130th Ohio General Assembly
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Sub. S. B. No. 301  As Enrolled
(129th General Assembly)
(Substitute Senate Bill Number 301)



AN ACT
To amend sections 3719.41, 4715.033, 4715.034, 4715.30, 4715.301, 4715.302, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4729.162, 4729.291, 4729.51, 4729.552, 4729.57, 4729.79, 4729.80, 4729.86, 4730.53, 4731.054, 4731.055, 4731.22, and 4731.39 of the Revised Code regarding enforcement powers of certain health care professional licensing boards, regulation of pain management clinics, limits on prescriber-furnished controlled substances, and classifications of certain controlled substances.

Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the State of Ohio:

SECTION 1.  That sections 3719.41, 4715.033, 4715.034, 4715.30, 4715.301, 4715.302, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4729.162, 4729.291, 4729.51, 4729.552, 4729.57, 4729.79, 4729.80, 4729.86, 4730.53, 4731.054, 4731.055, 4731.22, and 4731.39 of the Revised Code be amended to read as follows:

Sec. 3719.41.  Controlled substance schedules I, II, III, IV, and V are hereby established, which schedules include the following, subject to amendment pursuant to section 3719.43 or 3719.44 of the Revised Code.

SCHEDULE I

(A) Narcotics-opiates

Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);

(2) Acetylmethadol;

(3) Allylprodine;

(4) Alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

(5) Alphameprodine;

(6) Alphamethadol;

(7) Alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl] propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine);

(8) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N- phenylpropanamide);

(9) Benzethidine;

(10) Betacetylmethadol;

(11) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N- phenylpropanamide);

(12) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name: N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-N- phenylpropanamide);

(13) Betameprodine;

(14) Betamethadol;

(15) Betaprodine;

(16) Clonitazene;

(17) Dextromoramide;

(18) Diampromide;

(19) Diethylthiambutene;

(20) Difenoxin;

(21) Dimenoxadol;

(22) Dimepheptanol;

(23) Dimethylthiambutene;

(24) Dioxaphetyl butyrate;

(25) Dipipanone;

(26) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(27) Etonitazene;

(28) Etoxeridine;

(29) Furethidine;

(30) Hydroxypethidine;

(31) Ketobemidone;

(32) Levomoramide;

(33) Levophenacylmorphan;

(34) 3-methylfentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N- phenylpropanamide);

(35) 3-methylthiofentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-[2-(thienyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl]-N- phenylpropanamide);

(36) Morpheridine;

(37) MPPP (1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine);

(38) Noracymethadol;

(39) Norlevorphanol;

(40) Normethadone;

(41) Norpipanone;

(42) Para-fluorofentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]propanamide;

(43) PEPAP (1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine;

(44) Phenadoxone;

(45) Phenampromide;

(46) Phenomorphan;

(47) Phenoperidine;

(48) Piritramide;

(49) Proheptazine;

(50) Properidine;

(51) Propiram;

(52) Racemoramide;

(53) Thiofentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide;

(54) Tilidine;

(55) Trimeperidine.

(B) Narcotics-opium derivatives

Any of the following opium derivatives, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetorphine;

(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) Benzylmorphine;

(4) Codeine methylbromide;

(5) Codeine-n-oxide;

(6) Cyprenorphine;

(7) Desomorphine;

(8) Dihydromorphine;

(9) Drotebanol;

(10) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);

(11) Heroin;

(12) Hydromorphinol;

(13) Methyldesorphine;

(14) Methyldihydromorphine;

(15) Morphine methylbromide;

(16) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(17) Morphine-n-oxide;

(18) Myrophine;

(19) Nicocodeine;

(20) Nicomorphine;

(21) Normorphine;

(22) Pholcodine;

(23) Thebacon.

(C) Hallucinogens

Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation. For the purposes of this division only, "isomer" includes the optical isomers, position isomers, and geometric isomers.

(1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: etryptamine; Monase; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; alpha-ET; and AET);

(2) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methyphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

(3) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B, Nexus);

(4) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

(5) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine (some trade or other names: DOET);

(6) 4-methoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

(7) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;

(8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine (some trade or other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; "DOM" and "STP");

(9) 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;

(10) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(11) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, MDEA);

(12) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);

(13) 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine;

(14) Bufotenine (some trade or other names: 3-(beta-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N, N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine);

(15) Diethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: N, N-diethyltryptamine; DET);

(16) Dimethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: DMT);

(17) Ibogaine (some trade or other names: 7-ethyl-6,6beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano- 5H-pyrido[1',2':1,2] azepino [5, 4-b] indole; tabernanthe iboga);

(18) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(19) Marihuana;

(20) Mescaline;

(21) Parahexyl (some trade or other names: 3-hexyl-1- hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran; synhexyl);

(22) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as "Lophophora williamsii Lemaire," whether growing or not, the seeds of that plant, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds, or its extracts);

(23) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(24) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(25) Psilocybin;

(26) Psilocyn;

(27) Tetrahydrocannabinols (synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the plant, or in the resinous extractives of Cannabis, sp. and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity such as the following: delta-1-cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers; delta-6-cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers; delta-3,4-cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers. (Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions, are covered.));

(28) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine; (1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine; N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine; cyclohexamine; PCE);

(29) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)pyrrolidine; PCPy; PHP);

(30) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);

(31) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine;

(32) Hashish;

(33) Salvia divinorum;

(34) Salvinorin A;

(35) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (some trade or other names: JWH-018);

(36) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (some trade or other names: JWH-073);

(37) 1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (some trade or other names: JWH-200);

(38) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (some trade or other names: CP-47,497);

(39) 5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (some trade or other names: cannabicyclohexanol; CP-47,497 C8 homologue);

(40) Methylone (3,4-methylenedioxymethcathinone);

(41) MDPV (3,4-methyenedioxypyrovalerone);

(42) Mephedrone (4-methylmethcathinone);

(43) 4-methoxymethcathinone;

(44) 4-fluoromethcathinone;

(45) 3-fluoromethcathinone.

(D) Depressants

Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Mecloqualone;

(2) Methaqualone.

(E) Stimulants

Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) Aminorex (some other names: aminoxaphen; 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; or 4,5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

(2) Cathinone (some trade or other names: 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone, alpha-aminopropiophenone, 2-aminopropiophenone, and norephedrone);

(3) Fenethylline;

(4) Methcathinone (some other names: 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone; alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; 2-methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one; alpha-N-methylaminopropiophenone; monomethylpropion; ephedrone; N-methylcathinone; methylcathinone; AL-464; AL-422; AL-463; and UR1432, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(5) (+/-)cis-4-methylaminorex ((+/-)cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

(6) N-ethylamphetamine;

(7) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine; N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);

(8) Methylone (3,4-methylenedioxymethcathinone);

(9) MDPV (3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone);

(10) Mephedrone (4-methylmethcathinone);

(11) 4-methoxymethcathinone;

(12) 4-fluoromethcathinone;

(13) 3-fluoromethcathinone.

SCHEDULE II

(A) Narcotics-opium and opium derivatives

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, thebaine-derived butorphanol, dextrorphan, nalbuphine, nalmefene, naloxone, and naltrexone, and their respective salts, but including the following:

(a) Raw opium;

(b) Opium extracts;

(c) Opium fluid extracts;

(d) Powdered opium;

(e) Granulated opium;

(f) Tincture of opium;

(g) Codeine;

(h) Ethylmorphine;

(i) Etorphine hydrochloride;

(j) Hydrocodone;

(k) Hydromorphone;

(l) Metopon;

(m) Morphine;

(n) Oxycodone;

(o) Oxymorphone;

(p) Thebaine.

(2) Any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof that is chemically equivalent to or identical with any of the substances referred to in division (A)(1) of this schedule, except that these substances shall not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(3) Opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves (including cocaine and ecgonine, their salts, isomers, and derivatives, and salts of those isomers and derivatives), and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof that is chemically equivalent to or identical with any of these substances, except that the substances shall not include decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves, which extractions do not contain cocaine or ecgonine;

(5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid, or powder form that contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy).

(B) Narcotics-opiates

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, but excluding dextrorphan and levopropoxyphene:

(1) Alfentanil;

(2) Alphaprodine;

(3) Anileridine;

(4) Bezitramide;

(5) Bulk dextropropoxyphene (non-dosage forms);

(6) Carfentanil;

(7) Dihydrocodeine;

(8) Diphenoxylate;

(9) Fentanyl;

(10) Isomethadone;

(11) Levo-alphacetylmethadol (some other names: levo-alpha-acetylmethadol; levomethadyl acetate; LAAM);

(12) Levomethorphan;

(13) Levorphanol;

(14) Metazocine;

(15) Methadone;

(16) Methadone-intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4,4-diphenyl butane;

(17) Moramide-intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1,1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic acid;

(18) Pethidine (meperidine);

(19) Pethidine-intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine;

(20) Pethidine-intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate;

(21) Pethidine-intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid;

(22) Phenazocine;

(23) Piminodine;

(24) Racemethorphan;

(25) Racemorphan;

(26) Remifentanil;

(27) Sufentanil.

(C) Stimulants

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Amphetamine, its salts, its optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers;

(2) Methamphetamine, its salts, its isomers, and salts of its isomers;

(3) Methylphenidate;

(4) Phenmetrazine and its salts.

(D) Depressants

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Amobarbital;

(2) Gamma-hydroxy-butyrate;

(3) Glutethimide;

(4) Pentobarbital;

(5) Phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)piperidine; PCP);

(6) Secobarbital;

(7) 1-aminophenylcyclohexane and all N-mono-substituted and/or all N-N-disubstituted analogs including, but not limited to, the following:

(a) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine;

(b) (1-phenylcyclohexyl) methylamine;

(c) (1-phenylcyclohexyl) dimethylamine;

(d) (1-phenylcyclohexyl) methylethylamine;

(e) (1-phenylcyclohexyl) isopropylamine;

(f) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) morpholine.

(E) Hallucinogenic substances

(1) Nabilone (another name for nabilone: (+)-trans-3-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-6,6a,7,8,10,10a-hexahydro-1- hydroxy-6,6-dimethyl-9H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran-9-one).

(F) Immediate precursors

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine:

(a) Phenylacetone (some trade or other names: phenyl-2-propanone; P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; methyl benzyl ketone);

(2) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine (PCP):

(a) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine;

(b) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC).

SCHEDULE III

(A) Stimulants

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, their optical isomers, position isomers, or geometric isomers, and salts of these isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) All stimulant compounds, mixtures, and preparations included in schedule III pursuant to the federal drug abuse control laws and regulations adopted under those laws;

(2) Benzphetamine;

(3) Chlorphentermine;

(4) Clortermine;

(5) Phendimetrazine.

(B) Depressants

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital, or any salt of any of these drugs, and one or more other active medicinal ingredients that are not listed in any schedule;

(2) Any suppository dosage form containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital, or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the food and drug administration for marketing only as a suppository;

(3) Any substance that contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or any salt of a derivative of barbituric acid;

(4) Chlorhexadol;

(5) Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (some other names for ketamine: (+/-)-2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone);

(6) Lysergic acid;

(7) Lysergic acid amide;

(8) Methyprylon;

(9) Sulfondiethylmethane;

(10) Sulfonethylmethane;

(11) Sulfonmethane;

(12) Tiletamine, zolazepam, or any salt of tiletamine or zolazepam (some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam combination product: Telazol); (some trade or other names for tiletamine: 2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone); (some trade or other names for zolazepam: 4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8- dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-[3, 4-e][1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one; flupyrazapon).

(C) Narcotic antidotes

(1) Nalorphine.

(D) Narcotics-narcotic preparations

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:

(1) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(2) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(3) Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(4) Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(5) Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(6) Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(7) Not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(8) Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(E) Anabolic steroids

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances, including their salts, esters, isomers, and salts of esters and isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, esters, and isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Anabolic steroids. Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(1) of schedule III, "anabolic steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance that is chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, and corticosteroids) and that promotes muscle growth. "Anabolic steroids" does not include an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and that has been approved by the United States secretary of health and human services for that administration, unless a person prescribes, dispenses, or distributes this type of anabolic steroid for human use. "Anabolic steroid" includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a) Boldenone;

(b) Chlorotestosterone (4-chlortestosterone);

(c) Clostebol;

(d) Dehydrochlormethyltestosterone;

(e) Dihydrotestosterone (4-dihydrotestosterone);

(f) Drostanolone;

(g) Ethylestrenol;

(h) Fluoxymesterone;

(i) Formebulone (formebolone);

(j) Mesterolone;

(k) Methandienone;

(l) Methandranone;

(m) Methandriol;

(n) Methandrostenolone;

(o) Methenolone;

(p) Methyltestosterone;

(q) Mibolerone;

(r) Nandrolone;

(s) Norethandrolone;

(t) Oxandrolone;

(u) Oxymesterone;

(v) Oxymetholone;

(w) Stanolone;

(x) Stanozolol;

(y) Testolactone;

(z) Testosterone;

(aa) Trenbolone;

(bb) Any salt, ester, isomer, or salt of an ester or isomer of a drug or hormonal substance described or listed in division (E)(1) of schedule III if the salt, ester, or isomer promotes muscle growth.

(F) Hallucinogenic substances

(1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a United States food and drug administration approved drug product (some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran-1-ol, or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol).

SCHEDULE IV

(A) Narcotic drugs

Unless specifically excepted by federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:

(1) Not more than one milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;

(2) Dextropropoxyphene (alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2- propionoxybutane)[final dosage forms].

(B) Depressants

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Alprazolam;

(2) Barbital;

(3) Bromazepam;

(4) Camazepam;

(5) Chloral betaine;

(6) Chloral hydrate;

(7) Chlordiazepoxide;

(8) Clobazam;

(9) Clonazepam;

(10) Clorazepate;

(11) Clotiazepam;

(12) Cloxazolam;

(13) Delorazepam;

(14) Diazepam;

(15) Estazolam;

(16) Ethchlorvynol;

(17) Ethinamate;

(18) Ethyl loflazepate;

(19) Fludiazepam;

(20) Flunitrazepam;

(21) Flurazepam;

(22) Halazepam;

(23) Haloxazolam;

(24) Ketazolam;

(25) Loprazolam;

(26) Lorazepam;

(27) Lormetazepam;

(28) Mebutamate;

(29) Medazepam;

(30) Meprobamate;

(31) Methohexital;

(32) Methylphenobarbital (mephobarbital);

(33) Midazolam;

(34) Nimetazepam;

(35) Nitrazepam;

(36) Nordiazepam;

(37) Oxazepam;

(38) Oxazolam;

(39) Paraldehyde;

(40) Petrichloral;

(41) Phenobarbital;

(42) Pinazepam;

(43) Prazepam;

(44) Quazepam;

(45) Temazepam;

(46) Tetrazepam;

(47) Triazolam;

(48) Zaleplon;

(49) Zolpidem.

(C) Fenfluramine

Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances, including their salts, their optical isomers, position isomers, or geometric isomers, and salts of these isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Fenfluramine.

(D) Stimulants

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, their optical isomers, position isomers, or geometric isomers, and salts of these isomers, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine);

(2) Diethylpropion;

(3) Fencamfamin;

(4) Fenproporex;

(5) Mazindol;

(6) Mefenorex;

(7) Modafinil;

(8) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof);

(9) Phentermine;

(10) Pipradrol;

(11) Sibutramine;

(12) SPA [(-)-1-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenylethane].

(E) Other substances

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances, including their salts:

(1) Pentazocine;

(2) Butorphanol (including its optical isomers).

SCHEDULE V

(A) Narcotic drugs

Unless specifically excepted under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any of the following narcotic drugs, and their salts, as set forth below:

(1) Buprenorphine.

(B) Narcotics-narcotic preparations

Narcotic drugs containing non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients. Any compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below, and that includes one or more nonnarcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by narcotic drugs alone:

(1) Not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(2) Not more than 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(3) Not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(4) Not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;

(5) Not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;

(6) Not more than 0.5 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.

(C) Stimulants

Unless specifically exempted or excluded under federal drug abuse control laws or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) Ephedrine, except as provided in division (K) of section 3719.44 of the Revised Code;

(2) Pyrovalerone.

Sec. 4715.033.  (A) All subpoenas the state dental board seeks to issue with respect to an investigation shall, subject to division (B) of this section, be authorized by the supervisory investigative panel.

(B) Before the supervisory investigative panel authorizes the board to issue a subpoena, the panel shall consult with the office of the attorney general and determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the information sought pursuant to the subpoena is relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation.

(C)(1) Any subpoena to compel the production of records that the board issues after authorization by the supervisory investigative panel shall pertain to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.

(2)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, the subpoena shall state that the person being subpoenaed has a reasonable period of time that is not less than three seven calendar days to comply with the subpoena.

(b) If the board's secretary determines that the person being subpoenaed represents a clear and immediate danger to the public health and safety, the subpoena shall state that the person being subpoenaed must immediately comply with the subpoena.

(D) On a person's failure to comply with a subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to that person of the failure, the board may move for an order compelling the production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.

Sec. 4715.034.  (A) At any time during an investigation, the supervisory investigative panel may ask to meet with the individual who is the subject of the investigation. At the conclusion of the investigation, the panel shall recommend that the state dental board do one of the following:

(1) Pursue disciplinary action under section 4715.30 of the Revised Code;

(2) Seek an injunction under section 4715.05 of the Revised Code;

(3) Enter into a consent agreement if the subject of the investigation is a licensee;

(4) Refer the individual to the quality intervention program, if that program is developed and implemented under section 4715.031 of the Revised Code and the subject of the investigation is a licensee;

(5) Terminate the investigation.

(B) The supervisory investigative panel's recommendation shall be in writing and specify the reasons for the recommendation. Except as provided in section 4715.035 of the Revised Code, the panel shall make its recommendation not later than one year after the date the panel begins to supervise the investigation or, if the investigation pertains to an alleged violation of division (A)(7)(9) of section 4715.30 of the Revised Code, not later than two years after the panel begins to supervise the investigation.

Once the panel makes its recommendation, the members of the panel shall not participate in any deliberations the board has on the case.

Sec. 4715.30.  (A) An applicant for or holder of a certificate or license issued under this chapter is subject to disciplinary action by the state dental board for any of the following reasons:

(1) Employing or cooperating in fraud or material deception in applying for or obtaining a license or certificate;

(2) Obtaining or attempting to obtain money or anything of value by intentional misrepresentation or material deception in the course of practice;

(3) Advertising services in a false or misleading manner or violating the board's rules governing time, place, and manner of advertising;

(4) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(5) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(4)(6) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, any felony or of a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice or of any felony;

(5)(7) Engaging in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with the provision of dental services;

(6)(8) Selling, prescribing, giving away, or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes, or conviction of violating, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a violation of any law of this state or the federal government or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;

(7)(9) Providing or allowing dental hygienists, expanded function dental auxiliaries, or other practitioners of auxiliary dental occupations working under the certificate or license holder's supervision, or a dentist holding a temporary limited continuing education license under division (C) of section 4715.16 of the Revised Code working under the certificate or license holder's direct supervision, to provide dental care that departs from or fails to conform to accepted standards for the profession, whether or not injury to a patient results;

(8)(10) Inability to practice under accepted standards of the profession because of physical or mental disability, dependence on alcohol or other drugs, or excessive use of alcohol or other drugs;

(9)(11) Violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted thereunder;

(10)(12) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4715.03 of the Revised Code;

(11)(13) Except as provided in division (H) of this section, either of the following:

(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that provider certificate or license holder;

(12)(b) Advertising that the certificate or license holder will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would otherwise be required to pay;.

(13)(14) Failure to comply with section 4729.79 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;

(15) Any of the following actions taken by an agency responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;

(16) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue.

(B) A manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a dental facility shall be subject to disciplinary action if any dentist, dental hygienist, expanded function dental auxiliary, or qualified personnel providing services in the facility is found to have committed a violation listed in division (A) of this section and the manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor knew of the violation and permitted it to occur on a recurring basis.

(C) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board may take one or more of the following disciplinary actions if one or more of the grounds for discipline listed in divisions (A) and (B) of this section exist:

(1) Censure the license or certificate holder;

(2) Place the license or certificate on probationary status for such period of time the board determines necessary and require the holder to:

(a) Report regularly to the board upon the matters which are the basis of probation;

(b) Limit practice to those areas specified by the board;

(c) Continue or renew professional education until a satisfactory degree of knowledge or clinical competency has been attained in specified areas.

(3) Suspend the certificate or license;

(4) Revoke the certificate or license.

Where the board places a holder of a license or certificate on probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the board may subsequently suspend or revoke the license or certificate if it determines that the holder has not met the requirements of the probation or continues to engage in activities that constitute grounds for discipline pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section.

Any order suspending a license or certificate shall state the conditions under which the license or certificate will be restored, which may include a conditional restoration during which time the holder is in a probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section. The board shall restore the license or certificate unconditionally when such conditions are met.

(D) If the physical or mental condition of an applicant or a license or certificate holder is at issue in a disciplinary proceeding, the board may order the license or certificate holder to submit to reasonable examinations by an individual designated or approved by the board and at the board's expense. The physical examination may be conducted by any individual authorized by the Revised Code to do so, including a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife. Any written documentation of the physical examination shall be completed by the individual who conducted the examination.

Failure to comply with an order for an examination shall be grounds for refusal of a license or certificate or summary suspension of a license or certificate under division (E) of this section.

(E) If the board has reason to believe that a license or certificate holder represents a clear and immediate danger to the public health and safety if the holder is allowed to continue to practice, or if the holder has failed to comply with an order under division (D) of this section, the board may apply to the court of common pleas of the county in which the holder resides for an order temporarily suspending the holder's license or certificate, without a prior hearing being afforded by the board, until the board conducts an adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the court temporarily suspends a holder's license or certificate, the board shall give written notice of the suspension personally or by certified mail to the license or certificate holder. Such notice shall include specific facts and reasons for finding a clear and immediate danger to the public health and safety and shall inform the license or certificate holder of the right to a hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(F) Any holder of a certificate or license issued under this chapter who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction entered against the holder in this state for aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary, or who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction entered against the holder in another jurisdiction for any substantially equivalent criminal offense, is automatically suspended from practice under this chapter in this state and any certificate or license issued to the holder under this chapter is automatically suspended, as of the date of the guilty plea, conviction, or judicial finding, whether the proceedings are brought in this state or another jurisdiction. Continued practice by an individual after the suspension of the individual's certificate or license under this division shall be considered practicing without a certificate or license. The board shall notify the suspended individual of the suspension of the individual's certificate or license under this division by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate or license is suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudicatory hearing, the board shall enter a final order revoking the individual's certificate or license.

(G) Notwithstanding divisions (A)(11) and (12) of this section, sanctions If the supervisory investigative panel determines both of the following, the panel may recommend that the board suspend an individual's certificate or license without a prior hearing:

(1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an individual has violated division (A) of this section;

(2) That the individual's continued practice presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.

Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than four dentist members of the board and seven of its members in total, excluding any member on the supervisory investigative panel, may suspend a certificate or license without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.

The board shall issue a written order of suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency or any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.

Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.

(H) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(13) of this section against any licensee certificate or license holder who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:

(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Such Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.

(2) For professional services rendered to any other person licensed who holds a certificate or license issued pursuant to this chapter to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board.

(H)(I) In no event shall the board consider or raise during a hearing required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code the circumstances of, or the fact that the board has received, one or more complaints about a person unless the one or more complaints are the subject of the hearing or resulted in the board taking an action authorized by this section against the person on a prior occasion.

(J) The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state dental board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state dental board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.

Sec. 4715.301.  The state dental board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing standards for approving and designating physicians and facilities as treatment providers for dentists or dental hygienists with substance abuse problems and shall approve and designate treatment providers in accordance with the rules. The rules shall include standards for both inpatient and outpatient treatment. The rules shall provide that to be approved, a treatment provider must be capable of making an initial examination to determine the type of treatment required for a dentist or dental hygienist with substance abuse problems. Subject to the rules, the board shall review and approve treatment providers on a regular basis and may, at its discretion, withdraw or deny approval.

An approved treatment provider shall:

(A) Report to the board the name of any dentist or dental hygienist suffering or showing evidence of suffering inability to practice under accepted standards as described in division (A)(8)(10) of section 4715.30 of the Revised Code who fails to comply within one week with a referral for examination;

(B) Report to the board the name of any impaired dentist or dental hygienist who fails to enter treatment within forty-eight hours following the provider's determination that treatment is needed;

(C) Require every dentist or dental hygienist who enters treatment to agree to a treatment contract establishing the terms of treatment and aftercare, including any required supervision or restrictions of practice during treatment or aftercare;

(D) Require a dentist or dental hygienist to suspend practice on entering any required inpatient treatment;

(E) Report to the board any failure by an impaired dentist or dental hygienist to comply with the terms of the treatment contract during inpatient or outpatient treatment or aftercare;

(F) Report to the board the resumption of practice of any impaired dentist or dental hygienist before the treatment provider has made a clear determination that the individual is capable of practicing according to accepted standards of the profession;

(G) Require a dentist or dental hygienist who resumes practice after completion of treatment to comply with an aftercare contract that meets the requirements of rules adopted by the board for approval of treatment providers;

(H) Report to the board any dentist or dental hygienist who suffers a relapse at any time during or following aftercare.

Any dentist or dental hygienist who enters into treatment by an approved treatment provider shall be deemed to have waived any confidentiality requirements that would otherwise prevent the treatment provider from making reports required under this section.

In the absence of fraud or bad faith, no professional association of dentists or dental hygienists licensed under this chapter that sponsors a committee or program to provide peer assistance to dentists or dental hygienists with substance abuse problems, no representative or agent of such a committee or program, and no member of the state dental board shall be liable to any person for damages in a civil action by reason of actions taken to refer a dentist or dental hygienist to a treatment provider designated by the board or actions or omissions of the provider in treating a dentist or dental hygienist.

In the absence of fraud or bad faith, no person who reports to the board a dentist or dental hygienist with a suspected substance abuse problem shall be liable to any person for damages in a civil action as a result of making the report.

Sec. 4715.302. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(B) The state dental board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a dentist regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code.

(C) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.

Sec. 4723.487. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(B) The board of nursing shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by an advanced practice nurse with a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code.

(C) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.

Sec. 4725.092. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(B) The state board of optometry shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by an optometrist who holds a therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code.

(C) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.

Sec. 4729.162. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(B) The state board of pharmacy shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a pharmacist regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(6) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code.

(C) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the board no longer maintains the drug database.

Sec. 4729.291.  (A) When a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs personally furnishes drugs to a patient pursuant to division (B) of section 4729.29 of the Revised Code, the prescriber shall ensure that the drugs are labeled and packaged in accordance with state and federal drug laws and any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to those laws. Records of purchase and disposition of all drugs personally furnished to patients shall be maintained by the prescriber in accordance with state and federal drug statutes and any rules adopted pursuant to those statutes.

(B) When personally furnishing to a patient RU-486 (mifepristone), a prescriber is subject to section 2919.123 of the Revised Code. A prescription for RU-486 (mifepristone) shall be in writing and in accordance with section 2919.123 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(D) of this section, a prescriber may not do either of the following:

(a) In any thirty-day period, personally furnish to all or for patients, taken as a whole, controlled substances in an amount that exceeds a total of two thousand five hundred dosage units;

(b) In any seventy-two-hour period, personally furnish to or for a patient an amount of a controlled substance that exceeds the amount necessary for the patient's use in a seventy-two-hour period.

(2) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to either of the following:

(a) A veterinarian;

(b) The amount of any methadone personally furnished to a patient by a prescriber for the purpose of treating drug addiction.

(3) The state board of pharmacy may impose a fine of not more than five thousand dollars on a prescriber who fails to comply with the limits established under division (C)(1) of this section. A separate fine may be imposed for each instance of failing to comply with the limits. In imposing the fine, the board's actions shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(D)(1) None of the following shall be counted in determining whether the amounts specified in division (C)(1) of this section have been exceeded:

(a) Methadone provided to patients for the purpose of treating drug addiction, if the prescriber meets the conditions specified in 21 C.F.R. 1306.07;

(b) Buprenorphine provided to patients for the purpose of treating drug addiction, if the prescriber is exempt from separate registration with the United States drug enforcement administration pursuant to 21 C.F.R. 1301.28;

(c) Controlled substances provided to research subjects by a facility conducting clinical research in studies approved by a hospital-based institutional review board or an institutional review board accredited by the association for the accreditation of human research protection programs.

(2) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to a prescriber who is a veterinarian.

Sec. 4729.51.  (A) No person other than a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess for sale, sell, distribute, or deliver, at wholesale, dangerous drugs, except as follows:

(1) A pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs may make occasional sales of dangerous drugs at wholesale;

(2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having more than one establishment or place may transfer or deliver dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or delivery.

(B)(1) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to any person other than the following:

(a) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(2)(a) of this section, a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;

(b) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code who holds a topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate;

(c) A registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs;

(d) A manufacturer of dangerous drugs;

(e) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;

(f) Carriers or warehouses for the purpose of carriage or storage;

(g) Terminal or wholesale distributors of dangerous drugs who are not engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs within this state;

(h) An individual who holds a current license, certificate, or registration issued under Title 47 of the Revised Code and has been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only with respect to insulin that will be used for the purpose of diabetes education and only if diabetes education is within the individual's scope of practice under statutes and rules regulating the individual's profession;

(i) An individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only with respect to medical oxygen that will be used for the purpose of emergency care or treatment at the scene of a diving emergency;

(j) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, or a professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code if the entity has a sole shareholder who is a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs and is authorized to provide the professional services being offered by the entity;

(k) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, a partnership or a limited liability partnership formed under Chapter 1775. of the Revised Code, or a professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code, if, to be a shareholder, member, or partner, an individual is required to be licensed, certified, or otherwise legally authorized under Title XLVII of the Revised Code to perform the professional service provided by the entity and each such individual is a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.

(2) No registered wholesaler wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to any of the following:

(a) A prescriber who is employed by a pain management clinic that is not licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised Code;

(b) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(j) of this section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised Code;

(c) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(k) of this section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised Code.

(3) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess dangerous drugs for sale at wholesale, or sell such drugs at wholesale, to a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, except as follows:

(a) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category I license, only dangerous drugs described in category I, as defined in division (A)(1) of section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;

(b) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category II license, only dangerous drugs described in category I and category II, as defined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;

(c) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category III license, dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, and category III, as defined in divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;

(d) In the case of a terminal distributor with a limited category I, II, or III license, only the dangerous drugs specified in the certificate furnished by the terminal distributor in accordance with section 4729.60 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no person shall sell, at retail, dangerous drugs.

(2) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no person shall possess for sale, at retail, dangerous drugs.

(3) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no person shall possess dangerous drugs.

(4) Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply to a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or a person who possesses, or possesses for sale or sells, at retail, a dangerous drug in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 4723., 4725., 4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code.

Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply to an individual who holds a current license, certificate, or registration issued under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and has been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent that the individual possesses insulin or personally supplies insulin solely for the purpose of diabetes education and only if diabetes education is within the individual's scope of practice under statutes and rules regulating the individual's profession.

Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply to an individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only to the extent that the individual possesses medical oxygen or personally supplies medical oxygen for the purpose of emergency care or treatment at the scene of a diving emergency.

(D) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall purchase for the purpose of resale dangerous drugs from any person other than a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, except as follows:

(1) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs may make occasional purchases of dangerous drugs for resale from a pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;

(2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having more than one establishment or place may transfer or receive dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or receipt.

(E) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail or maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose other than the distributor's personal use or consumption, at any establishment or place other than that or those described in the license issued by the state board of pharmacy to such terminal distributor.

(F) Nothing in this section shall be construed to interfere with the performance of official duties by any law enforcement official authorized by municipal, county, state, or federal law to collect samples of any drug, regardless of its nature or in whose possession it may be.

Sec. 4729.552. (A) To be eligible to receive a license as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification, an applicant shall submit evidence satisfactory to the state board of pharmacy that the applicant's pain management clinic will be operated in accordance with the requirements specified in division (B) of this section and that the applicant meets any other applicable requirements under of this chapter or Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code.

If the board determines that an applicant meets all of the requirements, the board shall issue to the applicant a license as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs and specify on the license that the terminal distributor is classified as a pain management clinic.

(B) The holder of a terminal distributor license with a pain management clinic classification shall do all of the following:

(1) Be in control of a facility that is owned and operated solely by one or more physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;

(2) Comply with the requirements for the operation of a pain management clinic, as established by the state medical board in rules adopted under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code;

(3) Ensure that any person employed by the facility complies with the requirements for the operation of a pain management clinic established by the state medical board in rules adopted under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code;

(3)(4) Require any person with ownership of the facility to submit to a criminal records check in accordance with section 4776.02 of the Revised Code and send the results of the criminal records check directly to the state board of pharmacy for review and decision under section 4729.071 of the Revised Code;

(4)(5) Require all employees of the facility to submit to a criminal records check in accordance with section 4776.02 of the Revised Code and ensure that no person is employed who has previously been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, either of the following:

(a) A theft offense, described in division (K)(3) of section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, that would constitute a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the United States;

(b) A felony drug abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(5)(6) Maintain a list of each person with ownership of the facility and notify the state board of pharmacy of any change to that list.

(C) No person shall operate a facility that under this chapter is subject to licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification without obtaining and maintaining the license with the classification.

No person who holds a category III license with a pain management clinic classification shall fail to remain in compliance with the requirements of division (A)(B) of this section and any other applicable requirements under of this chapter or Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code.

(D) The state board of pharmacy may impose a fine of not more than five thousand dollars on a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license holder who violates division (C) of this section. A separate fine may be imposed for each day the violation continues. In imposing the fine, the board's actions shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(E) The state board of pharmacy shall adopt rules as it considers necessary to implement and administer this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4729.57.  (A) The state board of pharmacy may suspend, revoke, or refuse to grant or renew any license issued to as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs pursuant to section 4729.54 of the Revised Code, or may impose a monetary penalty or forfeiture not to exceed in severity any fine designated under the Revised Code for a similar offense or one thousand dollars if the acts committed have not been classified as an offense by the Revised Code, for any of the following causes:

(1) Making any false material statements in an application for a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;

(2) Violating any rule of the board;

(3) Violating any provision of this chapter;

(4) Violating any provision of the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, or Chapter 3715. of the Revised Code;

(5) Violating any provision of the federal drug abuse control laws or Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code;

(6) Falsely or fraudulently promoting to the public a dangerous drug, except that nothing in this division prohibits a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs from furnishing information concerning a dangerous drug to a health care provider or another licensed terminal distributor;

(7) Ceasing to satisfy the qualifications of a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs set forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code;

(8) Except as provided in division (B) of this section:

(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that an individual, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the services provided by a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, would otherwise be required to pay for the services if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive pharmacy services from that terminal distributor;

(b) Advertising that the terminal distributor will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that an individual, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the pharmaceutical services, would otherwise be required to pay for the services.

(B) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(8) of this section against any terminal distributor of dangerous drugs that waives deductibles and copayments as follows:

(1) In compliance with a health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board on request.

(2) For professional services rendered to any other person licensed pursuant to this chapter to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board.

(C)(1) Upon the suspension or revocation of a license issued to a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs or the refusal by the board to renew such a license, the distributor shall immediately surrender the license to the board.

(2) The board may place under seal all dangerous drugs that are owned by or in the possession, custody, or control of a terminal distributor at the time the license is suspended or revoked or at the time the board refuses to renew the license. Except as otherwise provided in this division, dangerous drugs so sealed shall not be disposed of until appeal rights under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code have expired or an appeal filed pursuant to that chapter has been determined.

The court involved in an appeal filed pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code may order the board, during the pendency of the appeal, to sell sealed dangerous drugs that are perishable. The proceeds of such a sale shall be deposited with that court.

Sec. 4729.79.  (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, each licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs, other than a veterinarian except as provided in division (C) of this section, who personally furnishes to a patient a controlled substance or other dangerous drug the board includes in the database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code to a patient in this state shall submit to the board the following information:

(1) Prescriber identification;

(2) Patient identification;

(3) Date drug was furnished by the prescriber;

(4) Indication of whether the drug furnished is new or a refill;

(5) Name, strength, and national drug code of drug furnished;

(6) Quantity of drug furnished;

(7) Number of days' supply of drug furnished;

(8) Source of payment for the drug furnished;

(9) Identification of the owner of the drug furnished.

(B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code.

(2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a waiver allowing the prescriber to submit the information in another format.

(3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any time limits specified by the board, except that the board may grant an extension if either of the following occurs:

(a) The prescriber's transmission system suffers a mechanical or electronic failure, or the prescriber cannot meet the deadline for other reasons beyond the prescriber's control.

(b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions.

(C)(1) The information required to be submitted under division (A) of this section may be submitted on behalf of the prescriber by the owner of the drug being personally furnished or by a delegate approved by that owner.

(2) The requirements of this section to submit information to the board do not apply to a prescriber who is a veterinarian.

(D) If the board becomes aware of a prescriber's failure to comply with this section, the board shall notify the government entity responsible for licensing the prescriber.

Sec. 4729.80. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, the board is authorized or required to provide information from the database in accordance with the following:

(1) On receipt of a request from a designated representative of a government entity responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs, the board may provide to the representative information from the database relating to the professional who is the subject of an active investigation being conducted by the government entity.

(2) On receipt of a request from a federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to drugs, the board shall provide to the officer information from the database relating to the person who is the subject of an active investigation of a drug abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, being conducted by the officer's employing government entity.

(3) Pursuant to a subpoena issued by a grand jury, the board shall provide to the grand jury information from the database relating to the person who is the subject of an investigation being conducted by the grand jury.

(4) Pursuant to a subpoena, search warrant, or court order in connection with the investigation or prosecution of a possible or alleged criminal offense, the board shall provide information from the database as necessary to comply with the subpoena, search warrant, or court order.

(5) On receipt of a request from a prescriber or the prescriber's agent registered with delegate approved by the board, the board may provide to the prescriber information from the database relating to a current patient of the prescriber who is either of the following, if the prescriber certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of providing medical treatment to the patient who is the subject of the request;

(a) A current patient of the prescriber;

(b) A potential patient of the prescriber based on a referral of the patient to the prescriber.

(6) On receipt of a request from a pharmacist or the pharmacist's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide to the pharmacist information from the database relating to a current patient of the pharmacist, if the pharmacist certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of the pharmacist's practice of pharmacy involving the patient who is the subject of the request.

(7) On receipt of a request from an individual seeking the individual's own database information in accordance with the procedure established in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may provide to the individual the individual's own database information.

(8) On receipt of a request from the medical director of a managed care organization that has entered into a data security agreement with the board required by section 5111.1710 of the Revised Code, the board may provide to the medical director information from the database relating to a medicaid recipient enrolled in the managed care organization.

(9) On receipt of a request from the director of job and family services, the board may provide to the director information from the database relating to a recipient of a program administered by the department of job and family services.

(10) On receipt of a request from the administrator of workers' compensation, the board may provide to the administrator information from the database relating to a claimant under Chapter 4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.

(11) On receipt of a request from a requestor described in division (A)(1), (2), (5), or (6) of this section who is from or participating with another state's prescription monitoring program, the board may provide to the requestor information from the database, but only if there is a written agreement under which the information is to be used and disseminated according to the laws of this state.

(B) The state board of pharmacy shall maintain a record of each individual or entity that requests information from the database pursuant to this section. In accordance with rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may use the records to document and report statistics and law enforcement outcomes.

The board may provide records of an individual's requests for database information to the following:

(1) A designated representative of a government entity that is responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs who is involved in an active investigation being conducted by the government entity of the individual who submitted the requests for database information;

(2) A federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to drugs and who is involved in an active investigation being conducted by the officer's employing government entity of the individual who submitted the requests for database information.

(C) Information contained in the database and any information obtained from it is not a public record. Information contained in the records of requests for information from the database is not a public record. Information that does not identify a person may be released in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.

(D) A pharmacist or prescriber shall not be held liable in damages to any person in any civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property on the basis that the pharmacist or prescriber did or did not seek or obtain information from the database.

Sec. 4729.86. If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(A)(1) No person identified in divisions (A)(1) to (10) or (B) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code shall disseminate any written or electronic document information the person receives from the drug database or otherwise provide another person access to the information that the person receives from the database, except as follows:

(a) When necessary in the investigation or prosecution of a possible or alleged criminal offense;

(b) When a person provides the information to the prescriber or pharmacist for whom the person is approved by the board to serve as a delegate of the prescriber or pharmacist for purposes of requesting and receiving information from the drug database under division (A)(5) or (6) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code;

(c) When a prescriber or pharmacist provides the information to a person who is approved by the board to serve as such a delegate of the prescriber or pharmacist.

(2) No person shall provide false information to the state board of pharmacy with the intent to obtain or alter information contained in the drug database.

(3) No person shall obtain drug database information by any means except as provided under section 4729.80 or 4729.81 of the Revised Code.

(B) A person shall not use a document information obtained pursuant to division (A) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code as evidence in any civil or administrative proceeding.

(C)(1) The board may restrict a person from obtaining further information from the drug database if any of the following is the case:

(a) The person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of violates division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section;

(b) The person is a requestor identified in division (A)(11) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code and the board determines that the person's actions in another state would have constituted a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section;

(c) The person fails to comply with division (B) of this section, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the failure to comply occurred.

(2) The board shall determine the extent to which the person is restricted from obtaining further information from the database.

Sec. 4730.53. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(B) The medical board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a physician assistant who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code.

(C) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.

Sec. 4731.054. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Chronic pain" has the same meaning as in section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Hospital" means a hospital registered with the department of health under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Owner" means each person included on the list maintained under division (B)(5)(6) of section 4729.552 of the Revised Code.

(5)(a) "Pain management clinic" means a facility to which all both of the following apply:

(i) The primary component of practice is treatment of pain or chronic pain;

(ii) The majority of patients of the prescribers at the facility are provided treatment for pain or chronic pain that includes through the use of controlled substances, tramadol, carisoprodol, or other drugs specified in rules adopted under this section;

(iii)(ii) The facility meets any other identifying criteria established in rules adopted under this section.

(b) "Pain management clinic" does not include any of the following:

(i) A hospital;

(ii) A facility operated by a hospital for the treatment of pain or chronic pain;

(iii) A physician practice owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in part, one or more hospitals;

(iv) A school, college, university, or other educational institution or program to the extent that it provides instruction to individuals preparing to practice as physicians, podiatrists, dentists, nurses, physician assistants, optometrists, or veterinarians or any affiliated facility to the extent that it participates in the provision of that instruction;

(v) A hospice program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code;

(vi) An ambulatory surgical facility licensed under section 3702.30 of the Revised Code;

(vii) An interdisciplinary pain rehabilitation program with three-year accreditation from the commission on accreditation of rehabilitation facilities;

(viii) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;

(ix) A facility conducting only clinical research that may use controlled substances in studies approved by a hospital-based institutional review board or an institutional review board accredited by the association for the accreditation of human research protection programs.

(6) "Physician" means an individual authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.

(7) "Prescriber" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) Each owner shall supervise, control, and direct the activities of each individual, including an employee, volunteer, or individual under contract, who provides treatment of pain or chronic pain at the clinic or is associated with the provision of that treatment. The supervision, control, and direction shall be provided in accordance with rules adopted under this section.

(C) The state medical board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the following:

(1) Standards and procedures for the operation of a pain management clinic;

(2) Standards and procedures to be followed by a physician who provides care at a pain management clinic;

(3) For purposes of division (A)(5)(a)(ii)(i) of this section, the other drugs used to treat pain or chronic pain that identify a facility as a pain management clinic;

(4) For purposes of division (A)(5)(a)(iii)(ii) of this section, the other criteria that identify a facility as a pain management clinic;

(5) For purposes of division (B) of this section, standards and procedures to be followed by an owner in providing supervision, direction, and control of individuals at a pain management clinic.

(D) The board may impose a fine of not more than twenty thousand dollars on a physician who fails to comply with rules adopted under this section. The fine may be in addition to or in lieu of any other action that may be taken under section 4731.22 of the Revised Code. The board shall deposit any amounts received under this division in accordance with section 4731.24 of the Revised Code.

(E)(1) The board may inspect either of the following as the board determines necessary to ensure compliance with this chapter and any rules adopted under it regarding pain management clinics:

(a) A pain management clinic;

(b) A facility or physician practice that the board suspects is operating as a pain management clinic in violation of this chapter.

(2) The board's inspection shall be conducted in accordance with division (F) of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.

(3) Before conducting an on-site inspection, the board shall provide notice to the owner or other person in charge of the facility or physician practice, except that the board is not required to provide the notice if, in the judgment of the board, the notice would jeopardize an investigation being conducted by the board.

Sec. 4731.055. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Physician" means an individual authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery.

(B) The state medical board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a physician regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code.

(C) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.

Sec. 4731.22.  (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, may limit, revoke, or may suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to grant a certificate to a person an individual, refuse to register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate if the individual or certificate holder is found by the board to have committed fraud during the administration of the examination for a certificate to practice or to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by the board.

(B) The board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate for one or more of the following reasons:

(1) Permitting one's name or one's certificate to practice or certificate of registration to be used by a person, group, or corporation when the individual concerned is not actually directing the treatment given;

(2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to the selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other modalities for treatment of disease;

(3) Selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing, or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction of, a violation of any federal or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;

(4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.

For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a professional confidence" does not include providing any information, documents, or reports to a child fatality review board under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code and does not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a limited branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to secure any certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by the board.

As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, or includes representations or implications that in reasonable probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to misunderstand or be deceived.

(6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established;

(7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation or other advantage as personal gain or for any other person, that an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can be permanently cured;

(8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course of practice;

(9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony;

(10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;

(12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;

(14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by the board upon a certificate to practice;

(16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this chapter;

(17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the Revised Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients, or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a specific referral of a patient to utilize a particular service or business;

(18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American medical association, the American osteopathic association, the American podiatric medical association, or any other national professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies of the codes of ethics of the various national professional organizations. The individual whose certificate is being suspended or revoked shall not be found to have violated any provision of a code of ethics of an organization not appropriate to the individual's profession.

For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of ethics of a national professional organization" does not include any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or perceptive skills.

In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual authorized to practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application pursuant to this chapter to submit to a mental examination, physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and a physical examination. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this division, the board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed authority to practice. An individual affected under this division shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's certificate. For the purpose of this division, any individual who applies for or receives a certificate to practice under this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by so doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing by the board, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute a privileged communication.

(20) Except when civil penalties are imposed under section 4731.225 or 4731.281 of the Revised Code, and subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this chapter or any rule promulgated by the board.

This division does not apply to a violation or attempted violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(21) The violation of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code or of any abortion rule adopted by the public health council pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;

(22) Any of the following actions taken by an agency responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;

(23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code or the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant woman with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as to whether those conditions have been satisfied, unless an affirmative defense as specified in division (H)(2) of that section would apply in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of that section;

(24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction, or termination of clinical privileges by the United States department of defense or department of veterans affairs or the termination or suspension of a certificate of registration to prescribe drugs by the drug enforcement administration of the United States department of justice;

(25) Termination or suspension from participation in the medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and human services or other responsible agency for any act or acts that also would constitute a violation of division (B)(2), (3), (6), (8), or (19) of this section;

(26) Impairment of ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that impair ability to practice.

For the purposes of this division, any individual authorized to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state subject to supervision by the board. By filing an application for or holding a certificate to practice under this chapter, an individual shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when ordered to do so by the board in writing, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute privileged communications.

If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized to practice by this chapter or any applicant for certification to practice suffers such impairment, the board may compel the individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct the examination and who is chosen by the board.

Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed certification to practice, to submit to treatment.

Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a certificate suspended under this division, the impaired practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care under the provisions of the practitioner's certificate. The demonstration shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under section 4731.25 of the Revised Code that the individual has successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;

(b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare contract or consent agreement;

(c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by individuals or providers approved by the board for making the assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.

The board may reinstate a certificate suspended under this division after that demonstration and after the individual has entered into a written consent agreement.

When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for at least two years of annual written progress reports made under penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has maintained sobriety.

(27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised Code;

(28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:

(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that individual;

(b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay.

(29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of the Revised Code;

(30) Failure to provide notice to, and receive acknowledgment of the notice from, a patient when required by section 4731.143 of the Revised Code prior to providing nonemergency professional services, or failure to maintain that notice in the patient's file;

(31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician assistant to maintain supervision in accordance with the requirements of Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that chapter;

(32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with whom the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard care arrangement;

(33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult agreement entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.39 of the Revised Code;

(34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (F) of this section, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board in an investigative interview, an investigative office conference, at a deposition, or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;

(35) Failure to supervise an acupuncturist in accordance with Chapter 4762. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of an acupuncturist;

(36) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;

(37) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code;

(38) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 2317.561 of the Revised Code;

(39) Failure to supervise a radiologist assistant in accordance with Chapter 4774. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of radiologist assistants;

(40) Performing or inducing an abortion at an office or facility with knowledge that the office or facility fails to post the notice required under section 3701.791 of the Revised Code;

(41) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code for the operation of or the provision of care at a pain management clinic;

(42) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code for providing supervision, direction, and control of individuals at a pain management clinic;

(43) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 4729.79 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;

(41)(44) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 2919.171 of the Revised Code or failure to submit to the department of health in accordance with a court order a complete report as described in section 2919.171 of the Revised Code;

(45) Practicing at a facility that is subject to licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification unless the person operating the facility has obtained and maintains the license with the classification;

(46) Owning a facility that is subject to licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification unless the facility is licensed with the classification.

(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall be of no force or effect.

A telephone conference call may be utilized for ratification of a consent agreement that revokes or suspends an individual's certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code.

If the board takes disciplinary action against an individual under division (B) of this section for a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the disciplinary action shall consist of a suspension of the individual's certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's certificate to practice. Any consent agreement entered into under this division with an individual that pertains to a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of that section shall provide for a suspension of the individual's certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's certificate to practice.

(D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of this section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act. The board does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court renders a final judgment in the individual's favor and that judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board has jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.

(E) The sealing of conviction records by any court shall have no effect upon a prior board order entered under this section or upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under this section if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing prior to the court's order to seal the records. The board shall not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.

(F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a signed writing any information that the person may have that appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, any person who reports information of that nature or who testifies before the board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable in damages in a civil action as a result of the report or testimony. Each complaint or allegation of a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number and shall be recorded by the board.

(2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president may designate another member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the supervising member. No member of the board who supervises the investigation of a case shall participate in further adjudication of the case.

(3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under this chapter, or in conducting an inspection under division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised Code, the board may question witnesses, conduct interviews, administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, inspect and copy any books, accounts, papers, records, or documents, issue subpoenas, and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and approval of the secretary and supervising member of the board. Before

(a) Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the secretary and supervising member shall determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.

(b) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the board may move for an order compelling the production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.

(c) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee designated by the board. Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual place of residence, usual place of business, or address on file with the board. When the person being served is a person whose practice is authorized by serving a subpoena to an applicant for or the holder of a certificate issued under this chapter, service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, restricted delivery, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept delivery. If the person being served refuses to accept the subpoena or is not located, service may be made to an attorney who notifies the board that the attorney is representing the person.

(d) A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.

(4) All hearings and, investigations, and inspections of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code.

(5) Information A report required to be submitted to the board under this chapter, a complaint, or information received by the board pursuant to an investigation is or pursuant to an inspection under division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised Code is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action.

The board shall conduct all investigations or inspections and proceedings in a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make public the names or any other identifying information about patients or complainants unless proper consent is given or, in the case of a patient, a waiver of the patient privilege exists under division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, except that consent or a waiver of that nature is not required if the board possesses reliable and substantial evidence that no bona fide physician-patient relationship exists.

The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation or inspection, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state medical board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.

(6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding three months. The report shall contain the following information for each case with which the board has completed its activities:

(a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged violation;

(b) The type of certificate to practice, if any, held by the individual against whom the complaint is directed;

(c) A description of the allegations contained in the complaint;

(d) The disposition of the case.

The report shall state how many cases are still pending and shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each person involved in each case. The report shall be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(G) If the secretary and supervising member determine both of the following, they may recommend that the board suspend an individual's certificate to practice without a prior hearing:

(1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an individual has violated division (B) of this section;

(2) That the individual's continued practice presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.

Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a certificate without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.

The board shall issue a written order of suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.

Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.

(H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11), or (13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and supporting court documents, the board shall reinstate the individual's certificate to practice. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual committed the act in question. Notice of an opportunity for a hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held under this division, that the individual committed the act or if no hearing is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (B) of this section.

(I) The certificate to practice issued to an individual under this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are automatically suspended as of the date of the individual's second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, or the date the individual pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any of the following criminal offenses in this state or a substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary. Continued practice after suspension shall be considered practicing without a certificate.

The board shall notify the individual subject to the suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate is automatically suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board shall do whichever of the following is applicable:

(1) If the automatic suspension under this division is for a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the board shall enter an order suspending the individual's certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, imposing a more serious sanction involving the individual's certificate to practice.

(2) In all circumstances in which division (I)(1) of this section does not apply, enter a final order permanently revoking the individual's certificate to practice.

(J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and if the individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) or (B) of this section.

(K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the individual's certificate to practice may be reinstated. The board shall adopt rules governing conditions to be imposed for reinstatement. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended pursuant to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.

(L) When the board refuses to grant a certificate to an applicant, revokes an individual's certificate to practice, refuses to register an applicant, or refuses to reinstate an individual's certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold a certificate to practice and the board shall not accept an application for reinstatement of the certificate or for issuance of a new certificate.

(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(1) The surrender of a certificate issued under this chapter shall not be effective unless or until accepted by the board. A telephone conference call may be utilized for acceptance of the surrender of an individual's certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code. Reinstatement of a certificate surrendered to the board requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.

(2) An application for a certificate made under the provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without approval of the board.

(3) Failure by an individual to renew a certificate of registration in accordance with this chapter shall not remove or limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action under this section against the individual.

(4) At the request of the board, a certificate holder shall immediately surrender to the board a certificate that the board has suspended, revoked, or permanently revoked.

(N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28) of this section against any person who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:

(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.

(2) For professional services rendered to any other person authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.

(O) Under the board's investigative duties described in this section and subject to division (F) of this section, the board shall develop and implement a quality intervention program designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and communication skills of individuals authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing and implementing the quality intervention program, the board may do all of the following:

(1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board an educational and assessment program pursuant to an investigation the board conducts under this section;

(2) Select providers of educational and assessment services, including a quality intervention program panel of case reviewers;

(3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service providers and approve individual educational programs recommended by those providers. The board shall monitor the progress of each individual undertaking a recommended individual educational program.

(4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an individual educational program and require further monitoring of the individual who completed the program or other action that the board determines to be appropriate;

(5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention program.

An individual who participates in an individual educational program pursuant to this division shall pay the financial obligations arising from that educational program.

Sec. 4731.39.  The secretary of the state medical board shall enforce the laws relating to the practice of medicine and surgery this chapter and the rules adopted under it. If he the secretary has knowledge or notice of a violation, he the secretary shall investigate the matter, and, upon probable cause appearing, file a complaint and prosecute the offender. When requested by the secretary, the prosecuting attorney of the proper county shall take charge of and conduct such prosecution.

SECTION 2.  That existing sections 3719.41, 4715.033, 4715.034, 4715.30, 4715.301, 4715.302, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4729.162, 4729.291, 4729.51, 4729.552, 4729.57, 4729.79, 4729.80, 4729.86, 4730.53, 4731.054, 4731.055, 4731.22, and 4731.39 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

SECTION 3.  Section 4729.51 of the Revised Code is presented in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both Am. H.B. 9 and Am. Sub. H.B. 93 of the 129th General Assembly. The General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds that the composite is the resulting version of the section in effect prior to the effective date of the section as presented in this act.

SECTION 4.  Section 4731.22 of the Revised Code is presented in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both H.B. 78 and Am. Sub. H.B. 93 of the 129th General Assembly. The General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds that the composite is the resulting version of the section in effect prior to the effective date of the section as presented in this act.

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