to determine whether the statement or report
contains information that if submitted with a permit application
would require a denial of the permit pursuant to section 3734.44
of the Revised Code. If the director determines that the
statement or report contains such information, the director
shall disapprove the change in ownership.
(2) If the parties to a change in ownership decide to
proceed with the change prior to the action of the director on
the disclosure statement and investigative report, the parties
shall include in all contracts or other documents reflecting the
change in ownership language expressly making the change in
ownership subject to the approval of the director and expressly
negating the change if it is disapproved by the director pursuant
to division (F)(1) of this section.
(3) As used in this section, "change in ownership"
includes any change in the names, other than those of officers,
directors, partners, or key employees, contained in the
disclosure statement.
Sec. 3734.44. Notwithstanding the provisions of any law to
the contrary, no permit or license shall be issued or renewed
by the director of environmental protection, the hazardous waste
facility board, or a board of health:
(A) Unless the director, the hazardous waste facility
board, or the board of health finds that the applicant, in any
prior performance record in the transportation, transfer,
treatment, storage, or disposal of solid wastes, infectious
wastes, or hazardous waste, has exhibited sufficient reliability,
expertise, and competency to operate the solid waste, infectious
waste, or hazardous waste facility, given the potential for harm
to human health and the environment that could result from the
irresponsible operation of the facility, or, if no prior
record exists,
that the applicant is likely to exhibit that reliability,
expertise, and competence;
(B) If any individual or business concern required to be
listed in the disclosure statement or shown to have a beneficial
interest in the business of the applicant or the permittee, other
than an equity interest or debt liability, by the investigation
thereof, has been convicted of any of the following crimes under
the laws of this state or equivalent laws of any other
jurisdiction:
(10) Theft and related crimes;
(11) Forgery and fraudulent practices;
(12) Fraud in the offering, sale, or purchase of
securities;
(13) Alteration of motor vehicle identification numbers;
(14) Unlawful manufacture, purchase, use, or transfer of
firearms;
(15) Unlawful possession or use of destructive devices or
explosives;
(16) Violation of section 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05,
2925.06, 2925.11,
2925.32, or 2925.37 or Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code,
unless the violation is for possession of less than one hundred grams
of marihuana, less than five grams of marihuana resin
or extraction or preparation of
marihuana resin, or less than one gram of marihuana resin
in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form;
(17) Engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity under section 2923.32 of the
Revised Code;
(18) Violation of criminal provisions of Chapter 1331. of
the Revised Code;
(19) Any violation of the criminal provisions of any
federal or state environmental protection laws, rules, or
regulations that is committed knowingly or recklessly, as
defined in section 2901.22 of the Revised Code;
(20) Violation of Chapter 2909. of the Revised Code;
(21) Any offense specified in Chapter 2921. of the Revised Code.
(C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, no
applicant shall be denied the issuance or renewal of a permit or
license on the basis of a conviction of any individual or
business concern required to be listed in the disclosure
statement or shown to have a beneficial interest in the business
of the applicant or the permittee, other than an equity interest
or debt liability, by the investigation thereof for any of the
offenses enumerated in that division as disqualification criteria
if that applicant has affirmatively demonstrated rehabilitation
of the individual or business concern by a preponderance of the
evidence. If any such individual was
convicted of any of the offenses so enumerated that are felonies,
a permit shall be denied unless five years have elapsed since the individual
was fully discharged from
imprisonment and parole for the offense, from a
post-release control sanction imposed under section 2967.28
of the Revised Code for the offense, or imprisonment, probation, and parole
for an offense
that was committed prior to the effective date of this amendment. In
determining whether an applicant has affirmatively demonstrated
rehabilitation, the director, the hazardous waste facility board,
or the board of health shall request a recommendation on the
matter from the attorney general and shall consider and base the
determination on the following factors:
(1) The nature and responsibilities of the position a
convicted individual would hold;
(2) The nature and seriousness of the offense;
(3) The circumstances under which the offense occurred;
(4) The date of the offense;
(5) The age of the individual when the offense was
committed;
(6) Whether the offense was an isolated or repeated
incident;
(7) Any social conditions that may have contributed to the
offense;
(8) Any evidence of rehabilitation, including good conduct
in prison or in the community, counseling or psychiatric
treatment received, acquisition of additional academic or
vocational schooling, successful participation in correctional
work release programs, or the recommendation of persons who have
or have had the applicant under their supervision;
(9) In the instance of an applicant that is a business
concern, rehabilitation shall be established if the applicant has
implemented formal management controls to minimize and prevent
the occurrence of violations and activities that will or may
result in permit or license denial or revocation or if the
applicant has formalized those controls as a result of a
revocation or denial of a permit or license. Those
controls may include, but are not limited to, instituting
environmental auditing
programs to help ensure the adequacy of internal systems to
achieve, maintain, and monitor compliance with applicable
environmental laws and standards or instituting an antitrust
compliance auditing program to help ensure full compliance with
applicable antitrust laws. The business concern shall prove by a
preponderance of the evidence that the management controls are
effective in preventing the violations that are the subject of
concern.
(D) Unless the director, the hazardous waste facility board,
or the board of health finds that the applicant has a history of
compliance with environmental laws in this state and other
jurisdictions and is presently in substantial compliance with, or
on a legally enforceable schedule that will result in compliance
with, environmental laws in this state and other jurisdictions.;
(E) With respect to the approval of a permit, if the
director or the hazardous waste facility board determines that
current prosecutions or pending charges in any jurisdiction for
any of the offenses enumerated in division (B) of this section
against any individual or business concern required to be listed
in the disclosure statement or shown by the investigation to have
a beneficial interest in the business of the applicant other than
an equity interest or debt liability are of such magnitude that
they prevent making the finding required under division (A) of
this section, provided that at the request of the applicant or
the individual or business concern charged, the director or the hazardous
waste facility board shall defer
decision upon the application during the pendency of the charge.
Sec. 3734.46. Notwithstanding the disqualification of the applicant or
permittee pursuant to this chapter, the director of environmental protection,
hazardous waste facility board, or the board of health may issue or renew a permit
or license if the applicant or permittee severs the interest of or affiliation
with the individual or business concern that would otherwise cause that
disqualification or may issue or renew a license on a temporary basis for a
period not to exceed six months if the director or the board of health determines that
the issuance or renewal of the permit or license is necessitated by the public
interest.
Sec. 3734.57. (A) For the purposes of paying the state's
long-term operation costs or matching share for actions taken
under the
"Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation,
and
Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as
amended; paying the costs of measures for proper clean-up of
sites
where polychlorinated biphenyls and substances, equipment,
and
devices containing or contaminated with polychlorinated
biphenyls
have been stored or disposed of; paying the costs of
conducting
surveys or investigations of solid waste facilities or
other
locations where it is believed that significant quantities
of
hazardous waste were disposed of and for conducting
enforcement
actions arising from the findings of such surveys or
investigations; paying the costs of acquiring and cleaning
up, or
providing financial assistance for cleaning up, any
hazardous
waste facility or solid waste facility containing
significant
quantities of hazardous waste, that constitutes an
imminent and
substantial threat to public health or safety or the
environment;
and, from July 1,
2001 2003, through June 30,
2004 2006,
for the
purposes
of paying the costs of administering and
enforcing the
laws
pertaining to solid wastes, infectious wastes,
and
construction
and demolition debris, including, without
limitation,
ground water
evaluations related to solid wastes,
infectious
wastes, and
construction and demolition debris, under
this chapter
and Chapter
3714. of the Revised Code and any rules
adopted under
them, and
paying a share of the administrative
costs of the
environmental
protection agency pursuant to section
3745.014 of
the Revised
Code, the following fees are hereby
levied on the
disposal of
solid wastes in this state:
(1) One dollar per ton on and after July 1, 1993;
(2) An additional seventy-five cents one dollar per ton on
and after
July 1,
2001 2003, through June 30,
2004 2006.
The owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility
shall collect the fees levied under this division as a trustee
for
the state and shall prepare and file with the director of
environmental protection monthly returns indicating the total
tonnage of solid wastes received for disposal at the gate of the
facility and the total amount of the fees collected under this
division. Not later than thirty days after the last day of the
month to which such a return applies, the owner or operator shall
mail to the director the return for that month together with the
fees collected during that month as indicated on the return. The
owner or operator may request an extension of not more than
thirty
days for filing the return and remitting the fees,
provided that
the owner or operator has submitted such a
request in writing to
the
director together with a detailed description of why the
extension is requested, the director has received the request not
later than the day on which the return is required to be filed,
and the director has approved the request. If the fees are not
remitted within sixty days after the last day of the month during
which they were collected, the owner or operator shall pay an
additional fifty per cent of the amount of the fees for each
month
that they are late.
One-half of the moneys remitted to the director under
division (A)(1) of this section shall be credited to the
hazardous
waste facility management fund created in section
3734.18 of the
Revised Code, and one-half shall be credited to
the hazardous
waste clean-up fund created in section 3734.28 of
the Revised
Code. The moneys remitted to the director under
division (A)(2)
of this section shall be credited to the solid
waste fund, which
is hereby created in the state treasury. The
environmental
protection agency shall use moneys in the solid
waste fund only to
pay the costs of administering and enforcing
the laws pertaining
to solid wastes, infectious wastes, and
construction and
demolition debris, including, without
limitation, ground water
evaluations related to solid wastes,
infectious wastes, and
construction and demolition debris, under
this chapter and Chapter
3714. of the Revised Code and rules
adopted
under them and to pay
a share of the administrative costs of the
environmental
protection agency pursuant to section 3745.014 of
the Revised
Code.
The fees levied under this division and divisions (B) and
(C)
of this section are in addition to all other applicable fees
and
taxes and shall be added to any other fee or amount specified
in a
contract that is charged by the owner or operator of a solid
waste
disposal facility or to any other fee or amount that is
specified
in a contract entered into on or after March 4, 1992,
and that is
charged by a transporter of solid wastes.
(B) For the purpose of preparing, revising, and
implementing
the solid waste management plan of the county or
joint solid waste
management district, including, without
limitation, the
development and implementation of solid waste
recycling or
reduction programs; providing financial assistance
to boards of
health within the district, if solid waste
facilities are located
within the district, for the enforcement
of this chapter and rules
adopted
and orders and terms and conditions of permits, licenses,
and
variances issued under it, other than the hazardous waste
provisions of this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms
and conditions of permits issued under those provisions;
providing
financial
assistance to the county to defray the added costs of
maintaining
roads and other public facilities and of providing
emergency and
other public services resulting from the location
and operation
of a solid waste facility within the county under
the district's
approved solid waste management plan; paying the
costs incurred
by boards of health for collecting and analyzing
water samples
from public or private wells on lands adjacent to
solid waste
facilities that are contained in the approved or
amended plan of
the district; paying the costs of developing and
implementing a
program for the inspection of solid wastes
generated outside the
boundaries of this state that are disposed
of at solid waste
facilities included in the district's approved
solid waste
management plan or amended plan; providing financial
assistance
to boards of health within the district for enforcing
laws
prohibiting open dumping; providing financial assistance to
local
law enforcement agencies within the district for enforcing
laws
and ordinances prohibiting littering; providing financial
assistance to boards of health of health districts within the
district that are on the approved list under section 3734.08 of
the Revised Code for the training and certification required for
their employees responsible for solid waste enforcement by rules
adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02 of the Revised
Code;
providing financial assistance to individual municipal
corporations and townships within the district to defray their
added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and
of providing emergency and other public services resulting from
the location and operation within their boundaries of a
composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or
recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is
furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services
to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the
board
of county commissioners or directors of the district; and
payment
of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or ordered to be paid
under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code
and of any
administrative costs incurred pursuant
to that section, the solid
waste management policy committee of a county
or joint solid waste
management district may levy fees upon the following
activities:
(1) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility
located
in the district of solid wastes generated within the
district;
(2) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of
the district, but inside this state;
(3) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of
this state.
If any such fees are levied prior to January 1, 1994, fees
levied under division (B)(1) of this section always shall be
equal
to one-half of the fees levied under division (B)(2) of
this
section, and fees levied under division (B)(3) of this
section,
which shall be in addition to fees levied under division
(B)(2) of
this section, always shall be equal to fees levied
under division
(B)(1) of this section, except as otherwise
provided in this
division. The solid waste management plan of
the county or joint
district approved under section 3734.521 or
3734.55 of the Revised
Code and any amendments to it, or the
resolution adopted under
this division, as appropriate, shall
establish the rates of the
fees levied under divisions (B)(1),
(2), and (3) of this section,
if any, and shall specify whether
the fees are levied on the basis
of tons or cubic yards as the
unit of measurement. Although the
fees under divisions (A)(1)
and (2) of this section are levied on
the basis of tons as the
unit of measurement, the solid waste
management plan of the
district and any amendments to it or the
solid waste management
policy committee in its resolution levying
fees under this
division may direct that the fees levied under
those divisions be
levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit
of measurement
based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards
per ton
generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes if
the fees
under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section are being
levied on
the basis of cubic yards as the unit of measurement
under the
plan, amended plan, or resolution.
On and after January 1, 1994, the fee levied under division
(B)(1) of this section shall be not less than one dollar per ton
nor more than two dollars per ton, the fee levied under division
(B)(2) of this section shall be not less than two dollars per ton
nor more than four dollars per ton, and the fee levied under
division (B)(3) of this section shall be not more than the fee
levied under division (B)(1) of this section, except as otherwise
provided in this division and notwithstanding any schedule of
those fees established in the solid waste management plan of a
county or joint district approved under section 3734.55 of the
Revised Code or a resolution adopted and ratified under this
division that is in effect on that date. If the fee that a
district is levying under division (B)(1) of this section on that
date under its approved plan or such a resolution is less than
one
dollar per ton, the fee shall be one dollar per ton on and
after
January 1, 1994, and if the fee that a district is so
levying
under that division exceeds two dollars per ton, the fee
shall be
two dollars per ton on and after that date. If the fee
that a
district is so levying under division (B)(2) of this
section is
less than two dollars per ton, the fee shall be two
dollars per
ton on and after that date, and if the fee that the
district is so
levying under that division exceeds four dollars
per ton, the fee
shall be four dollars per ton on and after that
date. On that
date, the fee levied by a district under division
(B)(3) of this
section shall be equal to the fee levied under
division (B)(1) of
this section. Except as otherwise provided in
this division, the
fees established by the operation of this
amendment shall remain
in effect until the district's resolution
levying fees under this
division is amended or repealed in
accordance with this division
to amend or abolish the schedule of
fees, the schedule of fees is
amended or abolished in an amended
plan of the district approved
under section 3734.521 or division
(A) or (D) of section 3734.56
of the Revised Code, or the
schedule of fees is amended or
abolished through an amendment to
the district's plan under
division (E) of section 3734.56 of the
Revised Code; the
notification of the amendment or abolishment of
the fees has been
given in accordance with this division; and
collection of the
amended fees so established commences, or
collection of the fees
ceases, in accordance with this division.
The solid waste management policy committee of a district
levying fees under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this
section on
October 29, 1993, under its solid waste management plan
approved
under section 3734.55 of the
Revised Code or a resolution adopted
and ratified under this
division that are within the ranges of
rates prescribed by this
amendment, by adoption of a resolution
not later than December 1,
1993, and without the necessity for
ratification of the
resolution under this division, may amend
those fees within the
prescribed ranges, provided that the
estimated revenues from the
amended fees will not substantially
exceed the estimated revenues
set forth in the district's budget
for calendar year 1994. Not
later than seven days after the
adoption of such a resolution,
the committee shall notify by
certified mail the owner or
operator of each solid waste disposal
facility that is required
to collect the fees of the adoption of
the resolution and of the
amount of the amended fees. Collection
of the amended fees shall
take effect on the first day of the
first month following the
month in which the notification is sent
to the owner or operator. The
fees established in such a
resolution shall remain in effect
until the district's resolution
levying fees that was adopted and
ratified under this division is
amended or repealed, and the
amendment or repeal of the resolution
is ratified, in accordance
with this division, to amend or abolish
the fees, the schedule of
fees is amended or abolished in an
amended plan of the district
approved under section 3734.521 or
division
(A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or the
schedule of fees is amended or abolished through an amendment to
the district's plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the
Revised Code; the notification of the amendment or abolishment of
the fees has been given in accordance with this division; and
collection of the amended fees so established commences, or
collection of the fees ceases, in accordance with this division.
Prior to the approval of the solid waste management plan of
the district under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, the solid
waste management policy committee of a district may levy fees
under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the
proposed amount of the fees. Upon adopting the resolution, the
committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of
county commissioners of each county forming the district and to
the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and
township under the jurisdiction of the district and shall prepare
and publish the resolution and a notice of the time and location
where a public hearing on the fees will be held. Upon adopting
the resolution, the committee shall deliver written notice of the
adoption of the resolution; of the amount of the proposed fees;
and of the date, time, and location of the public hearing to the
director and to the fifty industrial, commercial, or
institutional
generators of solid wastes within the district that
generate the
largest quantities of solid wastes, as determined by
the
committee, and to their local trade associations. The
committee
shall make good faith efforts to identify those
generators within
the district and their local trade
associations, but the
nonprovision of notice under this division
to a particular
generator or local trade association does not
invalidate the
proceedings under this division. The publication
shall occur at
least thirty days before the hearing. After the
hearing, the
committee may make such revisions to the proposed
fees as it
considers appropriate and thereafter, by resolution,
shall adopt
the revised fee schedule. Upon adopting the revised
fee schedule,
the committee shall deliver a copy of the
resolution doing so to
the board of county commissioners of each
county forming the
district and to the legislative authority of
each municipal
corporation and township under the jurisdiction of
the district.
Within sixty days after the delivery of a copy of
the resolution
adopting the proposed revised fees by the policy
committee, each
such board and legislative authority, by
ordinance or resolution,
shall approve or disapprove the revised
fees and deliver a copy of
the ordinance or resolution to the
committee. If any such board
or legislative authority fails to
adopt and deliver to the policy
committee an ordinance or
resolution approving or disapproving the
revised fees within
sixty days after the policy committee
delivered its resolution
adopting the proposed revised fees, it
shall be conclusively
presumed that the board or legislative
authority has approved the
proposed revised fees.
In the case of a county district or a joint district formed
by two or three counties, the committee shall declare the
proposed
revised fees to be ratified as the fee schedule of the
district
upon determining that the board of county commissioners
of each
county forming the district has approved the proposed
revised fees
and that the legislative authorities of a
combination of municipal
corporations and townships with a
combined population within the
district comprising at least sixty
per cent of the total
population of the district have approved
the proposed revised
fees, provided that in the case of a county
district, that
combination shall include the municipal
corporation having the
largest population within the boundaries
of the district, and
provided further that in the case of a joint
district formed by
two or three counties, that combination shall
include for each
county forming the joint district the municipal
corporation having
the largest population within the boundaries
of both the county in
which the municipal corporation is located
and the joint district.
In the case of a joint district formed
by four or more counties,
the committee shall declare the
proposed revised fees to be
ratified as the fee schedule of the
joint district upon
determining that the boards of county
commissioners of a majority
of the counties forming the district
have approved the proposed
revised fees; that, in each of a
majority of the counties forming
the joint district, the proposed
revised fees have been approved
by the municipal corporation
having the largest population within
the county and the joint
district; and that the legislative
authorities of a combination
of municipal corporations and
townships with a combined
population within the joint district
comprising at least sixty
per cent of the total population of the
joint district have
approved the proposed revised fees.
For the purposes of this division, only the population of
the
unincorporated area of a township shall be considered. For
the
purpose of determining the largest municipal corporation
within
each county under this division, a municipal corporation
that is
located in more than one solid waste management district,
but that
is under the jurisdiction of one county or joint solid
waste
management district in accordance with division (A) of
section
3734.52 of the Revised Code shall be considered to be
within the
boundaries of the county in which a majority of the
population of
the municipal corporation resides.
The committee may amend the schedule of fees levied
pursuant
to a resolution or amended resolution adopted and
ratified under
this division by adopting a resolution
establishing the proposed
amount of the amended fees. The
committee may abolish the fees
levied pursuant to such a
resolution or amended resolution by
adopting a resolution
proposing to repeal them. Upon adopting
such a resolution, the
committee shall proceed to obtain
ratification of the resolution
in accordance with this division.
Not later than fourteen days after declaring the fees or
amended fees to be ratified under this division, the committee
shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each
solid
waste disposal facility that is required to collect the
fees of
the ratification and the amount of the fees. Collection
of any
fees or amended fees ratified on or after March 24, 1992,
shall
commence on the first day of the second month following the
month
in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
Not later than fourteen days after declaring the repeal of
the district's schedule of fees to be ratified under this
division, the committee shall notify by certified mail the owner
or operator of each facility that is collecting the fees of the
repeal. Collection of the fees shall cease on the first day of
the second month following the month in which notification is
sent
to the owner or operator.
Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an
order approving a district's solid waste management plan under
section 3734.55 of the Revised Code or amended plan under
division
(A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that
establishes
or amends a schedule of fees levied by the district,
or the
ratification of an amendment to the district's approved
plan or
amended plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the
Revised
Code that establishes or amends a schedule of fees, as
appropriate, the committee shall notify by certified mail the
owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility that is
required to collect the fees of the approval of the plan or
amended plan, or the amendment to the plan, as appropriate, and
the amount of the fees or amended fees. In the case of an
initial
or amended plan approved under section 3734.521 of the
Revised
Code in connection with a change in district composition,
other
than one involving the withdrawal of a county from a joint
district, that establishes or amends a schedule of fees levied
under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section by a district
resulting from the change, the committee, within fourteen days
after the change takes effect pursuant to division (G) of that
section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect
the
fees that the change has taken effect and of the amount of
the
fees or amended fees. Collection of any fees set forth in a
plan
or amended plan approved by the director on or after April
16,
1993, or an amendment of a plan or amended plan under
division (E)
of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that is
ratified on or
after April 16, 1993, shall commence on the first
day of the
second month following the month in which notification
is sent to
the owner or operator.
Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an
order approving a district's plan under section 3734.55 of the
Revised Code or amended plan under division (A) or (D) of section
3734.56 of the Revised Code that abolishes the schedule of fees
levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, or an
amendment to the district's approved plan or amended plan
abolishing the schedule of fees is ratified pursuant to division
(E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, the
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of
each facility that is collecting the fees of the approval of the
plan or amended plan, or the amendment of the plan or amended
plan, as appropriate, and the abolishment of the fees. In the
case of an initial or amended plan approved under section
3734.521
of the Revised Code in connection with a change in
district
composition, other than one involving the withdrawal of
a county
from a joint district, that abolishes the schedule of
fees levied
under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section by a
district
resulting from the change, the committee, within
fourteen days
after the change takes effect pursuant to division
(G) of that
section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or
operator of
each solid waste disposal facility that is required
to collect the
fees that the change has taken effect and of the
abolishment of
the fees. Collection of the fees shall cease on
the first day of
the second month following the month in which
notification is sent
to the owner or operator.
Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the
schedule of fees that a district is levying under divisions
(B)(1)
to (3) of this section pursuant to a resolution or amended
resolution adopted and ratified under this division, the solid
waste management plan of the district approved under section
3734.55 of the Revised Code, an amended plan approved under
division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or an
amendment to the district's approved plan or amended plan under
division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, is amended
by
the adoption and ratification of an amendment to the
resolution or
amended resolution or an amendment of the
district's approved plan
or amended plan, the fees in effect
immediately prior to the
approval of the plan or the amendment of
the resolution, amended
resolution, plan, or amended plan, as
appropriate, shall continue
to be collected until collection of
the amended fees commences
pursuant to this division.
If, in the case of a change in district composition
involving
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the
director
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or
(3) of
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate,
forty-five
days or more before the beginning of a calendar year,
the policy
committee of each of the districts resulting from the
change that
obtained the director's approval of an initial or
amended plan in
connection with the change, within fourteen days
after the
director's completion of the required actions, shall
notify by
certified mail the owner or operator of each solid
waste disposal
facility that is required to collect the
district's fees that the
change is to take effect on the first
day of January immediately
following the issuance of the notice
and of the amount of the fees
or amended fees levied under
divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this
section pursuant to the
district's initial or amended plan as so
approved or, if
appropriate, the abolishment of the district's
fees by that
initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set
forth in
such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first
day of
January immediately following the issuance of the notice.
If
such an initial or amended plan abolishes a schedule of fees,
collection of the fees shall cease on that first day of January.
If, in the case of a change in district composition
involving
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the
director
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or
(3) of
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, less
than
forty-five days before the beginning of a calendar year, the
director, on behalf of each of the districts resulting from the
change that obtained the director's approval of an initial or
amended plan in connection with the change proceedings, shall
notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid
waste
disposal facility that is required to collect the
district's fees
that the change is to take effect on the first
day of January
immediately following the mailing of the notice
and of the amount
of the fees or amended fees levied under
divisions (B)(1) to (3)
of this section pursuant to the
district's initial or amended plan
as so approved or, if
appropriate, the abolishment of the
district's fees by that
initial or amended plan. Collection of
any fees set forth in
such a plan or amended plan shall commence
on the first day of
the second month following the month in which
notification is
sent to the owner or operator. If such an initial
or amended
plan abolishes a schedule of fees, collection of the
fees shall
cease on the first day of the second month following
the month in
which notification is sent to the owner or operator.
In the case of a change in district composition, the
schedule
of fees that the former districts that existed prior to
the change
were levying under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this
section
pursuant to a resolution or amended resolution adopted
and
ratified under this division, the solid waste management plan
of a
former district approved under section 3734.521 or 3734.55
of the
Revised Code, an amended plan approved under section
3734.521 or
division (A) or (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised
Code, or an
amendment to a former district's approved plan or
amended plan
under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised
Code, and
that were in effect on the date that the director
completed the
actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of
section 3734.521
of the Revised Code shall continue to be
collected until the
collection of the fees or amended fees of the
districts resulting
from the change is required to commence, or
if an initial or
amended plan of a resulting district abolishes a
schedule of fees,
collection of the fees is required to cease,
under this division.
Moneys so received from the collection of
the fees of the former
districts shall be divided among the
resulting districts in
accordance with division (B) of section
343.012 of the Revised
Code and the agreements entered into under
division (B) of section
343.01 of the Revised Code to establish
the former and resulting
districts and any amendments to those
agreements.
For the purposes of the provisions of division (B) of this
section establishing the times when newly established or amended
fees levied by a district are required to commence and the
collection of fees that have been amended or abolished is
required
to cease,
"fees" or
"schedule of fees" includes, in
addition to
fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this
section, those
levied under section 3734.573 or 3734.574 of the
Revised Code.
(C) For the purposes of defraying the added costs to a
municipal corporation or township of maintaining roads and other
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public
services, and compensating a municipal corporation or township
for
reductions in real property tax revenues due to reductions in
real
property valuations resulting from the location and
operation of a
solid waste disposal facility within the municipal
corporation or
township, a municipal corporation or township in
which such a
solid waste disposal facility is located may levy a
fee of not
more than twenty-five cents per ton on the disposal of
solid
wastes at a solid waste disposal facility located within
the
boundaries of the municipal corporation or township
regardless of
where the wastes were generated.
The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or
township may levy fees under this division by enacting an
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the
fees. Upon so doing the legislative authority shall mail a
certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the board of
county commissioners or directors of the county or joint solid
waste management district in which the municipal corporation or
township is located or, if a regional solid waste management
authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised
Code, to the board of trustees of that regional authority, the
owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility in the
municipal corporation or township that is required to collect the
fee by the ordinance or resolution, and the director of
environmental protection. Although the fees levied under this
division are levied on the basis of tons as the unit of
measurement, the legislative authority, in its ordinance or
resolution levying the fees under this division, may direct that
the fees be levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of
measurement based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards
per ton generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes.
Not later than five days after enacting an ordinance or
adopting a resolution under this division, the legislative
authority shall so notify by certified mail the owner or operator
of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect
the fee. Collection of any fee levied on or after March 24,
1992,
shall commence on the first day of the second month
following the
month in which notification is sent to the owner or
operator.
(D)(1) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of
this
section do not apply to the
disposal of solid wastes that:
(a) Are disposed of at a facility owned by the generator
of
the wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes
of
solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the
generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a
premises where the wastes are generated;
(b) Are disposed of at facilities that exclusively dispose
of wastes that are generated from the combustion of coal, or from
the combustion of primarily coal in combination with scrap tires,
that is not combined in any way with garbage at one or more
premises owned by the generator.
(2) Except as provided in section 3734.571 of the Revised
Code, any fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section apply
to solid wastes originating outside the boundaries of a county or
joint district that are covered by an agreement for the joint use
of solid waste facilities entered into under section 343.02 of
the
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners or board of
directors of the county or joint district where the wastes are
generated and disposed of.
(3) When solid wastes, other than solid wastes that
consist
of scrap tires, are burned in a disposal facility that is
an
incinerator or energy recovery facility, the fees levied under
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section
shall be levied upon
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash
remaining after burning
of the solid wastes and shall be
collected by the owner or
operator of the sanitary landfill where
the ash is disposed of.
(4) When solid wastes are delivered to a solid waste
transfer facility, the fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and
(C) of this section shall be levied upon
the disposal of solid
wastes transported off the premises of the
transfer facility for
disposal and shall be collected by the
owner or operator of the
solid waste disposal facility where the
wastes are disposed of.
(5) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of
this section do not apply to sewage sludge that is generated by a
waste water treatment facility holding a national pollutant
discharge elimination system permit and that is disposed of
through incineration, land application, or composting or at
another resource recovery or disposal facility that is not a
landfill.
(6) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of
this section do not apply to solid wastes delivered to a solid
waste composting facility for processing. When any unprocessed
solid waste or compost product is transported off the premises of
a composting facility and disposed of at a landfill, the fees
levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be
collected by the owner or operator of the landfill where the
unprocessed waste or compost product is disposed of.
(7) When solid wastes that consist of scrap tires are
processed at a scrap tire recovery facility, the fees levied
under
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this
section shall be levied upon
the disposal of the fly ash and
bottom ash or other solid wastes
remaining after the processing
of the scrap tires and shall be
collected by the owner or
operator of the solid waste disposal
facility where the ash or
other solid wastes are disposed of.
(E) The fees levied under divisions (B) and (C)
of this
section shall be collected by the owner or operator of
the solid
waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed
of as a
trustee for the county or joint district and municipal
corporation
or township where the wastes are disposed of. Moneys
from the
fees levied under division (B) of this
section shall be forwarded
to the board of county commissioners
or board of directors of the
district in accordance with rules
adopted under division (H) of
this section. Moneys from the fees
levied under division (C) of
this section shall be forwarded to
the treasurer or such other
officer of the municipal corporation
as, by virtue of the charter,
has the duties of the treasurer or
to the clerk of the township,
as appropriate, in accordance with
those rules.
(F) Moneys received by the treasurer or such other officer
of the municipal corporation under division (E) of this section
shall be paid into the general fund of the municipal corporation.
Moneys received by the clerk of the township under that division
shall be paid into the general fund of the township. The
treasurer or such other officer of the municipal corporation or
the clerk, as appropriate, shall maintain separate records of the
moneys received from the fees levied under division (C) of this
section.
(G) Moneys received by the board of county commissioners
or
board of directors under division (E) of this section or
section
3734.571, 3734.572, 3734.573, or 3734.574 of the Revised
Code
shall be paid to the county treasurer, or other official
acting in
a similar capacity under a county charter, in a county
district or
to the county treasurer or other official designated
by the board
of directors in a joint district and kept in a
separate and
distinct fund to the credit of the district. If a
regional solid
waste management authority has been formed under
section 343.011
of the Revised Code, moneys received by the board
of trustees of
that regional authority under division (E) of this
section shall
be kept by the board in a separate and distinct
fund to the credit
of the district. Moneys in the special fund
of the county or
joint district arising from the fees levied
under division (B) of
this section and the fee levied
under division (A) of section
3734.573 of the Revised Code shall
be expended by the board of
county commissioners or directors of
the district in accordance
with the district's solid waste
management plan or amended plan
approved under section 3734.521,
3734.55, or 3734.56 of the
Revised Code exclusively for the
following purposes:
(1) Preparation of the solid waste management plan of the
district under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, monitoring
implementation of the plan, and conducting the periodic review
and
amendment of the plan required by section 3734.56 of the
Revised
Code by the solid waste management policy committee;
(2) Implementation of the approved solid waste management
plan or amended plan of the district, including, without
limitation, the development and implementation of solid waste
recycling or reduction programs;
(3) Providing financial assistance to boards of health
within the district, if solid waste facilities are located within
the district, for enforcement of this chapter and rules, orders,
and terms and conditions of
permits, licenses, and variances
adopted or issued under it,
other than the hazardous waste
provisions of this chapter and
rules adopted and orders and terms
and conditions of permits issued under
those
provisions;
(4) Providing financial assistance to each county within
the
district to defray the added costs of maintaining roads and
other
public facilities and of providing emergency and other
public
services resulting from the location and operation of a
solid
waste facility within the county under the district's
approved
solid waste management plan or amended plan;
(5) Pursuant to contracts entered into with boards of
health
within the district, if solid waste facilities contained
in the
district's approved plan or amended plan are located
within the
district, for paying the costs incurred by those
boards of health
for collecting and analyzing samples from public
or private water
wells on lands adjacent to those facilities;
(6) Developing and implementing a program for the
inspection
of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of
this state
that are disposed of at solid waste facilities
included in the
district's approved solid waste management plan
or amended plan;
(7) Providing financial assistance to boards of health
within the district for the enforcement of section 3734.03 of the
Revised Code or to local law enforcement agencies having
jurisdiction within the district for enforcing anti-littering
laws
and ordinances;
(8) Providing financial assistance to boards of health of
health districts within the district that are on the approved
list
under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code to defray the
costs to
the health districts for the participation of their
employees
responsible for enforcement of the solid waste
provisions of this
chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms
and conditions of
permits, licenses, and variances issued under
those provisions in
the training and certification program as
required by rules
adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02
of the Revised Code;
(9) Providing financial assistance to individual municipal
corporations and townships within the district to defray their
added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and
of providing emergency and other public services resulting from
the location and operation within their boundaries of a
composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or
recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is
furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services
to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the
board
of county commissioners or directors of the district;
(10) Payment of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or
ordered to be
paid under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code and
of any administrative
costs incurred pursuant to that section. In
the case of a joint solid waste
management district, if the board
of county commissioners of one of the
counties in the district is
negotiating on behalf of affected communities, as
defined in that
section, in that county, the board shall obtain the approval
of
the board of directors of the district in order to expend moneys
for
administrative costs incurred.
Prior to the approval of the district's solid waste
management plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, moneys
in the special fund of the district arising from the fees
shall
be
expended for those purposes in the manner prescribed by
the
solid
waste management policy committee by resolution.
Notwithstanding division (G)(6) of this section
as it existed
prior to October 29, 1993, or any provision in a district's
solid
waste
management plan
prepared in accordance with division
(B)(2)(e) of section 3734.53
of the Revised Code as it existed
prior to that date, any moneys
arising from the fees levied under
division (B)(3) of this
section prior to January 1, 1994, may be
expended for any of the
purposes authorized in divisions (G)(1) to
(10) of this
section.
(H) The director shall adopt
rules in accordance with
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code
prescribing procedures for
collecting and forwarding the fees
levied under divisions (B) and
(C) of this section to the boards
of county commissioners or
directors of county or joint solid
waste management districts and
to the treasurers or other
officers of municipal corporations or
to the clerks of townships.
The rules also shall prescribe the
dates for forwarding the fees
to the boards and officials and may
prescribe any other
requirements the director considers necessary
or appropriate to
implement and administer divisions (A), (B), and
(C) of this
section. Collection of the fees levied under division
(A)(1) of
this section shall commence on July 1, 1993. Collection
of the
fees
levied under division (A)(2) of this section shall
commence
on January 1, 1994.
Sec. 3735.67. (A) The owner of real property located in a
community reinvestment area and eligible for exemption from taxation under a
resolution adopted pursuant to section 3735.66 of the Revised Code may file an
application for an
exemption from real property taxation of a percentage of the assessed
valuation of a new structure or
remodeling, completed after the effective date of the resolution
adopted pursuant to section 3735.66 of the Revised Code, with the
housing officer designated pursuant to section 3735.66 of the
Revised Code for the community reinvestment area in which the
property is located. If any part of the new structure or remodeling that
would be exempted is of real property to be used for commercial or industrial
purposes, the legislative authority and the owner of the property shall enter
into a written agreement pursuant to section 3735.671 of the Revised Code
prior to commencement of construction or remodeling; if such an agreement is
subject to approval by the board of education of the school district within
the territory of which the property is or will be located, the agreement shall
not be formally approved by the legislative authority until the board of
education approves the agreement in the manner prescribed by that section.
(B) The housing officer shall verify the construction of
the new structure or the cost of the remodeling and the facts
asserted in the application. The housing officer shall determine
whether the construction or the cost of the remodeling meets the
requirements for an exemption under this section. In cases involving a
structure of historical or
architectural significance, the housing officer shall not
determine whether the remodeling meets the requirements for a tax
exemption unless the appropriateness of the remodeling has been
certified, in writing, by the society, association, agency, or
legislative authority that has designated the structure or by any
organization or person authorized, in writing, by such society,
association, agency, or legislative authority to certify the
appropriateness of the remodeling.
(C) If the construction or remodeling meets the
requirements for exemption, the housing officer shall forward
the application to the county auditor with a certification as to
the division of this section under which the exemption is granted,
and the period and percentage of the exemption as determined by the
legislative
authority pursuant to that division. If the construction or remodeling is of
commercial or industrial property and the legislative authority is not
required to certify a copy of a resolution under section 3735.671 of the
Revised Code, the housing officer shall comply with the notice requirements
prescribed under section 5709.83 of the Revised Code, unless the
board has adopted a resolution under
that section waiving its right to receive such a notice.
(D) The tax exemption shall first apply in the year the construction or
remodeling would first be taxable but for this
section. In the case of remodeling that qualifies for exemption,
a percentage, not to exceed one hundred per cent, of the amount by
which the remodeling increased the assessed value of the structure
shall be exempted from real property taxation. In the case of construction
of a structure that qualifies for exemption, a percentage, not to exceed one
hundred per cent, of the assessed value of the structure shall be
exempted from real property taxation. In either case, the percentage shall be
the percentage set forth in the agreement if the structure or remodeling is to
be used for commercial or industrial purposes, or the percentage set forth in
the resolution describing the community reinvestment area if the structure or
remodeling is to be used for residential purposes.
The construction of new structures and the remodeling of
existing structures are hereby declared to be a public purpose
for which exemptions from real property taxation may be granted
for the following periods:
(1) For every dwelling containing not more than two family
units located within the same community reinvestment area and
upon which the cost of remodeling is at least two thousand five
hundred dollars, a period to be determined by the legislative
authority adopting the resolution describing the community reinvestment area
where the dwelling is located, but not exceeding ten years;
(2) For every dwelling containing more than two units and
commercial or industrial properties, located within the same
community reinvestment area, upon which the cost of
remodeling is at least five thousand dollars, a period to be
determined by the legislative authority adopting the resolution,
but not exceeding twelve years;
(3) For construction of every dwelling, and commercial or
industrial structure located within the same community
reinvestment area, a period to be determined by the legislative
authority adopting the resolution, but not exceeding
fifteen years.
(E) Any person, board, or officer authorized by section 5715.19 of the Revised Code to file complaints with the county board of revision may file a complaint with the housing officer challenging the continued exemption of any property granted an exemption under this section. A complaint against exemption shall be filed prior to the thirty-first day of December of the tax year for which taxation of the property is requested. The housing officer shall determine whether the property continues to meet the requirements for exemption and shall certify the housing officer's findings to the complainant. If the housing officer determines that the property does not meet the requirements for exemption, the housing officer shall notify the county auditor that the exemption no longer applies.
Sec. 3735.671. (A) If construction or remodeling of
commercial or industrial property is to be exempted from taxation
pursuant to section 3735.67 of the Revised Code, the legislative
authority and the owner of the property, prior to the
commencement of construction or remodeling, shall enter into a
written agreement, binding on both parties for a period of time
that does not end prior to the end of the period of the
exemption, that includes all of the information and statements
prescribed by this section. Agreements may include terms not
prescribed by this section, but such terms shall in no way
derogate from the information and statements prescribed by this
section.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) or (3) of
this section, an agreement entered into under this section shall
not be approved by the legislative authority unless the board of
education of the city, local, or exempted village school district
within the territory of which the property is or will be located
approves the agreement. For the purpose of obtaining such
approval, the legislative authority shall certify a copy of the
agreement to the board of education not later than
forty-five
days
prior to approving the agreement, excluding Saturday,
Sunday, and a legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 of the
Revised Code. The board of education, by
resolution adopted by a majority of the board, shall approve or
disapprove the agreement and certify a copy of the resolution to
the legislative authority not later than fourteen days prior to
the date stipulated by the legislative authority as the date upon
which approval of the agreement is to be formally considered by
the legislative authority. The board of education may include in
the resolution conditions under which the board would approve the
agreement. The legislative
authority may approve an agreement at any time after the board
of education certifies its resolution approving the agreement to
the legislative authority, or, if the board approves the
agreement conditionally, at any time after the conditions are
agreed to by the board and the legislative authority.
(2) Approval of an agreement by the board of education is
not required under division (A)(1) of this
section if, for each tax year the real
property is exempted from taxation, the sum of the following
quantities, as estimated at or prior to the time the agreement is
formally approved by the legislative authority, equals or exceeds
fifty per cent of the amount of taxes, as estimated at or prior
to that time, that would have been charged and payable that year
upon the real property had that property not been exempted from
taxation:
(a) The amount of taxes charged and payable on any portion
of the assessed valuation of the new structure or remodeling that
will not be exempted from taxation under the agreement;
(b) The amount of taxes charged and payable on tangible
personal property located on the premises of the new structure or
of the structure to be remodeled under the agreement, whether
payable by the owner of the structure or by a related member, as
defined in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code without regard to
division (B) of that section.
(c) The amount of any cash payment by the owner of the new
structure or structure to be remodeled to the school district,
the dollar value, as mutually agreed to be the owner and the
board of education, of any property or services provided by the
owner of the property to the school district, whether by gift,
loan, or otherwise, and any payment by the legislative authority
to the school district pursuant to section 5709.82 of the Revised
Code.
The estimates of quantities used for purposes of division
(A)(2) of this section shall be estimated by the legislative
authority. The legislative authority shall certify to the board
of education that the estimates have been made in good faith.
Departures of the actual quantities from the estimates subsequent
to approval of the agreement by the board of education do not
invalidate the agreement.
(3) If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving
its right to approve agreements and the resolution
remains in effect, approval of an agreement by the
board is not required under this division. If a board of
education has adopted a resolution allowing a legislative
authority to deliver the notice required under this division
fewer than forty-five business days prior to the legislative
authority's execution of the agreement, the legislative
authority shall deliver the notice to the board not later than
the number of days prior to such execution as prescribed by the
board in its resolution. If a board of education adopts a
resolution waiving its right to approve agreements or shortening
the notification period, the board shall certify a copy of the
resolution to the legislative authority. If the board of
education rescinds such a resolution, it shall certify notice of
the rescission to the legislative authority.
(B) Each agreement shall include the following
information:
(1) The names of all parties to the agreement;
(2) A description of the remodeling or construction,
whether or not to be exempted from taxation, including existing
or new structure size and cost thereof; the value of machinery,
equipment, furniture, and fixtures, including an itemization of
the value of machinery, equipment, furniture, and fixtures used
at another location in this state prior to the agreement and
relocated or to be relocated from that location to the property,
and the value of machinery, equipment, furniture, and fixtures at
the facility prior to the execution of the agreement; the value
of inventory at the property, including an itemization of the
value of inventory held at another location in this state prior
to the agreement and relocated or to be relocated from that
location to the property, and the value of inventory held at the
property prior to the execution of the agreement;
(3) The scheduled starting and completion dates of
remodeling or construction of real property or of investments
made in machinery, equipment, furniture, fixtures, and inventory;
(4) Estimates of the number of employee positions to be
created each year of the agreement and of the number of employee
positions retained by the owner due to the remodeling or
construction, itemized as to the number of full-time, part-time,
permanent, and temporary positions;
(5) Estimates of the dollar amount of payroll attributable
to the positions set forth in division (B)(4) of this section,
similarly itemized;
(6) The number of employee positions, if any, at the
property and at any other location in this state at the time the
agreement is executed, itemized as to the number of full-time,
part-time, permanent, and temporary positions.
(C) Each agreement shall set forth the following
information and incorporate the following statements:
(1) A description of real property to be exempted from
taxation under the agreement, the percentage of the assessed
valuation of the real property exempted from taxation, and the
period for which the exemption is granted, accompanied by the
statement: "The exemption commences the first year for which the
real property would first be taxable were that property not
exempted from taxation. No exemption shall commence after
.......... (insert date) nor extend beyond .......... (insert
date)." The tax commissioner shall adopt rules prescribing the
form the description of such property shall assume in order to
ensure that the property to be exempted from taxation under the
agreement is distinguishable from property that is not to be
exempted under that agreement.
(2) ".......... (insert name of owner) shall pay such real
property taxes as are not exempted under this agreement and are
charged against such property and shall file all tax reports and
returns as required by law. If .......... (insert name of owner)
fails to pay such taxes or file such returns and reports,
exemptions from taxation granted under this agreement are
rescinded beginning with the year for which such taxes are
charged or such reports or returns are required to be filed and
thereafter."
(3) ".......... (insert name of owner) hereby certifies
that at the time this agreement is executed, .......... (insert
name of owner) does not owe any delinquent real or tangible
personal property taxes to any taxing authority of the State of
Ohio, and does not owe delinquent taxes for which ..........
(insert name of owner) is liable under Chapter 5733., 5735.,
5739., 5741., 5743., 5747., or 5753. of the Ohio Revised Code,
or, if such delinquent taxes are owed, .......... (insert name of
owner) currently is paying the delinquent taxes pursuant to an
undertaking enforceable by the State of Ohio or an agent or
instrumentality thereof, has filed a petition in bankruptcy under
11 U.S.C.A. 101, et seq., or such a petition has been filed
against .......... (insert name of owner). For the purposes of
this certification, delinquent taxes are taxes that remain unpaid
on the latest day prescribed for payment without penalty under
the chapter of the Revised Code governing payment of those
taxes."
(4) ".......... (insert name of municipal corporation or
county) shall perform such acts as are reasonably necessary or
appropriate to effect, claim, reserve, and maintain exemptions
from taxation granted under this agreement including, without
limitation, joining in the execution of all documentation and
providing any necessary certificates required in connection with
such exemptions."
(5) "If for any reason .......... (insert name of
municipal corporation or county) revokes the designation of the
area, entitlements granted under this agreement shall continue
for the number of years specified under this agreement, unless
.......... (insert name of owner) materially fails to fulfill its
obligations under this agreement and ................... (insert
name of municipal corporation or county) terminates or modifies
the exemptions from taxation pursuant to this agreement."
(6) "If .......... (insert name of owner) materially fails
to fulfill its obligations under this agreement, or if ..........
(insert name of municipal corporation or county) determines that
the certification as to delinquent taxes required by this
agreement is fraudulent, .......... (insert name of municipal
corporation or county) may terminate or modify the exemptions
from taxation granted under this agreement."
(7) ".......... (insert name of owner) shall provide to
the proper tax incentive review council any information
reasonably required by the council to evaluate the applicant's
compliance with the agreement, including returns filed pursuant
to section 5711.02 of the Ohio Revised Code if requested by the
council."
(8) "This agreement is not transferable or assignable
without the express, written approval of .......... (insert name
of municipal corporation or county)."
(9) "Exemptions from taxation granted under this agreement
shall be revoked if it is determined that ........... (insert
name of owner), any successor to that person, or any related
member (as those terms are defined in division (E) of section
3735.671 of the Ohio Revised Code) has violated the prohibition
against entering into this agreement under division (E) of
section 3735.671 or section 5709.62 or 5709.63 of the Ohio
Revised Code prior to the time prescribed by that division or
either of those sections."
(10) ".......... (insert name of owner) and ...........
(insert name of municipal corporation or county) acknowledge that
this agreement must be approved by formal action of the
legislative authority of .......... (insert name of municipal
corporation or county) as a condition for the agreement to take
effect. This agreement takes effect upon such approval."
The statement described in division (C)(6) of this section
may include the following statement, appended at the end of the
statement: ", and may require the repayment of the amount of
taxes that would have been payable had the property not been
exempted from taxation under this agreement."
(D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an
agreement entered into under this section shall require that the
owner pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent of
the amount of taxes exempted under the agreement or five hundred
dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the incentives
exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee shall not
exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall be
payable to the legislative authority once per year for each year
the agreement is effective on the days and in the form specified
in the agreement. Fees paid shall be deposited in a special fund
created for such purpose by the legislative authority and shall
be used by the legislative authority exclusively for the purpose
of complying with section 3735.672 of the Revised Code and by the
tax incentive review council created under section 5709.85 of the
Revised Code exclusively for the purposes of performing the
duties prescribed under that section. The legislative authority
may waive or reduce the amount of the fee, but such waiver or
reduction does not affect the obligations of the legislative
authority or the tax incentive review council to comply with
section 3735.672 or 5709.85 of the Revised Code.
(E) If any person that is party to an agreement granting
an exemption from taxation discontinues operations at the
structure to which that exemption applies prior to the expiration
of the term of the agreement, that person, any successor to that
person, and any related member shall not enter into an agreement
under this section or section 5709.62, 5709.63, or 5709.632 of
the Revised Code, and no legislative authority shall enter into
such an agreement with such a person, successor, or related
member, prior to the expiration of five years after the
discontinuation of operations. As used in this division,
"successor" means a person to which the assets or equity of
another person has been transferred, which transfer resulted in
the full or partial nonrecognition of gain or loss, or resulted
in a carryover basis, both as determined by rule adopted by the
tax commissioner. "Related member" has the same meaning as
defined in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code without regard to
division (B) of that section.
The director of development shall review all agreements
submitted to the director under division (F) of this section for
the purpose of enforcing this division. If the director
determines there has been a violation of this division, the
director shall notify the legislative authority of such
violation, and the legislative authority immediately shall revoke
the exemption granted under the agreement.
(F) When an agreement is entered into under this section,
the legislative authority authorizing the agreement shall forward
a copy of the agreement to the director of development and to the
tax commissioner within fifteen days after the agreement is
entered into.
Sec. 3737.81. (A) There is hereby created the state fire
commission consisting of ten members to be appointed by the
governor with the advice and consent of the senate. The fire
marshal or his fire marshal's chief deputy, a representative
designated by the
department of public safety who has tenure in fire suppression,
and a representative designated by the board of building
standards shall be ex officio members. Of the initial
appointments made to the commission, two shall be for a term
ending one year after the effective date of this section
November
1, 1978, two shall be for a term ending two years after that date,
two shall be for a term ending three years after that date, two
shall be for a term ending four years after that date, and two
shall be for a term ending five years after that date.
Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five years, each term
ending on the same day of the same month of the year as did the
term which it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the
date of his appointment until the end of the term for which he
the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy
occurring
prior to the expiration of the term for which his the member's
predecessor was
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date
of his the member's term until his the member's successor
takes office, or until a period
of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members shall
be qualified by experience and training to deal with the matters
that are the responsibility of the commission. Two members shall
be members of paid fire services, one shall be a member of
volunteer fire services, two shall be mayors, managers, or
members of legislative authorities of municipalities, one shall
represent commerce and industry, one shall be a representative of
a fire insurance company domiciled in this state, one shall
represent the flammable liquids industry, one shall represent the
construction industry, and one shall represent the public. At no
time shall more than six members be members of or associated with
the same political party. Membership on the commission shall not
constitute holding a public office and no person shall forfeit or
otherwise vacate his the person's office or position of
employment because of membership on the commission.
(B) The ex officio members may not vote, except that the
fire marshal or his fire marshal's chief deputy may vote in case
of a tie.
(C) Each member of the commission, other than ex officio
members, shall be paid an amount equal to that payable under pay
range 32 (S)(D) fixed pursuant to division (J) of section 124.15
of the Revised Code, and his the member's actual and necessary
expenses.
(D) The commission shall select a chairman chairperson and a
vice-chairman vice-chairperson from among its members. No
business may be transacted in the absence of a quorum. A quorum shall be at
least six members, excluding ex officio members, and shall
include either the chairman chairperson or vice-chairman
vice-chairperson. The commission
shall hold regular meetings at least once every two months and
may meet at any other time at the call of the chairman
chairperson.
(E) The fire marshal shall provide the commission with
office space, meeting rooms, staff, and clerical assistance
necessary for the commission to perform its duties.
Sec. 3745.04. (A) As used in this section, "any person" means
any individual, any partnership, corporation, association, or
other legal entity, or any political subdivision,
instrumentality,
or agency of a state, whether or not the
individual or legal
entity is an applicant for or holder of a
license, permit, or
variance from the environmental protection
agency or the division of mineral resources management in the department of natural resources, and includes
any department, agency, or instrumentality
of the federal
government that is an applicant for or holder of a
license,
permit, or variance from the environmental protection
agency or the division of mineral resources management.
As used in this section, "action" or "act" includes the
adoption, modification, or repeal of a rule or standard, the
issuance, modification, or revocation of any lawful order other
than an emergency order, and the issuance, denial, modification,
or revocation of a license, permit, lease, variance, or
certificate, or the approval or disapproval of plans and
specifications pursuant to law or rules adopted thereunder.
(B) Any person who was a party to a proceeding before the
director
of environmental protection or the chief of the division of mineral resources management, except as otherwise provided in section 1509.06 or 1509.08 of the Revised Code, may participate in an appeal
to the environmental review appeals
commission for an order
vacating or modifying the
action of the
director
or,
a local board
of health, or the chief or
ordering the director or,
board of health, or chief to perform
an act. The
environmental review
appeals commission has exclusive
original jurisdiction over any
matter that may, under this
section, be brought before
it.
The person so appealing to the commission shall be known
as
appellant, and the director or the chief and any party to a proceeding
substantially supporting the finding from which the appeal is
taken shall be known as appellee, except that when an appeal
involves a license to operate a disposal site or facility, the
local board of health or the director of environmental
protection,
and any party to a proceeding substantially
supporting the finding
from which the appeal is taken, shall, as
appropriate, be known as
the appellee. Appellant and appellee
shall be deemed to be
parties to the appeal.
The appeal shall be in writing and shall set forth the
action
complained of and the grounds upon which the appeal is
based.
The (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, an appeal shall be filed with the commission within
thirty
days after notice of the action. Notice of the filing of the
appeal
shall be filed with the appellee within three days after
the
appeal is filed with the commission.
The appeal shall be accompanied by a filing fee of
sixty
dollars, which the commission, in its discretion, may
waive
in
cases
of extreme hardship.
Within seven days after receipt of the notice of appeal, the
director or local board of health shall prepare and certify to
the
commission a record of the proceedings out of which
the appeal
arises, including all documents and correspondence, and a
transcript of all testimony.
Upon the filing of the appeal, the commission shall fix
the
time
and place at which the hearing on the appeal will be held.
The
commission shall give
the appellant and the appellee at least
ten days'
written notice thereof by certified mail. The
commission
shall hold the hearing within thirty days after the
notice of appeal is
filed. The commission may postpone or
continue any
hearing upon its
own motion or upon application of
the appellant or of the appellee.
The filing of an appeal does not automatically suspend or
stay execution of the action appealed from. Upon application by
the appellant, the commission may suspend or stay
the
execution
pending immediate determination of the appeal without
interruption
by continuances, other than for unavoidable
circumstances.
(D) If an appeal is of an action of the chief of the division of mineral resources management under Chapter 1513. or 1514. of the Revised Code, the procedures established in those chapters, as applicable, apply to the appeal in lieu of the procedures established in this section and sections 3745.05 and 3745.06 of the Revised Code.
(E) As used in this section and sections 3745.05 and 3745.06 of
the Revised Code, "director of
environmental protection" and
"director" are deemed to include the director of
agriculture and
"environmental protection agency" is deemed to include the
department of agriculture with respect to actions that are
appealable to the
commission under Chapter 903. of the Revised
Code.
Sec. 3745.11. (A) Applicants for and holders of permits,
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a
fee
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance
and
each application for an issuance as provided by this section.
No
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application
has
been submitted to the director.
(B) Prior to January 1, 1994, each Each person who is issued a permit
to
operate, variance, or permit to install prior to July 1, 2003, pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03
of
the Revised Code shall pay the fees specified in the following
schedule schedules:
(1) Fuel-Burning Equipment (boilers)
| Input capacity (maximum) |
Permit |
|
Permit |
| (million British |
to |
|
to |
| thermal units per hour) |
operate |
Variance |
install |
Greater than 0 or more, but |
$ 75 |
$225 |
$ 100 200 |
| less than 10 |
|
|
|
| 10 or more, but less than 100 |
210 |
450 |
390 400 |
| 100 or more, but less than 300 |
270 |
675 |
585 800 |
| 300 or more, but less than 500 |
330 |
900 |
780 1500 |
| 500 or more, but less than 1000 |
500 |
975 |
1000 2500 |
| 1000 or more, but less than 5000 |
|
|
4000 |
| 5000 or more |
|
|
6000 |
Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half of the applicable amount established in division (F)(1) of this section.
Any fuel-burning equipment using only natural gas, propane,
liquefied petroleum gas, or number two or lighter fuel oil shall
be assessed a fee one-half of that shown.
|
Permit |
|
Permit |
| Input capacity |
to |
|
to |
| (pounds per hour) |
operate |
Variance |
install |
0 to 50 100 |
$ 50 |
$225 |
$ 65 100 |
51 101 to 500 |
210 |
450 |
390 400 |
| 501 to 2000 |
270 |
675 |
585 750 |
2001 to 30,000 20,000 |
330 |
900 |
780 1000 |
more than 30,000 20,000 |
500 |
975 |
1000 2500 |
|
Permit |
|
Permit |
| Process weight rate |
to |
|
to |
| (pounds per hour) |
operate |
Variance |
install |
| 0 to 1000 |
$100 |
$225 |
$ 200 |
| 1001 to 5000 |
210 |
450 |
390 400 |
| 5001 to 10,000 |
270 |
675 |
585 600 |
| 10,001 to 50,000 |
330 |
900 |
780 800 |
| more than 50,000 |
500 |
975 |
1000 |
In any process where process weight rate cannot be
ascertained, the minimum
fee shall be assessed.
(b) Notwithstanding division (B)(3)(a) of this section, any person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees established in division (B)(3)(c) of this section for a process used in any of the following industries, as identified by the applicable four-digit standard industrial classification code according to the Standard Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States office of management and budget in the executive office of the president, 1972, as revised:
1211 Bituminous coal and lignite mining;
1213 Bituminous coal and lignite mining services;
1422 Crushed and broken limestone;
1427 Crushed and broken stone, not elsewhere classified;
1442 Construction sand and gravel;
3281 Cut stone and stone products;
3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated.
(c) The fees established in the following schedule apply to the issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process listed in division (B)(3)(b) of this section:
| Process weight rate |
Permit to |
| (pounds per hour) |
install |
| 0 to 1000 |
$ 200 |
| 10,001 to 50,000 |
300 |
| 50,001 to 100,000 |
400 |
| 100,001 to 200,000 |
500 |
| 200,001 to 400,000 |
600 |
| 400,001 or more |
700 |
| Gallons (maximum useful capacity) |
Permit |
|
Permit |
|
to |
|
to |
|
operate |
Variance |
install |
|
|
|
|
Less than 40,000 0 to 20,000 |
$150 |
$225 |
$ 195 100 |
20,001 to 40,000 or more, but less |
|
|
|
than 100,000 |
210 |
450 |
390 150 |
100,000 or more, but less |
|
|
|
than 400,000 |
270 |
675 |
585 |
400,000 or more, but less |
|
|
|
than 40,001 to 100,000 |
|