130th Ohio General Assembly
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(Amended Substitute Senate Bill Number 9)



AN ACT
To amend sections 121.40, 2901.13, 2909.21, 2923.31, 2933.51, 3701.04, 4505.02, 4507.08, 4561.17, 4561.18, 4561.22, 4931.45, 4931.49, 5502.011, 5502.03, 5502.28, and 5502.41, and to enact sections 9.63, 121.404, 1547.80, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 2909.30, 2909.31, 2909.32, 2909.33, 2909.34, 2921.29, 2935.033, 3750.22, and 4563.30 of the Revised Code to establish requirements for state and local compliance with federal homeland security authorities and laws pertaining to terrorism and homeland security; to create criminal offenses for specified acts carried out in support of terrorism; to provide a 20-year limitation period for certain terrorism-related offenses; to establish notification requirements regarding illegal aliens convicted of a felony or in custody of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction; to require individuals to show identification or provide personal information in specified situations; to limit licensing, employing, and doing business with persons who have provided material assistance to an organization on the United States Department of State Terrorist Exclusion List; to expand the definition of "corrupt activity" under the Corrupt Activity Law to include the bill's terrorism-related offenses and animal and ecological terrorism; to include the bill's terrorism-related offenses as "designated offenses" for which an interception warrant may be issued under the Communications Interception Law; to clarify the authority of Ohio peace officers and personnel in the Department of Public Safety to assist federal law enforcement officers; to prohibit the reinstatement of a suspended driver's license to a person who is the subject of an active arrest warrant; to amend specified aspects of the 9-1-1 law; to provide for the establishment of a homeland security advisory council; to designate the National Incident Management System as the standard procedure for incident management within the state; to require the registrar of motor vehicles to adopt rules ensuring reasonably accurate identification of applicants for a certificate of title; to expand the responsibilities of the Ohio Community Service Council with respect to volunteers; to provide registered volunteers with immunity from liability in specified situations; to expand the duties of the Director of Health with respect to volunteers; to provide security-related measures for ports and public-use and private-use airports; and to expand the homeland security duties of the Department of Public Safety.

Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the State of Ohio:

SECTION 1. That sections 121.40, 2901.13, 2909.21, 2923.31, 2933.51, 3701.04, 4505.02, 4507.08, 4561.17, 4561.18, 4561.22, 4931.45, 4931.49, 5502.011, 5502.03, 5502.28, and 5502.41 be amended and sections 9.63, 121.404, 1547.80, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 2909.30, 2909.31, 2909.32, 2909.33, 2909.34, 2921.29, 2935.033, 3750.22, and 4563.30 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 9.63.  (A) Notwithstanding any law, ordinance, or collective bargaining contract to the contrary, no state or local employee shall unreasonably fail to comply with any lawful request for assistance made by any federal authorities carrying out the provisions of the USA Patriot Act, any federal immigration or terrorism investigation, or any executive order of the president of the United States pertaining to homeland security, to the extent that the request is consistent with the doctrine of federalism.

(B) No municipal corporation shall enact an ordinance, policy, directive, rule, or resolution that would materially hinder or prevent local employees from complying with the USA Patriot Act or any executive order of the president of the United States pertaining to homeland security or from cooperating with state or federal immigration services and terrorism investigations.

(C)(1) Any municipal corporation that enacts any ordinance, policy, directive, rule, or resolution that division (B) of this section prohibits is ineligible to receive any homeland security funding available from the state.

(2) Whenever the director of public safety determines that a municipal corporation has enacted any ordinance, policy, directive, rule, or resolution that division (B) of this section prohibits, the director shall certify that the municipal corporation is ineligible to receive any homeland security funding from the state and shall notify the general assembly of that ineligibility. That municipal corporation shall remain ineligible to receive any homeland security funding from the state until the director certifies that the ordinance, policy, directive, rule, or resolution has been repealed.

(D)(1) If a state or local employee states disagreement with, or a critical opinion of, the USA Patriot Act, any federal immigration or terrorism policy, or any executive order of the president of the United States pertaining to homeland security, the statement of disagreement with or critical opinion of the act or order is not sufficient to qualify for purposes of this section as unreasonable noncompliance with a request for assistance of the type division (A) of this section describes.

(2) Any municipal corporation's ordinance, policy, directive, rule, or resolution that states disagreement with, or a critical opinion of, any state or federal immigration or terrorism policy, the USA Patriot Act, or any executive order of the president of the United States pertaining to homeland security is not sufficient to qualify as a "material hindrance or prevention" of local employees from cooperating with federal immigration services and terrorism investigations or from complying with the USA Patriot Act or any executive order of the president of the United States pertaining to homeland security for purposes of divisions (B), (C), and (D) of this section.

(E) As used in this section, "USA Patriot Act" means the "Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism (USA Patriot Act) Act of 2001," Pub. L. No. 107-056, 115 Stat. 272, as amended.

Sec. 121.40.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio community service council consisting of twenty-one members including the superintendent of public instruction or the superintendent's designee, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents or the chancellor's designee, the director of natural resources or the director's designee, the director of youth services or the director's designee, the director of aging or the director's designee, the director of job and family services or the director's designee, the chairperson of the committee of the house of representatives dealing with education or the chairperson's designee, the chairperson of the committee of the senate dealing with education or the chairperson's designee, and thirteen members who shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate and who shall serve terms of office of three years. The appointees shall include educators, including teachers and administrators; representatives of youth organizations; students and parents; representatives of organizations engaged in volunteer program development and management throughout the state, including youth and conservation programs; and representatives of business, government, nonprofit organizations, social service agencies, veterans organizations, religious organizations, or philanthropies that support or encourage volunteerism within the state. Members of the council shall receive no compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties.

(B) The council shall appoint an executive director for the council, who shall be in the unclassified civil service. The executive director shall supervise the council's activities and report to the council on the progress of those activities. The executive director shall do all things necessary for the efficient and effective implementation of the duties of the council.

The responsibilities assigned to the executive director do not relieve the members of the council from final responsibility for the proper performance of the requirements of this section.

(C) The council or its designee shall do all of the following:

(1) Employ, promote, supervise, and remove all employees as needed in connection with the performance of its duties under this section and may assign duties to those employees as necessary to achieve the most efficient performance of its functions, and to that end may establish, change, or abolish positions, and assign and reassign duties and responsibilities of any employee of the council. Personnel employed by the council who are subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code shall retain all of their rights and benefits conferred pursuant to that chapter. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as eliminating or interfering with Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or the rights and benefits conferred under that chapter to public employees or to any bargaining unit.

(2) Maintain its office in Columbus, and may hold sessions at any place within the state;

(3) Acquire facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to house the council, its employees, and files and records under its control, and to discharge any duty imposed upon it by law. The expense of these acquisitions shall be audited and paid for in the same manner as other state expenses. For that purpose, the council shall prepare and submit to the office of budget and management a budget for each biennium according to sections 101.532 and 107.03 of the Revised Code. The budget submitted shall cover the costs of the council and its staff in the discharge of any duty imposed upon the council by law. The council shall not delegate any authority to obligate funds.

(4) Pay its own payroll and other operating expenses from line items designated by the general assembly;

(5) Retain its fiduciary responsibility as appointing authority. Any transaction instructions shall be certified by the appointing authority or its designee.

(6) Establish the overall policy and management of the council in accordance with this chapter;

(7) Assist in coordinating and preparing the state application for funds under sections 101 to 184 of the "National and Community Service Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3127 (1990), 42 U.S.C.A. 12411 to 12544, as amended, assist in administering and overseeing the "National and Community Service Trust Act of 1993," P.L. 103-82, 107 Stat. 785, and the americorps program in this state, and assist in developing objectives for a comprehensive strategy to encourage and expand community service programs throughout the state;

(8) Assist the state board of education, school districts, the board of regents, and institutions of higher education in coordinating community service education programs through cooperative efforts between institutions and organizations in the public and private sectors;

(9) Assist the departments of natural resources, youth services, aging, and job and family services in coordinating community service programs through cooperative efforts between institutions and organizations in the public and private sectors;

(10) Suggest individuals and organizations that are available to assist school districts, institutions of higher education, and the departments of natural resources, youth services, aging, and job and family services in the establishment of community service programs and assist in investigating sources of funding for implementing these programs;

(11) Assist in evaluating the state's efforts in providing community service programs using standards and methods that are consistent with any statewide objectives for these programs and provide information to the state board of education, school districts, the board of regents, institutions of higher education, and the departments of natural resources, youth services, aging, and job and family services to guide them in making decisions about these programs;

(12) Assist the state board of education in complying with section 3301.70 of the Revised Code and the board of regents in complying with division (B)(2) of section 3333.043 of the Revised Code;

(13) Advise, assist, consult with, and cooperate with, by contract or otherwise, agencies and political subdivisions of this state in establishing a statewide system for volunteers pursuant to section 121.404 of the Revised Code.

(D) The department of aging shall serve as the council's fiscal agent. Beginning on July 1, 1997, whenever reference is made in any law, contract, or document to the functions of the department of youth services as fiscal agent to the council, the reference shall be deemed to refer to the department of aging. The department of aging shall have no responsibility for or obligation to the council prior to July 1, 1997. Any validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability shall be retained by the council.

As used in this section, "fiscal agent" means technical support and includes the following technical support services:

(1) Preparing and processing payroll and other personnel documents that the council executes as the appointing authority. The department of aging shall not approve any payroll or other personnel-related documents.

(2) Maintaining ledgers of accounts and reports of account balances, and monitoring budgets and allotment plans in consultation with the council. The department shall not approve any biennial budget, grant, expenditure, audit, or fiscal-related document.

(3) Performing other routine support services that the director of aging or the director's designee and the council or its designee consider appropriate to achieve efficiency.

(E)(1) The council or its designee has the following authority and responsibility relative to fiscal matters:

(1)(a) Sole authority to draw funds for any and all federal programs in which the council is authorized to participate;

(2)(b) Sole authority to expend funds from their accounts for programs and any other necessary expenses the council may incur and its subgrantees may incur;

(3)(c) Responsibility to cooperate with and inform the department of aging as fiscal agent to ensure that the department is fully apprised of all financial transactions.

(2) The council shall follow all state procurement requirements.

(3) The department of aging shall determine fees to be charged to the council, which shall be in proportion to the services performed for the council.

(4) The council shall pay fees owed to the department of aging from a general revenue fund of the council or from any other fund from which the operating expenses of the council are paid. Any amounts set aside for a fiscal year for the payment of these fees shall be used only for the services performed for the council by the department of aging in that fiscal year.

(F) The council may accept and administer grants from any source, public or private, to carry out any of the council's functions this section establishes.

Sec. 121.404. (A) The Ohio community service council shall advise, assist, consult with, and cooperate with agencies and political subdivisions of this state to establish a statewide system for recruiting, registering, training, and deploying the types of volunteers the council considers advisable and reasonably necessary to respond to an emergency declared by the state or political subdivision.

(B) A registered volunteer is not liable in damages to any person or government entity in tort or other civil action, including an action upon a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim or veterinary claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that may arise from an act or omission of that volunteer. This division applies to a registered volunteer while providing services within the scope of the volunteer's responsibilities during an emergency declared by the state or political subdivision or in disaster-related exercises, testing, or other training activities, if the volunteer's act or omission does not constitute willful or wanton misconduct.

(C) The Ohio community service council shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish fees, procedures, standards, and requirements the council considers necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.

(D)(1) A registered volunteer's status as a volunteer, and any information presented in summary, statistical, or aggregate form that does not identify an individual, is a public record pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(2) Information related to a registered volunteer's specific and unique responsibilities, assignments, or deployment plans, including but not limited to training, preparedness, readiness, or organizational assignment, is a security record for purposes of section 149.433 of the Revised Code.

(3) Information related to a registered volunteer's personal information, including but not limited to contact information, medical information, or information related to family members or dependents, is not a public record pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(E) As used in this section and section 121.40 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Registered volunteer" means any individual registered as a volunteer pursuant to procedures established under this section and who serves without pay or other consideration, other than the reasonable reimbursement or allowance for expenses actually incurred or the provision of incidental benefits related to the volunteer's service, such as meals, lodging, and childcare.

(2) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, or municipal corporation in this state.

Sec. 1547.80.  (A) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the contrary, the department of natural resources, division of watercraft, in consultation with the department of public safety, shall adopt rules regarding the security of ports on waterways in this state and the facilities associated with those ports. The rules shall include but not be limited to provisions that do the following:

(1) Designate the ports, located in whole or in part within this state, to which the requirements of this section apply, considering the size and activity of the port, its proximity to a metropolitan location, its proximity to a sensitive site as defined in section 4563.30 of the Revised Code, and any other criteria related to security that the department considers reasonable;

(2) Require the designated ports to register biennially with the department of natural resources;

(3) Require the designated ports to do all of the following:

(a) Prepare a written security plan that is consistent with the most recent security guidelines established pursuant to the national maritime transportation security plan by the secretary in the department in which the United States coast guard is located;

(b) Develop a written list of emergency contacts and telephone numbers;

(c) Restrict access to vessels by unauthorized persons;

(d) Require those piloting or renting vessels to provide identification;

(e) Create an emergency locater map that identifies areas of the port facilities;

(f) Familiarize local law enforcement agencies with the facilities and consult with them in the development of the port's security procedures.

(4) Require all owners of vessels or pilots to secure their vessels;

(5) Require all persons who rent a vessel to present government-issued identification, in addition to any required license, to the person who rents them the vessel;

(6) Address the security of port facilities located in whole or in part in this state in any other manner the department determines to be necessary.

(B) The security plan and the emergency locator map this section describes shall display prominently the following statement: "This document may contain information that, if disclosed, could endanger the life or safety of the public; therefore, this document is to be maintained and used in a manner that preserves the confidentiality of the information it contains in a manner consistent with law."

(C) Each port facility designated pursuant to division (A) of this section shall provide a copy of the registration this section requires and the port's security plan and emergency locator map to the department of public safety, to the department of natural resources, to the sheriff of the county in which the port is located in whole or in part, and if the facility is located in whole or in part in a municipal corporation, to the chief of police of each municipal corporation in which the port is located. Copies of registration, emergency locator maps, and security plans provided under this division are not public records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code and are not subject to mandatory disclosure under that section.

(D) This section shall not be construed to replace or supersede any standards for facilities the United States department of homeland security and the transportation security administration require, safety standards of the United States department of transportation, or any standard or law related to maritime security enforced by the secretary of the department in which the United States coast guard is located.

Sec. 2901.13.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) or (3) of this section or as otherwise provided in this section, a prosecution shall be barred unless it is commenced within the following periods after an offense is committed:

(a) For a felony, six years;

(b) For a misdemeanor other than a minor misdemeanor, two years;

(c) For a minor misdemeanor, six months.

(2) There is no period of limitation for the prosecution of a violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B) to (H) of this section, a prosecution of any of the following offenses shall be barred unless it is commenced within twenty years after the offense is committed:

(a) A violation of section 2903.03, 2903.04, 2905.01, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.21, 2909.02, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, or 2917.02 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2903.11 or 2903.12 of the Revised Code if the victim is a peace officer, a violation of section 2903.13 of the Revised Code that is a felony, or a violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(b) A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing a violation set forth in division (A)(3)(a) of this section.

(B) If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be commenced for an offense of which an element is fraud or breach of a fiduciary duty, within one year after discovery of the offense either by an aggrieved person, or by the aggrieved person's legal representative who is not a party to the offense.

(C) If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be commenced for an offense involving misconduct in office by a public servant as defined in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code, at any time while the accused remains a public servant, or within two years thereafter.

(D) An offense is committed when every element of the offense occurs. In the case of an offense of which an element is a continuing course of conduct, the period of limitation does not begin to run until such course of conduct or the accused's accountability for it terminates, whichever occurs first.

(E) A prosecution is commenced on the date an indictment is returned or an information filed, or on the date a lawful arrest without a warrant is made, or on the date a warrant, summons, citation, or other process is issued, whichever occurs first. A prosecution is not commenced by the return of an indictment or the filing of an information unless reasonable diligence is exercised to issue and execute process on the same. A prosecution is not commenced upon issuance of a warrant, summons, citation, or other process, unless reasonable diligence is exercised to execute the same.

(F) The period of limitation shall not run during any time when the corpus delicti remains undiscovered.

(G) The period of limitation shall not run during any time when the accused purposely avoids prosecution. Proof that the accused departed this state or concealed the accused's identity or whereabouts is prima-facie evidence of the accused's purpose to avoid prosecution.

(H) The period of limitation shall not run during any time a prosecution against the accused based on the same conduct is pending in this state, even though the indictment, information, or process which commenced the prosecution is quashed or the proceedings thereon are set aside or reversed on appeal.

(I) As used in this section, "peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2909.21. As used in sections 2909.21 to 2909.25 2909.34 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Act of terrorism" means an act that is committed within or outside the territorial jurisdiction of this state or the United States, that constitutes a specified offense if committed in this state or constitutes an offense in any jurisdiction within or outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States containing all of the essential elements of a specified offense, and that is intended to do one or more of the following:

(1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

(2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or coercion;

(3) Affect the conduct of any government by the act that constitutes the offense.

(B) "Biological agent," "delivery system," "toxin," and "vector" have the same meanings as in section 2917.33 of the Revised Code.

(C) "Biological weapon" means any biological agent, toxin, vector, or delivery system or combination of any biological agent or agents, any toxin or toxins, any vector or vectors, and any delivery system or systems.

(D) "Chemical weapon" means any one or more of the following:

(1) Any toxic chemical or precursor of a toxic chemical that is listed in Schedule 1, Schedule 2, or Schedule 3 of the international "Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on their Destruction (CWC)," as entered into force on April 29, 1997;

(2) A device specifically designed to cause death or other harm through the toxic properties of a toxic chemical or precursor identified in division (D)(1) of this section that would be created or released as a result of the employment of that device;

(3) Any equipment specifically designed for use directly in connection with the employment of devices identified in division (D)(2) of this section.

(E) "Radiological or nuclear weapon" means any device that is designed to create or release radiation or radioactivity at a level that is dangerous to human life or in order to cause serious physical harm to persons as a result of the radiation or radioactivity created or released.

(F) "Explosive device" has the same meaning as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.

(G) "Key component of a binary or multicomponent chemical system" means the precursor that plays the most important role in determining the toxic properties of the final product and reacts rapidly with other chemicals in the binary or multicomponent chemical system.

(H) "Material assistance" means any of the following:

(1) Membership in an organization on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;

(2) Use of the person's position of prominence within any country to persuade others to support an organization on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;

(3) Knowingly soliciting funds or other things of value for an organization on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;

(4) Solicitation of any individual for membership in an organization on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;

(5) Commission of an act that the person knows, or reasonably should have known, affords material support or resources to an organization on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;

(6) Hiring or compensating a person known by the person hiring or providing the compensation to be a member of an organization on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list or a person known by the person hiring or providing the compensation to be engaged in planning, assisting, or carrying out an act of terrorism.

(I) "Material support or resources" means currency, payment instruments, other financial securities, funds, transfer of funds, financial services, communications, lodging, training, safehouses safe houses, false documentation or identification, communications equipment, facilities, weapons, lethal substances, explosives, personnel, transportation, and other physical assets, except medicine or religious materials.

(C)(J) "Payment instrument" means a check, draft, money order, traveler's check, cashier's check, teller's check, or other instrument or order for the transmission or payment of money, regardless of whether the item in question is negotiable.

(K) "Peace officer" and "prosecutor" have the same meanings as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

(L) "Precursor" means any chemical reactant that takes part at any stage in the production by whatever method of a toxic chemical, including any key component of a binary or multicomponent chemical system.

(D)(M) "Response costs" means all costs a political subdivision incurs as a result of, or in making any response to, a threat of a specified offense made as described in section 2909.23 of the Revised Code or a specified offense committed as described in section 2909.24 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, all costs so incurred by any law enforcement officers, firefighters, rescue personnel, or emergency medical services personnel of the political subdivision and all costs so incurred by the political subdivision that relate to laboratory testing or hazardous material cleanup.

(E)(N) "Specified offense" means any of the following:

(1) A felony offense of violence, a violation of section 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, or 2927.24 of the Revised Code, or a felony of the first degree that is not a violation of any provision in Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code;

(2) An attempt to commit, complicity in committing, or a conspiracy to commit an offense listed in division (E)(N)(1) of this section.

(O) "Toxic chemical" means any chemical that through its chemical action on life processes can cause death or serious physical harm to persons or animals, regardless of its origin or of its method of production and regardless of whether it is produced in facilities, in munitions, or elsewhere.

(P) "United States department of state terrorist exclusion list" and "terrorist exclusion list" means the list compiled by the United States secretary of state, in consultation with or upon the request of the United States attorney general, that designates terrorist organizations for immigration purposes, as authorized by the "Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism (USA Patriot Act) Act of 2001," Pub. L. No. 107-056, 115 Stat. 272, as amended.

(Q) "Hazardous radioactive substance" means any substance or item that releases or is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.

Sec. 2909.26.  (A) No person shall knowingly possess any chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device with the intent to use it to cause serious physical harm or death to another person.

(B) No person shall knowingly possess any chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device with intent to use the weapon to do any of the following:

(1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

(2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or coercion;

(3) Affect the conduct of any government by murder, assassination, or kidnapping.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of criminal possession of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device. A violation of division (A) of this section is a felony of the third degree. A violation of division (B) of this section is a felony of the second degree.

(D) This section does not apply when the items described in division (A) of this section are possessed for a purpose related to the performance of official duties related to any military purpose of the United States and any law enforcement purpose, including any domestic riot control purpose.

Sec. 2909.27.  (A) No person shall recklessly use, deploy, release, or cause to be used, deployed, or released any chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device that creates a risk of death or serious physical harm to another person not a participant in the offense.

(B) No person shall knowingly use, deploy, release, or cause to be used, deployed, or released any chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device with the intent to do any of the following:

(1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

(2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or coercion;

(3) Affect the conduct of any government by murder, assassination, or kidnapping;

(4) Cause physical harm to, or the death of, any person who is not a participant in the offense.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of criminal use of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device. A violation of division (A) of this section is a felony of the second degree. A violation of division (B) of this section is a felony of the first degree.

(D)(1) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any person who uses any of the following:

(a) Any household product that is generally available for sale to consumers in this state in the quantity and concentration available for sale to those consumers;

(b) A self-defense spray;

(c) A biological agent, toxin, or delivery system the person possesses solely for protective, bona fide research, or other peaceful purposes;

(d) A chemical weapon that the person possesses solely for a purpose not prohibited under this section if the type and quantity is consistent with that purpose.

(2) For purposes of this division, "a purpose not prohibited under this section" means any of the following:

(a) Any peaceful purpose related to an industrial, agricultural, research, medical, or pharmaceutical activity or other peaceful activity;

(b) Any purpose directly related to protection against toxic chemicals and to protection against chemical weapons;

(c) Any military purpose of the United States that is not connected with the use of a chemical weapon or that is not dependent on the use of the toxic or poisonous properties of the chemical weapon to cause death or other harm, when related to the performance of official duties;

(d) Any law enforcement purpose, including any domestic riot control purpose, when related to the performance of official duties.

Sec. 2909.28.  (A) No person, with the intent to manufacture a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, shall knowingly assemble or possess one or more toxins, toxic chemicals, precursors of toxic chemicals, vectors, biological agents, or hazardous radioactive substances, including, but not limited to, those listed in rules the director of public safety adopts, that may be used to manufacture a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device.

(B) In a prosecution under this section, it is not necessary to allege or prove that the offender assembled or possessed all chemicals or substances necessary to manufacture a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device. The assembly or possession of a single chemical or substance, with the intent to use that chemical or substance in the manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, is sufficient to violate this section.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal assembly or possession of chemicals or substances for the manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, which is a felony of the fourth degree.

(D) This section does not apply when the items described in division (A) of this section are assembled or possessed for a purpose related to the performance of official duties related to any military purpose of the United States and any law enforcement purpose, including any domestic riot control purpose.

Sec. 2909.29.  (A) No person, knowing that property is the proceeds of an act of terrorism or a monetary instrument given, received, or intended to be used in support of an act of terrorism, shall conduct or attempt to conduct any transaction involving that property or transport, transmit or transfer that monetary instrument with the intent to do any of the following:

(1) Commit or further the commission of criminal activity;

(2) Conceal or disguise the nature, location, source, ownership, or control of either the proceeds of an act of terrorism or a monetary instrument given, received, or intended to be used to support an act of terrorism;

(3) Conceal or disguise the intent to avoid a transaction reporting requirement under section 1315.53 of the Revised Code or federal law.

(B)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of money laundering in support of terrorism, which is a misdemeanor of the first degree, except as otherwise provided in this division.

(2) A violation of division (A) of this section is a felony of the fifth degree if the total value of the property or monetary instrument involved in the transaction equals or exceeds one thousand dollars and is less than five thousand dollars.

(3) Money laundering in support of terrorism is a felony of the fourth degree if the total value of the property or monetary instrument involved in the transaction equals or exceeds five thousand dollars and is less than twenty-five thousand dollars.

(4) Money laundering in support of terrorism is a felony of the third degree if the total value of the property or monetary instrument involved in the transaction equals or exceeds twenty-five thousand dollars and is less than seventy-five thousand dollars.

(5) Money laundering in support of terrorism is a felony of the second degree if the total value of the property or monetary instrument involved in the transaction equals or exceeds seventy-five thousand dollars.

Sec. 2909.30.  (A) A judge of a court of record shall direct the clerk of that court to notify the immigration and customs enforcement section of the United States department of homeland security when a suspected alien has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony.

(B) The department of rehabilitation and correction monthly shall compile a list of suspected aliens who are serving a prison term. The list shall include the earliest possible date of release of the offender, whether through expiration of prison term, parole, or other means. The department shall provide a copy of the list to the immigration and customs enforcement section of the United States department of homeland security for the section to determine whether it wishes custody of the suspected alien. If the immigration and customs enforcement section indicates it wishes custody, the department of rehabilitation and correction is responsible for the suspected alien until the section takes custody.

(C) The department of rehabilitation and correction, pursuant to a valid detainer lodged against an alien who is not legally present in the United States and who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony, shall transfer that alien to the custody of the immigration and enforcement section of the United States department of homeland security upon completion of the alien's prison term.

(D) As used in this section, "alien" means an individual who is not a citizen of the United States.

Sec. 2909.31. (A) No person entering an airport, train station, port, or other similar critical transportation infrastructure site shall refuse to show identification when requested by a law enforcement officer when there is a threat to security and the law enforcement officer is requiring identification of all persons entering the site.

(B) A law enforcement officer may prevent any person who refuses to show identification when asked under the circumstances described in division (A) of this section from entering the critical transportation infrastructure site.

Sec. 2909.32.  (A)(1) The director of public safety shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to identify licenses the state issues for which a holder with a connection to a terrorist organization would present a potential risk to the residents of this state. The rules shall not identify a renewable driver's license or permit as a license of this nature if the applicant is a resident of this state.

(2)(a) The director shall prepare a document to serve as a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance for agencies to use to identify whether an applicant for a license or the renewal of a license has provided material assistance to an organization listed in the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list. The declaration shall be substantially in the form and of the same content as set forth in division (A)(2)(b) of this section. The director shall make the declaration available to each issuing agency of a license the director identifies pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, along with a then-current copy of the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list. The director may adopt rules governing the preparation of the declaration and the distribution of the declaration and the list.

(b) The declaration of material assistance/nonassistance this section requires shall be substantially as follows and shall include the following questions and the associated spaces for answering the questions:

"DECLARATION REGARDING MATERIAL ASSISTANCE/NONASSISTANCE
TO TERRORIST ORGANIZATION

(1) Are you a member of an organization on the U.S. Department of State Terrorist Exclusion List? Yes .....; No ......

(2) Have you used any position of prominence you have within any country to persuade others to support an organization on the U.S. Department of State Terrorist Exclusion List? Yes .....; No ......

(3) Have you knowingly solicited funds or other things of value for an organization on the U.S. Department of State Terrorist Exclusion List? Yes .....; No ......

(4) Have you solicited any individual for membership in an organization on the U.S. Department of State Terrorist Exclusion List? Yes .....; No ......

(5) Have you committed an act that you know, or reasonably should have known, affords "material support or resources" (see below) to an organization on the U.S. Department of State Terrorist Exclusion List? Yes .....; No ......

(6) Have you hired or compensated a person you knew to be a member of an organization on the U.S. Department of State Terrorist Exclusion List or a person you knew to be engaged in planning, assisting, or carrying out an act of terrorism? Yes .....; No ......

For purposes of this declaration of material assistance/nonassistance, "material support or resources" means currency, payment instruments, other financial securities, funds, transfer of funds, and financial services that are in excess of one hundred dollars, as well as communications, lodging, training, safe houses, false documentation or identification, communications equipment, facilities, weapons, lethal substances, explosives, personnel, transportation, and other physical assets, except medicine or religious materials."

(B)(1) Any agency that issues a license the director identifies pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section shall include with the agency's application form a copy of the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance the director prepares pursuant to this section and a then-current copy of the terrorist exclusion list. The agency shall inform applicants that they must truthfully answer each question.

(2) Any person provided a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance pursuant to this section shall answer each question and attach the completed declaration to the application for the license or the license renewal.

(C)(1) Any answer of "yes" to any question, or the failure to answer "no" to any question, on a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance an agency provides pursuant to this section shall serve for purposes of this section as a disclosure that the applicant has provided material assistance to an organization listed on the terrorist exclusion list.

(2) Any person who discloses the provision of material assistance to any organization on the terrorist exclusion list shall be denied the license or the renewal of the license unless the department of public safety reinstates the application pursuant to division (D) of this section.

(D) The department of public safety, upon an applicant's request, shall review within thirty days of that request an application for any license or renewal that was denied under division (C) of this section. The department shall reinstate the license application for good cause if it determines all of the following pursuant to guidelines the director adopts by rule:

(1) That the provision of material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list was made more than ten years prior to the time of the application, or the applicant provided material assistance during the ten years prior to the application and the date of the review, but at the time of the assistance, the organization was either not on the list or was not involved in any activity or conduct that would have merited inclusion on the list had it existed at the time, or at the time of the assistance it was not reasonable to know of the organization's activities that would have merited its inclusion on the list.

(2) That the applicant is unlikely in the future to provide material assistance to any organization on the terrorist exclusion list;

(3) That the applicant does not pose a risk to the residents of this state.

(E) The failure of an applicant for a license to complete and attach a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance as this section requires, the failure to disclose material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list, or the making of false statements regarding material assistance to an organization the applicant knew or should have known was on the terrorist exclusion list, shall result in the denial of the application and in the revocation of the license.

(F) The failure of an applicant for a license to disclose, as this section requires, the provision of material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list or knowingly making false statements regarding material assistance to an organization on that list is a felony of the fifth degree.

(G) An issuing agency shall notify the department of public safety if it denies an application for a license or the renewal of a license because the applicant disclosed the provision of material assistance to an organization listed on the terrorist exclusion list.

(H) An agency may revoke a license issued to any person who, after providing a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance pursuant to this section, takes an action that would result in "yes" being the correct answer to any question on the declaration, had the declaration been readministered after taking that action. The agency shall conduct a hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prior to revoking any license pursuant to this division.

Sec. 2909.33. (A)(1) The director of public safety shall prepare a document to serve as a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance for the state, any instrumentality of the state, and any political subdivision of the state to use to determine whether any person, company, affiliated group, or organization, or person who holds, owns, or otherwise has a controlling interest in a company, affiliated group, or organization, has provided material assistance to an organization listed on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list. The declaration shall be substantially in the same format and of the same content as set forth in division (A)(2)(b) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code.

(2) The director shall make the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance available to the state, instrumentalities of the state, and political subdivisions of the state, along with a then-current copy of the terrorist exclusion list. The director may adopt rules that govern the preparation of the declaration and the distribution of the declaration and terrorist exclusion list.

(3)(a) Any state agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision of the state, for purposes of business it conducts and funding it provides, may adopt a procedure under which it precertifies any person, company, affiliated group, or organization as not providing material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list. The precertification this division describes shall be granted to any person, company, affiliated group, or organization that submits a completed copy of the declaration prepared pursuant to this section, with an answer of "no" to all questions. A precertification pursuant to this division is effective for one year.

(b) Any person, company, affiliated group, or organization that is precertified pursuant to this division and that takes any action or learns of anything that would result in an answer of "yes" to any question on the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance this division requires, shall cease to represent that it is precertified and, within thirty days of taking that action or learning the new information, shall notify every state agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision with which it is precertified to request the precertification be rescinded.

(c) When applying for a contract, falsely representing precertification, or representing precertification when that precertification has been rescinded or should have been rescinded pursuant to this division, is a felony of the fifth degree.

(B) Any person who is provided a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance pursuant to this section shall complete that declaration. Any answer of "yes" to any question, or the failure to answer "no" to any question, on the declaration shall serve for purposes of this section as a disclosure of the provision of material assistance to an organization that is listed on the terrorist exclusion list.

(C) Prior to entering into a contract to conduct business or receive funding, any person, company, affiliated group, or organization, and any person who holds, owns, or otherwise has a controlling interest in a company, affiliated group, or organization that conducts any business with or receives funding in an aggregate amount greater than one hundred thousand dollars annually from the state, any instrumentality of the state, and any political subdivision of the state, excluding the amount of any personal benefit, shall certify that it does not provide material assistance to any organization on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list. The certification shall be made by completing the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance described in division (A) of this section.

(D)(1) The state, an instrumentality of the state, or a political subdivision of the state shall conduct no business with or provide any funding to any person, company, affiliated group or organization, or any person who has a controlling interest in a company, affiliated group, or organization unless that person, company, affiliated group, or organization is certified as division (C) of this section requires. The state, instrumentality, or subdivision shall provide the declaration prepared pursuant to division (A) of this section, along with a then-current copy of the terrorist exclusion list, to any person, company, affiliated group, or organization that is not precertified and for which certification is required. If a contract is entered into pursuant to competitive bidding or another competitive process, the state, instrumentality, or subdivision need provide the declaration and list only to the person selected and only if that person is not precertified.

(2) No person, company, affiliated group or organization, or any person who holds, owns, or otherwise has a controlling interest in a company, affiliated group, or organization shall enter into a contract to conduct business with or receive funding from the state, an instrumentality of the state, or a political subdivision of the state unless it is certified as division (C) of this section requires.

(E) The department of public safety shall review, within thirty days of a request from any person, company, affiliated group, or organization that disclosed the provision of material assistance to an organization listed on the terrorist exclusion list, whether the prohibitions against doing business or receiving funding set forth in divisions (D)(1) and (D)(2) of this section should apply. The department shall order that the prohibitions do not apply if it determines all of the following pursuant to guidelines the director adopts by rule:

(1) That the provision of material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list was made more than ten years prior to the time the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance was filled out, or the material assistance was provided during the ten years prior to the application and the date of the review, but at the time of the assistance, the organization was either not on the list or would not have merited inclusion had it existed at the time, or at the time of the assistance it was not reasonable to know of the organization's activities that would have merited its inclusion on the list.

(2) That it is unlikely in the future that the person, company, affiliated group, or organization will provide material assistance to any organization on the terrorist exclusion list;

(3) The person, company, affiliated group, or organization does not pose a risk to the residents of this state.

(F) Any person, company, affiliated group, or organization that had not provided material assistance at the time a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance was answered, but starts providing material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list during the course of doing business with or receiving funding from the state, an instrumentality of the state, or a subdivision of the state, is prohibited from entering into additional contracts to do business with or receive funding from the state, any instrumentality, or any subdivision for a period of ten years after the provision of material assistance is discovered.

(G) Any person, company, affiliated group, or organization that knowingly provides a false certification pursuant to this section is permanently banned from conducting business with or receiving funding from the state, an instrumentality of the state, or a political subdivision of the state and is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.

(H) This section does not apply to the following types of transactions:

(1) An investment in a company that is publicly traded in any United States market;

(2) An investment that is traded on a foreign market where United States investors regularly make investments;

(3) An investment that is made through an agent or investment manager who has a fiduciary responsibility to the investor;

(4) An investment in public agency debt;

(5) An investment in derivatives that are regulated by a government agency.

(I) As used in this section, "personal benefit" means all of the following:

(1) Pensions and disability and survivor benefits;

(2) Money, goods, services, or other things of value provided by the United States, the state, or a political subdivision of the state to which the recipient is entitled by reason of age, medical condition, or a financial need that is established pursuant to an act of congress or the general assembly;

(3) Salary or compensation a person receives as an employee of the state or a political subdivision of the state.

Sec. 2909.34.  (A)(1) The director of public safety shall prepare a document to serve as a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance for the state, instrumentalities of the state, and political subdivisions of the state to use to determine whether any person who is under final consideration for employment has provided material assistance to an organization listed on the United States department of state terrorist exclusion list. The declaration shall be substantially in the same format and of the same content as set forth in division (A)(2)(b) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code.

(2) The director shall make the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance available to the state, instrumentalities of the state, and political subdivisions of the state, along with a then-current copy of the terrorist exclusion list. The director may adopt rules that govern the preparation and distribution of the declaration and the terrorist exclusion list.

(3) The director may adopt rules that establish categories of employment that are exempt from the disclosure requirements of this section.

(B) Any person under final consideration for employment who is provided a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance pursuant to this section shall complete the declaration prior to being employed. Any answer of "yes" to any question, or the failure to answer "no" to any question, shall serve for purposes of this section as a disclosure of the provision of material assistance to an organization that is listed on the terrorist exclusion list.

(C) The state, a state instrumentality, or a political subdivision of the state shall provide each person who is under final consideration for a category of employment for which this section requires disclosure with a copy of the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance and a then-current copy of the terrorist exclusion list. The state, instrumentality, or subdivision shall not employ any person who discloses the provision of material assistance to an organization that is listed on the terrorist exclusion list.

(D) The department of public safety, upon the request of any person who has been denied employment under division (C) of this section, shall review the request within thirty days to determine if the denial of employment should be voided. The department shall void that denial if it determines all of the following pursuant to guidelines the director adopts by rule:

(1) That the provision of material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list was made more than ten years prior to the time the declaration of material assistance/nonassistance was filled out, or the material assistance was provided during the ten years prior to the application and the date of the review, but at the time of the assistance, the organization was either not on the list or would not have merited inclusion on the list had it existed at the time, or at the time of the assistance it was not reasonable to know of the organization's activities that would have merited its inclusion on the list.

(2) That it is unlikely in the future that the person will provide material assistance to any organization on the terrorist exclusion list;

(3) The person does not pose a risk to the residents of the state.

(E) The failure of an applicant for employment to disclose, as this section requires, the provision of material assistance to an organization on the terrorist exclusion list, or knowingly making false statements regarding material assistance to an organization on that list, is a felony of the fifth degree.

(F) (1) The state, or any instrumentality or political subdivision of the state, may terminate any employee who, after providing a declaration of material assistance/nonassistance pursuant to this section, takes an action that would result in "yes" being the correct answer to any question on the declaration, had the declaration been readministered after taking that action.

(2) No employer shall terminate an employee pursuant to this division unless the employer complies with one of the following hearing procedures:

(a) If the employee is entitled to termination proceedings under a collective bargaining agreement, the employer shall comply with those procedures.

(b) If the employee is entitled to termination proceedings pursuant to division (C) of section 124.34 of the Revised Code, the employer shall comply with those procedures.

(c) If the employee does not qualify for the termination proceedings described in division (F)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, the employer shall comply with the procedures set forth in division (B) of section 124.34 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2921.29.  (A) No person who is in a public place shall refuse to disclose the person's name, address, or date of birth, when requested by a law enforcement officer who reasonably suspects either of the following:

(1) The person is committing, has committed, or is about to commit a criminal offense.

(2) The person witnessed any of the following:

(a) An offense of violence that would constitute a felony under the laws of this state;

(b) A felony offense that causes or results in, or creates a substantial risk of, serious physical harm to another person or to property;

(c) Any attempt or conspiracy to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense identified in division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section;

(d) Any conduct reasonably indicating that any offense identified in division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section or any attempt, conspiracy, or complicity described in division (A)(2)(c) of this section has been, is being, or is about to be committed.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of failure to disclose one's personal information, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(C) Nothing in this section requires a person to answer any questions beyond that person's name, address, or date of birth. Nothing in this section authorizes a law enforcement officer to arrest a person for not providing any information beyond that person's name, address, or date of birth or for refusing to describe the offense observed.

(D) It is not a violation of this section to refuse to answer a question that would reveal a person's age or date of birth if age is an element of the crime that the person is suspected of committing.

Sec. 2923.31.  As used in sections 2923.31 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Beneficial interest" means any of the following:

(1) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under a trust in which the trustee holds title to personal or real property;

(2) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under any other trust arrangement under which any other person holds title to personal or real property for the benefit of such person;

(3) The interest of a person under any other form of express fiduciary arrangement under which any other person holds title to personal or real property for the benefit of such person.

"Beneficial interest" does not include the interest of a stockholder in a corporation or the interest of a partner in either a general or limited partnership.

(B) "Costs of investigation and prosecution" and "costs of investigation and litigation" mean all of the costs incurred by the state or a county or municipal corporation under sections 2923.31 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code in the prosecution and investigation of any criminal action or in the litigation and investigation of any civil action, and includes, but is not limited to, the costs of resources and personnel.

(C) "Enterprise" includes any individual, sole proprietorship, partnership, limited partnership, corporation, trust, union, government agency, or other legal entity, or any organization, association, or group of persons associated in fact although not a legal entity. "Enterprise" includes illicit as well as licit enterprises.

(D) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of property that is allegedly involved in a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, including any person who establishes a valid claim to or interest in the property in accordance with division (E) of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, and any victim of an alleged violation of that section or of any underlying offense involved in an alleged violation of that section.

(E) "Pattern of corrupt activity" means two or more incidents of corrupt activity, whether or not there has been a prior conviction, that are related to the affairs of the same enterprise, are not isolated, and are not so closely related to each other and connected in time and place that they constitute a single event.

At least one of the incidents forming the pattern shall occur on or after January 1, 1986. Unless any incident was an aggravated murder or murder, the last of the incidents forming the pattern shall occur within six years after the commission of any prior incident forming the pattern, excluding any period of imprisonment served by any person engaging in the corrupt activity.

For the purposes of the criminal penalties that may be imposed pursuant to section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, at least one of the incidents forming the pattern shall constitute a felony under the laws of this state in existence at the time it was committed or, if committed in violation of the laws of the United States or of any other state, shall constitute a felony under the law of the United States or the other state and would be a criminal offense under the law of this state if committed in this state.

(F) "Pecuniary value" means money, a negotiable instrument, a commercial interest, or anything of value, as defined in section 1.03 of the Revised Code, or any other property or service that has a value in excess of one hundred dollars.

(G) "Person" means any person, as defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, and any governmental officer, employee, or entity.

(H) "Personal property" means any personal property, any interest in personal property, or any right, including, but not limited to, bank accounts, debts, corporate stocks, patents, or copyrights. Personal property and any beneficial interest in personal property are deemed to be located where the trustee of the property, the personal property, or the instrument evidencing the right is located.

(I) "Corrupt activity" means engaging in, attempting to engage in, conspiring to engage in, or soliciting, coercing, or intimidating another person to engage in any of the following:

(1) Conduct defined as "racketeering activity" under the "Organized Crime Control Act of 1970," 84 Stat. 941, 18 U.S.C. 1961(1)(B), (1)(C), (1)(D), and (1)(E), as amended;

(2) Conduct constituting any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 1315.55, 1322.02, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.22, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2911.31, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2921.02, 2921.03, 2921.04, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.32, 2921.41, 2921.42, 2921.43, 2923.12, or 2923.17; division (F)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of section 1315.53; division (A)(1) or (2) of section 1707.042; division (B), (C)(4), (D), (E), or (F) of section 1707.44; division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2923.20; division (J)(1) of section 4712.02; section 4719.02, 4719.05, or 4719.06; division (C), (D), or (E) of section 4719.07; section 4719.08; or division (A) of section 4719.09 of the Revised Code.

(b) Any violation of section 3769.11, 3769.15, 3769.16, or 3769.19 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would have been a violation of section 3769.11 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date, or any violation of section 2915.05 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would have been a violation of section 3769.15, 3769.16, or 3769.19 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date.

(c) Any violation of section 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.31, 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.34, 2913.42, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2915.03, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.37 of the Revised Code, any violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is a felony of the first, second, third, or fourth degree and that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurred prior to July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would not have been a violation of section 3769.11 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date, any violation of section 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, or any violation of division (B) of section 2915.05 of the Revised Code as it exists on and after July 1, 1996, when the proceeds of the violation, the payments made in the violation, the amount of a claim for payment or for any other benefit that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the violation, or the value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the violation exceeds five hundred dollars, or any combination of violations described in division (I)(2)(c) of this section when the total proceeds of the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination of violations, or value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of violations exceeds five hundred dollars;

(d) Any violation of section 5743.112 of the Revised Code when the amount of unpaid tax exceeds one hundred dollars;

(e) Any violation or combination of violations of section 2907.32 of the Revised Code involving any material or performance containing a display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit and depicted with clearly visible penetration of the genitals or clearly visible penetration by the penis of any orifice when the total proceeds of the violation or combination of violations, the payments made in the violation or combination of violations, or the value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the violation or combination of violations exceeds five hundred dollars;

(f) Any combination of violations described in division (I)(2)(c) of this section and violations of section 2907.32 of the Revised Code involving any material or performance containing a display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit and depicted with clearly visible penetration of the genitals or clearly visible penetration by the penis of any orifice when the total proceeds of the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination of violations, or value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of violations exceeds five hundred dollars.

(3) Conduct constituting a violation of any law of any state other than this state that is substantially similar to the conduct described in division (I)(2) of this section, provided the defendant was convicted of the conduct in a criminal proceeding in the other state;

(4) Animal or ecological terrorism.

(J) "Real property" means any real property or any interest in real property, including, but not limited to, any lease of, or mortgage upon, real property. Real property and any beneficial interest in it is deemed to be located where the real property is located.

(K) "Trustee" means any of the following:

(1) Any person acting as trustee under a trust in which the trustee holds title to personal or real property;

(2) Any person who holds title to personal or real property for which any other person has a beneficial interest;

(3) Any successor trustee.

"Trustee" does not include an assignee or trustee for an insolvent debtor or an executor, administrator, administrator with the will annexed, testamentary trustee, guardian, or committee, appointed by, under the control of, or accountable to a court.

(L) "Unlawful debt" means any money or other thing of value constituting principal or interest of a debt that is legally unenforceable in this state in whole or in part because the debt was incurred or contracted in violation of any federal or state law relating to the business of gambling activity or relating to the business of lending money at an usurious rate unless the creditor proves, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the usurious rate was not intentionally set and that it resulted from a good faith error by the creditor, notwithstanding the maintenance of procedures that were adopted by the creditor to avoid an error of that nature.

(M) "Animal activity" means any activity that involves the use of animals or animal parts, including, but not limited to, hunting, fishing, trapping, traveling, camping, the production, preparation, or processing of food or food products, clothing or garment manufacturing, medical research, other research, entertainment, recreation, agriculture, biotechnology, or service activity that involves the use of animals or animal parts.

(N) "Animal facility" means a vehicle, building, structure, nature preserve, or other premises in which an animal is lawfully kept, handled, housed, exhibited, bred, or offered for sale, including, but not limited to, a zoo, rodeo, circus, amusement park, hunting preserve, or premises in which a horse or dog event is held.

(O) "Animal or ecological terrorism" means the commission of any felony that involves causing or creating a substantial risk of physical harm to any property of another, the use of a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, or purposely, knowingly, or recklessly causing serious physical harm to property and that involves an intent to obstruct, impede, or deter any person from participating in a lawful animal activity, from mining, foresting, harvesting, gathering, or processing natural resources, or from being lawfully present in or on an animal facility or research facility.

(P) "Research facility" means a place, laboratory, institution, medical care facility, government facility, or public or private educational institution in which a scientific test, experiment, or investigation involving the use of animals or other living organisms is lawfully carried out, conducted, or attempted.

Sec. 2933.51.  As used in sections 2933.51 to 2933.66 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Wire communication" means an aural transfer that is made in whole or in part through the use of facilities for the transmission of communications by the aid of wires or similar methods of connecting the point of origin of the communication and the point of reception of the communication, including the use of a method of connecting the point of origin and the point of reception of the communication in a switching station, if the facilities are furnished or operated by a person engaged in providing or operating the facilities for the transmission of communications. "Wire communication" includes an electronic storage of a wire communication.

(B) "Oral communication" means an oral communication uttered by a person exhibiting an expectation that the communication is not subject to interception under circumstances justifying that expectation. "Oral communication" does not include an electronic communication.

(C) "Intercept" means the aural or other acquisition of the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication through the use of an interception device.

(D) "Interception device" means an electronic, mechanical, or other device or apparatus that can be used to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication. "Interception device" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A telephone or telegraph instrument, equipment, or facility, or any of its components, if the instrument, equipment, facility, or component is any of the following:

(a) Furnished to the subscriber or user by a provider of wire or electronic communication service in the ordinary course of its business and being used by the subscriber or user in the ordinary course of its business;

(b) Furnished by a subscriber or user for connection to the facilities of a provider of wire or electronic communication service and used in the ordinary course of that subscriber's or user's business;

(c) Being used by a provider of wire or electronic communication service in the ordinary course of its business or by an investigative or law enforcement officer in the ordinary course of the officer's duties that do not involve the interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications.

(2) A hearing aid or similar device being used to correct subnormal hearing to not better than normal.

(E) "Investigative officer" means any of the following:

(1) An officer of this state or a political subdivision of this state, who is empowered by law to conduct investigations or to make arrests for a designated offense;

(2) A person described in divisions (A)(11)(a) and (b) of section 2901.01 of the Revised Code;

(3) An attorney authorized by law to prosecute or participate in the prosecution of a designated offense;

(4) A secret service officer appointed pursuant to section 309.07 of the Revised Code;

(5) An officer of the United States, a state, or a political subdivision of a state who is authorized to conduct investigations pursuant to the "Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1848-1857, 18 U.S.C. 2510-2521 (1986), as amended.

(F) "Interception warrant" means a court order that authorizes the interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications and that is issued pursuant to sections 2933.53 to 2933.56 of the Revised Code.

(G) "Contents," when used with respect to a wire, oral, or electronic communication, includes any information concerning the substance, purport, or meaning of the communication.

(H) "Communications common carrier" means a person who is engaged as a common carrier for hire in intrastate, interstate, or foreign communications by wire, radio, or radio transmission of energy. "Communications common carrier" does not include, to the extent that the person is engaged in radio broadcasting, a person engaged in radio broadcasting.

(I) "Designated offense" means any of the following:

(1) A felony violation of section 1315.53, 1315.55, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.11, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.22, 2907.02, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.04, 2913.42, 2913.51, 2915.02, 2915.03, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2921.02, 2921.03, 2921.04, 2921.32, 2921.34, 2923.20, 2923.32, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.06 or of division (B) of section 2915.05 of the Revised Code;

(2) A violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that, had it occurred prior to July 1, 1996, would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date;

(3) A felony violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code;

(4) Complicity in the commission of a felony violation of a section listed in division (I)(1), (2), or (3) of this section;

(5) An attempt to commit, or conspiracy in the commission of, a felony violation of a section listed in division (I)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, if the attempt or conspiracy is punishable by a term of imprisonment of more than one year.

(J) "Aggrieved person" means a person who was a party to an intercepted wire, oral, or electronic communication or a person against whom the interception of the communication was directed.

(K) "Person" means a person, as defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, or a governmental officer, employee, or entity.

(L) "Special need" means a showing that a licensed physician, licensed practicing psychologist, attorney, practicing cleric, journalist, or either spouse is personally engaging in continuing criminal activity, was engaged in continuing criminal activity over a period of time, or is committing, has committed, or is about to commit, a designated offense, or a showing that specified public facilities are being regularly used by someone who is personally engaging in continuing criminal activity, was engaged in continuing criminal activity over a period of time, or is committing, has committed, or is about to commit, a designated offense.

(M) "Journalist" means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by, any news media, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a similar media, for the purpose of gathering, processing, transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating news for the general public.

(N) "Electronic communication" means a transfer of a sign, signal, writing, image, sound, datum, or intelligence of any nature that is transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A wire or oral communication;

(2) A communication made through a tone-only paging device;

(3) A communication from an electronic or mechanical tracking device that permits the tracking of the movement of a person or object.

(O) "User" means a person or entity that uses an electronic communication service and is duly authorized by the provider of the service to engage in the use of the electronic communication service.

(P) "Electronic communications system" means a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photo-optical facility for the transmission of electronic communications, and a computer facility or related electronic equipment for the electronic storage of electronic communications.

(Q) "Electronic communication service" means a service that provides to users of the service the ability to send or receive wire or electronic communications.

(R) "Readily accessible to the general public" means, with respect to a radio communication, that the communication is none of the following:

(1) Scrambled or encrypted;

(2) Transmitted using a modulation technique, the essential parameters of which have been withheld from the public with the intention of preserving the privacy of the communication;

(3) Carried on a subcarrier or other signal subsidiary to a radio transmission;

(4) Transmitted over a communications system provided by a communications common carrier, unless the communication is a tone-only paging system communication;

(5) Transmitted on a frequency allocated under part 25, subpart D, E, or F of part 74, or part 94 of the Rules of the Federal Communications Commission, as those provisions existed on July 1, 1996, unless, in the case of a communication transmitted on a frequency allocated under part 74 that is not exclusively allocated to broadcast auxiliary services, the communication is a two-way voice communication by radio.

(S) "Electronic storage" means a temporary, intermediate storage of a wire or electronic communication that is incidental to the electronic transmission of the communication, and a storage of a wire or electronic communication by an electronic communication service for the purpose of backup protection of the communication.

(T) "Aural transfer" means a transfer containing the human voice at a point between and including the point of origin and the point of reception.

(U) "Pen register" means a device that records or decodes electronic impulses that identify the numbers dialed, pulsed, or otherwise transmitted on telephone lines to which the device is attached.

(V) "Trap and trace device" means a device that captures the incoming electronic or other impulses that identify the originating number of an instrument or device from which a wire communication or electronic communication was transmitted but that does not intercept the contents of the wire communication or electronic communication.

(W) "Judge of a court of common pleas" means a judge of that court who is elected or appointed as a judge of general jurisdiction or as a judge who exercises both general jurisdiction and probate, domestic relations, or juvenile jurisdiction. "Judge of a court of common pleas" does not mean a judge of that court who is elected or appointed specifically as a probate, domestic relations, or juvenile judge.

Sec. 2935.033. (A) Any peace officer may render assistance to any federal law enforcement officer who has arrest authority under the "Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism (USA Patriot Act) Act of 2001," Pub. L. No. 107-056, 115 Stat. 272, as amended, if both of the following apply:

(1) There is a threat of imminent physical danger to the federal law enforcement officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any other serious emergency situation present.

(2) Either the federal law enforcement officer requests emergency assistance or it appears that the federal law enforcement officer is unable to request assistance, and the circumstances reasonably indicate that assistance is appropriate.

(B) "Federal law enforcement officer" has the same meaning as in section 9.88 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.04.  (A) The director of health shall:

(1) Require reports and make inspections and investigations that the director considers necessary;

(2) Provide administration, appoint personnel, make reports, and take other action as necessary to comply with the requirements of the "Construction and Modernization of Hospitals and Other Medical Facilities Act," Title VI of the "Public Health Service Act," 60 Stat. 1041 (1946), 42 U.S.C. 291, as amended, and the regulations adopted under that act;

(3) Procure by contract the temporary or intermittent services of experts, consultants, or organizations when those services are to be performed on a part-time or fee-for-service basis and do not involve the performance of administrative duties;

(4) Enter into agreements for the utilization of the facilities and services of other departments, agencies, and institutions, public or private;

(5) On behalf of the state, solicit, accept, hold, administer, and deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code, any grant, gift, devise, bequest, or contribution made to assist in meeting the cost of carrying out the director's responsibilities and expend the grant, gift, devise, bequest, or contribution for the purpose for which made. Fees collected by the director in connection with meetings and conferences shall also be credited to the fund and expended for the purposes for which paid.

(6) Make an annual report to the governor on activities and expenditures, including recommendations for such additional legislation as the director considers appropriate to furnish adequate hospital, clinic, and similar facilities to the people of this state.

(7) Establish a system for recruiting, registering, training, and deploying volunteers the director determines are advisable and reasonably necessary to respond to an emergency involving the public's health.

(B) The director of health may enter into agreements to sell services offered by the department of health to boards of health of city and general health districts and to other departments, agencies, and institutions of this state, other states, or the United States. Fees collected by the director for the sale of services shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3750.22.  (A)(1) The owner or operator of a facility where chemicals are produced, or the owner or operator of any other facility or business of any type, may provide a copy of any vulnerability assessment of the facility or business or of any other security-sensitive information developed regarding the facility or business to any of the following:

(a) The local emergency planning committee of the emergency planning district in which the facility or business is located;

(b) The fire department with jurisdiction over the facility or business;

(c) The sheriff of the county in which the facility or business is located;

(d) The chief of police of any municipal corporation with jurisdiction over the facility or business;

(e) Any state agency involved in the development of plans to protect businesses of any type against terrorist attack including the Ohio department of public safety, the Ohio highway patrol, the office of homeland security, and the emergency management agency.

(2) A local emergency planning committee, fire department, sheriff, or chief of police, or other public office that receives a vulnerability assessment or other security-sensitive information pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section may provide a copy of that assessment or information to any local emergency planning committee, fire department, sheriff, or chief of police, or other public office described in division (A)(1) of this section but shall not share that vulnerability assessment or security-sensitive information with any other public or private office unless required to do so by federal or state law.

(B)(1) Any vulnerability assessment or other security-sensitive information a public office receives pursuant to division (A) of this section is not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code and that assessment or information is not subject to the mandatory disclosure requirements of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(2) This section shall not be construed to exempt any owner or operator of a facility where chemicals are produced or the owner or operator of any other facility or business of any type from providing information contained in a vulnerability assessment or other security-sensitive information to the public when the provision of that information otherwise is required by federal or state law.

Sec. 4505.02.  The registrar of motor vehicles shall issue rules as the registrar determines necessary to ensure uniform and orderly operation of this chapter, and the and to ensure that the identification of each applicant for a certificate of title is reasonably accurate. The clerks of the courts of common pleas shall conform thereto. The clerks shall provide the forms as prescribed by the registrar, except the manufacturers' or importers' certificates. The clerks shall provide, from moneys in the automated title processing fund, certificates of title. All other automated title processing system supplies shall be provided by the clerks.

If it appears that any certificate of title has been improperly issued, the registrar shall cancel the certificate. Upon the cancellation of any certificate of title, the registrar shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the clerk thereupon shall enter the cancellation upon the clerk's records. The registrar also shall notify the person to whom such certificate of title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing thereon, of the cancellation and shall demand the surrender of the certificate of title immediately, but the cancellation shall not affect the validity of any lien noted thereon. The holder of such certificate of title immediately shall return it to the registrar. If a certificate of registration has been issued to the holder of a certificate of title so canceled the registrar immediately shall cancel it and demand the return of such certificate of registration and license plates, and the holder of such certificate of registration and license plates shall return the same to the registrar forthwith. The clerks shall keep on hand a sufficient supply of blank forms, which, except for certificate of title and memorandum certificate forms, shall be furnished and distributed without charge to registered manufacturers or dealers, or other persons residing within the county.

Sec. 4507.08.  (A) No probationary license shall be issued to any person under the age of eighteen who has been adjudicated an unruly or delinquent child or a juvenile traffic offender for having committed any act that if committed by an adult would be a drug abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, a violation of division (B) of section 2917.11, or a violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, unless the person has been required by the court to attend a drug abuse or alcohol abuse education, intervention, or treatment program specified by the court and has satisfactorily completed the program.

(B) No temporary instruction permit or driver's license shall be issued to any person whose license has been suspended, during the period for which the license was suspended, nor to any person whose license has been canceled, under Chapter 4510. or any other provision of the Revised Code.

(C) No temporary instruction permit or driver's license shall be issued to any person whose commercial driver's license is suspended under Chapter 4510. or any other provision of the Revised Code during the period of the suspension.

No temporary instruction permit or driver's license shall be issued to any person when issuance is prohibited by division (A) of section 4507.091 of the Revised Code.

(D) No temporary instruction permit or driver's license shall be issued to, or retained by, any of the following persons:

(1) Any person who is an alcoholic, or is addicted to the use of controlled substances to the extent that the use constitutes an impairment to the person's ability to operate a motor vehicle with the required degree of safety;

(2) Any person who is under the age of eighteen and has been adjudicated an unruly or delinquent child or a juvenile traffic offender for having committed any act that if committed by an adult would be a drug abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, a violation of division (B) of section 2917.11, or a violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, unless the person has been required by the court to attend a drug abuse or alcohol abuse education, intervention, or treatment program specified by the court and has satisfactorily completed the program;

(3) Any person who, in the opinion of the registrar, is afflicted with or suffering from a physical or mental disability or disease that prevents the person from exercising reasonable and ordinary control over a motor vehicle while operating the vehicle upon the highways, except that a restricted license effective for six months may be issued to any person otherwise qualified who is or has been subject to any condition resulting in episodic impairment of consciousness or loss of muscular control and whose condition, in the opinion of the registrar, is dormant or is sufficiently under medical control that the person is capable of exercising reasonable and ordinary control over a motor vehicle. A restricted license effective for six months shall be issued to any person who otherwise is qualified and who is subject to any condition that causes episodic impairment of consciousness or a loss of muscular control if the person presents a statement from a licensed physician that the person's condition is under effective medical control and the period of time for which the control has been continuously maintained, unless, thereafter, a medical examination is ordered and, pursuant thereto, cause for denial is found.

A person to whom a six-month restricted license has been issued shall give notice of the person's medical condition to the registrar on forms provided by the registrar and signed by the licensee's physician. The notice shall be sent to the registrar six months after the issuance of the license. Subsequent restricted licenses issued to the same individual shall be effective for six months.

(4) Any person who is unable to understand highway warnings or traffic signs or directions given in the English language;

(5) Any person making an application whose driver's license or driving privileges are under cancellation, revocation, or suspension in the jurisdiction where issued or any other jurisdiction, until the expiration of one year after the license was canceled or revoked or until the period of suspension ends. Any person whose application is denied under this division may file a petition in the municipal court or county court in whose jurisdiction the person resides agreeing to pay the cost of the proceedings and alleging that the conduct involved in the offense that resulted in suspension, cancellation, or revocation in the foreign jurisdiction would not have resulted in a suspension, cancellation, or revocation had the offense occurred in this state. If the petition is granted, the petitioner shall notify the registrar by a certified copy of the court's findings and a license shall not be denied under this division.

(6) Any person who is under a class one or two suspension imposed for a violation of section 2903.04, 2903.06, or 2903.08 of the Revised Code or whose driver's or commercial driver's license or permit was permanently revoked prior to the effective date of this amendment January 1, 2004, for a substantially equivalent violation pursuant to section 4507.16 of the Revised Code;

(7) Any person who is not a resident or temporary resident of this state.

(E) No person whose driver's license or permit has been suspended under Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code or any other provision of the Revised Code shall have driving privileges reinstated if the registrar determines that a warrant has been issued in this state or any other state for the person's arrest and that warrant is an active warrant.

Sec. 4561.17.  For the purpose of providing (A) To provide revenue for paying the expenses of administering sections 4561.17 to 4561.22 of the Revised Code relative to the registration of aircraft, for the surveying of and the establishment, checking, maintenance, and repair of aviation air marking and of air navigation facilities, for the acquiring, maintaining, and repairing of equipment necessary therefor for those purposes, and for the cost of the creation creating and distribution of distributing Ohio aeronautical charts and Ohio airport and landing field directories, an annual license tax is hereby levied upon all aircraft based in this state for which an aircraft worthiness certificate issued by the federal aviation administration is in effect except the following:

(A)(1) Aircraft owned by the United States or any territory thereof of the United States;

(B)(2) Aircraft owned by any foreign government;

(C)(3) Aircraft owned by any state or any political subdivision thereof of a state;

(D)(4) Aircraft operated under a certificate of convenience and necessity issued by the civil aeronautics board or any successor thereto to that board;

(E) Aircraft owned by any nonresident of this state whether such owner is an individual, partnership, or corporation, provided such owner has complied with all the laws in regard to the licensing of aircraft in the state of his residence;

(F)(5) Aircraft owned by aircraft manufacturers or aircraft engine manufacturers and operated only for purposes of testing, delivery, or demonstration;

(G)(6) Aircraft operated for hire over regularly scheduled routes within the state.

Such (B) The license tax this section requires shall be at the rates specified in section 4561.18 of the Revised Code, and shall be paid to and collected by the director of transportation at the time of making application as provided in such that section.

Sec. 4561.18. (A) The owner of any aircraft that is based in this state and that is not of a type specified in divisions (A)(1) to (6) of section 4561.17 of the Revised Code, shall register that aircraft with the department of transportation pursuant to this section.

(B) Applications for the licensing and registration of aircraft shall be made and signed by the owner thereof upon on forms prepared by the department of transportation and prepares. The forms shall contain a description of the aircraft, including its federal registration number, the airport or other place at which the aircraft is based, and such any other information as is required by the department requires.

Applications (C)(1) Registration forms shall be filed with the director of transportation during the month of January annually at the time the director specifies and shall be renewed according to the standard renewal procedure of sections 4745.01 to 4745.03 of the Revised Code. Application If the airport or other place at which the aircraft usually is based changes, the owner shall update the registration by filing a new form with the office of aviation.

(2) An application for the registration of any aircraft not previously registered in this state, if such aircraft that is acquired or becomes subject to such the license tax subsequent to the last day of January in any year, shall be made for the balance of the year in which the same aircraft is acquired, within forty-eight hours thirty days after such the acquisition or after becoming subject to such the license tax. Each such application

(D) Each registration form shall be accompanied by the proper license tax, which, for aircraft other than gliders, shall be at the annual rate of one hundred dollars per aircraft. The license tax for gliders shall be three dollars annually.

Such (E) The department of transportation shall maintain all registrations filed with it under this section and shall develop a program to track and enforce the registration of aircraft based in this state.

(F) The taxes this section requires are in lieu of all other taxes on or with respect to ownership of such an aircraft.

(G) The director of transportation shall impose a fine pursuant to section 4561.22 of the Revised Code for each aircraft that an owner fails to register as this section requires and shall require the owner to register the aircraft within the time the director specifies. The director may impose a separate fine for each registration period during which the owner fails to register the aircraft.

Sec. 4561.22.  (A) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall violate sections 4561.17 to 4561.20 of the Revised Code.

(B) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more than one five hundred dollars, imprisoned not more than thirty days, or both for each violation.

Sec. 4563.30.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Airport" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of the Revised Code except that it does not include any airport operated by a multi-state authority or any airport with scheduled commercial air carrier service.

(3) "Private-use airport" means an airport used exclusively by the owner of the airport and by persons the owner authorizes.

(4) "Public-use airport" means an airport available for use by the general public without the prior approval of the owner or operator except as federal law or regulation require.

(5) "Sensitive site" means an area that would be considered a key asset or critical infrastructure of the United States, including, but not limited to, military installations, nuclear and chemical plants, centers of government, monuments and iconic structures, and international ports.

(B) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the contrary, the department of transportation, in consultation with the department of public safety, shall adopt rules regarding the security of public-use and private-use airports. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, provisions that do the following:

(1) Require all public-use and private-use airports located in whole or in part in this state to register biennially with the department of transportation;

(2) Require all public-use airports located in whole or in part in this state, and all private-use airports located in whole or in part in this state that are located within thirty nautical miles of either a metropolitan population of at least one hundred thousand persons or a sensitive site, or that have eleven or more based aircraft, a runway length more than two thousand feet, or more than ten thousand annual aircraft operations, to do all of the following:

(a) Prepare a written security plan that is consistent with the most recent security guidelines for general aviation airports published by the United States transportation security administration;

(b) Develop a written list of emergency contacts and telephones;

(c) Restrict access to aircraft keys by unlicensed persons;

(d) Require pilots, including those renting aircraft, to operate pursuant to F.A.R. 61.3 regarding pilot identification;

(e) Create an emergency locater map that identifies runways, ramp areas, fence lines, gates, hydrants, emergency shelters, buildings, and hazardous material sites;

(f) Familiarize local law enforcement agencies with the airport and consult with them in the airport's development of security procedures.

(3) Require all aircraft owners or pilots to secure their aircraft;

(4) Require all persons who rent an aircraft to present government-issued identification, in addition to any pilot's license, to the person who rents them the aircraft;

(5) Address or govern the security of public-use and private-use airports located in whole or in part in this state in any other manner that the department of transportation, in consultation with the department of public safety, determines to be necessary.

(C) The security plan described in division (B)(2)(a) and the emergency locater map described in division (B)(2)(e) of this section shall display prominently the following statement: "This document may contain information that, if disclosed, could endanger the life or safety of the public; therefore, this document is to be maintained and used in a manner that preserves the confidentiality of the information it contains in a manner consistent with law."

(D) Each public-use and private-use airport located in whole or in part in this state shall provide a copy of its registration described in division (B)(1) of this section, and when applicable, a copy of its security plan and emergency locater map to the department of public safety, to the department of transportation, to the sheriff of the county in which the airport is located in whole or in part, and, if the airport is located in whole or in part in a municipal corporation, to the chief of police of each municipal corporation in which it is wholly or partly located. Copies of registrations, emergency locater maps, and security plans that are in the possession of the department of public safety, the office of aviation, a sheriff, or a chief of police and that were provided under this division are not public records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code and are not subject to mandatory disclosure under that section.

(E) This section shall not be construed to replace or supersede airport security standards the United States department of homeland security and the transportation security administration require, or safety standards the United States department of transportation and the federal aviation administration require.

Sec. 4931.45.  (A) An amended final plan is required for any of the following purposes:

(1) Expanding the territory included in the countywide 9-1-1 system;

(2) Upgrading any part or all of a system from basic to enhanced wireline 9-1-1;

(3) Adjusting the territory served by a public safety answering point;

(4) Represcribing the funding of public safety answering points as between the alternatives set forth in division (B)(5) of section 4931.43 of the Revised Code;

(5) Providing for wireless enhanced 9-1-1;

(6) Adding a telephone company as a participant in a countywide 9-1-1 system after the implementation of wireline 9-1-1 or wireless enhanced 9-1-1;

(7) Providing that the state highway patrol or one or more public safety answering points of another 9-1-1 system function as a public safety answering point or points for the provision of wireline or wireless 9-1-1 for all or part of the territory of the system established under the final plan, as contemplated under division (J) of section 4931.41 of the Revised Code;

(8) Making any other necessary adjustments to the plan.

The adoption of an amended final plan under this division shall be subject to, and accomplished

(B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this section, a final plan shall be amended in the manner of the adoption of an initial provided for adopting a final plan under, sections 4931.42 to 4931.44 of the Revised Code, including the requirements for the convening of a 9-1-1 planning committee and development of developing a proposed amended plan prior to the adoption of the adopting an amended final plan. However, a final plan is deemed amended

(C)(1) To amend a final plan for the purpose described in division (A)(6) of this section upon the filing, an entity that wishes to be added as a participant in a 9-1-1 system shall file a written letter of that intent with the board of county commissioners of the county that approved the final plan for the countywide 9-1-1 system, of a written letter of intent by the entity to be added as a participant in the 9-1-1 system. The entity The final plan is deemed amended upon the filing of that letter. The entity that files the letter shall send written notice of the that filing to all subdivisions and telephone companies participating in the system. Further, adoption

(2) An amendment to a final plan for a purpose set forth in division (A)(1), (3), (5), or (8) of this section may be made by an addendum approved by a majority of the 9-1-1 planning committee. The board of county commissioners shall call a meeting of the 9-1-1 planning committee for the purpose of considering an addendum pursuant to this division.

(3) Adoption of any resolution under section 4931.51 of the Revised Code pursuant to a final plan that both has been adopted and provides for funding through charges imposed under that section is not an amendment of a final plan for the purpose of this division.

(B)(D) When a final plan is amended for a purpose described in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of this section, sections 4931.47 and 5733.55 of the Revised Code apply with respect to the receipt of the nonrecurring and recurring rates and charges for the wireline telephone network portion of the 9-1-1 system.

Sec. 4931.49.  (A)(1) The state, the state highway patrol, or a subdivision participating in a 9-1-1 system established under sections 4931.40 to 4931.70 of the Revised Code and any officer, agent, employee, or independent contractor of the state, the state highway patrol, or such a participating subdivision is not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property arising from any act or omission, except willful or wanton misconduct, in connection with developing, adopting, or approving any final plan or any agreement made under section 4931.48 of the Revised Code or otherwise bringing into operation the 9-1-1 system pursuant to sections 4931.40 to 4931.70 of the Revised Code.

(2) The Ohio 9-1-1 council, the wireless 9-1-1 advisory board, and any member of that council or board are not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property arising from any act or omission, except willful or wanton misconduct, in connection with the development or operation of a 9-1-1 system established under sections 4931.40 to 4931.70 of the Revised Code.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in section 4765.49 of the Revised Code, an individual who gives emergency instructions through a 9-1-1 system established under sections 4931.40 to 4931.70 of the Revised Code, and the principals for whom the person acts, including both employers and independent contractors, public and private, and an individual who follows emergency instructions and the principals for whom that person acts, including both employers and independent contractors, public and private, are not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property arising from the issuance or following of emergency instructions, except where the issuance or following of the instructions constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(C) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a telephone company, and any other installer, maintainer, or provider, through the sale or otherwise, of customer premises equipment, and their respective officers, directors, employees, agents, and suppliers are not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property incurred by any person resulting from such any of the following:

(1) Such an entity's or its officers', directors', employees', agents', or suppliers' participation in or acts or omissions in connection with participating in or developing, maintaining, or operating a 9-1-1 system, whether that system is established pursuant to sections 4931.40 to 4931.70 of the Revised Code or otherwise in accordance with schedules regarding 9-1-1 systems filed with the public utilities commission pursuant to section 4905.30 of the Revised Code by a telephone company that is a wireline service provider;

(2) Such an entity's or its officers', directors', employees', agents', or suppliers' provision of assistance to a public utility, municipal utility, or state or local government as authorized by divisions (F)(4) and (5) of this section.

(D) No person shall knowingly use the telephone number of a 9-1-1 system established under sections 4931.40 to 4931.70 of the Revised Code to report an emergency if the person knows that no emergency exists.

(E) No person shall knowingly use a 9-1-1 system for a purpose other than obtaining emergency service.

(F) No person shall disclose or use any information concerning telephone numbers, addresses, or names obtained from the data base that serves the public safety answering point of a 9-1-1 system established under sections 4931.40 to 4931.70 of the Revised Code, except for any of the following purposes or under any of the following circumstances:

(1) For the purpose of the 9-1-1 system;

(2) For the purpose of responding to an emergency call to an emergency service provider;

(3) In the circumstance of the inadvertent disclosure of such information due solely to technology of the wireline telephone network portion of the 9-1-1 system not allowing access to the data base to be restricted to 9-1-1 specific answering lines at a public safety answering point;

(4) In the circumstance of assistance access to a data base being given by a telephone company that is a wireline service provider to a public utility or municipal utility in handling customer calls in times of public emergency or service outages. The charge, terms, and conditions for the disclosure or use of such information for the purpose of such assistance access to a data base shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the public utilities commission.

(5) In the circumstance of access to a data base given by a telephone company that is a wireline service provider to a state and local government in warning of a public emergency, as determined by the public utilities commission. The charge, terms, and conditions for the disclosure or use of that information for the purpose of access to a data base is subject to the jurisdiction of the public utilities commission.

Sec. 5502.011. (A) As used in this section, "department of public safety" and "department" include all divisions within the department of public safety.

(B) The director of the department of public safety is the chief executive and administrative officer of the department. The director may establish policies governing the department, the performance of its employees and officers, the conduct of its business, and the custody, use, and preservation of departmental records, papers, books, documents, and property. The director also may authorize and approve investigations to be conducted by any of the department's divisions. Whenever the Revised Code imposes a duty upon or requires an action of the department, the director may perform the action or duty in the name of the department or direct such performance to be performed by the director's designee.

(C) In addition to any other duties enumerated in the Revised Code, the director or the director's designee shall do all of the following:

(1) Administer and direct the performance of the duties of the department;

(2) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, approve, adopt, and prescribe such forms and rules as are necessary to carry out the duties of the department;

(3) On behalf of the department and in addition to any authority the Revised Code otherwise grants to the department, have the authority and responsibility for approving and entering into contracts, agreements, and other business arrangements;

(4) Make appointments for the department as needed to comply with requirements of the Revised Code;

(5) Approve employment actions of the department, including appointments, promotions, discipline, investigations, and terminations;

(6) Accept, hold, and use, for the benefit of the department, any gift, donation, bequest, or devise, and may agree to and perform all conditions of the gift, donation, bequest, or devise, that are not contrary to law;

(7) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out this chapter.

(D)(1) The director of public safety may assess a reasonable fee, plus the amount of any charge or fee passed on from a financial institution, on a drawer or indorser for each of the following:

(a) A check, draft, or money order that is returned or dishonored;

(b) An automatic bank transfer that is declined, due to insufficient funds or for any other reason;

(c) Any financial transaction device that is returned or dishonored for any reason.

(2) The director shall deposit any fee collected under this division in an appropriate fund as determined by the director based on the tax, fee, or fine being paid.

(3) As used in this division, "financial transaction device" has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.

(E) The director shall establish a homeland security advisory council to advise the director on homeland security, including homeland security funding efforts. The advisory council shall include, but not be limited to, state and local government officials who have homeland security or emergency management responsibilities and who represent first responders. The director shall appoint the members of the council, who shall serve without compensation.

(F) The director of public safety shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as required by section 2909.28 of the Revised Code and division (A)(1) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code. The director shall adopt rules as required by division (D) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code, division (E) of section 2909.33 of the Revised Code, and division (D) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code. The director may adopt rules pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code, division (A)(2) of section 2909.33 of the Revised Code, and division (A)(2) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5502.03. (A) There is hereby created in the department of public safety a division of homeland security. It is the intent of the general assembly that the creation of the division of homeland security of the department of public safety by this amendment does not result in an increase of funding appropriated to the department.

(B)(1) The division shall coordinate do all of the following:

(1) Coordinate all homeland security activities of all state agencies and shall be the liaison between state agencies and local entities for the purposes of communicating homeland security funding and policy initiatives;

(2) Collect, analyze, maintain, and disseminate information to support local, state, and federal law enforcement agencies, other government agencies, and private organizations in detecting, deterring, preventing, preparing for, responding to, and recovering from threatened or actual terrorist events. This information is not a public record pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(3) Coordinate efforts of state and local governments and private organizations to enhance the security and protection of critical infrastructure and key assets in this state;

(4) Develop and coordinate policies, protocols, and strategies that may be used to prevent, detect, prepare for, respond to, and recover from terrorist acts or threats;

(5) Develop, update, and coordinate the implementation of an Ohio homeland security strategic plan that will guide state and local governments in the achievement of homeland security in this state.

(C) The director of public safety shall appoint an executive director, who shall be head of the division of homeland security and who regularly shall advise the governor and the director on matters pertaining to homeland security. The executive director shall serve at the pleasure of the director of public safety. To carry out the duties assigned under this section, the executive director, subject to the direction and control of the director of public safety, may appoint and maintain necessary staff and may enter into any necessary agreements.

(D) Except as otherwise provided by law, nothing in this section shall be construed to give the director of public safety or the executive director of the division of homeland security authority over the incident management structure or responsibilities of local emergency response personnel.

Sec. 5502.28. (A) In carrying out sections 5502.21 to 5502.51 of the Revised Code, the governor shall utilize the services, equipment, supplies, and facilities of existing agencies of the state and of political subdivisions to the maximum extent practicable, and the officers and personnel of all such agencies shall cooperate with and extend such services, equipment, supplies, and facilities to the governor and to the executive director of the emergency management agency upon request.

(B) Every agency for emergency management established pursuant to sections 5502.21 to 5502.51 of the Revised Code and every political subdivision that has established a program for emergency management under section 5502.271 of the Revised Code, and the officers thereof, shall execute and enforce any emergency management orders and rules issued or adopted by the director of public safety.

(C) The national incident management system (NIMS) is hereby adopted as the standard procedure for incident management in this state. All departments, agencies, and political subdivisions within the state shall utilize the system for incident management.

Sec. 5502.41.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Countywide emergency management agency" means a countywide emergency management agency established under section 5502.26 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Participating political subdivision" means each political subdivision in this state except a political subdivision that enacts, by appropriate legislation signed by its chief executive, a declaration not to participate in the intrastate mutual aid program created by this section and that provides a copy of the legislation to the emergency management agency and to the countywide emergency management agency, regional authority for emergency management, or program for emergency management within the political subdivision, which is responsible for emergency management in the political subdivision.

(3) "Program for emergency management within a political subdivision" means a program for emergency management created by a political subdivision under section 5502.271 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Regional authority for emergency management" means a regional authority for emergency management established under section 5502.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) There is hereby created the intrastate mutual aid program to be known as "the intrastate mutual aid compact" to complement existing mutual aid agreements in the event of a disaster that results in a formal declaration of emergency by a participating political subdivision. The program shall provide for mutual assistance among the participating political subdivisions in response to and recovery from any disaster that results in a formal declaration of emergency by a participating political subdivision; shall provide for mutual cooperation among the participating political subdivisions in conducting disaster-related exercises, testing, or other training activities using the services, equipment, supplies, materials, personnel, and other resources of the participating political subdivisions to simulate the provision of mutual aid; and shall embody a method by which a participating political subdivision may seek assistance in the event of a formally declared emergency, which resolves many of the common issues facing political subdivisions at the time of a formally declared emergency and will ensure, to the extent possible, eligibility for available state and federal disaster funding.

(C) Each countywide emergency management agency, regional authority for emergency management, and program for emergency management within a political subdivision, which is responsible for emergency management in a participating political subdivision shall, as part of its program for emergency management under sections 5502.22, 5502.26, 5502.27, and 5502.271 of the Revised Code, as applicable, and in coordination with all departments, divisions, boards, commissions, agencies, and other instrumentalities of, and having emergency response functions within, each participating political subdivision served by that agency, authority, or program, establish procedures or plans that, to the extent possible, accomplish both of the following:

(1) Identify hazards that potentially could affect the participating political subdivisions served by that agency, authority, or program;

(2) Identify and inventory the current services, equipment, supplies, personnel, and other resources related to response and recovery activities of the participating political subdivisions served by that agency, authority, or program.

(D)(1) Within one year after the effective date of this section December 23, 2002, the executive director of the emergency management agency shall coordinate with the countywide emergency management agencies, regional authorities for emergency management, and programs for emergency management within a political subdivision, which are responsible for emergency management in participating political subdivisions, in identifying and formulating appropriate procedures or plans to resolve resource shortfalls, as part of their respective programs for emergency management under sections 5502.22, 5502.26, 5502.27, and 5502.271 of the Revised Code, as applicable.

(2) During and after the formulation of the procedures or plans to resolve resource shortfalls, there shall be ongoing consultation and coordination among the executive director of the emergency management agency; the countywide emergency management agencies, regional authorities for emergency management, and programs for emergency management within a political subdivision, which are responsible for emergency management in participating political subdivisions; and all departments, divisions, boards, commissions, agencies, and other instrumentalities of, and having emergency response functions within, each participating political subdivision, regarding this section, local procedures and plans, and the resolution of the resource shortfalls.

(E) Participating political subdivisions may request assistance of other participating political subdivisions in response to and recovery from a disaster during formally declared emergencies or in disaster-related exercises, testing, or other training activities. Requests for assistance shall be made through the emergency management agency or an official designated by the chief executive of the participating political subdivision from which the assistance is requested. Requests may be verbal or in writing. If verbal, the request shall be confirmed in writing within seventy-two hours after the verbal request is made. Requests shall provide the following information:

(1) A description of the disaster;

(2) A description of the assistance needed;

(3) An estimate of the length of time the assistance will be needed;

(4) The specific place and time for staging of the assistance and a point of contact at that location.

(F) A participating political subdivision's obligation to provide assistance in response to and recovery from a disaster or in disaster-related exercises, testing, or other training activities under this section is subject to the following conditions:

(1) A participating political subdivision requesting assistance must have either declared a state of emergency by resolution of its chief executive or scheduled disaster-related exercises, testing, or other training activities.

(2) A responding participating political subdivision may withhold resources necessary to provide for its own protection.

(3) Personnel of a responding participating political subdivision shall continue under their local command and control structure, but shall be under the operational control of the appropriate officials within the incident management system of the participating political subdivision receiving assistance.

(4) Responding law enforcement officers acting pursuant to this section have the same authority to enforce the law as when acting within the territory of their regular employment.

(G)(1) Nothing in this section alters the duties and responsibilities of emergency response personnel.

(2) This section does not preclude a participating political subdivision from entering into a mutual aid or other agreement with another political subdivision, and does not affect any other agreement to which a participating political subdivision may be a party, or any request for assistance that may be made, under any other section of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, any mutual aid arrangement under this chapter, any fire protection or emergency medical services contract under section 9.60 of the Revised Code, sheriffs' requests for assistance to preserve the public peace and protect persons and property under section 311.07 of the Revised Code, agreements for mutual aid in police protection under section 737.04 of the Revised Code, and mutual aid agreements among emergency planning districts for hazardous substances or chemicals response under sections 3750.02 and 3750.03 of the Revised Code.

(H)(1) Personnel of a responding participating political subdivision who suffer injury or death in the course of, and arising out of, their employment while rendering assistance to another participating political subdivision under this section are entitled to all applicable benefits under Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code.

(2) Personnel of a responding participating political subdivision shall be considered, while rendering assistance in another participating political subdivision under this section, to be agents of the participating political subdivision receiving the assistance for purposes of tort liability and immunity from tort liability under the law of this state.

(3)(a) A responding participating political subdivision and the personnel of that political subdivision, while rendering assistance, or while in route to or from rendering assistance, in another participating political subdivision under this section, shall be deemed to be exercising governmental functions as defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code, shall have the defenses to and immunities from civil liability provided in sections 2744.02 and 2744.03 of the Revised Code, and shall be entitled to all applicable limitations on recoverable damages under section 2744.05 of the Revised Code.

(b) A participating political subdivision requesting assistance and the personnel of that political subdivision, while requesting or receiving assistance from any other participating political subdivisions under this section, shall be deemed to be exercising governmental functions as defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code, shall have the defenses to and immunities from civil liability provided in sections 2744.02 and 2744.03 of the Revised Code, and shall be entitled to all applicable limitations on recoverable damages under section 2744.05 of the Revised Code.

(I) If a person holds a license, certificate, or other permit issued by a participating political subdivision evidencing qualification in a professional, mechanical, or other skill, and if the assistance of that person is asked for by a participating political subdivision receiving assistance under this section, the person shall be deemed to be licensed or certified in or permitted by the participating political subdivision receiving the assistance to render the assistance, subject to any limitations and conditions the chief executive of the participating political subdivision receiving the assistance may prescribe by executive order or otherwise.

(J) Except as otherwise provided in this division, any participating political subdivision rendering assistance in another participating political subdivision under this section shall be reimbursed by the participating political subdivision receiving the assistance for any loss or damage to, or expense incurred in the operation of, any equipment used in rendering the assistance, for any expense incurred in the provision of any service used in rendering the assistance, and for all other costs incurred in responding to the request for assistance. However, a participating political subdivision rendering assistance may assume in whole or in part the loss, damage, expense, or costs, or may loan the equipment or donate the service to the participating political subdivision receiving the assistance without charge or cost; any two or more participating political subdivisions may enter into agreements establishing a different allocation of loss, damage, expense, or costs among themselves; and expenses incurred under division (H)(1) of this section are not reimbursable under this division. To avoid duplication of payments, insurance proceeds available to cover any loss or damage to equipment of a participating political subdivision rendering assistance shall be considered in the reimbursement by the participating political subdivision receiving the assistance.

SECTION 2. That existing sections 121.40, 2901.13, 2909.21, 2923.31, 2933.51, 3701.04, 4505.02, 4507.08, 4561.17, 4561.18, 4561.22, 4931.45, 4931.49, 5502.011, 5502.03, 5502.28, and 5502.41 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

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